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Trials stage for experimentation of adverse drug reaction in large scale population is ?: (A) I, (B) II, (C) III, (D) IV | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., IV o Long-term adverse effects on large number of patients -f Phase IV clinical trial. | |
Blue vire technology is used in: (A) VorTEX, (B) VorTEX Blue, (C) D3XF, (D) Twisted Blue | Answer is B. VorTEX uses M wire NiTi | |
Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of hyperkalemia?: (A) Salbutamol, (B) Calcium gluconate, (C) Sodium bicarbonate, (D) Magnesium sulphate | Answer is D. drugs used for hyperkalemia- IV calcium gluconate, calcium chloride, insulin, sodium bicarbonate, albuterol, thiazide diuretics, loop diuretics New drug patiromer was recently approved for the treatment of hyperkalemia ESSENTIALS of medical PHARMACOLOGY SIXTH EDITION -KD TRIPATHI Page:323 | |
Cataract is cases of diabetes mellitus is due to accumulation of ?: (A) Glycated crytallins, (B) Calcified crystallins, (C) Glycated fibrillins, (D) Calcified fibrillins | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glycated crytallins Diabetic cataract Senile cataract tends to develop at an earlier age and more rapidly than usual in diabetic subjects. The lenses of an adult diabetic are said to be in the same condition as a non-diabetic who is 15 years older. In diabetic adults, coin- pared to non-d... | |
All the drugs have anti-androgenic effects except: (A) Progesterone, (B) Dutasteride, (C) Flutamide, (D) Spironolactone | Answer is A. Progesterone had mild androgenic effects except for 3rd gen progesterones which are devoid of androgenic effects Flutamide,nilutamide and bicalutamide are androgen antagonists. Finasteride and dutasteride 5 alpha reductase inhibiters Spironolatone is androgen receptor antagonist Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed Pg 59... | |
Whooping cough is caused by?: (A) C.dipthera, (B) B.pertussis, (C) M.catarrhalis, (D) S.pneumonea | Answer is B. Ans. (b) B.pertisusRef: Harrison's 18th ed ch-148 | |
UPSIT is used for testing:: (A) Olfaction, (B) Hearing, (C) Vision, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. The University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test (UPSIT): A far superior test to other assessments is the University of Pennsylvania Smell Identification Test (UPSIT). It is highly recommended for the evaluation of a patient with smell disorder. This test utilizes 40 forced-choice items that featur... | |
A patient at 28 weeks pregnancy presents with low grade fever, malaise, vomiting since 1 week. On examination she is icteric, Her Hb is 10 gm%, bilirubin is 5 mg/dL, SGOT and SGPT at 630 and 600 with normal platelet count. Most probable cause of her jaundice is: (A) IHCP, (B) Viral hepatitis, (C) Hyperemesis gravidarum... | Answer is B. Patient here has presented with prodrome of viral hepatitis. Investigations to diiferentiate various causes of jaundice in pregnancy are IHCP AFLP HELLP Viral hepatiis Bilirubin (mg/dL) 1-5, direct 2-10, direct <2 >5 SGOT/ SGPT <200 <1000 <500 500-3000 ALP Raised Normal Normal Normal/raised Platelets Norma... | |
An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is:: (A) Oral griseofulvin therapy, (B) Topical griseofulvin therapy, (C) Shaving of the scalp, (D) Selenium sulphide shampoo | Answer is A. A i.e. Oral griseofulvin Tenia capitis is most commonly caused by Microsporum canis > Trichophyton tonsurans; and never caused by Epidermophyton as it does not involve hair. It presents with localized non-cicatrial (mostly) alopecia, itching, scaling with or without boggy swelling of scalp & easily pluckab... | |
Causes of diffuse hyperpigmentation include all of the following except?: (A) Busulfan administration, (B) Nelsons syndrome, (C) Addison disease, (D) Hermansky-Pudlak Syndrome | Answer is D. Busulfan administration Busulfan, cyclophosphamide, 5-fluorouracil, and inorganic arsenic induce pigment production and cause diffuse hyperpigmentation Nelson's syndrome Increased ACTH (Which has paial MSH activity) due to bilateral adrenalectomy Addison's disease Increased ACTH (Which has paial MSH activi... | |
