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Drugs included in ATT for children
* The principles of therapy in children with tuberculosis are similar to that of adults . Medications used for treatment are Isoniazid , Rifampicin , Streptomycin, Ethambutol , Pyrazinqmide, Ethionamide, Cycloserine . *Sho course therapy with duration of 6 months is now standard practice *In Anti tubercular therapy ,st...
4
Streptomycin
Ethionamide
Ethambutol
All
Pediatrics
Infectious disease
ebc8fae3-0629-4889-b1d2-466b43dbcd14
multi
Control of hook worm disease is achieved by
The work of Rockefeller foundation in India began with a scheme for the control of hookworm disease.The establishment of the All India Institute of Hygiene and Public Health at Kolkata was in a large measure due to the cooperation of the Rockefeller Foundation.At present, the foundation is directing its suppo to the im...
3
Ford foundation
CARE
Rockefeller foundation
Red cross society
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health care of community & international health
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A pregnant lady comes with itchy hand lesions. Her husband also gets it, whose examination finding is given below. The best treatment that can be given is -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Permethrin Image Shows- burrow, presenting as a curvilinear lesion, often difficult to discern in a dark skinned. Permethrin 5% cream is considered the drug of choice for treating scabies in patients, including pregnant women. o Other scabicides considered safe for use during pregnancy are sulfur 5-10...
1
Permethrin
Ivermectin
GBH
Benzyl benzoate
Skin
Fungal Infection
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single
Psuedoaneurysm in I.V.drug abusers is commonly found in
Pseudoaneurys Most common cause : Trauma (penetrating trauma or iotrogenic by catheterization) MC aery involved : Radial aery Treatment Ligation is the optimal treatment for infected pseudoaneurysm because it is easy, safe and cost effective (in IV drug abuser there is high chance of infection) RReconstruction is not r...
3
Radial aery
Brachial aery
Femoral aery
External iliac aery
Surgery
Vascular surgery
eafdce73-5471-4379-a74e-1270d021c135
single
Most cardiotoxic anticancer drug -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anthracycline o The major toxicity of anthracyclines is potentially irreversible cumulative dose related toxicityo They may causes arrhythmias and cardiomyopathy. Because of their carditoxicity these drugs should be avoided in the patient mentioned in the question.
1
Anthracycline
Alkylating agent
Platinum compound
Bisphosphonates
Pharmacology
Anti-Neoplastic Agents
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Spongiosis is seen in:
ECZEMA - Reaction pattern of inflammatory response of skin characterized clinically in Acute stage- Spongiosis( oozing out lesions) erythema vesiculation Chronic stages - Acanthosis (lichenified lesions) Histopathological features of eczema - Epidermis: 1 Acute phase spongiosis i.e. intercellular edema. 2 Subacute phas...
1
Acute eczema
Lichen planus
Psoriasis
Pemphigus
Dental
Eczema and related disorders
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single
Embryonic period is upto -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 8 week o Embryonic period = from fertilization to end of 8 week,o Fetal period = from 9 week on ward,o In prenatal period - following events are seen.Milestones of Prenatal DevelopmentWKDevelopmental events1.Fertilization and implantation: beginning of embryonic period2.Endoderm and ectoderm appear (b...
1
8 week
10 week
12 week
6 week
Pediatrics
Assessment of Fetal Growth and Development
22a3a765-ba72-4e54-ba29-8c8abe15be66
single
A 45-year-old patient with chronic pancreatitis is suffering from malnutrition and weight loss secondary to inadequate pancreatic exocrine secretions. Which is TRUE regarding pancreatic secretions?
Secretin releases fluid rich mainly in electrolytes and bicarbonate. Both cholecystokinin and vagal stimulation result in fluid with a high content of enzymes. Among the pancreatic enzymes, amylase and lipase are released in their active forms; whereas, the proteolytic enzymes (trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen) are secret...
2
Secretin releases fluid rich in enzymes.
Secretin releases fluid rich mainly in electrolytes and bicarbonate.
Cholecystokinin releases fluid, predominantly rich in electrolytes, and bicarbonate.
All pancreatic enzymes are secreted in an inactive form.
Surgery
Pancreas
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multi
Enzyme replacement therapy is available for ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gauchers disease Enzyme replacement therapy refers to the replacement of missing enzyme, aificiallyGaucher's disease was the first one in which successful enzyme replacement therapy was tried.Enzyme replacement therapy is currently available for some lysosomal storage diseases :-Gaucher's disease Muco...
1
Gauchers disease
Galactosemia
Fructosuria
null
Biochemistry
null
89f5ee0b-1b8d-4bb7-828b-3679b24e51b4
multi
Which type of cervical finish line prepared will result in an overcontoured restoration?
Knife-edge margin provides inadequate bulk for the material and underpreparation. Overcontoured crowns result mainly due to underprepared teeth.
2
Chamfer
Knife-edge
Shoulder
Shoulder with bevel
Dental
null
ca7833dd-9cd5-4f87-8acd-c6774ba74028
single
Which of the following is the preferred marker for detecting acute STEMI in athletes
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1594 Patients with NSTEMI have elevated biomarkers of necrosis, such as cardiac troponin I or T, which are specific, sensitive, and the preferred markers of myocardial necrosis. The MB isoform of creatine kinase (CK-MB) is a less sensitive alternative. Elevated levels of these markers distingui...
