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In a patient with a liver disease, which maneuvers, may lead to the development of hyperammonemia?
The use of loop diuretics promotes kaliuresis and therefore may lead to hyperammonemia. Ref: Harrison; 19th edition
3
Protein restriction
The use of neomycin
The use of loop diuretics
A branched-chain amino acid-enriched protein mixture
Medicine
C.V.S
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single
In wood lamp examination,Tinea versicolor looks like
Tinea versicolor is caused by Malassezia furfur. examination shows a golden yellow fluorescence under ultraviolet light of Wood&;s lamp. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker&;s 9th edition, pg no:615
3
Green
Red
Yellow
Blue
Pediatrics
Infectious disease
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single
True about Latissimus dorsi -a) Nerve supply from long thoracic nerveb) Inserted into bicipital groove of humerusc) Use to fill up back defectsd) Blood supply from lateral thoracic arterye) Origin from upper four ribs
Latissimus dorsi originates from T7 to T12 spines, thoracolumbar fascia, outer lip of iliac crest, lower 4 ribs and inferior angle of scapula to insert into the floor of bicipital groove. It is innervated by thoracodorsal nerve. It is used as musculocutaneous flap to fill areas of tissue loss. Action: -        Adductio...
2
a
bc
ac
ad
Anatomy
null
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multi
A 40 years old patient came to surgery OPD with swelling in the left lateral aspect of the neck. On examination, the swelling was painless, can be moved side to side but not up and down. No history of TB. Blood workup included thyroid profile and CBC which came to be normal. Ultrasound of swelling was performed and sho...
Lyre sign- refers to the splaying of the internal and external carotid by a carotid body tumor. Fibromatosis colli is a rare form of infantile fibromatosis that occurs within the sternocleidomastoid muscle. USG is IOC.
4
Fibromatosis colli
Tubercular lymph node
Soft tissue sarcoma
Carotid body paraganglioma
Radiology
Cardiovascular Radiology
e2cd0d14-5598-4db8-a34b-1811136ea039
single
The following is not the differential diagnosis of an anterior mediastinal mass.
B i.e. Neurogenic tumor Neurogenic tumors (arising in posterior nerve structues) are the most common posterior mediastinal tumor but these do not occur in anterior mediastinumQ. And posterior mediastinum is the most common location for neurogenic tumors.
2
Teratoma
Neurogenic tumor
Thymoma
Lymphoma
Anaesthesia
null
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single
Rotation of a distal extension base around vertical axis is resisted by
It is resisted by stabilizing components, such as reciprocal clasp arms and minor connectors that are in contact with vertical tooth surfaces. Such stabilizing components are essential to any partial denture design regardless of the manner of support and the type of direct retention employed. Stabilizing components on ...
2
Rigidity of major connector
Reciprocal clasp arms
Retentive clasp arms
All of the above
Dental
null
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multi
Soft exudates are found in :
A, B, C i.e. DM; HTN; Toxemia; Coat's disease
4
DM
HTN
Toxemia
All
Ophthalmology
null
b6ec5d59-c786-4a05-9a4a-34194eddcad4
multi
which muscle doesnot contribute to pes anserinus ?
except semimembranous rest of the msucles together is called pes ansirinus Pes anserinus ("goose foot") refers to the conjoined tendons. of three muscles that inse ont the anteromedial (front and inside) surface of the proximal sera extremity of the tibia. * The muscles are the saorius, gracilis and semitendinosus some...
1
semimembranosus
semitendinosus
gracilis
saorius
Anatomy
General anatomy
924cdcad-bf3f-43e3-859e-db15349e5a34
single
True about GIST are all,except :
. Most common site is duodenum
1
Most common site is duodenum
Well circumscribed
Ulceration and necrosis common
PET useful in predicting response to therapy
Pathology
null
d4c7dbcd-88bd-4c9d-9f89-9126d87d7439
multi
Fasting Blood Sugar (FBS) of a population is known to be normally distributed, with a mean of 105 mg% and standard detion of 10 mg%. Thus 95% of the population will have FBS within -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 85 and 125 o 95% of population will have FBS within 2 Standard Detion (+-2SD) of mean. o Since the mean FBS is 105 mg% and standard detion is 10 mg%, 95% of population will have FBS between 105 +-2SD i.e. 105 +- 20 i.e. 85 and 125.
3
104 and 106
95 and 115
85 and 125
75 and 135
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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multi
Anterior choroidal artery is a branch of which of the following?
Anterior choroidal artery is a branch of the internal carotid artery.
3
Retinal artery
External carotid artery
Internal carotid artery
Middle meningeal artery
Anatomy
null
a8350e91-a1a4-4991-8b1a-8ddae52c18b7
single
All of the following statements about staphylococcus aureus are true, EXCEPT:
Carriers of staphylococcus aureus are the primary source for cross infection to individuals who do not normally have this bacterium in their commensal microflora. Individuals normally free from s.aureus may have less immunity against the lethal consequence of S.aureus infection compared with those who are persistent ca...
1
Most common source of infection is cross infection from infected people
About 30% of general population are healthy nasal carriers
Epidermolysin and TSS toxin are superantigens
Methicillin Resistance is chromosome mediated.