HLA associated with Dermatitis herpetiform is:: (A) HLA A5, (B) HLA B27, (C) HLA B8, (D) HLA A28 | Answer is C. Ans. C. HLA B8a. Dermatitis herpetiformis is a disease characterized by erythematous vesicular or bullous lesions and severe itching. The disease most commonly occurs between 20-40 years of age and men are more commonly affected. IgA is deposited in the reticular dermis of the uninvolved skin suggesting an... | |
Which virus can cause hemorrhage -: (A) Parvovirus, (B) Adenovirus, (C) HPV, (D) Coronavirus | Answer is B. Adenovirus causes Acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children and generalized exanthem. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:482 | |
Residual volume of lung in an average adult male is: (Repeat): (A) 3.0 L, (B) 0.9 L, (C) 1.2 L, (D) 1.9 L | Answer is C. AnsL C (1.2 L) Ref: Davidson, 21st ed, pg 651Explanation:Refer Medicine 2013 question explanation.TLC: Volume of air in the lungs following maximal inspiration ( N= 5-6L)FVC: Maximum amount of air exhaled following maxima] inspiration ( N= 4.8L)VT: Volume of air entering and leaving lungs during normal res... | |
Scrofula is a tuberculosis of:: (A) Skin, (B) Lymphnode, (C) Spine, (D) Lungs | Answer is B. None | |
The commonest teeth involved in transposition are:: (A) Maxillary central incisor and lateral incisor, (B) Maxillary canine and first premolar, (C) Maxillary 1st premolar and 2nd premolar, (D) Maxillary canine and lateral incisor | Answer is B. None | |
A 30 year old person met with a roadside accident. On admision his pulse rate was 120/minute, BP was 100/60 mmHg. Ultrasonagraphy examination revealed laceration of the lower pole of spleen and haemoperitoneum. He was resuscitated with blood and fluid. Two hours later, his pulse was 84/minute and BP was 120/70 mm Hg. T... | Answer is D. None | |
Most potent analgesic agent among following: (A) Nitrous oxide, (B) Nitric oxide, (C) CO2, (D) Oxygen | Answer is A. Ans. a. Nitrous oxide above options, most potent analgesic agent is Nitrous oxide. "Nitrous oxide- 50:50 nitrous oxide and oxygen has revolutionized it as analgesic agent; it has been used as an analgesic agent in obstetric surgeries; dental procedures; in acute trauma; burn dressings and cardiac pain as w... | |
Stye is other name of -: (A) Chalazion, (B) Hordeolum internum, (C) Hordeolum externum, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hordeolum externum o Acute infection of Zeis (Moll) glando Acute infection of tarsal gland (Meibomian gland)o Chronic infection of tarsal gland (Meibonium gland)-Stye (Hardoleum externum)- Hardoleum internum -Chalazion | |
All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia, EXCEPT: (A) Late onset, (B) Married, (C) Negative symptoms, (D) Acute onset | Answer is C. (C) Negative symptoms PROGNOSTIC FEATURES OF SCHIZOPHRENIA GoodBadHistoryPrevious psychiatric HistoryNoPresentFamily HistoryNegativePositiveFamily History +ve ofMood disordersSchizophreniaPreuproid adjustmentGoodPoorWork HistorySteadyUnsteady / UnemployedMartial statusMarriedUnmarriedSocial SupportGood (Hi... | |
The carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by all, EXCEPT:: (A) Hypothyroidism, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Pregnancy, (D) Acromegaly | Answer is B. Many systemic conditions are strongly associated with carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). These conditions may directly or indirectly affect microcirculation, pressure thresholds for nerve conduction, nerve cell body synthesis, and axon transpo or interstitial fluid pressures. Peurbations in the endocrine system... | |
Tentative cut is a feature of?: (A) Fall from the height, (B) Homicidal assault, (C) Accidental injury, (D) Suicidal attempt | Answer is D. D i.e. Suicidal attempt | |
A patient with sore throat has a positive Paul Bunnel test. The causative organism is :: (A) EBV, (B) Herpes virus, (C) Adeno virus, (D) Cytomegalovirus | Answer is A. Paul Bunell test is the standard diagnostic procedure of infectious mononucleosis which is caused by EBV.
Paul Bunell test detects heterophile antibody.