2
CK-MB
Troponin 1
C reactive protein
LDH
Medicine
C.V.S
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single
Cavernous sinus does not communicate with the:
null
2
Internal jugular vein.
External jugular vein.
Opthalmic vein.
Pterygoid plexus.
Anatomy
null
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single
Transplantation between genetically different members of the same species is termed as
null
3
Autograft
Isograft
Allograft
Xenograft
Dental
null
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multi
Thalidomide, used for multiple myeloma, is:
ThaThe thalidomide story could well have ended with the tragedy of bih defects in the early 1960s but for a serendipitous finding: in a patient with mania and leprosy, thalidomide given as a sedative dramatically improved the leprotic skin lesions. Despite the major drawbacks of thalidomide - teratogenicity and axonal ...
2
Associated with diarrhea
Characterized by enantiomeric interconversions
Metabolized extensively by hepatic
CYP system Safe for use in pregnant females
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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single
The non-active carious lesion is distinguished by all except:
null
4
Covered by a layer of plaque
Soft and leathery in consistensy
Brown or black discolouration
Severe pain during caries removal
Dental
null
681eb9a2-0a45-4611-badb-9a51c699b79b
multi
A housewife ingests a rodenticide white powder accidentally. She is brought to hospital where the examination shows generalized, flaccid paralysis and an irregular pulse. ECG shows multiple ventricular ectopics, generalized changes with ST. Serum potassium is 2.5 mE/l. The most likely ingested poison is -
Ingestion of ceain forms of barium (e.g., barium carbonate or barium fluoride) in toxic amounts can lead to gastrointestinal signs and symptoms (e.g., vomiting, abdominal pain, and watery diarrhea).Severe hypokalemia induced by barium toxicity can cause ventricular dysrhythmias Oral or inhalation administration of bari...
1
Barium carbonate
Superwarfarins
Zinc phosphide
Aluminium phosphide
Medicine
Toxicology
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Necrotizing pappillitis is seen in :
Answer is A (Salicylate poisoning) 'Salicylate poisoning' or analgesic abuse nephropathy is one of the most common causes of necrotizing papillitis.
1
Salicylate poisoning
Glomerulonephritis
PNH
Diabetes insipidus
Medicine
null
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single
Dibucaine number is
Dibucaine number gives percentage of abnormal pseudocholinesterase.
2
Gives percentage of lignocaine levels in blood
Gives percentage of abnormal pseudocholinesterase in blood.
Gives percentage of metabolised lignocaine levels
Gives percentage of succinylcholine in blood.
Anaesthesia
null
86c77b48-c605-4b22-acad-1224ae9e9c89
single
The interarch relationship in the pre-dental stage is judged by?
Explanation: The gum pads get divided into a labio/buccal and a lingual portion which differentiates later. Transverse grooves separate the gum pads into 10 segments. The groove between the canine and the first molar region is called the lateral sulcus, which helps to judge the inter-arch relationship.
3
Dental groove
Gingival groove
Lateral sulcus
Transverse groove
Dental
null
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single
A 41 year old male patient presented with recurrent episodes of bloody diarrhea & mucus for 5 years. Despite regular treatment with adequate doses of sulfasalazine, he has had several exacerbations of his disease and required several weeks of steroids for the control for flares. What should be the next line of treatmen...
Answer is B (Azathioprine) Maintenance therapy with sullasahrzine was not able to maintain the patient in remission and he required coicosteroid for the control of his exacerabations. Patient is now in remission and requines a drug which can maintain him in remission. Azathioprine reduces requirement of steroids in pat...
2
Methotrexate
Azathioprine
Cyclosporine
Cyclophosphamide
Medicine
null
68556517-ee88-4c58-a318-b141f028a19a
single
Which of the following worm is shown in the specimen?
Ans. (a) Ascariasis lumbricoides.Image source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">
1
Ascariasis lumbricoides
Trichinella
Wuchereria bancrofti
Trichuriasis
Microbiology
Parasitology
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single
All of the following statements are false regarding sarcoidosis, except:
Sarcoidosis The lungs are involved is seen in 90% cases. Clinical manifestations include lymph node enlargement, eye involvement (sicca syndrome , iritis, or iridocyclitis), skin lesions (e.g., erythema nodosum), and visceral (liver, skin, marrow) involvement. Lymph nodes are involved in almost all cases, paicularly th...
4
Schaumann bodies and asteroid bodies are not seen
BAL (broncho-alveolar lavage) fluid shows CD8/CD4 T cell ratio of 4:1
Hilar and mediastinal lymph nodes are spared
Can be associated with unilateral or bilateral iritis or iridocyclitis
Pathology
Sarcoidosis
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A person is diagnosed to be a diabetic on his 45th birthday. You will recommend a dilated fundoscopic examination:
165. Ans. a. Immediately (Ref. Harrison 19/e p2408, 18/e p3000; Kanski's 5/e p439, 455, Parsons 20/e p294-299)If a person is diagnosed to be a diabetic on his 45th birthday, dilatedfundoscopic examination should be recommended immediately.'Ophthalmoscopic examination should be done in patients of non-insulin dependent ...