Microbiology
null
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multi
All of the following may be raised in carcinoid syndrome, Except
Answer is D (VMA): 5HIAA, 5HT, 5HTP are metabolites of Trvptophan / Serotonin that may be elevated in carcinoid tumors. Vanillvl mandilic acid (VMA) is the principal metabolite of catecholamines secreted by adrenal medulla. Elevated VMA levels in urine is a feature of increased catecholamine secreting tumors, typically...
4
5HIAA
5HT
5HTP
VMA
Medicine
null
863f3432-b944-49d5-aef8-4fb43c738d55
multi
All of the following are true about WHO growth chas EXCEPT:
WHO Growth Chas First published in 2006 Based on MGRS (Multicentre Growth reference study) 6 countries including India Exclusively breast fed babies Maternal factors like alcohol & smoking have been exluded All anthropometric parameters covered Available in various formats (S.D. based, Z-score based, percentile based)
1
Based on a study conducted in 6 states of United States
First published in 2006
Chas for Body mass index and skin fold thickness are also available
Separate chas are available for boys and girls
Pediatrics
Paediatrics
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A syndrome of multiple congenital anomalies including microcephaly, cardiac anomalies and growth retardation has been described in children of women who are heavy users of:
Teratogenecity of alcohol is the Fetal alcohol syndrome(dose related) which includes pre and post natal growth restriction,facial abnormalities like shoened palpebral fissure,low set ears,smooth philtrum,thinned upper lip, and mid facial hypoplasia CNS defects like microcephaly,mental retardation and behavioral disorde...
4
Amphetamines
Barbiturates
Heroin
Ethyl alcohol
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Medical, surgical and gynaecological illness complicating pregnancy
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Dietary triglycerides are transported by -
Chylomicrons Dietary (exogenous) triglycerides are transported from the intestine to various tissues by chylomicrons. In these tissues, LPL (in blood vessels) hydrolyzes TGs into fatty acids and glycerol. Fatty acids are taken up by tissues for their use. The chylomicron is converted to chylomicron remnants, which car...
1
Chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL
Biochemistry
null
4a26f781-fc5c-4735-a5ca-5f4fd6f776a3
single
Increased bone density is seen in all except -
Increased bone density is seen in secondary hyperparathyroidism (not in Primary hyperparathyroidism).
1
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Osteopetrosis
Fluorosis
Hypoparathyroidism
Radiology
null
f50ef846-16c9-4dda-b1e0-a3c90c82b482
multi
Advantage of fibreoptic bronchoscopy over rigid bronchoscopy is -
null
2
Foreign body removal
Good view
Better airway control
In a sick child it can be passed through endotracheal tube
ENT
null
d1672e91-eb43-45cf-8844-db75e8a15acd
single
Strawberry vagina and PH > 4.5 of vagina is seen in:
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Trichomonas* Trichomonas vaginalis is vaginal flagellate causes strawberry vagina and PH > 4.5 and grows on Bushley, Johnson and trussel media.
3
E. histolytica
Giardia
Trichomonas
Toxoplasma
Microbiology
Parasitology
e819717a-f623-4477-862d-d19888fffa39
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A 50-year-old woman who has a family history of breast cancer presents with a 6-month history of increasing abdominal girth. On close questioning, she volunteers a history of vague abdominal pain dating back 1 year. She has no children and has never been pregnant. Bimanual pelvic examination reveals a 10-cm right adnex...
Malignant papillary structures and psammoma bodies (laminated calcified concretions) in a patient with ascites is most compatible with the diagnosis of papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary. The same gene implicated in hereditary breast cancers, namely BRCA1, has been incriminated in the pathogenesis of fami...
1
BRCA1
p53
Rb
VHL
Pathology
Female Genital Tract
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single
Inheritance pattern of ABO blood group system and HLA system?
Ans. D. Codominant. (Ref. Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17th/pg. 708).Harrison's principles of internal medicine l7th/pg. 708........."The genes that determine the A and B phenotypes are found on chromosome 9p and are expressed in a Mendelian codominant manner""Pseudodominance is the sudden appearance of a...
4
Pseudodominance
Autosomal dominant
Autosomal recessive
Codominant
Pathology
Genetics
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single
Which of the following is found in the respiratory zone of the lung?
There are two zones in the lung;the conducting zone (where there is no gas exchange) and the respiratory zone (where there is gas exchange). Of all of the structures listed, only Type I epithelial cells are located in the respiratory zone. Type II epithelial cells, also located in the alveoli, are the cells that produc...
4
Goblet cells
Main bronchi
Mucous cells
Type I epithelial cells
Anatomy
null
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single
Symptoms of Epinephrine overdose following a local anesthetic injection may include all of the following except:
null
2
Restlessness
Hypotension
Apprehension
Palpitations
Surgery
null
da016fe8-4c50-4488-b583-e44b9f103248
multi
Cirrhosis of liver with poal hypeension is a complication of all ofthe following except-
Gilbe's syndrome Gilbe's syndrome is by far the most common inherited disorder of bilirubin metabolism . It is an autosomal recessive trait when caused by a mutation in the promoter region of the gene for UDP-glucuronyl transferase enzyme (UGT1A1), which leads to reduced enzyme expression. It can be inherited in a domi...
