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Characteristic toxicity of daxorubicin -: (A) Pulmonary fibrosis, (B) Cardiotoxicity, (C) Peripheral neuropathy, (D) Hemorrhagic cystitis | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cardiotoxicity Anthracvclineso Anthracyclines are anticancer antibiotics and they include Doxorubicin (Adriamycin) and Daunorubicin.o The major toxicity of anthracyclines is potentially irreversible cumulative dose related toxicityo They may causes arrhythmias and cardiomyopathy. Because ... | |
Which of the following event occurs during the ovulation phase ?: (A) Increase in inhibin A level, (B) FSH induce steroidogenesis in granulosa cells in secretory phase, (C) Activin increases, (D) Stimulation of the arrested meiotic division of the ovum | Answer is D. The activins and inhibins are glycoproteins that belong to the transforming growth factor -b superfamily. They are secreted from granulose cells. FSH induces steroidogenesis (estradiol production) in granulosa cells in the preovulatory phase (follicular phase). Stimulation of the arrested meiotic division ... | |
The Ames test is a method for detecting: (A) Carcinogenesis in rodents, (B) Carcinogenesis in primates, (C) Teratogenesis in any mammalian species, (D) Mutagenesis in bacteria | Answer is D. Mutagenesis in bacteria The Ames test is carried out in Salmonella and detects mutations in the bacterial DNA. Because mutagenic potential is associated with carcinogenic risk for many chemicals, the Ames test is often used to claim that a paicular agent may be a carcinogen. However, the test itself only d... | |
Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions, except: (A) Ureteropelvic junction, (B) Ureterovesical junction, (C) Crossing of iliac aery, (D) Ischial spine | Answer is D. Ureter has three constrictions, which are the most common sites of renal calculus obstruction: at the pelvi-ureteric junction (PUJ) of the renal pelvis and the ureter as the ureter enters the pelvis and crosses over the common iliac aery bifurcation at the vesicoureteric junction (VUJ) as the ureter obliqu... | |
Most important muscle which opens mouth is -: (A) Lateral pterygoid, (B) Medical pterygoid, (C) Masseter, (D) Temporalis | Answer is A. Lateral pterygoid depresses the mandible to open the mouth, with suprahyoid muscles. | |
The most important factor to overcome protein energy malnutrition in children less than 3 years is –a) Supply of subsidised food from ration shopb) Early supplementation of solids in infantsc) Immunisation to the childd) Treatment of anaemia and pneumonia in infant and toddlers: (A) a, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) bc | Answer is D. None | |
Temp of water used to cool the burn wound?: (A) 20ºc, (B) 25ºC, (C) 10ºC, (D) 15ºC | Answer is D. 15ºC is the best temp for cooling burn wound. | |
A male 45 years old presents to the dental clinic with pain in lower back tooth region. Intraoral examination reveals carious 36. Root canal treatment done and metal ceramic crown has to be placed. Dentist makes an impression. All of the following are the properties of the material except:: (A) Sufficiently fluid to ad... | Answer is C. To produce accurate replicas of intra- and extraoral tissues, the impression materials should be:
Sufficiently fluid to adapt to the oral tissues.
Viscous enough to be contained in a tray.
Able to transform (set) into a rubbery or rigid solid in the mouth in a reasonable time (less than 7 min).
Resistant... | |
Desert rheumatism is caused by:: (A) Cryptococcus, (B) Candida, (C) Coccidioides, (D) Chromoblastomycosis | Answer is C. Ans. C. CoccidioidesSporothrix (Sporotrochosis), Histoplasma (Histoplasmosis), Coccidioides (Desert rheumatism or Valley fever), Paracoccidioides (South American Blastomycosis), Blastomyces (North American Blastomycosis), Talaromycesmarneffei. | |
A 40 year old female presented with numerous, nonitchy, erythematous scaly papules (lesions) on trunk, with few oral white mucosal plaques. She also had erosive lesions in perianal area. The probable diagnosis is: (A) Psoriasis, (B) Secondary syphilis, (C) Lichen planus, (D) Disseminated candidiasis | Answer is B. B i.e. Secondary syphilis Secondary syphilis presents with generalized, symmetrical, nonitchy, coppery red maculoppular lesions (+- scales) on trunk, extremities and even palm and solesQ. Oral and genital superficial mucosal erosion (patches) are painless silver-grayQ surrounded by red periphery. And warm,... | |
Based on the type of life cycle, zoonoses are classified into all of the following except -: (A) Cyclo-zoonoses, (B) Meta-zoonoses, (C) Anthropozoonoses, (D) Sporozoonoses | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Anthropozoonoses Classification of zoonoses 1) Based on direction of transmission : (i) Anthropozoonoses, (ii) Zoonthroponoses, and (iii) Amphixenoses 2) Based on type of life cycle : (i) Direct zoonoses, (ii) Cyclo-zoonoses, (iii) Meta-zoonoses, and (iv) Sporozoonoses. | |
Testicular tumour most sensitive to radiation is-: (A) Teratoma, (B) Lymphoma, (C) Mixed germ cell tumor, (D) Seminoma | Answer is D. None | |
A 58 year old male alcoholic with chronic pancreatitis develops a palpable abdominal mass. Ultrasound reveals a 9 cm cystic lesion adjacent to the pancreas. An impoant complication that might occur if this cyst ruptured would be?: (A) Anaphylactic shock, (B) Carcinomatosis, (C) Disseminated infection, (D) Intestinal he... | Answer is D. The patient most likely has a pancreatic pseudocyst, which is a complication of pancreatitis. Pancreatic pseudocyst is not a true cyst; it is lined by granulation tissue and collagen. It contains pancreatic juices and lysed blood, so rupture would spill the active digestive enzymes onto the adjacent viscer... | |
What is the wavelength of light used in light cure system:: (A) 400nm, (B) 474nm., (C) 500nm, (D) Any of the above. | Answer is B. The range is 400-500nm.