Paul Bunell test
In this test inactivated serum (56 0 C for 30 minutes) in doubling dilutions is mixed with equal volumes of a 1% suspension of sheep er... | |
Which type of haemorrhoids is treated by the injection of sclerosing agent?: (A) External haemorrhoids, (B) Internal haemorrhoids, (C) Prolapsed haemorrhoids, (D) Thrombosed haemorrhoids | Answer is B. Injection sclerotherapy is the treatment of choice of internal hemorrhoids. It helps in reducing the size of the hemorrhoids and stop it from bleeding. A solution containing either quinine and urea or phenol is used as the sclerosing agent. Hemorrhoids are swollen veins around the anus and in the rectum th... | |
Ureteric injury is most commonly associated with which of the following: (A) Anterior colporraphy, (B) Vaginal hysterectomy, (C) Weheim hysterectomy, (D) Abdominal hysterectomy | Answer is C. Ureteric injury has an incidence of 0.1-1.5% of all pelvic surgery The highest risk is for Weheim Radical hysterectomy since this surgery involves stripping of the ureteric fascia and that can compromise the ureteric blood supply and hence a devascularisation injury. | |
Non-gonococcal urethritis is caused by: September 2012: (A) Chlamydia, (B) LGV, (C) Syphilis, (D) Gardnella vaginalis | Answer is A. Ans. A i.e. Chlamydia | |
X-ray proximal femur in a patient with pain hip. The deformity shown is:: (A) Blade of grass deformity, (B) Shepherd crook deformity, (C) Chicken wire appearance, (D) Corduroy appearance | Answer is B. "Fibrous dysplasia of proximal femur has shepherd crook deformity". | |
Which is the initial Imaging modality of choice for Insulinoma?: (A) USG, (B) CT abdomen, (C) Somatostatin Receptor Scan (SRS), (D) E.U.S | Answer is D. For PETs in the pancreas, EUS is highly sensitive, localizing 77-100% of insulinomas, which occur almost exclusively within the pancreas. Tests for location of pNET: Somatostatin Receptor Scintigraphy is the initial imaging modality but is less available. Helical CT scan has a sensitivity of 82-94%. Gadoli... | |
Prostate is supplied by:: (A) Sympathetic + Parasympathetic, (B) Parasympathetic, (C) Sympathetic, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans: A (Sympathetic + Parasympathetic) Ref: Gray's Anatomy, 40th edition, pg.1245Explanation:The superior hypogastric plexus conveys the sympathetic nerves from the pre-ganglionic fibres are derived from LI and L2The parasympathetic fires are derived from the pelvic splanchnic nerves which convey pregangli... | |
Consider the following statements about Jacuzzi syndrome and mark the true statement .: (A) It is caused by Pneumococcus ., (B) It is also known as hot tub folliculitis ., (C) It is progressive illness ., (D) It is always a painless condition . | Answer is B. Jacuzzi syndrome :- It is caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa This condition arises due to inflammation of hair follicles (haiub folliculitis). It is usually self limiting condition . It can be extremely painful or itchy condition . | |
Resistance to ciprofloxacin is due to:: (A) Transduction, (B) Transformation, (C) Conjugation, (D) Mutation | Answer is D. Ref: Goodman & Gillman's 13th ed. P 1016* Ciprofloxacin is one of the fluoroquinolones along with norfloxacin, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, spartloxacin, etc.* MOA of quinolones: The quinolone antibiotics target bacterial DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV.* The quinolones inhibit gyrase-mediated DNA supercoiling... | |
Which of the following enzyme does not catalyse the irreversible step in glycolysis: (A) Hexokinase, (B) Phosphoglycero kinase, (C) Pyruvate kinase, (D) Phosphofructokinase | Answer is B. Glycolysis Site of occurrence Cytosol Aerobic glycolysis Glucose - Pyruvate ; 8 ATP Anaerobic glycolysis Glucose - Lactate ; 2 ATPReaction occurring in aerobic conditions only Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate - 1,3- bisphosphoglycerate Inhibitors Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphateIodo acetate 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate Ars... | |
All are affected in Graft-Versus host reaction :: (A) Skin, (B) >G.I.T, (C) >Liver, (D) >Lung | Answer is D. Lung Graft versus host disease Graft versus host disease occurs in any situation in which immunologically competent cells or their precursors are transplanted into immunologically crippled patients and the transferred cells recognize alloantigens in the host. Graft versus host disease occurs most commonly ... | |
A dens in dente is usually caused by:: (A) An abnormal proliferation of pulp tissue, (B) Denticle formation within the pulp tissue, (C) A deep invagination of the enamel organ during formation, (D) A supernumerary tooth bud enclaved within a normal tooth. | Answer is C. None | |
A 21 year old lady with a history of hypersensitivity to neostigmine is posted for an elective caesarean section under general anesthesia. The best muscle relaxant of choice in this patient should be:: (A) Pancuronium, (B) Atracurium, (C) Rocuronium, (D) Vecuronium | Answer is B. B i.e. Atracurium You might be thinking that this Q has never been asked, but think a while and try to understand that around which concept the Q is based. In other words, they are trying to ask that which muscle relaxant will not require reversal? I think now you need no explanation - In pancuronium rever... | |