3
Wilson s disease
Hemochromatosi
Gilbe's syndrome
Hepatitis C
Medicine
G.I.T
3e34f58d-afa2-4618-8948-9a6a2fd06e89
multi
Mononuclear phagocytes are produced by ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bone marrow Mononuclear macrophage cells originate in the bone marrow from precursor cells and become monocytes in about 6 days.
3
Thymus
Spleen
Bone marrow
Liver
Microbiology
null
f41f8094-5373-4814-b480-d3a5fe083870
single
Which of the following influence the ability of osteoclast to resorb bone matrix?
null
1
cathepsin K and carbonic anhydrase
alkaline phosphatase
both the above
matrix metalloproteinase
Dental
null
73399ec2-849c-4e8b-ab31-bb5fa9ddba53
multi
Exopthalmos not present in
null
3
Thyrotoxicosis
Blow in fracture
Blow out fracture
None of the above
Surgery
null
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multi
A 28 weeks pregnant multigravida with preeclampsia presented with fulminant signs. Urgent C-section was planned. Best method for the diagnosis of lung maturity is:
Phosphatidylglycerol (PG) is a minor constituent of surfactant. It begins to increase appreciably in amniotic fluid several weeks after the rise in lecithin. Its presence is more indicative of fetal lung maturity because PG enhances the spread of phospholipids on the alveoli. Ref: Mehta S.H., Sokol R.J. (2007). Chapter...
2
L/S ratio in amniotic fluid
Phosphtidyl glycerol estimation in amniotic fluid
Bilirubin in amniotic fluid
Amniotic fluid creatinine
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
5445229e-14bc-4043-9ca2-99813a42cf7f
single
Most common phobia
Phobia is clinical condition where there is a fear of any stimulus because of which there is anxiety and distress and to avoid the distress there is avoidance and finally results in dysfunction MOST HERITABLE TYPE OF PHOBIA IS BLOOD INJECTION TYPE OF PHOBIA MOST COMMON TYPE OF PHOBIA IS SPECIFIC PHOBIA ONLY TYPE OF PHO...
1
Specific phobia
Social phobia
Agarophobia
Claustrophobia
Psychiatry
All India exam
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single
After coming head of breech will have difficulty in delivery in all of the following conditions except :
Ans. is b i.e. Placenta pre Entrapment of the after coming head occurs in case of: Incompletely dilated cervix Hydrocephalus Extended head I deflexed head Contracted pelvis Management : If entrapment occurs due to incompletely dialated cervix Vuhrssen's incisions' are placed over the cervix avoiding the 3 and 9'0 clock...
2
Hydrocephalus
Placenta pre
Incomplete dilation of cervix
Extension of head
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
2d6115cb-1ee6-4acd-bae7-6e4d2c8b9263
multi
Which of the following is the most common pure malignant germ cell tumour of ovary :
- dysgerminoma is the most common among the malignant germ cell tumors accounting for 40%. - affects children and young women. Reference : textbook of gynaecology Sheila balakrishnan, 2nd edition, pg no: 283
3
Choriocarcinoma
Gonadoblastoma
Dysgerminoma
Malignant teratoma
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
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single
A 65 years old patient with coronary aery disease was on Aspirin for 2 years. He now complains of black stools. Abdominal examination is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis
Peptic ulcer( 55%)- ulcer bleeding is precipitated by NSAIDs like aspirin. Reference SRB 5th edition page no. 990
4
Ileocecal TB
Ca colon
Esophageal varices
Duodenel ulcer
Surgery
G.I.T
53ddbeaf-ff9c-4a0f-8c86-771469317e9c
single
Prophylactic surfactant therapy decreases risk of all except
Prophylactic surfactant decreases risk of pneumothorax, pulmonary interstitial Emphysema, bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
3
Pneumothorax
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
Pneumonitis
Pulmonary interstitial emphysema
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
Maflucci syndrome is associated with which bone tumor?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Enchondrome Enchondroma:* Enchondroma is a benign tumor characterized by the formation of mature hyaline cartilage. It occurs between the ageof 15-35 years with no sex predliction. The most common site is short tubular bones of hand, i.e., Phalanges (most common) and metatarsals. When tumor is located...
1
Enchondroma
Osteochondroma
Multiple myeloma
Chondrosarcoma
Orthopaedics
Bone Tumour
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single
Squeeze technique is used for
(B) Premature Ejaculation[?]Specific Techniques & Exercises:Various techniques useful to treat various sexual dysfunctions.In Premature Ejaculation, useful exercise known as the squeeze technique is used to raise the threshold of penile excitability.Man or the woman stimulates the erect penis until the earliest sensati...
2
Erectile dysfunction
Premature ejaculation
Retrograde ejaculation
Antegrade ejaculation
Psychiatry
Sexual Disorders
600467aa-d832-4f81-b331-d335e8fe45a7
single
All are true about the effect of thymectomy, EXCEPT:
FACTS about thymectomy: Patients with myasthenia gravis have a ove thymoma is present in 10-15% of patients The course of myasthenia gravis is not significantly different in patients with or without thymoma. Thymectomy produces at least some symptomatic improvement in 65% of patients with myasthenia gravis. Thymoma pat...