1
Immediately
Before his 50th birthday
When he turns 50 years of age
When he complains dimness of vision
Ophthalmology
Vascular Disorders
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single
A 10-year-old male presented with right inguinal hernia with ileunt extending to hernia. Pain perceived in
(A) Right inguinal region
1
Right inguinal region
Umbilical region
Epigastric region
Hypogastric region
Surgery
Miscellaneous
6bebc856-df03-4bea-b9ec-0a14f24e8e57
single
Romiplostim acts on which of the following receptors:
Romiplostim: Genetically engineered protein in which the Fc component of a human antibody is fused to two copies of a peptide that stimulates the thrombopoietin receptors; approved for treatment of idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura Ref: Katzung 11th edition Chapter 33.
1
Thrombopoeitin
IL 6
IL 8
PGE 1
Medicine
null
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single
The age and sex structure of a population may be described by a
Population pyramid: (age-sex pyramid or age-structure diagram) Is a graphical illustration that shows the distribution of various age groups in a population which normally forms the shape of a pyramid – Double Histogram: 2 back-to-back histogram graphs 1. one showing the number of males and 2. one showing females in a...
3
Life table
Correlation coefficient
Population pyramid
Bar chart
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Investigation of choice in pheochromocytoma is:
Answer is B (Urinary Catecholamines): Pheochromocytomas synthesize and store catecholamines which include norepinephrine, epinephrine and dopamine. The investigation of choice for diagnosis of Pheochromocytomas is determination of elevated levels of catecholamines and their methylated metabolites (metanephrines) in the...
2
CT scan
Urinary catecholamines
MIBG scan
MRI Scan
Medicine
null
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single
Net filtration pressure is
The Net Filtration Pressure (NFP) at the glomerulus is the difference between the net hydrostatic pressure and the blood colloid osmotic pressure acting across the glomerular capillaries and is normally 10mm of Hg. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 464,465,466
2
32 mm Hg
10 mm Hg
60 mm Hg
20 mm Hg
Physiology
Renal physiology
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single
The wrong statement about psychoanalysis is -
In psychoanalysis the patient is allowed to communicate unguided, by using free association. About other options Transference is unconscious transfer of patient's feelings from a person in the past to therapist, i.e. patient's feelings for therapist. Countertransference is a therapist's feelings for a patient. All ment...
4
Parapraxes has meaning
Transference is patient's feeling for therapist
Counter transference is clinican's feeling for patient
Unguided communication has no meaning
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Topic : Thyrotoxicosis 1. Amiodarone can cause thyrotoxicosis 2. Plummer's nails are seen 3. Pretibial myxoedema is a feature 4. Ferritin is usually elevated 5. Initial investigation is TSH and free T3
Initial investigation in a case of thyrotoxicosis includes estimation of TSH and unbound T4 levels. Amiodarone is associated with thyrotoxicosis without hypehyroidism. Other causes of thyrotoxicosis without hypehyroidism are subacute thyroiditis, silent thyroiditis and factitious thyrotoxicosis. Skin manifestations of ...
3
1, 2 - True & 3, 4, 5 - False
3, 4 - True & 1, 2, 5 - False
1, 2, 3, 4 - True & 5 - False
4, 5 - True & 1, 2, 3 - False
Medicine
null
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multi
False about Henoch Schonlein Purpura:-
Palpable purpura is due to Vasculitis.
2
Type 3 Hypersensitivity
Palpable purpura due to thrombocytopenia
Mild glomerulonephritis
Polyarthralgia
Medicine
null
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multi
Main disadvantage of glass bead sterilizer:
The hottest part of glass bead sterilizer is along its outer rim and the temperature is lowest in the centre of surface layer of salt.  To sterilize an instrument properly, one should immerse at least a  “quarter-inch" below the salt surface and in peripheral area of the sterilizer.  The main disadvantage of glass bead...
3
Technique sensitive
Only glass instruments can be sterilized
Only small instruments can be sterilized
None of the above
Dental
null
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multi
Most common receptor for typical antipsychotics is -
Ans. is 'b' i.e.. D2 ANTIPSYCHOT1CSo Antipsychotic (neuroleptic) drugs can be divided into typical and atypical.Typicalo Block D, receptorso Have significant extrapyramidal symptoms (except for thioridazine) - Parkinsonism, Acute muscular dystonia, Akathisia, Malignant neuroleptic syndrome. Tardive dyskinesia,o Drugs a...
2
D1
D2
D3
D4
Pharmacology
C.N.S
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single
In case of Ca lung which among the following will be C/I for surgical resection -
null
1
Malignant pleural effusion
Hilar lymphadenopathy
Consolidation of one lobe
Involvement of visceral pleura.
Surgery
null
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single
Posterior colpotomy is done for?
ANSWER: (D) AllREF: Infectious Diseases of the Female Genital Tract by Richard L. Sweet, Ronald S. Gibbs - Page 109Posterior colpotomy is done to evacuate pus and to establish drainage from a pelvic (cul-de-sac) abscess or a tubo-ovarian abscess. It is also done in a search for blood when tubal pregnancy is suspected.P...