In a perfect smile, the ratio of width to height of maxillary incisor is:: (A) 8:10, (B) 6:08, (C) 10:14, (D) 20:25 | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the Hepatitis B Virus serological marker indicates the first evidence of Hepatitis B infection?: (A) Anti-HBs, (B) Anti-HBc, (C) HBeAg, (D) HBsAg | Answer is D. None | |
Adenoidectomy is contraindicated in: (A) SOM, (B) CSOM, (C) Bleeding disorder, (D) None | Answer is C. Adenoidectomy contraindicated in 1. Bleeding disorder 2. Acute infection of upper respiratory tract 3. Cleft palate or submucous palate Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition; Pg no: 431 | |
Diagnosis in a ten year old boy with recurrent epistaxis and a unilateral nasal mass is: (A) Antrochoanal polyp, (B) Hemangioma, (C) Angiofibroma, (D) Rhinolith | Answer is C. Nasopharyngeal fibroma/Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma is a major cause for recurrent epistaxis in adolescent males. It is testosterone dependent. Benign tumour but locally invasive Ref - PL DHINGRA diseases of ear nose and throat, 6th edition | |
Watson-Jones approach is done for?: (A) Neglected club foot, (B) Muscle paralysis, (C) Valgus deformity, (D) Hip replacement | Answer is D. (d) Hip replacement- Watson-Jones operation is anterolateral approach to the hip joint.There are four commonly used approaches to the hip joint:- Anterior or Smith-Peterson- commonly used to access the hip in cases of suspected septic arthritis - Anterolateral or Watson-Jones- is used for hemi or total hip... | |
A bullet fired form a gun is not released. It is ejected out with the subsequent shot. It is known as -: (A) Dum dum bullet, (B) Rocketing bullet, (C) Ricochet bullet, (D) Tandem bullet | Answer is D. If during firing, the bullet remains in the barrel; during subsequent firing two bullets, one behind the other are projected out → called as Tandem bullet. | |
To notify a slide as AFB negative minimum how many fields should be checked? ?: (A) 20, (B) 100, (C) 50, (D) 200 | Answer is B. Ans. is `b' i.e., 100 | |
N-myc gene amplification is seen in which of the following tumors?: (A) Burkitt's lymphoma, (B) Small cell lung carcinoma, (C) Neuroblastoma, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. N-myc amplification seen in neuroblastoma.
C-myc amplification - Burkitt's lymphoma
L-myc amplification - lung carcinoma | |
Minimum angle of resolution when visual acuity is 6/6: (A) 1 min of arc, (B) 5 min of arc, (C) 10 min of arc, (D) 15 min of arc | Answer is A. Answer-A. 1 min of arcVisual acuity is the first test performed after taking history.Measurement of the central visual acuity is essentially an assessment of function of the fovea centralis.An object must be presented so that each poion of it is separated by a difinite interval, known as minimum angle of r... | |
Pigmented "muddy brown" granular cast is characteristic of: (A) Prerenal ARF, (B) Ischemic or nephrotoxic ATN, (C) Postrenal ARF, (D) Chronic renal failure | Answer is B. AKI from ATN due to ischemic injury, sepsis, or ceain nephrotoxins has characteristic urine sediment findings: pigmented "muddy brown" granular casts and tubular epithelial cell casts. These findings may be absent in more than 20% of cases Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 1805 | |
A 35-year-old hypertension patient. CXR shows?: (A) Left ventricular hypertrophy, (B) Pulmonary artery hypertension, (C) Coarctation of aorta, (D) Cor pulmonale | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Coarctation of aorta. | |
7Which is the most prominent spinous process?: (A) T1, (B) C7, (C) C6, (D) L5 | Answer is B. C7 is most prominent spinous process seen at the neck region just above T 1 veebrae BD CHAURASIA HUMAN ANATOMY Vol 3 | |
Phase 4 clinical trial is carried out:: (A) Before the marketing approval of a drug, (B) After a drug is marketed, (C) For drugs used in rare diseases, (D) For drugs used in pediatric patients | Answer is B. None | |
If a fracture, gives the pattern of the striking surface of the weapon it is called: (A) Comminuted fracture, (B) Ring fracture, (C) Pond fracture, (D) Signature fracture | Answer is D. Signature fracture This is a depressed comminuted fracture produced by an object with a small striking surface and will give the pattern of the striking surface of the weapon which caused it like a hammer, butt of a rifle, etc. The weapon which caused the injury can be identified. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AN... | |
Which of the following is not used in diagnosis of insulinoma -: (A) 72 hours fasting blood glucose levels, (B) C peptide levels, (C) Insulin/glucose ratio, (D) D-xylose test | Answer is D. None | |
Crude birth rate is a simplest measure of fertility because it includes: (A) Mid year population, (B) Total population, (C) Live births only, (D) Pre-term births | Answer is A. Crude birth rate : Number of live births in a year per 1000 mid-year population.