But if question has been asked for specific wavelength then 474nm is more appropriate. | |
Signs and symptoms usually develop within 15-30 minutes of strychnine ingestion. What is the fatal dose of strychnine?: (A) 10-15 mg, (B) 20-40 mg, (C) 60-100 mg, (D) 100-120 mg | Answer is C. Strychnine poisoning: It is an alkaloid derived from the seeds of the tree Strychnos nux-vomica. The potentially fatal dose of strychnine is approximately 50-100 mg (1 mg/kg) and fatal period is 1-2 hours. Strychnine competitively antagonizes glycine, an inhibitory neurotransmitter released by postsynaptic... | |
Which of the following drugs decreases the effect of levodopa-: (A) Carbidopa, (B) MAO inhibitors, (C) Vit. B complex, (D) COMT | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vit. B complex Interactions of levodopa Pyridoxine abolishes the therapeutic effect by enhancing peripheral decarboxylation of levodpa. Less levodpoa is thus available to cross BBB, to be conveed into dopamine in dopaminergic neurones in CNS Phenothiazines, butyrophenones, and metoclopram... | |
Which of the following contraceptives can prevent a pregnancy when used alone after an act of unprotected intercourse?: (A) Copper IUCD, (B) Progesterone or Combined oral contraceptives, (C) Mifepristone, (D) All of these can work if used within 3 days of Unprotected Intercourse | Answer is D. Emergency contraceptives IUCD: Can prevent implantation up till 5th day of unprotected inter-course Progesterone only pill: LNG 1.5 mg :can reduce tubal motility , make endometrium 'Out of Phase" for implantation of embryo Combined Pill: the Yuzpe regimen can prevent embryo implantation since the estrogen ... | |
First pit and fissure sealant:: (A) Novaseal, (B) Newseal., (C) Selfseal, (D) Highseal | Answer is A. None | |
All except one are true about spinothalamic tract: (A) Spinothalamic tract relays in ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus, (B) Lateral Spinothalamic tract forms spinal lemniscus, (C) Lateral spinothalamic tract joins medial lemniscus, (D) Lateral spinothalamic tract carries sensations of pain and temperature, ant... | Answer is C. Anterior spinothalamic tract joins medial lemniscus. | |
Hypercalciuria is seen in -: (A) Hyperparathyroidism, (B) VitD intoxication, (C) Sarcoidosis, (D) All | Answer is D. <p>Primary hyperparathyroidism is a generalized disorder of calcium, phosphate, and bone metabolism due to an increased secretion of PTH. The elevation of circulating hormone usually leads to hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia. There is great variation in the manifestations. Patients may present with multi... | |
Following anatomical changes predisposes to angle closure glaucoma except: March 2007: (A) Small cornea, (B) Flat cornea, (C) Anterior chamber shallower, (D) Sho axial length of eyeball | Answer is B. Ans. B: Flat cornea Angle closure glaucoma is caused by contact between the iris and trabecular meshwork, which in turn obstructs outflow of the aqueous humor from the eye. Predisposing factors include sho eye, small corneal diameter, a shallow anterior chamber, and a relative anterior positioning of the l... | |
Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy :: (A) Serous cystadenoma, (B) Mucinous cystadenoma, (C) Dermoid cyst, (D) Theca lutein cyst | Answer is C. "A benign cystic teratoma is the most common neoplasm to undergo torsion, and it to the M/C benign tumor diagnosed during pregnancy." A benign cystic teratoma is synonymous to dermoid cyst. REF : gynecology book of shaw 17th | |
Per TCA with 3 NADH and 1 FADH2, generates how many ATP-: (A) 6, (B) 9, (C) 12, (D) 15 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 9 o One N ADH produces 2.5 ATP and one FADH2 produces 1.5 ATP. Thus 3 NADH and 1 FADH2 will produce 9 ATP.o There is production of ATP at substrate level also. Thus total 10 ATP molecules are produced per cycle.Energetics of TCA cycles iKreb's cycle)o One turn of the TCA cycle, starting w... | |
"Microabscess of munro" is seen in:: (A) Lichen planus, (B) Psoriasis, (C) Pityriasis rosea, (D) Tbberous sclerosis | Answer is B. Ans: b (Psoriasis) Ref: Pavithran's textbook of dermatology, p. 14,15Micro abscess of Munro is seen in psoriasis.PsoriasisType IType IIHeriditaryStrong HLA association (HLA CW6)Severe course and early onsetArthropathy more common.SporadicHLA unrelatedMild course and late onsetThe most important locus for p... | |
Lipopolysaccharide structure is characteristic of -: (A) Exotoxin, (B) Endotoxin, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is B. Endotoxins heat stable lipopolysaccharides which form an integral pa of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria . Their toxicity depends on the lipid component. They are released only by the disintegration of the cell wall. They cannot be toxoided. They are poor antigens and their toxicity is not completel... | |