2
Thymectomy results in the resolution of pure red cell aplasia in ~30% of patients
Hypogammaglobulinemia usually responds to thymectomy
Patients with myasthenia gravis have a ove thymoma is present in 10-15% of patients
The course of myasthenia gravis is not significantly different in patients with or without thymoma
Medicine
null
dae9ebc7-03cc-459f-8c94-2306a5ad621b
multi
Which of the fontanelle is last to close?
Time of closure of different fontanelle: Posterior fontanelle- 2 to 3 months after bih Anterior fontanelle- 10-24 months after bih Mastoid fontanelle- 6- 18 months after bih Sphenoidal fontanelle- 6months after bih Ref: Nelson's 20th edition, page 2793
2
Posterior fontanelle
Anterior fontanelle
Mastoid fontanelle
Sphenoidal fontanelle
Anatomy
General anatomy
ff37f1ce-85f6-43b3-b0a6-defa042b44a3
single
The procedure done in cases of clinical suspicion of amyloidosis is
The diagnosis of amyloidosis is confirmed by the presence of amyloid deposition in tissue biopsy specimen. A skin punch biopsy from the lesion is the preferred confirmatory procedure. The next best choice is needle biopsy from the abdominal subcutaneous fat from the clinically normal-appearing skin may be performed. Th...
1
Congo red staining of abdominal fat
Renal biopsy
Urine electrophoresis
Serum immunoelectrophoresis
Pathology
General pathology
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single
An 8-year-old boy presented with altered sensorium, nausea, vomiting, severe headache and right sided weakness. There was no history of trauma. On fuher examination, it was observed that the joints of the child were tender and stiff. Mother gave history of easy bruising along with frequent episodes of epistaxis and hem...
This is a case of Hemophilia A. NCcT head reveals an intraparenchymal hemorrhage - suggestive of hemophilia in absence of history of trauma or hypeension. Desmopressin vasopressin analog, or 1-deamino-8-d-arginine vasopressin (DDAVP), is considered the treatment of choice for mild and moderate hemophilia A. It is not e...
1
Desmopressin
Octreotide
Conivaptan
Sacubitril
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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multi
Allantoin is the end product of metabolism of ?
In non-primate mammals, end product of purine metabolism is allantoin due to presence of enzyme uricase. Uricase convees uric acid to allantoin. Humans lack the enzyme uricase. Therefore, end product of purine catabolism in humans is uric acid REF: Lippincott book of biochemistry 6th ed.
2
Glycogen
Purine
Pyrimidine
Histidine
Biochemistry
All India exam
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multi
Which one of the following anaesthetic agents does not trigger malignant hypehermia ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thiopentone Drugs causing Malignant hypehermia Succinylcholine Enflurane Methoxyflurane Phenothiazines Halothane Sevoflurane MAO inhibitors Lignocaine Isoflurane Destlurane TCA o Succinylcholine is the most common cause of MH. o Amongst anaesthetics, halothane is most common cause. o Combination of Sc...
4
Halothane
Isotlurane
Suxamethonium
Thiopentone
Pharmacology
null
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single
Asherman's syndrome can be diagnosed by all except:
Ans. is c, i.e. Endometrial cultureRef: Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p420; Leon Speroff 7th/ed, p419Asherman's syndrome:* It is an acquired uterine defect characterized by the presence of uterine synechiaes and subsequent destruction of the lining endometrium.* M/C cause for asherman syndrome -Postpartum curettage* 2nd M/C c...
3
Hysterosalpingography
Saline sonography
Endometrial culture
Hysteroscopy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological Diagnosis
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multi
Isotretinoin embryopathy is characterized by all except
Isotretinoin embryopathy is characterized by thymic hypoplasia or aplasia.
4
Venticulomegaly
Microtia
Conotruncal heart defects
Thymic hyperplasia
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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multi
All of the following are essential features of attention deficit hyperactive disease (AD ) except –
null
3
Lack of concentration
Impulsivity
Mental retardation
Hyperactivity
Pediatrics
null
67a42c2e-6041-4bab-a130-ec65a59098a6
multi
A man feels his neighbor is following him and planning to kill him. This history is suggestive of :
Delusion of persecution : Patient believes that someone is going to harm him, his family or his property. It is the most common type of delusion.
2
Delusion of reference
Delusion of persecution
Delusion of infidelity
Delusion of guilt
Psychiatry
null
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single
Middle meningeal aery passes from ?
Foramen spinosum
2
Foramen ovale
Foramen spinosum
Foramen lacerum
Incisive foramen
Anatomy
null
5b6954a2-1406-4003-86a0-3ae48e2fae0c
single
About peptidyl transferase true is
null
1
Used in elongation & cause attachment of peptide chain to A-site of t-RNA
Used in elongation & cause attachment of peptide chain to P-site
Used in initiation and cause 43S complex formation
Used in initiation and cause 48S complex formation
Biochemistry
null
7d25adcb-a2a5-4f54-a0be-be556cd18055
multi
Which of the following is material of choice in class V cavity with abfraction?
null
3
GIC
Hybrid composite
Microfilled composite
Compomer
Dental
null
2bb55ddd-6e69-484d-8948-1d7d878acb82
single
Find out chronaxie and rheobase from the graph given below
Rheobase is the minimum stimulus strength that will produce a response. It corresponds to 0.3V Chronaxie is the minimum time duration for which a stimulus doubles the rheobase. Double the rheobase is 0.6V which corresponds to 0.2 msec.