CBR is simplest indicator of fertility : Total mid-year population is not exposed to child bearing thus it doesnot give true idea of fertility of a population. | |
which layer of cornea helps in maintaining hydration OF stroma of cornea: (A) Descement membrane, (B) Endothelium, (C) Epithelium, (D) stroma | Answer is B. REF : AK KHURANA 7TH ED | |
Palpable purpura is caused by: (A) HSP, (B) PAN, (C) Microscopic polyangitis, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. palpable purpura is due to deposition of immune complexes at the site, seen in HSP,Ahritis, gut vasculitis,glomerulonephritis, bacterial endocarditis, gonococcaemia,meningococcaemia and rocky mountain spotted fever. Page no.309. Reference IADVL's concise textbook of dermatology | |
Amount of calories and protein given to a pregnant women under ICDS is: (A) 500kcals and 35g protein, (B) 200kcal and 10g protein, (C) 500kcal and 10g protein, (D) 350kcal and 25g protein | Answer is A. None | |
Tricyclic antidepressant are contraindicated in:: (A) Glaucoma, (B) Brain tumor, (C) Bronchial asthma, (D) Hypeension | Answer is A. Due to anticholinergic action, TCAs should be avoided in glaucoma These agents block muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, resulting in anticholinergic effects (e.g., dry mouth, blurred vision, urine retention, constipation); they are contraindicated in patients with glaucoma. | |
With DMPA, the next injection may be taken latest by:: (A) 12 weeks, (B) 13 weeks, (C) 15 weeks, (D) 17 weeks | Answer is D. DMPA is effective for 13 weeks. It has grace period of 4 weeks, which means that this woman can get her next injection before completed 17 weeks. If she comes later than 17 weeks, then she will be given injection but will have to use backup for next 7 days, as injections would take time to become effective... | |
Regarding furosemide true statement is:: (A) Acute pulmonary edema is an indication, (B) Acts on PCT, (C) Mild diuresis, (D) Given only by parenteral route | Answer is A. Ans. (A) Acute pulmonary edema is an indication(Ref: Katzung 10/e p250)Furosemide possesses vasodilatory action which is responsible for quick relief in LVF and pulmonary edema (used i.v.). It can be used orally as well as parenterally. | |
During surgery for aortic arch aneurysm under deep hypothermic circulatory arrest which of the following anaesthetic agent administered prior to circulatory arrest that also provides cerebral protection?: (A) Etomidate, (B) Thiopental Sodium, (C) Propofal, (D) Ketamine | Answer is B. (B) Thiopental Sodium # Uses of Thiopentone Sodium:> Induction of anaesthesia;> Maintenance of anaesthesia for short procedures;> Basal narcosis by rectal administration;> Treatment of status epilepticus;> Reduction of intracranial pressure;> Fordiagnostic operative neurological procedures. | |
Neonatal fat necrosis resembles which of the following – a) Post steroidal panniculitisb) Erythema induratumc) Lipodermatosclerosisd) Lupus panniculitis: (A) abc, (B) ad, (C) acd, (D) bde | Answer is C. I think there is printing mistake in this question. There should be except in this question. In that case answer will be erythema induratum.
Neonatal fat necrosis, post-steroidal panniculitis, Lipodermatosclerosis and lupus panniculitis belong to same group, i.e. Mostly lobular panniculitis without vasculi... | |
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding PROPOFOL ?: (A) It is used in day care anesthesia, (B) It is contraindicated in porphyria, (C) Commercial preparation contains egg extract, (D) It does not cause airway irritation | Answer is B. Ketamine is safe in porphyria. | |
First clinical feature of cerebello-pontine angle tumor is ?: (A) Reduced lacrimation, (B) Loss of corneal reflex, (C) Hoarseness of voice, (D) Exaggerated tendon reflexes | Answer is B. Answer- B. Loss of corneal reflexAbsent corneal reflex is the earliest sign of cerebellopontine (CP) angle tumors like acoustic neuroma. | |
A 5-year-old boy comes with overnight petechial spots 2 weeks back he had a history of abdominal pain and no hepatosplenomegaly. Diagnosis is –: (A) Aute lymphatic leukemia, (B) Aplastic anemia, (C) Idiopathic thrombocytopenis purpura, (D) Acute viral infection | Answer is C. Petechial spots without hepatosplenomegaly in a 5-year-old boy suggest the diagnosis of ITP.
About other options
Acute leukaemia
Acute leukaemia will give features of involvement of all the three lineages i.e.