4
Pelvic abscess
Pelvic Haematocele
Ovarian abscess
All
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Operative Gynaecology
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multi
Gustatory cortex is situated in:
Ans. D Inferior parietal gyrusRef: Gray 's, 41st ed. pg. 313* The sense of taste (SVA-special visceral efferent) is transduced by gustatory hair (neuroepithelium), taste buds and is conveyed via three of the twelve cranial nerves.# The facial nerve carries taste sensations from the anterior two thirds of the tongue (ex...
4
Superior temporal gyrus
Inferior frontal gyrus
Superior frontal gyrus
Inferior parietal gyrus
Anatomy
Neuroanatomy
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single
Which of the following tumors is associated with drop metastasis?
At the edges of the main tumor mass, medulloblastoma cells have a propensity to form linear chains of cells infiltrating through cerebellar coex to aggregate beneath the pia, penetrate the pia, and seed into the subarachnoid space. Dissemination through the CSF is a common complication, presenting as nodular masses els...
3
Astrocytoma
Ependymoma
Medulloblastoma
Oligodendroglioma
Pathology
null
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single
The ideal temperature of water to cool down the burned area is
Cool the burn wound. This provides analgesia and slows the delayed microvascular damage that can occur after a burn injury. Cooling should occur for a minimum of 10 minutes and is effective up to 1 hour after the burn injury. It is a paicularly impoant first aid step in paial-thickness burns, especially scalds. In temp...
3
5degc
10degc
15degc
20degc
Anatomy
General anatomy
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False statements are:
A i.e. Multiple origins of replication are possible for bacteria; B i.e. Lagging strand stick by RNA primase; C i.e. DNA replication proceeds in one direction
4
Multiple origins of replication are possible for bacteria
Lagging strand stick by RNA primase;
DNA replication proceeds in one direction
All
Biochemistry
null
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multi
Miliary shadow on chest X-ray is not seen in: March 2010
Ans. D: COPD Conditions producing miliary shadows on chest X-ray: Sarcoidosis Silicosis/pneumoconiosis Extrinsic allergic alveolitis Langerhans cell histiocytosis Lymphangitis carcinomatosis Miliary tuberculosis Metastases
4
Pneumoconiosis
Sarcoidosis
Tuberculosis
COPD
Pathology
null
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single
The cardinal sign of inflammation called rubor is mainly the result of:
Inflammation can be defined as the reaction of vascularized living tissue to local injury. Celsus originally described four cardinal signs of inflammation: rubor (redness), tumor (swelling), calor (heat), and dolor (pain). Virchow later added a fifth sign, loss of function (functio laesa). Redness (rubor) and heat (cal...
4
Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure
Decreased vascular permeability of capillaries
Increased vascular permeability of venules
Vasodilation of arterioles
Pathology
null
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multi
Which drug is not used now in Alzheimer's disease
Because of hepatotoxicity,and requirements of frequent dosing,tacrine is less often used than other agents Ref-KDT 6/e p104,472,473
1
Tacrine
Galantamine
Donepezil
Rivastigmine
Pharmacology
Autonomic nervous system
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single
Most common cause of spontaneous SAH
*85%of SAH are caused by saccular or 'berry' aneurysms arising from the bifurcation of cerebral aeries paicularly in region of the circle of willis . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2445
2
Trauma
Aneurysm
AV malformation
Hypeension
Medicine
C.N.S
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single
Mounier Kuhn syndrome is seen on imaging as?
Ans BIt is a disorder of elastic cartilage and smooth muscle of trachea where there is unusual enlargement of the trachea and bronchus during inspiration. Biphasic CT with images of the trachea obtained during inspiration and expiration - is most sensitive investigation. Two-phase chest radiographs will also demonstrat...
2
Tracheal stenosis
Tracheobronchomegaly
Tracheal erosions
Sabre sheath trachea
Radiology
Respiratory System
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single
Intracellular soing and packing done by
The Golgi apparatus plays two major roles in protein synthesis. First, it is involved in the processing of the oligosaccharide chains of membrane and other N-linked glycoproteins and also contains enzymes involved in O-glycosylation.Second, it is involved in the soing of various proteins prior to their delivery to thei...
2
ER
Golgi apparatus
Ribosome
Cytoplasm
Biochemistry
Structure and function of protein
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single
The intestinal epithelial cells exhibit a striated luminal border (brush border). All are true about the brush border microvilli except?
The columnar epithelial cells are responsible for absorption. These cells exhibit a striated luminal border or brush border. The microvilli account for the appearance of the brush border. The microvilli greatly increase the absorption surface of the epithelial cell. The brush border contains disaccharidase in high conc...
4
Produce the brush border appearance.
Increase absorptive area.
Play an impoant role in digestion.
Contain trypsinogen.
Surgery
Small intestine
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Largest cranial nerve
SOME KEY FACTS ABOUT CRANIAL NERVES Trigeminal is the largest cranial nerve. Vagus nerve is with vague or extensive distribution. Olfactory is the smallest cranial nerve. iv) Trochlear nerve shows largest intracranial course.        v) Buccal nerve is the only sensory branch of anterior division of mandibular nerve ...