1
Chronaxie 0.2 msec; rheobas 0.3V
Chronaxie 0.3V; rheobase 0.2 msec
Chronaxie 0.3V; rheobase 0.6V
Chronaxie 0.2 msec; rheobase 0.6V
Physiology
null
648f490e-d030-4e4c-97ae-8aa32d40c026
single
Gands of Blandin and Nuhn are
null
1
Mucous
Serous
Mixed
Any of the above
Dental
null
9d69c220-4c4f-4683-a627-fe0880c5d8da
multi
Age of a person from study of characteristics of teeth can be made by all of the following methods except -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Frame method Age from teeth after 20 yearso Teeth eruption is useful for age estimation upto about 18 years, beyond which it is just a guess work. The methods used areGustafson's method : Useful only in persons older than 21 years of age, depending on the physiological changes in each of the dental ti...
4
Gustafson method
Mile method
Boyde method
Frame method
Forensic Medicine
Identification - Medicolegal aspects
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multi
Mechanism of action of imatinib mesylate is :
null
3
Increase in metabolism of P glycoprotein
Blocking the action of P glycoprotein
Blocks the action of chimeric fusion protein of bcr–abl
Non–competitive inhibition of ATP binding site
Pharmacology
null
c48d0a54-519f-4496-8e37-b935913985e3
single
The intricately and prodigiously looped system of veins and aeries that lie on the surface of the epididymis is known as?
The pampiniform plexus of veins refers to the plexus of veins emerging from the testis, it drains the venous blood from the testis. This plexus ascends up and at the superficial inguinal ring condenses to form four veins, and pass through the inguinal canal within the spermatic cord. At the level of deep inguinal ring,...
3
Choroid plexus
Tuberal plexus
Pampiniform plexus
Pterygoid plexus
Anatomy
null
5829ac4a-97f3-4219-bd05-e852b3a5647e
single
Which is the most common cytogenetic abnormality in adult Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) ?
null
1
Trisomy 8
20q
5q
Monosomy 7
Medicine
null
aa6cce17-7a76-4969-8ae8-1da2becdbccb
single
Common cause of childhood blindness are all EXCEPT
(Dacrocystitis): (546-48- Parson 21st/ edition; 514-Nema 6th/ed; 477-Khurana 5th/ed)Causes of childhood blindness* Vitamin A deficiency* Measles* Conjunctivitis* Ophthalmia- neonatorum* Congenital cataract* Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)* Common causes of childhood blindness in India include corneal scar (26%). Conge...
2
Malnutrition
Dacrocystits
Vit A deficiency
Measles
Ophthalmology
Systemic Disease
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multi
Female pseudoherm aphroditism M.C. cause -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CAHo Female pseudo hermaphroditism n Have internal genitalia female typeKaryo type XXMasculinisation of external genitaliaMost common - CAHCongenital adrenal hyperplasiao M-C. 21 hydroxylase deficiencyOther cause excess maternal androgen due to -Maternal ovarian tumor.Maternal drug intake.TreatmentHor...
1
CAH
Maternal ovarian tumor
Maternal drug intake
Chromosomal abnormalities
Pediatrics
Gonads
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single
Vitamin B12 deficiency has A/E
B i.e. Decreased methylmalonyl CoA
2
Folate trap
Decreased methyl malonyl CoA
SACD
Megaloblastic anemia
Biochemistry
null
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single
Stratified cuboidal epithelium is seen in?
Stratified cuboidal epithelium is seen in large ducts of exocrine glands like sweat glands ,pancreas and salivary glands Inderbir Singh&;s textbook of Human Histology Seventh edition Pg no;48
3
Ovaries
Cervix
Ovarian follicles
Larynx
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
Diagnostic test for CSF rhinorrhea is ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beta-2 transferrin Beta-2 transferrin is a CSF-specific variant of transferrin and is used as an endogenous marker of CSF leakage. Beta-2 transferrin is formed by loss of sialic acid due to the presence of neuraminidase in the central nervous system. Beta-2 transferrin has also been called CSF-specifi...
2
Beta - 2 microglobulin
Beta - 2 transferrin
Thyroglobulin
Transthyretin
ENT
null
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single
The most common cause of severe obstructive uropathy in children is
Posterior Urethral ValvesThe most common cause of severe obstructive uropathy in children is posterior urethral valves, affecting 1 in 8,000 boys. The urethral valves are tissue leaflets fanning distally from the prostatic urethra to the external urinary sphincter.Valves are of unclear embryologic origin and cause vary...
1
Posterior urethral valves
Phimosis
Urethral atresia
Bladder neck obstruction
Pediatrics
Miscellaneous
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single
A 6 months old infant had itchy erythematous papules and exudative lesions on the scalp, face, groin and axillae for one month. She also had vesicular lesions on the palms. What is the most likely diagnosis
Scabies * Female itch mite, Sarcoptes scabiei var. hominis * Presents with intense pruritus (worse at night) with symmetric papules, vesicles or indurated nodules typically involving interdigital web spaces, volar wrists, axillae, postauricular areas, ankles, waist, buttocks, waistband area, and genital area; +- visibl...