anaemia (erythrocyte involvement)
fever (due to neutrophil involvement)
bleeding (due to platele... | |
Bevacizumab is used for treatment of carcinoma of:: (A) Breast, (B) Stomach, (C) lung, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. The use of bevacizumab (a monoclonal antibody to VEGF) was recently approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for use in metastatic breast cancer in combination with paclitaxel chemotherapy. This approval was based on results from a phase III trial by the Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group. T... | |
Zero order kinetics is shown by which drug -: (A) Digoxin, (B) Theophylline, (C) Phenobarbitane, (D) Etomidate | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Theophylline 1 o Drugs showing zero/pseudo-zero order kinetics :# Phenytoin# Tolbutamide# Theophylline# Warfarin# Alcohol# Salicylates (Aspirin) | |
Homer's syndrome consists of-: (A) miosis and endopthalmos, (B) miosis and exopthalmos, (C) miosis and proptosis, (D) miosis and ptosis | Answer is D. D i.e. Miosis and ptosis Homer's syndrome presents with - ENopthalmos Q, Ptosis Q, Anhidrosis, Loss of ciliospinal reflexes Q, MiosisQ (Mnemonic - "NO-PALM") Way of remembering - all things are decreased whether it be the size of pupil (miosis), or proptosis of eye (enopthalmos), or palpebral size (ptosis)... | |
When is this gross motor milestone attained by a child?: (A) 6 months, (B) 12 months, (C) 15 months, (D) 24 months | Answer is C. The given picture shows a child creeping upstairs, that comes at around 15 months age; Another impoant milestone that appears at around 15 months age is Jargon speech | |
Which one of the following drugs is not a uterine relaxant?: (A) Isoxsuprine, (B) Dopamine, (C) Salbutamol, (D) Terbutaline | Answer is B. Isoxsuprine, magnesium, ritodrine, salbutamol, and terbutaline to some extent, atosiban, calcium channel blockers could act as uterine relaxants or tocolytics Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | |
An example of a preventive antioxidant is:: (A) Catalase, (B) Tocopherol, (C) Superoxide dismutase, (D) Urate | Answer is A. Antioxidants fall into two classes:
Preventive antioxidants, which reduce the rate of chain initiation. ex: Catalase and other peroxidases such as glutathione peroxidase.
Chain-breaking antioxidants, which interfere with chain propagation. ex: Superoxide Dismutase, Uric Acid, Vitamin E (Most powerful).
... | |
Daily loss of Iron per day in a healthy adult male is: (A) 0.06 mg, (B) 0.6 mg, (C) 60 mg, (D) 600 mg | Answer is B. None | |
Characteristic of exudative fluid is -: (A) Low protein content, (B) Specific gravity < 1.012, (C) Normal vascular permeability, (D) Cellular debris | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cellular debris Types of edema fluidIn edema, the fluid accumulated in interstitial fluid may be either a transudate or an exudate. Exudate is an inflammatory fluid that contains high protein content, cellular debris, and specific gravity >1.020. It occurs due to increased vascular permea... | |
A 30 yrs old gentleman after sustaining road traffic accident present in emergency with BP 100/60 mmHg, Pulse 120 min and C.T. shows splenic laceration at inferior border. after 2 units of blood transfusion, patients conditions are - BP 120/70 mmHg and pulse 84/min; the next line of management is -: (A) Laparotomy, (B)... | Answer is C. None | |
Largest turbinate is: (A) Superior, (B) Inferior, (C) Middle, (D) All are of the same size | Answer is B. Conchae or turbinates are the curved bony projections directed downwards and medially.Below and lateral to each concha is the corresponding meatus.From above downwards the conchae are superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae. Sometimes a 4th concha, the concha suprema is also present. Superior and midd... | |
The following statments are true for negri bodies except -: (A) They are pathognomic of rabies, (B) They are found in the brain, (C) They are cytoplasmic inclusion bodies, (D) They do not contain rabies virus antigen | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., They do not contain rabies virus antigen | |
Complications of tuberular meningitis include all except-: (A) Hydrocephalus, (B) Cortical venous thrombosis, (C) Cerebral Artery Thrombosis, (D) Cranial Nerve Palsy | Answer is B. None | |
HIV transmission to the newborn is most commonly and effectively by: (A) LSCS, (B) Vaginal delivery, (C) Perinatal, (D) Breast feeding | Answer is B. Ans. b (Vaginal delivery). (Ref. Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th/pg.38, 1082)MATERN AL-FETAL/INFANT TRANSMISSION# The predominant cause of HIV infection in children is transmission of the virus from the mother to the newborn during the perinatal period.# The majority of cases of mother-to-... | |
A patient presents with headache for one hour on awakening, associated with nasal stuffiness and reddening of eye. Suggestive of: (A) Cluster headache, (B) Tension headache, (C) Migraine, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. (A) Cluster headache # Cluster headache (CH) is an idiopathic syndrome consisting of recurrent brief attacks of sudden, severe, unilateral periorbita pain> Attacks of CH are typically short in duration (5-180 min) and occur with a frequency from once every other day to 8 times a day, particularly during sl... | |