3
Vagus
Trochlear
Trigeminal
Olfactory
Anatomy
null
b58354f5-d754-4d60-b520-ea7578a1b8b0
single
Which of the following will cause post operative haemorrhage?
null
4
Salicylates
Liver cirrhosis
Prolonged antibiotic administration
All of the above
Surgery
null
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multi
Spontaneous pneumothorax exceeding .....% of chest cavity should have a chest tube inseed -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 25 Exact answer according to Schwaz in 30%.
2
10
25
45
60
Surgery
null
b42bc155-385d-4fbf-aef7-62c4510e924f
single
A 10 year old male gives history of fracture in the elbow region 3 years back, now presents with tingling sensation and numbness in little finger, probable fracture is
null
2
Suprocondylar humerus fracture
Lateral condyl humerus fracture
Elbow dislocation
Pulled elbow
Orthopaedics
null
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single
Adrenal hyperplasia due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency is treated with low dose –
Cortisol deficiency is treated with glucocorticoids. Hydrocortisone is given. Note - For prenatal treatment dexamethasone is given.
3
Androgen
Estrogen
Cortisone
Anti – androgen
Pediatrics
null
1160de7f-7242-4db0-b0e3-c07fefa20a0e
single
Resolution of inflammation caused by ?
Ans. is ' c' i.e., TNF Alfa, IL-10 and IL 1 receptor antagonist Actually no option is absolutely correct: IL-10 is an anti-inflammatory cytokine Cause resolution of inflammation IL-1 is a pro-inflammatory cytokine - IL-1 receptor antagonism will cause resolution of inflammation TNF-a is an pro-inflammatory cytokine - c...
3
TNF Alfa, IL-1 and CRP
TNF beta, IL-6 and CRP
TNF Alfa, IL 10 and IL 1 receptor antagonist
TNF gamma
Pathology
null
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single
Ante's law provides an aid for
null
4
Selection of pontic
Selection of connector
Selection of retainers
Selection of abutments
Dental
null
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single
In respiratory and GIT infections, which is the most affected immunoglobulin?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., IgA(Ref: Ananthanarayan,9th/e, p. 97 - 98 and 8th/e, p. 98 - 99)* IgA (Secretory IgA) is selectively concentrated in secretions and on mucous surfaces forming an antibody paste and is believed to play, an important role in local immunity against respiratory and intestinal pathogens.
1
IgA
IgG
IgM
IgD
Microbiology
Immunology
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single
Which of the following is the major side effect of rifampicin ?
null
2
Renal failure
Hepatotoxicity
Bone marrow suppression
Blood dyscrasias
Pharmacology
null
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single
Not a part of Infant mortality-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Stillbirth Components of infant mortality | | | Neonatal deaths Post Neonatal deaths Deaths occurring during the neonatal period commencing from birth and ending 28 completed days after birth. Deaths occurring from 28 days of life to under one year. | | | Early Neonatal deaths Late Neonatal deaths Dea...
4
Neonatal mortality
Postneonatal mortality
Late neonatal death
Still birth
Unknown
null
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single
Aggravation of symptoms of angina in a patient when given nitrates is seen in-
In subaoic stenosis, if vasodilators are given, it reduces the afterload, hence increasing the pressure gradient between the LV and aoa. This increases the ejection murmur. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 441
4
Aoic regurgitation
Mitral regurgitation
Single left coronary aery stenosis
Idiopathic hyperophic subaoic stenosis
Medicine
C.V.S
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single
Neural tube formation occurs on
null
1
18 to 23 days post fertilization and is the second stage of craniofacial development
28 to 38 days post fertilization and is the third stage of craniofacial development
42 to 55 days post fertilization and is the fourth stage of craniofacial development
17th day post fertilization and is the first stage of craniofacial development
Anatomy
null
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single
Which of the following ACE inhibitor is not a prodrug -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Captopril o All ACE inhibitors are prod rugs except captopril and Lisinopril.
1
Captopril
Enalapril
Ramipril
All
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Marble bone disease is better known as?
ANSWER: (C) OsteopetrosisREF: Bone diseases: macroscopic, histological, and radiological diagnosis By Claus-Peter Adler- Page 54Osteopetrosis, literally "stone bone", also known as marble bone disease and Albers-Schonbergdisease is an extremely rare inherited disorder whereby the bones harden, becoming denser due to in...
3
Osteoporosis
Osteochondritis
Osteopetrosis
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Orthopaedics
Metabolic Disorders Leading to Osteosclerosis
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single
Clinical features of Conus Medullaris syndrome include all of the following, except:
In conus medullaris syndrome knee jerks are preserved while the ankle jerks are affected. It is an impoant feature differentiating it with cauda equina syndrome. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Pages 2439-40; Neurology Oral Boards Review: A Concise and Systematic Approach to Clinical Prac...
2
Plantar extensor
Absent knee and ankle jerks
Sacral anesthesia
Lower sacral and coccygeal involvement
Medicine
null
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multi
All of the following drugs are oxytocics except:
null
4
Oxytocin
Ergometrine
Prostaglandin
Orciprenaline
Pharmacology
null
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multi
Measurement of bilirubin in serum is by
Measurement of Bilirubin in SerumQuantitation of bilirubin employs a colorimetric method based on the reddish-purple color formed when bilirubin reacts with diazotized sulfanilic acid. An assay conducted in the absence of added methanol measures "direct bilirubin," which is bilirubin glucuronide. An assay conducted in ...