A 60-year-old nursing home resident presents with a 3-day history of progressive shortness of breath and cough. The lung examination reveals right basilar crackles. The chest x-ray shows right lower lobe consolidation. Sputum culture grows methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) Select the most appropriate i... | Answer is B. There are four types of isolation precautions that can be implemented in health care settings. Any given patient might require more than one type of precaution. Standard precautions apply when interacting with any patient, regardless of the diagnosis. They include hand washing before and after contact with... | |
Transcripton is inhibited by:: (A) Actinomycin D, (B) Amanitin, (C) Chloramphenicol, (D) Streptomycin | Answer is A. A i.e. Actinomycin | |
In preanaesthetic evaluation of airway anesthesiologist wrote Mallampati grade III. What does it signify-: (A) Full view of soft palate uvula, tonsillar pillars, (B) View of Soft palate and hard palate, (C) Only hard palate, (D) Full view of soft palate, uvula, fauces, tonsillar pillars | Answer is B. None | |
Triage is –: (A) Treating the most serious cases, (B) Categorisation of the patients and treating them according to the available resource, (C) Cautery burns, (D) Treating mentally ill patients | Answer is B. Triage
When the quantity and severity of injuries overwhelm the operative capacity of health facilities, a different approach to medical treatment must be adopted.
The usual principle of first come, first treated", is not followed in mass emergencies.
Triage consists of rapidly classifying the injured an... | |
All of the following are true in respect of hereditary angioneurotic edema (HAE), except:: (A) Deficiency of C1 inhibitor (C1INH), (B) Uicaria, (C) Pruritus is usually absent, (D) Autosomal recessive disorder | Answer is D. Hereditary angioneurotic edema (HAE) It is caused by an inherited deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor that results in excessive activation of the early components of the complement system and production of vasoactive mediators. Angioneurotic edema is classically non-pitting in nature. Uicaria(hives) may de... | |
A 63-year-old bartender presents at his physician's office complaining of a painful sore on his tongue. On examination, it is found that he has an ulcerated lesion on his tongue and a mass in the submandibular gland triangle. What is the most likely diagnosis? SELECT ONE.: (A) Lymphoma, (B) Squamous cell carcinoma, (C)... | Answer is B. The tip of the tongue drains into the submental lymph nodes, whereas, the side of the tongue drains into the submandibular lymph nodes. | |
Urogenital Diaphragm is made up of the following, except:: (A) Deep transverse Perineus, (B) Perinial membrane, (C) Colle's fascia, (D) Sphincter Urethrae | Answer is C. Colle's fascia does not contribute to the Urogenital Diaphragm. It is attached posteriorly to the posterior border of the urogenital diaphragm but does not form pa of this diaphragm. Ref: BDC, Volume 2, 4th Edition, Page 332; Grants Method of Anatomy, 11th Edition, Page 244; Gray's Anatomy, 36th Edition, P... | |
Stuart instrument gnathoscope is:: (A) Non-adjustable articulator., (B) Semi adjustable articulator., (C) Fully adjustable articulator., (D) None | Answer is C. None | |
Child with Type I Diabetes. What is the advised time for fundus examinations from the time of diagnosis?: (A) After 5 years, (B) After 2 years, (C) After 10 years, (D) At the time of diagnosis | Answer is A. Screening for diabetic retinopathy To prevent visual loss occurring from diabetic retinopathy a periodic follow-up is very impoant for a timely intervention. The recommendations for periodic fundus examination are as follows : First examination, 5 years after diagnosis of type 1 DM and at the time of diagn... | |
Most sensitive test for H pylori is-: (A) Fecal antigen test, (B) Biopsy urease test, (C) Serological test, (D) Urea breath test | Answer is B. <P>Davidson&;s principles and practice of medicine 22nd edition. *biopsbiopsy unease test is cheap,quick ,specific(95%) and sensitivity (85%)</p> | |
Which one of the following is not a green house gas ?: (A) Carbon monoxide, (B) Methane, (C) Nitrous oxide, (D) Water vapour | Answer is A. None | |
Cushing syndrome is characterized by all except *: (A) Hypoglycemia, (B) HT, (C) Proximal myopathy, (D) Centripetal obesity | Answer is A. Cushing&;s syndrome characterised by centripetal obesity , hypeension, fatigability, weakness, edema , glucosuria( Harrison 17 pg 2254) | |
Ligation of the common hepatic aery will compromise blood flow in: (A) Right and Left gastric aery, (B) Right gastric and sho gastric aeries, (C) Right gastroepiploic and sho gastric aeries, (D) Right gastric and right gastroepiploic aery | Answer is D. Rt. Gastric aeryarises from common hepatic aery andRt. Gastroepiploic aeryarises fromgastroduodenal aerywhich is a branch of common hepatic aery. Therefore,ligation of common hepatic aerywill lead to impaired blood supply inRt. Gastric aeryandRt. Gastroepiploic aery. Left gastric aery arises from CT. Sho g... | |