Actinomycosis is a: (A) Aerobic bacterial disease, (B) Anaerobic bacterial disease, (C) Aerobic fungal disease, (D) Anaerobic fungal disease | Answer is B. None | |
Hematuria during labour in previous is sign of -: (A) Impending rupture of scar, (B) Urethral trauma, (C) Prolong labour, (D) Sepsis | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. Impending rupture of scar Now friends - here in the question it is asked specifically that hematuria is seen in a patient with previous LSCS during labour - which indicates impending rupture of scar? "There are no reliable signs of impending uterine rupture that occurs before labor, although... | |
All the following statements are true for influenza viruses except:: (A) Helical symmetry, (B) Single stranded non segmented RNA, (C) Haemagglutinin and neuraminidase spikes present, (D) RNA dependent RNA polymerase | Answer is B. Influenza viruses show following features: 1. Influenza viruses are spherical or filamentous,posses helical symmetry, enveloped paicles 80-120 nm in diameter. 2. Influenza virus is composed of a characteristic segmented single-stranded RNA genome, a nucleocapsid, and an envelope. 3. The viral genome is a s... | |
Macrocytic anaemia in children is produced by all except -: (A) Thiamine deficiency, (B) Orotic acideueia, (C) Copper deficiency, (D) Liver disease | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Copper deficiency Morphology of RBC o Normal human red blood cells are biconcave discs (diskocytes) with a.mean diameter of about 7.5 m. o The hemoglobin of red cells is located peripherally, leaving an area of central pallor equal to approximately 30-35% of diameter of the cells. o Cells... | |
Lateral Medullary Syndrome involves all of the following cranial nerves, Except:: (A) Vth CN, (B) IXth CN, (C) Xth CN, (D) XII CN | Answer is D. Answer is D (XII CN): Cranial Nerve XII is involved in the Medial medullary syndrome and not in Lateral medullary syndrome. Lateral Medullary Syndrome involves the spinal nucleus of the trigeminal nerve and its tract (CN V); Vestibular nuclei (CN VIII); Nucleus Ambiguous (IX, X, XI) and fibers of the crani... | |
Bivalent meningococcal vaccine is ?: (A) A Y, (B) A C, (C) C y, (D) A W-I35 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., A C Two type of meningococcal vaccine develop Unconjugated polysaccharide vaccine. Conjugated group C vaccine. Polysaccharide vaccines Internationally marketed meningococcal polysaccharide vaccines are o Bivalent (A and C), Trivalent (A, C and W-135) Tetravalent (A, C, Y and W-135). The v... | |
All of the following organization have their head quarter at Geneva except: (A) UNICEF, (B) WHO, (C) ILO, (D) None | Answer is A. None | |
A patient has extremely enlarged palatine tonsils. You suggest surgical removal of the tonsils, but you do explain that there is a small risk of the surgery, which may result in which of the following?: (A) Loss in the ability to taste salt in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, (B) Loss in the ability to protrude h... | Answer is D. The palatine tonsil sits in the lateral wall of the oropharynx in the palatine arch posterior to the palatoglossus muscle and anterior to the palatopharyngeus muscle. In the bed of the palatine tonsil runs the glossopharyngeal CN (IX) that carries afferent information back to the brain regarding both gener... | |
A per NFHS III data, the wealthiest state is:: (A) Delhi, (B) Haryana, (C) Punjab, (D) Goa | Answer is A. Delhi has the highest percentage of population (70%) in the highest quintile of wealth index, followed by Goa (55%). States with low wealth index include Chhattisgarh and Orissa. Ref: Park 21st edition page: 639. | |
Calcification is best detected by -: (A) X-ray, (B) USG, (C) CT scan, (D) MRI | Answer is C. Calcification is best detected by CT scan. | |
A 9 year old girl was admited for dialysis. On laboratory examination her potassium levels were 7.8 mEq/L. Which of the following would quickly lower her increased potassium levels -: (A) IV calcium gluconate, (B) IV Glucose and insulin, (C) Oral kayexalate in sorbitol, (D) IV NaHCO3 | Answer is B. None | |
A 3-day-old male has a noticeably small mandible. A CT scan and physical examinations reveal hypoplasia of the mandible, cleft palate, and defects of the eye and ear. Abnormal development of which of the following pharyngeal arches will most likely produce such symptoms?: (A) First arch, (B) Second arch, (C) Third arch... | Answer is A. The listed symptoms are typical of first arch syndrome because the first arch normally gives rise to muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of the digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini, malleus, and incus. Abnormal development of the second arch would affect the muscles of facial expre... | |
Both antibody dependent and independent complement pathway converge on which complement component?: (A) C3, (B) C1q, (C) C8, (D) C1r | Answer is A. None | |
A 70-year male utters same answers to all questions. He is suffering from: (A) Mania, (B) Schizophrenia, (C) Organic brain disease, (D) Convulsions | Answer is C. Same answers to all questions' can be seen in schizophrenia, mania and organic brain disease also but the age factor in this question is pointing more towards organic brain disease like dementia. Hence option C is more appropriate answer among the given options. Reference: The peak ages of onset of schizop... | |