1
Colorimetric method
Electrophoresis
Spectrophotometry
Chromatography
Biochemistry
Metabolism of carbohydrate
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single
What is the reason for following set of symptoms after prostatic Sx-restlessness, vomiting and change in sensorium -
null
1
Electrolyte imbalance
Bladder neck obstruction
Acute pyelonephritis
Ureter stenosis
Surgery
null
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single
Periconceptional use of the following agent teads to reduced incidence ol neural tube defects :
Ans. is a i.e. Folic acid
1
Folic acid
Iron
Calcium
Vitamin A
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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A 24-year-old woman with leukemia receives an allogeneic bone marrow transplant. Three weeks later, she develops a skin rash and diarrhea. Liver function tests show elevated serum levels of AST and ALT. A skin biopsy discloses a sparse lymphocytic infiltrate in the dermis and epidermis, as well as apoptotic cells in th...
The advent of transplantation of bone marrow into patients whose immune system has been ablated or into otherwise immunodeficient patients has resulted in the complication of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD occurs when lymphocytes in the grafted tissue recognize and react to the recipient. GVHD can also occur wh...
1
Donor lymphocytes
Donor plasma cells
Fixed tissue macrophages
Recipient lymphocytes
Pathology
Organ Transplant / Graft
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multi
Incidence of disease among exposed minus that of non exposed is equal to -
Attributable risk indicates to what extent the disease under study can be attributed to the exposures. It is often expressed as a percent (refer pgno:78 park 23 rd edition)
2
Relative risk
Attributable risk
Odd ratio
None of the above
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
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multi
A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore throat, diarrhea and sexual contact 2 weeks before. The best investigation to rule out HIV is:
Ans. is 'a' i.e., p. 24 antigen assay (Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 577 - 578 and 8th/e, p. 576)* p24 antigen is the earliest virus marker to appear in blood and is the one tested for.* It may be detectable in blood after about 2 weeks.Remember: Nucleic acid tests (RT - PCR, BONA, PCR) are the earliest test to become...
1
p24 antigen assay
ELISA
Western blot
Lymph node biopsy
Microbiology
Human Immunodeficiency Virus
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single
Most common type of optic nerve glioma is
Pilocytic means that the tumor cells are hair like. pilocytic astrocytoma is the most common type Refer khurana 6/e 410
2
Protoplasmic
Pilocytic
Gemistocytic
Fibrous
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
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All the following drugs are effective in the treatment of Pityriasis Versicolor except:
Griseofulvin has no role in treatment of tinea versicolor. Griseofulvin is used systemically for dermotophytes (microsporum infection). It is ineffective topically. Treatment of Tinea/ Pityriasis versicolar Systemic (oral) Local (Shampoo/cream) New treatment Old Treatment Ketocoazole Itraconazole Micoconazole Econazole...
3
Selenium Sulphide
Ketoconazole
Griseofulvin
Clotrimazole
Dental
Fungal infections
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A patient develops a persistent macrocytic anemia. Serum folate levels are normal, but serum vitamin B12 levels are low. Oral vitamin absorption studies demonstrate that the patient is unable to absorb vitamin B12 in adequate amounts. Cancer of which of the following organs is most strongly associated with this patient...
Megaloblastic anemia with poor vitamin B12 absorption suggests pernicious anemia. In this condition, an autoimmune attack on gastric parietal cells leads to atrophic gastritis with deficient synthesis of the intrinsic factor needed for vitamin B12 absorption. Vitamin B12 is required for DNA synthesis in blood cell prec...
4
Colon
Duodenum
Esophagus
Stomach
Pathology
null
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single
A 2 year old child has a Mantoux test reading of 12 mm x 12 mm after 48 hours. In this case ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anti-TB drugs should be staed even if x-ray chest and haemogram are normal
1
Anti-TB drugs should be staed even if x -ray chest and haemogram are normal
Treatment should be staed only if x-ray chest and haemogram are suggestive
One should wait till ove sign of TB appear
No treatment is required
Pediatrics
null
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single
Anaesthetic agent which is explosive in the presence of cautery:
Ans. (B) Ether(Ref: Goodman & Gilman 11th/e p341; KDT 8th/e p405)Ether is an explosive agent and should not be used with cautery.
2
Nitrous oxide
Ether
Trilene
Halothane
Pharmacology
Anaesthesia
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single
Which of the following is a new Major Jones criteria in high risk population, according to AHA & world hea federation 2015 criteria:-
Revised Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever (2015) American Hea Association and World Health Federation For all populations with: - Initial episode of acute rheumatic fever: Two major / one major + two minor criteria - Recurrent episodes of acute rheumatic fever: Two major / one major + two minor / three minor cri...
3
Monoahralgia
Chorea
Monoahritis
Polyahritis
Pediatrics
Other hea diseases in children
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single
Sentinel biopsy most effective in:
Vulval carcinoma the lymphatic spread is primarily by embolisation and only in later stages the spread is by permeation to fill the lymphatic channels The lymph node involvement follows a sequential pattern. the lymphatics of labia->superficialinguinal lymph nodes->deep inguinal lymph nodes->pelvic nodes Regional lymph...