Typhoid investigation of choice in 1st week: (A) Blood culture, (B) Widal test, (C) Stool culture, (D) Urine culture | Answer is A. (A) Blood culture # Typhoid investigation of choice code 'BASU'> 'B' i.e. Blood culture in the first week (Better is Bone Marrow culture)> 'A' i.e. Antibodies (Widal) in the second week> 'S' i.e. Stool culture in the third week> 'U' i.e. Urine culture in the 4th week> Widal test shows diagnostic titre for ... | |
In T.B/ a ‘case’ is”: (A) Cough, (B) Mantoux positive, (C) Sputum positive, (D) X-ray positive | Answer is C. None | |
A series of posters which are continuous and gives an idea about a subject is called:: (A) Flannel graph, (B) Exhibit, (C) Model, (D) Flip chart | Answer is D. Ans: d (Flip chart) Ref: Park, 19h ed, p. 717Flip chart- They consist of a series of charts, each with an illustration pertaining to the talk to be given. They are meant to be shown one after another. The message on the chart must be brief and to the point.Flannel graph- A piece of rough flannel or khadi f... | |
Perforation of stomach is more common due to ingestion of -: (A) Nitric acid, (B) Sulphuric acid, (C) Hydrochloric acid, (D) Carbolic acid | Answer is B. Stomach perforation is more common with H2SO4. | |
Which of the following inflammatory mediator doesn't cause fever:: (A) Nitric oxide, (B) Prostaglandin, (C) IL-1, (D) TNF-alpha | Answer is A. Pyrogens A pyrogen is a substance that induces fever. These can be either internal (endogenous) or external (exogenous) to the body. The bacterial substance lipopolysaccharide (LPS), present in the cell wall of some bacteria, is an example of an exogenous pyrogen. Endogenous Pyrogens IL 1 TNF PGs Depyrogen... | |
Brown tumour is seen in: (A) Hyperparathyroidism, (B) Hypoparathyroidism, (C) Hypothyroidism, (D) Hypehyroidism | Answer is A. Brown's tumour: This is an expansile bone lesion, a collection of osteoclasts. It commonly affects the maxilla or mandible, though any bone may be affected. Commonly seen in Hyperpathyroidism Ref: Maheshwari 6e pg 313. | |
The technique for accurate quantification of gene expression is: (A) Nohern blot, (B) PCR, (C) Real-Time Reverse Transcriptase PCR, (D) Reverse Transcriptase PCR | Answer is C. PCR Real-time PCR Traditional PCR For accurate quantification of the amount of initial DNA in the reaction Detects the DNA by electrophoresis at the end-point of the reaction | |
A patient presents to the doctor with diplopia when looking towards the right. On examination, he is unable to move his right eye laterally past the midline. Damage to which of these nerves would produce this clinical presentation?: (A) Abducent nerve, (B) Trochlear nerve, (C) Optic nerve, (D) Oculomotor nerve | Answer is A. Clinical Presentation is of impaired abduction of one eye (right eye) d/t damage of VI nerve. Lateral rectus is paralysed | |
Who was the first to determine the sequence of a polypeptide?: (A) Pehr Edman, (B) Frederick Sanger, (C) John Kendrew, (D) Oakley Fulthrop | Answer is B. Sanger was the first to determine the sequence of a polypeptide. Mature insulin consists of the 21-residue A chain and the 30-residue B chain linked by disulfide bonds. Frederick Sanger reduced the disulfide bonds, separated the A and B chains, and cleaved each chain into smaller peptides using trypsin, ch... | |
Indications of circumcision are all except:: (A) Balanoposthitis, (B) Religious beliefs, (C) Peyronie's disease, (D) Paraphimosis | Answer is C. Indications of Circumcision Phimosis Religion (Jews and Muslims) Paraphimosis Balanitis or balanoposthitis Recurrent UTI BXO (balanitis xerotica obliterans) | |
The arrow marked structure is which part of corpus callosum:: (A) Rostrum, (B) Genu, (C) Body, (D) Splenium | Answer is D. Ans. D. SpleniumThe arrow marked structure is splenium of corpus callosum. | |
Cytosolic cytochrome C plays an impoant function in -: (A) Apoptosis, (B) Cell necrosis, (C) Electron transpo chain, (D) Cell division | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. ApoptosisMechanism ofApoptosiso Apoptosis is induced by a cascade of molecular events that may be initiated in distinct ways but culminate in the activation of caspases.o Caspases are central to the pathogenesis of apoptosiso The process of apoptosis is divided into two phasesi) Initiation... | |
Trigeminal nerve has how many nucleus?: (A) 2, (B) 3, (C) 4, (D) 5 | Answer is C. Ans. C.4Trigeminal nerve has four nuclei - 3 sensory and 1 motor nucleus.The sensory nucleus is divided into three parts, from rostral to caudal (top to bottom):a. The mesencephalic nucleusb. The chief sensory nucleus (or "main sensory nucleus" or "principal nucleus")c. The spinal nucleus | |