2
Psoriasis
Scabies
Congenital syphilis
Seborrheic dermatitis
Dental
Fungal infections, Scabies, Pediculosis
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single
True statement regarding 'prone position' ventilation in a polytrauma patient with ARDS:
- Prone ventilation is not a mode of ventilation - Means patient put on prone position and ventilated Prone position ventilation- Has improved oxygenation of patient- Cannot be tried for long hours- Practiced when moderate or severe ARDS is suspected in patient- When patient put in prone way the dorsal surface of the l...
1
Should be tried for 6 -8 hours
Current evidence shows no improvement in outcome
Suited for patients with high PaO2/FiO2 ratio only
Definite improvement in PaO2
Anaesthesia
JIPMER 2017
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Which of the follow ingstatement about atheroscelerosis is true?
Ans. a. Intake of polyunsaturated fatty acid is associated with decreased risk 'Med Essentials '{Kaplan Publishing} 2007/249; "Pan Vascular Medicine ' by Topal (2002//90)Intake of unsaturated fatty acids (PUFA > SI UFA) is associated with decreased risk of atherosclerosis."Intake of unsaturated fatty acids (PUFA > MU F...
1
Intake of polyunsaturated fatty acid is associated with decreased risk
Thoracic aorta involvement is more severe than abdominal aorta involvement
Extent of lesion in veins is same as that in arteries
Hypercholesterolemia does not always increase the risk of atherosclerosis perse
Medicine
Peripheral Vascular Disease
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multi
Carbohydrate reserve of human adult is:
Carbohydrate reserve of human adult is 500 g. This reserve is rapidly exhausted while fasting. Ref: Park 22nd edition, page 568
3
100 g
200 g
500 g
1100 g
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
Immediate reaction after death is: Kerala 08; Punjab 09
Ans. Cadaveric spasm
1
Cadaveric spasm
Pugilistic attitude
Rigor mois
Algor mois
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
Cell most sensitive to radiation:
Ans. Lymphocyte
1
Lymphocyte
Neurotrophil
Basophil
Platelets
Radiology
null
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single
What is defined as recovery index of the neuromuscular blocker (NMB):-
Duration of action is the time from injection of the neuromuscular blocking agent to return of 25% twitch height. Recovery index is the time interval between 25% and 75% twitch height.
1
It is time interval between 25% and 75% twitch height of the NMB
It is time interval between 25% and 50% twitch height of the NMB
It is time interval between 50% and 75% twitch height of the NMB
It is time interval to reach 100% of twitch height of the NMB
Anaesthesia
Neuromuscular Blocker
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single
Which of the following will not cause pupillary white reflex?
Glaucoma is not a cause of white pupillary reflex (cat's eye reflex). The patient should be evaluated immediately as an impoant differential diagnosis is retinoblastoma. Ref: A.K KHURANA (2005), In the book, "Opthalmology", 3rd Edition, Newdelhi, Page 23, 170, 269
2
Retinoblastoma
Glaucoma
Cataract
Retrolental fibroplasia
Ophthalmology
null
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The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trails is to -
null
4
Facilitate double blinding
Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population
Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics
Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Submucosal fibroid is detected by
USG: Ultrasound is the most readily available, least costly imaging technique to diagnose fibroid. It checks the number, location, and size of fibroids and helps to reduce overlooking small fibroids during surgery (which might lead to persistence or recurrence of symptoms). Sonohysterography – is instillation of saline...
1
Hysteroscopy
Hysterosalpingography
USG(Transabdominal)
Laparoscopy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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A 38-year -old man presents with pain and shormess of breath.His pulse rate is 85 per minute, blood pressue is 180/H8 mmHg, and the cardiac Station reveals an ejection systolic murmur.The ECG show LVH pattern and ST depression in the anterior leads.His Troponin T test Is positive.The echocardiogram of the person is lik...
aoic regurgitation R ALAGAPPAN TEXT BOOK.OF GENERAL MEDICAL PRACTICE PAGE.156
1
Aoic regurgitation
Aoic stenosis
Mitral regurgitation
Mial valve prolapsed
Medicine
C.V.S
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Small pox eradication was successful because of all except -
<p> Cross-resistance existed with animal pox. Epidemiological reason for smallpox eradication are No known animal reservoir, no long term carrier state,infection provides life long immunity,case detection simple due to characteristic rash,subcliical cases did not transmit the disease,a highly effective vaccine was avai...
4
Subclinical cases don't transit disease
Highly effective vaccine
Lifelong immunity
Cross resistance with animal pox
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
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A 10-year-old child presented with a swelling and mild pain around knee joint along with muscle wasting. X ray: there was a lesion arising from epiphysis. Biopsy was done from the lesion and HPE examination was done. What is the diagnosis?
The age being less than 18yrs (age of skeletal fusion), epiphyseal lesion with internal speckled calcification, chicken wire calcification and giant cells suggest chondroblastoma. Chondrosarcoma is seen in adults arising from flat bones like pelvis. It shows speckled or popcorn or arc and ring calcification. Osteosarco...
2
Chondrosarcoma
Codman's Tumour
Osteosarcoma
Osteoblastoma
Unknown
Integrated QBank
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Presentation, when the engaging diameter is Mentovertical, is?