3
Cervix cancer
Endometrium ca
Vulval ca
Vaginal ca
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
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Pit latrine has a depth of ____ feet
Dug well latrine or pit latrine is an improvement over borehole latrine. A circular pit of 75 cm in diameter and 3-3.5 m (10-12 ft) deep is dug to the ground for the reception of the night soil. The pit may be lined by pottery rings. Merits are: easy to construct, has a longer life than borehole latrine. Park's Textboo...
4
4-Feb
6-Apr
10-Jun
12-Oct
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and health
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single
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia III with no colposcopy activity treatment of choice :
Conisation
3
Hysterectomy
Radiotherapy
Conisation
Follow up after 1 year
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
A physician, after examining a group of patients of a ceain disease, classifies the condition of each one as 'Normal', 'Mild', 'Moderate' or 'Severe'. Which one of the following is the scale of measurement that is being adopted for classification of the disease condition?
In the given question, a physician, after examining a group of patients of a ceain disease, classifies the condition of each one as 'Normal', 'Mild', 'Moderate' or 'Severe'. 'Normal-mild-moderate-severe' is a continuum of outcome for a variable, thus is measured on an Ordinal scale.
4
Normal
Interval
Ration
Ordinal
Social & Preventive Medicine
Variables, Scales
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single
A country is certified for Polio eradication, if there is no virologically confirmed diagnosed case of polio for the last years -
null
4
1
2
3
5
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
A noncompetitive inhibitor of an enzyme does which of the following?
Ans. A. Decreased VmaxIn Contrast to competitive inhibitors, noncompetitive inhibitors are not structural analogues of the substrate. Consequently, noncompetitive inhibitors bind to enzymes in locations remote from the active site. For this reason, the degree of inhibition is based solely upon the concentration of inhi...
1
Decreased Vmax
Increased Vmax
Decreased Km and decreases Vmax
Increases Km and increases Vmax
Biochemistry
Enzymes
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single
A primigravida at term with mitral stenosis in labor wants analgesia for normal delivery. which form of Anesthesia to be used for her?
Epidural anesthesia during PregnancyCombined spinal-epidural analgesia during labor using intrathecal fentanyl 25 mcg produces good analgesia without major hemodynamic changes during the first stage of labor.During the second stage of labor, only the uterine contractile force should be allowed rather than the maternal ...
3
Inhalational Anaesthesia
Spinal Anaesthesia
Epidural Anaesthesia
Opioids
Anatomy
All India exam
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single
Which of the following statements about the action of the somatomedin is true?
null
3
They inhibit protein synthesis
They antagonize the effect of insulin
They promote growth of bone and cartilage
They mediate the local effects of Somatostatin
Physiology
null
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multi
Fibrinoid necrosis may be observed in all of the following except -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Diabetic glomerulosclerosis Fibrinoid necrosis o Fibrinoid necrosis is special form of necrosis usually seen in immune reactions involving blood vessels. o This pattern of necrosis typically occurs when complexes of antigen and antibodies are deposited in the walls of aeries. o Deposits of these "immu...
3
Malignant hypeension
Polyaeritis nodosa
Diabetic glomerulosclerosis
Aschoff's nodule
Pathology
null
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multi
Chemical peeling is done by all except
chemical peel:-Simple office procedure in which a chemical agent of defined strength is selected according to requirement and applied on skin in controlled manner. Followed by peeling of skin.Agents used:-Glycolic acid Lactic acidMandelic acid Salicylic acidTCAKojic acid Pyruvic acidJessner's solution Retinoic acidReso...
2
Trichloroacetic acid
phosphoric acid
Carbolic acid
Kojic acid
Dental
miscellaneous
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multi
Tzank cell is a -
D. i.e. Keratinocyte
4
Lymphocyte
Monocyte
Neutrophil
Keratinocyte
Radiology
null
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single
A patient consumes strict vegetarian diet and does NOT take any animal product. He is going to suffer from deficiency of which vitamin: March 2013 (b, e)
Ans. D i.e. Vitamin B12 Vitamin B12 can be found in large quantities in animal products, including meat, poultry, fish, seafood, eggs, and dairy products; and the consumption of these products is the most longstanding method by which human beings have taken vitamin Buinto their systems.
4
B1
B3
B4
B12
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Disinfectants used for blood spills-
Ans. is `d' i.e., Sodium hypochlorite
4
Phenol
Glutaraldehyde
Ethanol
Sodium hypochlorite
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Which of the following is associated with reaction resulting in skin change resembling a patch of scleroderma?
Sclerodermiform reaction to vitamin K Intramuscular injection Vit. K is followed by an erythematous plaque in the lumbosacral area, which takes on a dusky colour and becomes infiltrated and itchy after 10-15 days. After some months, it resembles a patch of scleroderma, ivory-white in colour with a surrounding lilac rin...
1
Intramuscular injection of vitamin K preparations
Intramuscular injection of thiamine preparations
Intramuscular injection of cyanocobalamine preparations
Intramuscular injection of calcium preparations
Dental
Nutrition and Metabolic disorders,Systemic conditions ,Genodermatoses, Connective tissue disorders,Photodermatoses
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single
An 34 year old male HIV patient on c-A presents with seizures, unilateral facial nerve palsy. CT scan shows ring enhancement lesion. Best treatment is:
Causes of seizures in HIV positive Pt: - HIV related encephalopathy Cerebral toxoplasmosis Neurocysticercosis CNS lymphoma Cerebral Toxoplasmosis MRI of cerebral toxoplasmosis showing 2 ring enhancing lesions- "lighting up" with intravenous contrast Rx: sulfadiazine +pyrimethamine +Leucovorin Neurocysticercosis - Rx - ...