The deformity of tibia in triple deformity of the knee is?: (A) Extension, Posterior subluxation & external rotation, (B) Flexion, posterior subluxation & external rotation, (C) Flexion, posterior subluxation & internal rotation, (D) Extension, Anterior subluxation & internal rotation | Answer is B. Flexion, posterior subluxation & external rotation REF: Apley's 8th ed p. 42 Triple deformity of knee consists of flexion, posterior subluxation of tibia and external rotation of tibia Treatment: ATT, Ahrodesis Causes: TB, Rheumatoid ahritis | |
Dates are rich source of -: (A) Calcium, (B) Iron, (C) Vit C, (D) Carotene | Answer is A. In dates calcium present is 120mg,vitamin C is 3,carotene is 44mg per 100mg of datesREF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 581 | |
Punishment for issuing false ceificate -: (A) 4 years, (B) 5 years, (C) 6 years, (D) 7 years | Answer is D. Sec 197 IPC: Issuing or signing the false ceificate Imprisonment up to 7 years. Ref: Dr. K.S. Narayan Reddy's Synopsis Of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology, 29th edition, Chap 3, Page-31. | |
What is the most common site of origin of thrombotic pulmonary emboli?: (A) Deep leg veins, (B) Lumen of left ventricle, (C) Lumen of right ventricle, (D) Mesenteric veins | Answer is A. An embolus is a detached intravascular mass that has been carried by the blood to a site other than where it was formed. Emboli basically can be thrombotic or embolic, but most originate from thrombi. These thromboemboli, most of which originate in the deep veins of the lower extremities, may embolize to t... | |
FDA approved antifungal treatment of mucormycosis?: (A) Liposomal Amphotericin, (B) Amphotericin B deoxycholate, (C) Amphotericin B taurocholate, (D) Voriconazole | Answer is B. Amphotericin B Deoxycholate is the only FDA approved drug for mucormycosis.Ref: Harrison 18th/pg 1663 | |
Which of the following nipple discharge is most probably; physiological:: (A) B/L spontaneous discharge, (B) B/L milky discharge with squeezing from multiple ducts, (C) U/L bloody discharge, (D) U/L bloody discharge with squeezing from a single duct | Answer is B. Ans. (b) B/L milky discharge with squeezing from multiple ductsRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition page 864* Bilateral milky discharge is from physiological lactation All other secretions may be pathological. | |
Hallmark of breast malignancy on mammography?: (A) Low density lesion, (B) Smooth margins, (C) Clusters of microcalcification, (D) Popcorn calcification | Answer is C. Ans. c (Clusters of microcalcification) (Ref Graingerys Diagnostic Radiology, 4th ed., 2239)Diagnostic mammography verses screening mammography# Diagnostic mammography should not be confused with screening mammography, which is performed after a palpable abnormality has been detected. Diagnostic mammograph... | |
Not intravenous Anasthetic agent: (A) Ketamine, (B) Thiopantone, (C) Etomidate, (D) Cyclopropane | Answer is D. D i.e. Cyclopropane | |
Computed Tomography (CT scan) is least accurate for diagnosts of:: (A) 1cm size Aneurysm in the Hepatic Aery, (B) 1cm size Lymph node inthe para-aoic region, (C) 1cm size Mass in the tail of pancreas, (D) 1cm size Gall stones | Answer is D. D i.e. 1 cm size Gall stones CT scan has a very limited role in diagnosis of gall stone (Cholelithiasis) as only a minority (20-60%) of gall bladder stones are visibleQ which show calcification. Most (70%) stones are cholesterol stones and 93% of them are radiolucent). CT scan, however, can evaluate compli... | |
Fetal hea can be detected earliest with trans-vaginal sonography at (from the last menstrual period: (A) 35 days, (B) 38 days, (C) 53 days, (D) 46 days | Answer is D. 46 days | |
NO is synthesized by -: (A) Uracil, (B) Aspartate, (C) Guanosine, (D) Arginine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Arginine * Nitric oxide, also called endothelium-derived-relaxing factor (EDRF), is formed from amino acid arginine, by the action of the enzyme NO synthase, which is cytosolic.ArginineNO synthase-------Citrulline + NO | |
The serum concentration of which of the following human Ig is maximum:: (A) IgG, (B) IgA, (C) IgM, (D) IgD | Answer is A. IgG | |
All the following are maternal adverse outcomes which are increased in women with threatened aboion except:: (A) Placenta pre, (B) Placental abruption, (C) Manual removal of placenta, (D) Gestational diabetes | Answer is D. Adverse Outcomes That are Increased in Women with Threatened AboionMaternalPerinatalPlacenta prePPROM & PROM Placental abruptionPreterm bihManual removal of placentaLow bih weightCesarean deliveryFetal growth restrictionFetal and neonatal feath(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | |
A 12 year old male patient complains of pain in upper front teeth region and gives a history of fall while playing 30 minutes ago. Intra oral examination reveals intrusion of maxillary right central incisor by 2 mm. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?: (A) Observe and allow the tooth to erupt with... | Answer is A. The treatment for a permanent tooth with a closed root end, and intruded less than 3 mm, is to allow the tooth to erupt without intervention. If no movement is evident after 2 to 4 weeks, the tooth may be repositioned either orthodontically or surgically before ankylosis can take place. If the tooth is int... | |
Drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder is:: (A) Alprazolam, (B) Buspirone, (C) Venlafaxine, (D) Beta - blockers | Answer is A. Benzodiazepines are the drug of choice for generalized anxiety disorder. However, it must be remembered that benzodiazepines can cause dependence. The other drugs which can be used include SSRIs buspirone and venlafaxine. | |
Arlts line is seen in: (A) Vernal keratoconjunctis, (B) Pterygium, (C) Ocular pemphigoid, (D) Trachoma | Answer is D. Arlts line is a linear scarring on the upper palpebral conjunctiva in patients of trachoma REF:Refer Khurana 6th edition page number 69 | |
Squeeze technique is used for?: (A) Retrograde ejaculation, (B) Premature ejaculation, (C) Erectile dysfunction, (D) UTI | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Premature ejaculation * Squeeze technique (Seman's technique) is used for premature ejaculation. When the male partner experiences 'ejaculatory inevitability' the female partner 'squeezes' the penis on the coronal ridge thus delaying ejaculation. | |
A young male patient presents with complete rectal prolapse. The surgery of choice is: (A) Abdominal rectopexy, (B) Delerom's procedure, (C) Anterior resection, (D) Goodsall's procedure | Answer is A. Surgery is required, and the operation can be performed the perineal or the abdominal approaches. An abdominal rectopexy has a lower rate of recurrence,As an abdominal procedure risks damage to the pelvic autonomic nerves, resulting in possible sexual dysfunction, a perineal approach is also usually prefer... | |
The drug that inhibits uterine contractility and cause pulmonary edema is:: (A) Ritodrine, (B) Nifedipine, (C) Indomethacin, (D) Atosiban | Answer is A. Pulmonary edema is a serious complication of beta-adrenergic therapy (ritodrine) and MgSO4.
This complication occurs in patients receiving oral or (more common) intravenous treatment.
It occurs more frequently in patients who have excessive plasma volume expansion, such as those with twins or those who hav... | |
Influenzae virus belongs to which family?: (A) Paramyxovirus, (B) Orthomyxovirus, (C) Bunyaviridae, (D) Togaviridae | Answer is B. Ans. (b) OrthomyxovirusRef: Appendix-141 for viruses classification | |
Composition of toned milk is approximately close to:: (A) Cow, (B) Buffalo, (C) Human, (D) Goat | Answer is A. Toned milk is a blend of natural milk and made up milk. It contains 1 pa water, 1 pa natural milk and 1/8 th pa of skimmed milk powder. It has composition almost equivalent to cow milk. Ref: Park, 22nd edition pg: 584 | |
Noble prize for sequencing insulin aminoacid sequence & molecular structure was given to:: (A) Banting & Macleod, (B) Sanger, (C) Charles Best, (D) Paul Berg | Answer is B. B i.e. Sanger | |
Several weeks after surgical dissection of her left axilla for the removal of lymph nodes for staging and treatment of her breast cancer, a 32-year-old woman was told by her general physician that she had "winging" of her left scapula when she pushed against resistance during her physical examination. She told the phys... | Answer is C. The long thoracic nerve was injured during the axillary dissection, resulting in paralysis of the serratus anterior. The serratus anterior is important in rotation of the scapula in raising the arm above the level of the shoulder. Its loss results in protrusion of the inferior angle ("winging" of the scapu... | |
Post transplant lymphoma is ?: (A) T cell, (B) B cell, (C) Null cell, (D) NK cell | Answer is B. B cell Nearly 1 to 20% of people who receive a solid organ transplant develop a lymphoma. - Lymphomas have also been repoed (though less .frequently) after bone-marrow transplants .for other disorders. Why does it happen? - Post-transplant lymphomas are almost always related to infection by the Epstein Bar... | |
The following insulin can be given intravenously?: (A) Protamine zinc insulin, (B) Ultra lente insulin, (C) Semi lente insulin, (D) Regular insulin | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Regular insulin o All preparations are administered by S.C. route except regular insulin which can be given | |
What is the net ATP's formed in glycolysis?: (A) 5, (B) 7, (C) 10, (D) 15 | Answer is B. ATP formation in glycolysis: Reaction Catalyzed by Method of ATP Formation ATP per mol of Glucose Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase Respiratory chain oxidation of 2 NADH 5 Phosphoglycerate kinase Substrate-level phosphorylation 2 Pyruvate kinase Substrate-level phosphorylation 2 Total 9 Consumption ... | |