Ans-ARef.: Dutta 6th edp-393
1
Brow
Face
Vertex
Breech
Unknown
null
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single
In a child of Rett syndrome, all of the following are seen except:
Ans. a. Macrocephaly Microcephaly, not the macrocephaly is seen in Rett syndrome.Rett SyndromeRett syndrome, originally termed as cerebroatrophic hyperammonemiaA neurodevelopmental disorder of the grey matter of the brainExclusively affects femalesCause:Caused by mutations in the gene MECP2 located on the X chromosomeC...
1
Macrocephaly
Mental retardation
Abnormal dendritic connections
Seizures
Psychiatry
null
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A 20 yr old patient presented with early pregnancy for Medical termination of Pregnancy in day care facility. What will be the anesthetic induction agent of choice?
Propofol is the single best agent for daycare surgeries. rapid metabolism no residual effect low incidence of nausea and vomiting
3
Thiopentone
Ketamine
Propofol
Diazepam
Anaesthesia
General anaesthesia
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single
Treponema pallidum crosses placenta:
Transmission of Treponema pallidum from an infected woman to her fetus across the placenta may occur at any stage of pregnancy, but the lesions of congenital syphilis usually develop after-the 4th month of gestation, when "fetal immunologic" competence begins to develop.
4
After 36 weeks
After 28 weeks
After 2nd trimester
At any stage of pregnancy
Unknown
null
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multi
Polio vaccine is which type of prevention:
Ans. (a) PrimaryRef.: K. Park 23rd ed. 141, 370-74
1
Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Primordial
Social & Preventive Medicine
Concept of Control
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single
Which of the following is the most common type of congenital cardiac cyanotic anomaly?
TOF is the commonest cyanotic congenital hea disease(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2213 - 2214)
1
Tetralogy of Fallot
TAPVC
Transposition of great vessels
Ebstein's anamoly
Pediatrics
All India exam
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multi
Internal spermatic fascia is derived from -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fascia transversalis o The layers of scrotum from outside to inside are:-i) Skinii) Dartos muscle (smooth muscle layer) continous with Code's fascia of perineum posteriorly and Scarpa's fascia and Camper's fascia anteriorly.iii) The external spermatic fascia, extension from external oblique.iv) The cr...
3
External oblique muscle
Internal oblique muscle
Fascia transversalis
Colie's fascia
Anatomy
Abdominal Wall
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single
Acute PID is treated by:a) IV antibiotics (broad spectrum)b) Drainage of TO massc) Abdominal hysterectomyd) Laparoscopic exploration
Management of PID • Broad-spectrum antibiotics (oral or IV) • If tubo-ovarian mass/abscess is present – it should be treated medically but, if there is no response drainage should be done. • Drainage of a pelvic abscess by colpotomy may occasionally be needed Place of surgery in acute PID: Surgery can range from laparo...
3
acd
bcd
abd
ab
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
A young female complains of genital wa, the agent implicated is:
Human papilloma virus
3
Treponema pallidum
Adenovirus
Human papilloma virus
Pox virus
Skin
null
2db03389-d026-4410-b126-bc6a37ce0fa8
multi
Which is most comonly implicated in genital (vulval) warts ?
null
4
HPV 16
HPV 18
HPV 31
HPV 6
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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False regarding Cytochrome P450 is:
Ref: Goodman and Gilmans "Pharmacological basis of therapeutics" 12th edExplanation:The cytochrome P450 superfamily (CYP) is a large and diverse group of enzymes that catalyze the oxidation of organic substances.The cytochrome P450 (CYP) mixed function monooxygenases are located on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of c...
1
Found only in bone marrow
CYP3A4 is the most common isoform
Participate in Phase 1 Xenobiotic reactions
They are present in Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum within cells
Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics
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multi
Largest carpal bone is(25-BDC-l4th) (Poddar osteology)
(Scaphoid) (Poddar- osteology) (25- BDC- 14th)* CARPAL - BONES - (8 in number) in 2 rows* Proximal row (from lateral to medial side) - 1- Scaphoid 2- Lunate 3- Triquetral 4- Pisiform bonesDistal row (from lateral to medial side) 1. Trapezium 2. Trapezoid 3. Capitate 4. Hamate Scaphoid is boat shaped and is the largest ...
1
Scaphoid
Lunate
Hamate
Triquetral
Orthopaedics
Bone
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single
Acute mesenteric lymphadenitis is caused by -
Acute mesenteric lymphadenitis is the diagnosis usually given when enlarged, slightly reddened lymph nodes are encountered at the root of mesentery along with normal appendix when a pt. suspected of appendicitis is opened. "Whether this is a single, discrete entity is unclear, since the causative factor is not known. S...
4
E. coli
α-hemolytic streptococci
Hemophilus
Yersinia
Surgery
null
cc1f09e6-417f-442e-8aab-6e664fd06af7
single
Intracapsular articular disc is present in which joint-
Articular disc is present in temporomandibular and sternoclavicular joints.
1
Sternoclavicular joint
Elbow
Hip joint
Knee joint
Anatomy
null
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single
All are seen in 3 rd nerve palsy except-
3rd nerve paralysis causes mydriasis (not miosis). There is ptosis (due paralysis of levator palpabrae superioris), diplopia (due to extraocular muscle paralysis), and outward deviation of eye (due to active lateral rectus).
3
Ptosis
Diplopia
Miosis
Outward deviation of eye
Ophthalmology
null
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multi
Simple paial seizures DOC
CBZ is used for simple paial seizures
4
Phenytoin
Valproate
Barbiturate
Carbamazepine
Pharmacology
Central Nervous system
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single
Most common cause of congestive splenomegaly is?