Onset of post spinal headache is usually at hours after spinal anesthesia: (A) 0 - 6, (B) 12-Jun, (C) Dec-72, (D) 72 - 96 | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 12 - 72 | |
A 6-year old child who presented with perianal pruritus, excoriation of skin and nocturnal enuresis was found to be infected with a parasite causing autoinfection. The infective form of parasite for humans is the -: (A) Filariform larvae, (B) Embryonated egg, (C) Adult female, (D) Adult male | Answer is B. Enterobius vermicularus mainly affects children. The gravid female worm lays ova around the anus ,causing itching especially at night .The ova are often carried to the mouth on the fingers & so re-infection or human to human infection takes place. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 1120 | |
Child admitted with meningitis. Examination reveals gram negative diplococci. History of previous similar infection is present with same organism. Which of the following should be suspected?: (A) Complement deficiency, (B) Immunoglobulin deficiency, (C) T cell, (D) 8 cell | Answer is A. Ans: A (Complement deficiency) Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th edition, 2008, Chapter 136, pg: 911 and Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th editionExplanation:Defects in Complement SystemHost DefectDisease or Therapy Associated With DefectCommon Etioiogic Agent of InfectionC3* Congenit... | |
Non coding RNAs are:: (A) siRNA, (B) miRNA, (C) tRNA, (D) All | Answer is D. A, B, C, i.e. siRNA, miRNA, tRNANoncoding (nc) RNAs are all RNAs that do not encode protein. They are also called non protein coding (npc) RNA, non-messenger (nm) RNA, small (s) RNA, and functional (fl RNA. The gene (DNA sequence) from which a nc-RNA is transcribed as end product is called non coding RNA g... | |
All of the following is true about achalasia cardia except-: (A) Lower esophageal sphincter does not relax normally, (B) Males are affected more than the females, (C) Absence of gastric air bibble is a sign seen on X-ray, (D) Manometry is the most confirmatory investigation | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Males are affected more than the females * Achalasia cardia is a motor disorder of the esophageal smooth muscle in which the LES does not relax normally with swallowing, & the esophageal body undergoes nonperistaltic contractions. (Primary peristalsis is absent or reduced).* The pathogene... | |
Fenestration operation is which type of tympanoplasty?: (A) Type - 2, (B) Type - 3, (C) Type - 4, (D) Type - 5 | Answer is D. Types of Tympanoplasty Wullstein classified tympanoplasty into five types . Type I Defect is perforation of tympanic membrane which is repaired with a graft. It is also called myringoplasty. Type II Defect is perforation of tympanic membrane with erosion of malleus. Graft is placed on the incus or remnant ... | |
External Cephalic Version (ECV) is contraindicated in all of the following , EXCEPT?: (A) Twins, (B) Flexed breech, (C) Premature Rupture of membranes, (D) Previous abruption | Answer is B. ECV -Absolute contraindications : Placenta pre Multifetal gestation Severe contracted pelvis - Relative contraindications Early labor oligohydramnios or rupture of membranes structural uterine abnormalities fetal growth restriction prior abruption | |
The external urethral sphincter is located in which of the following regions?: (A) Ischiorectal fossa, (B) Extrapeoneal space, (C) Retropubic space, (D) Deep perineal space | Answer is D. The external urethral sphincter is the voluntary sphincter composed of skeletal muscle, the sphincter urethrae muscle. This muscle, along with the deep transverse perineal muscle, are in the deep perineal space and form the muscular layer of the urogenital diaphragm. The internal urethral sphincter is comp... | |
Neurotransmitter released in response to raised blood pressure:: (A) Acetylcholine, (B) Adrenaline, (C) Dopamine, (D) Nor-adrenaline | Answer is A. Ans. A. AcetylcholineWhenever blood pressure rises, there is reflex stimulation of baroreceptors. These release Ach and depress the heart. | |
A 43-year-old man is hit in the face with a baseball bat and presents to the emergency department with massive facial swelling, ecchymosis, and an elongated face. There is mobility of the middle third of the face on digital manipulation of the maxilla. What is the likely diagnosis?: (A) Lambdoid injury, (B) Odontoid fr... | Answer is C. The physical findings are characteristics of a Le Fort III fracture (Figure below). In this injury, the fracture passes through maxilla and nasal bones and above the zygomatic bone.Classic Le Fort fracture patterns | |
Ovary develop from:: (A) Mullerian duct, (B) Genital ridge, (C) Genital tubercle, (D) Mesonephric duct | Answer is B. Ans. is b, i.e. Genital ridgeRef: Dutta Gynae 8th/ed, p38Male and female derivatives of embryonic urogenital structures.Part of female genital systemOriginates fromOvaryGenital ridgeFallopiantubesUterus CervixUpperpartofvagina [?][?][?][?][?][?][?][?][?] Mullerian/paramesonephric ductLower part of vaginaSi... |
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