4
Albendazole with dexamethasone
Amphotericin B
ATT with steroids
Sulphadiazine, pyrimethamine and Leucovorin
Medicine
JIPMER 2017
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single
A liver biopsy reveals following findings. What is true about this condition?
Ans. a. Nutmeg liver with dark areas of perivenular dead hepatocytes and gray areas of periportal viable hepatocytes (Ref: Robbins 9/e p864. 8/e p872)This is a classical picture of nutmeg liver seen in chronic passive venous congestion on liver. The dark congested areas consist of necrotic hepatocytes while the surroun...
1
Nutmeg liver with dark areas of perivenular dead hepatocytes and gray areas of periportal viable hepatocytes
Nodular regenerative hyperplasia of liver induced due to OCPs
Nutmeg liver with pale areas of necrosis and dark congested areas of perivenular viable hepatocytes
Cirrhotic liver with fibrotic nodules.
Pathology
Pancreas
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Free gas in abdomen (under the diaphragm) can be best diagnosed by which X–ray –
The best view to see pneumoperitoneum is Chest X-ray (not abdominal X-ray) in upright position which detects air under the domes of diaphragm.
1
Standing
Right lateral recumbent view
Left lateral recumbent view
Sitting position
Radiology
null
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single
Specificity of a screening test measures
Specificity in the above image = d/(b+d)x100 Specificity is defined as the ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease, that is, "true-negatives". Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 152
4
False positives
True positives
False negatives
True negatives
Social & Preventive Medicine
Epidemiology
224dfdde-ee01-4435-bc49-e638e5a33a5c
multi
Psedomonas is which type of bacteria ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Strict aerobe
3
Anaerobic
Microaerophilic
Microaerophilic
Obligate anaerobe
Microbiology
null
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single
A structure marked with a red arrow is derived from which of the following ?
A structure marked with a red arrow is derived from endocardial cushion Structures derived from endocardial cushion are : Atrial septum Membranous pa of ventricular septum Atrioventricular canal, valves Aoo-pulmonary channels Any endocardial cushion defect = Cardiac malformation
3
Bulbous venosus
Septum primum
Endocardial cushion
Left venous valve
Anatomy
Surfaces and Grooves
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single
Maximum cones are seen in: March 2005
Ans. B: Fovea centralis There are two basic types of retinal photo-receptors: Cones, responding to bright-light conditions, and Rods, responding to low-intensity light Depending on their spectral sensitivity, the former belong to either L (long-wavelengths sensitive), M (mid-wavelengths sensitive) or S (sho-wavelengths...
2
Limbus
Fovea centralis
Macula lutea
Blind spot
Ophthalmology
null
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single
A recurrent chalazion should be subjected to histopathologic evalution to exclude the possibility of -
Chalazion, also called a tarsal or meibomian cyst, is a chronic non-infective (non-suppurative) lipogranulomatous Inflammation of the meibomian gland. Commonest of all lid lumps. Recurrent Chalazion may undergo malignant change into meibomian gland adenocarcinoma (sebaceous cell carcinoma) usually in elderly. Ref:AK Kh...
2
Squamous cell carcinoma
Sebaceous cell carcinoma
Malignant melanoma
Basal cell carcinoma
Ophthalmology
Diseases of orbit, Lids and lacrimal apparatus
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single
Steady state concentration is achieved in how many half-lives:
Ans. C. 4-5If fixed dose of drug is administered at regular intervals. Rate of administration becomes equal to rate of elimination. Plasma concentration stabilizes. This is known as steady state concentration. Time taken to reach steady state is 4-5 half lives.
3
3-Feb
4-Mar
5-Apr
6-May
Pharmacology
General Pharmacology
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single
Which of the following is not used as a topical LA?
null
1
Procaine
Tetracaine
Lidocaine
Benzocaine
Surgery
null
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single
Prolactin production is controlled by:
Ans. (c) DopamineRef KDT 6th ed. / 235-236* Prolactin is under predominant inhibitory control of hypothalamus through PRIH (Prolactin Release Inhibitory Hormone), which is Dopamine that acts on pituitary lactotrope D2 receptor.* A progressive increase in prolactin occurs during pregnancy, peaking at term. After childbi...
3
Metoclopramide
Chlorpromazine
Dopamine
null
Pharmacology
Bromocriptine
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multi
All are true about apoptosis except:
Features of Necrosis and Apoptosis Feature Necrosis Apoptosis Nucleus Pyknosis - Karyorrhexis - Karyolysis Fragmentation into nucleosome size fragments Cell size Enlarged (swelling) Reduced (Shrinkage) Cellular contents Enzymatic digestion; may leak out of cell Intact; may be released in apoptotic bodies Plasma membran...
1
Inflammation is seen
Nuclear condensation
Chromatin cleavage
Cell shrinkage
Pathology
General Pathology
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