Congestive splenomegaly is common in patients with severe poal hypeension. Poal hypeension is the major complication of cirrhosis.
2
Chronic congestive cardiac failure
Cirrhosis
Hepatic vein occlusion
Stenosis of splenic vein
Medicine
Cirrhosis
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single
One mg. of Niacin is produced by _______ mg. of Trytophan -
p> - niacin is essential for the metabolism of carbohydrate, fat and protein. It is also essential for the normal functioning of skin , intestinal and nervous system. - it differs from other other B complex vitamins that an essential amino acid tryptophan serves as its precursor. - about 60 mg of tryptophan is required...
4
22
37
55
60
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
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single
Maximum score of APACHE
Answer- D. 71APACHE II ('Acute Physiology and Chronic Health Evaluation II") is a severity-of-disease classification system.The APACHE II system is the most commonly used SOI scoring system in Noh America.APACHE IV uses a modified statistical model of logistic regression; it is the most recently released version of thi...
4
41
51
61
71
Surgery
null
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single
A 60 year old female is suffereing from renal failure and is on hemodialysis since last 8 years. She developed carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following will be associated? -
Reference :Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 158:Deposition of beta2 microglobulin amyloid in patients receivi g long term dialysis occurs most commonly in the carpal ligaments of the wrist resulting in compression of the median nerve leading to carpal tunnel syndrome
4
AL
AA
ATTR
Beta 2 microglobulin
Pathology
General pathology
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single
Raja Devi 45 years old women present with history of poly-menorrhea for last six months. The first line of management is:
null
3
Hysterectomy
Progesterone for 3 cycles
Dilatation & curettage
Oral contraceptive for 3 cycles
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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The protocal's enucleation of the eye transplant are all EXCEPT:
(Transplant within 6 hours) (206-Parson 20th) (457-KH)CORNEAL GRAFTING - Donor corneas are harvested from cadaveric donors within 6 hours after death, sometimes upto 12 hours in countries with cold climates.They can be transplanted immediately or preserved in eye bank by various preservation techniques for varying inte...
4
The eye is packed with ice & closed
No malignancy
Sterile procedure
Transplant within 6 hours
Ophthalmology
Miscellaneous
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multi
Food poisoning is seen with
Enterotoxin is responsible for the manifestations of staphylococcal food poisoning - nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 2-6 hour after consuming food contaminated by the preformed toxin. The toxin is a relatively heated stable, resisting 100deg C for 10 to 40 minutes depending on the concentration of toxin and nature of th...
1
Staph aureus
Staph. epidermidis
Strep. pyogenes
Staph saprophyticus
Microbiology
miscellaneous
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single
An intrauterine pregnancy of approximately 10 weeks gestation is confirmed in a 30-year-old gravida 5, para 4 woman with an IUD in place. The patient expresses a strong desire for the pregnancy to be continued. On examination, the string of the IUD is noted to be protruding from the cervical os. The most appropriate co...
Although there is an increased risk of spontaneous abortion, and a small risk of infection, an intrauterine pregnancy can occur and continue successfully to term with an IUD in place. However, if the patient wishes to keep the pregnancy and if the string is visible, the IUD should be removed in an attempt to reduce the...
3
Leave the IUD in place without any other treatment
Leave the IUD in place and continue prophylactic antibiotics throughout pregnancy
Remove the IUD immediately
Terminate the pregnancy because of the high risk of infection
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraceptives
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Pregnant woman is on valproate for juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Alternative monotherapy of choice:
Ref: Lecture Notes: Clinical Pharmacology and Therapeutics, Gerard A. McKay, 8th edition, Page 90 and Atlas of Epilepsies, Volume 3, C. P. Panayiotopoulos et al., Page 1039Explanation:"The largest studies have confirmed sodium valproate as the first choice for generalized epilepsies such as juvenile myoclonic epilepsy ...
3
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Leviteracitam
Lacasomide
Pharmacology
Epilepsy
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single
A 30-year-old woman repos to the clinic for a routine physical examination. The examination reveals she is pregnant. Her plasma levels of TSH are high, but her total thyroid hormone concentration is normal. Which of the following best reflects the patient's clinical state?
As a result of negative feedback, plasma levels of TSH are a sensitive index of circulating levels of unbound (free) thyroid hormones. High plasma levels of TSH indicate inappropriately low levels of free thyroid hormones in the circulation, such as are present with autoimmune destruction of the thyroid gland in person...
2
Graves' disease
Hashimoto's disease
A pituitary tumor secreting TSH
A hypothalamic tumor secreting thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
Physiology
Endocrine System
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single
Contact bleeding is seen in all EXCEPT
(Mucinous cyst of ovary): (575- Shows 15th edition)Contact bleeding (Bleeds on touch) is seen in* Cervical cancer* Erosion of the cervical mucous* Contact ulcer of the cervixMucinous cvstadenoma of the ovary - multiloculated cysts lined by epithelium resembling the endocervix* Mucinous ovarian cyst is often unilateral*...
4
Cervical cancer
Erosion of the cervical mucous
Contact ulcer of the cervix
Mucinous cyst of the overy
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
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multi