Megaloblastic anemia, glossitis, pharyngeal ulcers, and impaired immunity. For each disorder above, select the dietary deficiency that is likely to be responsible.: (A) Folate deficiency, (B) Thiamine deficiency, (C) Niacin deficiency, (D) Vitamin D deficiency | Answer is A. Folate deficiency can occur from a number of etiologies including poor intake or absorption; in high-demand diseases such as sickle cell; and in inborn errors of metabolism. It can also be seen in conjunction with a variety of medication uses including high-dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs... | |
Tamsulosin belongs to: (A) 5a-reductase inhibitors, (B) a1a receptor blockers, (C) a1a receptor agonist, (D) 5a-transferase inhibitors | Answer is B. The mainstay of treatment for LUTS due to BPH is a1-adrenergic receptor blockers.a-adrenergic receptors are the most common adrenergic receptors in the bladder, and a1 is the most common subtype in the lower urinary system, prostate, and urethra. The action of a1 blockers is to relax the smooth muscle in t... | |
Krukenberg adenocarcinoma of the ovary can occur as a result of metastases from all except-: (A) Stomach, (B) Breast, (C) Liver, (D) Pancreas | Answer is C. Metastatic gastrointestinal & breast neoplasm to ovary are referred to as krukenberg tumors and are characterized by bilateral metastasis composed of mucin-producing signet-ring cells.
The primary sites are → Stomach (most common), Pancreas, Colon, Gall bladder, Breast. | |
All of the following are true about fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver except:: (A) More common in females, (B) Better prognosis than HCC, (C) AFP levels always greater than 1000, (D) Occur in younger individuals | Answer is C. It is AFP-negative, but patients typically have elevated neurotensin levels, normal liver function tests, and no cirrhosis. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 14th Edition, Page 580, 15th Edition, Page 590 and 18th Edition, Pages 784-785; Concise Pathology, 2nd Edition By Para Chandrasoma, Clive Roy Taylor... | |
A patient with H. Pylori infection is treated with drugs. The best method to detect presence of residual H.Pylori infection in this person is which of the following?: (A) Rapid urease test, (B) Urea breath test, (C) Endoscopy and biopsy, (D) Serum anti H.Pylori titre | Answer is B. Urea breath test is a test with high sensitivity and specificity for Helicobacter pylori. It is a non-invasive test used to diagnose and confirm elimination of H.pylori infection. Ref: Davidson's principles and practice of Medicine, 20th Edition, Chapter 22, Page 886; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medi... | |
BRCA-1 postive women have ____% increased risk of breast carcinoma: (A) 10, (B) 20, (C) 40, (D) 60 | Answer is D. Ref: schwaz's principle of surgery 10th edition Pg no :514-515 Sabiston 20th edition pgno: 832 | |
Structures in the portal triad are all except:: (A) Hepatic artery, (B) Hepatic vein, (C) Portal vein, (D) Bile duct | Answer is B. Ans. B. Hepatic veinThe hepatic lobules are small divisions of the liver defined at the microscopic (histological) scale. The hepatic lobule is a building block of the liver tissue, consisting of a portal triad, hepatocytes arranged in linear cords between a capillary network, and a central vein.A portal t... | |
Enzyme used in PCR is ?: (A) Reverse transcriptase, (B) Tag polymerase, (C) RNA polymerase, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Taq polymerase PCR is a method of enzymatic amplification of a target sequence of DNAe.It is sensitive, selective (specific) and extremely rapid means of amplifying any desired sequence of double stranded DNAe, which can be as sho as 50-100 base pairs (bp) and as long as 10 kbp.In PCR, th... | |
In depression , there is deficiency of:: (A) 5-HT, (B) Acetylcholine, (C) Dopamine, (D) GABA | Answer is A. Ref: Katzung 14th ed. Monoamines like serotonin and nor-adrenaline are deficient in depressive patients, therefore reuptake inhibitors of these monoamines are used for treatment of depression. | |
The subcostal angle during pregnancy is:: (A) 85deg, (B) 95deg, (C) 105deg, (D) 75deg | Answer is C. The lower ribs flare out,the subcostal angle increases from 68deg to 103deg,the transverse diameter of the chest increases by 2 cm and the diaphragm rises by about 4 cm in pregnancy. Refer page no 80 of text book of obsteics,sheila balakrishnan,2 nd edition. | |
Rickety rosary seen in all except –: (A) Rickets, (B) Scurvy, (C) Chondrodystrophy, (D) Syphilis | Answer is D. Rachitic (Rickety) rosary
The prominent knobs of bone at costochondral junctions of rickets patient is known as rachitic rosary or beading of ribs.
The knobs create the appearance of large beads under the skin of the rib cage, hence the name by analogy with the beads of a rosary.
Differential diagnosis o... | |
Drug commonly used in t/t of endometriosis -: (A) LH, (B) GnRH analogues, (C) MPA, (D) FSH | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., GnRH [Ref: Shaw's Gynae 15th/ e p. 473) Both B and C are correct. However- Commonly used is B. Treatment of endometriosis Asymptomatic minimal cases:- Observe for 6-8 months & investigate infertility Symptomatic cases:- Drug treatment OCPs Mirena lUCD Progesterone Androgens GnRH analogues... | |
The physiological change occurs in a cardiac muscle cell when there is plateau phase of action potential is:: (A) Influx of Na, (B) Influx of Ca2+, (C) Influx of K+, (D) Closure of voltage gated K channels | Answer is B. The transmembrane action potential of single cardiac muscle cells is characterized by, Rapid depolarization (phase 0) Initial rapid repolarization (phase 1) Plateau (phase 2) Slow repolarization process (phase 3) that allows return to the resting membrane potential (phase 4). The initial depolarization is ... | |
All of the following are principles of tendon transfers except: (A) There should be no contracture at the joint, (B) The line of pull must be straight, (C) One tendon must do one function only, (D) A muscle power less than 3 can also be used | Answer is B. Answer- B. The line of pull must be straightAdequate strengthThe tendon chosen as a donor for transfer must be strong enough to perform its new function in its altered position.Selecting an appropriate motor is impoant because a muscle will lose one grade of strength following transfer. Do not transfer mus... | |
Which of the following procedure is not done in CHC?: (A) Aboion, (B) Blood transfusion, (C) Caesaran section, (D) Urine microscopy and culture sensitivity | Answer is D. Care of routine and emergency cases in surgery Care of routine and emergency cases in medicine 24-hour delivery services,including normal and assisted deliveries Essential and emergency obstetric care Full range of family planning services including laparoscopic services Safe aboion services Newborn care R... | |
Which of the following is not an indication of amniocentesis for chromosomal anomaly detection?: (A) Gestation diabetes, (B) Previous Down's child, (C) Maternal age more than 35, (D) Parents with chromosomal anomaly | Answer is A. Ans, is a, i.e. Gestation diabetesRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 647; Fernando Arias 3/e, p 46, 47; COGDT 10/e, p 107, Williams Obs. 23/e, p 299, 300Amniocentesis or chorionic villi sampling should be offered to the following class of patients:-Singleton pregnancy and maternal age 35 years or above.-Twin pregnancy... | |
Multiple painful ulcers over glans without in duration is suggestive of –: (A) LGV, (B) Granuloma inguinale, (C) Chancroid, (D) 2° syphilis | Answer is C. Chancre, LGV, Donovanosis Indurated ulcer (firm induration).
HSV Non-indurated ulcer.
Chancroid → Can be both either Non-indurated or soft induration (but there is no firm induration, therefore usually considered as non-indurated). | |
Which view is best for viewing hollow viscus perforation: (A) Erect, (B) Supine, (C) Right lateral, (D) Left lateral | Answer is A. The PA erect abdominal radiograph is often obtained in conjunction with the AP supine abdominal view in the acute abdominal series of radiographs. When used together it is a valuable projection in assessing air fluid levels, and free air in the abdominal cavity. Ref: Internet | |
A child presents with massive hemetemesis and systemic hypotension. He has no fever or other significant history. Examination reveal massive splenomegaly but no hepatomegaly. Likely diagnosis is: (A) Hepatocellular carcinoma, (B) Bleeding duodenal ulcer, (C) Oesophageal varices, (D) Non-cirrhotic poal fibrosis | Answer is D. Answer is D (Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis): NCPF is suspected in a patient presenting with symptoms of poal hypeension with: YOUNG AGE Moderate/Large Splenomegaly NO FEATURES SUGGESTIVE OF LIVER CELL FAILURE -No Jaundice (uncommon) - No Ascitis (uncommon) - No Hepatomegaly (uncommon) - No Stigmata of liver ... | |
Initial treatment of keloid: (A) Topical steroid, (B) Intralesional steroid, (C) Excision, (D) Radiotherapy | Answer is B. Answer- B. Intralesional steroidIntralesional injection of steroid (Triamcinolone acetate) is now recommended as the first line of t/t for keloid. | |
Edema feet is not a feature of:: (A) Conn syndrome, (B) Hypothyroid, (C) CHF, (D) Nephrotic syndrome | Answer is A. Ans. A. Conn syndromea. In Conn syndrome there is profound hypokalemia that leads to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.b. Although excess of sodium is reabsorbed due to high amount aldosterone, but excess of water is lost. Hence edema feet is not a feature in Conn syndrome. | |
Not the signs of accidental injury in a child: CMC (Vellore) 10: (A) Subdural hematoma, (B) Abrasion on the knees, (C) Swelling in the occiput, (D) Bleeding from the nose | Answer is A. Ans. Subdural hematoma | |
Ash leaf maculae is found in :: (A) Tuberous sclerosis, (B) Neurofibromatosis, (C) Lymphangioma, (D) None | Answer is A. A i.e. Tuberous sclerosis |
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