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Fusion of two eyelids by thin tags is called-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ankyloblepharon filiforme adnatum * In ankyloblepharon filiforme adnatum the upper and lower eyelids are joined by thin tags; most cases are sporadic. Treatment involves transection with scissors; anaesthesia is not required.* Ablepharon consists of deficiency of the anterior lamellae of the eyelids; ...
1
Ankyloblepharon filiforme adnatum
Euryblepharon
Ablepharon
Epiblepharon
Ophthalmology
Lid
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multi
mood stabilizer used in the management of depression
Lamotrigine is a mood stabilizer which works best in BIPOLAR DEPRESSION Lithium is a mood stabilizer which works best in BIPOLAR MANIA valproate is a mood stabilizer which works best in RAPID CYCLING Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, 935
1
lamotrigine
valproate
carbamezepine
lithium
Anatomy
Pharmacotherapy in psychiatry
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The best investigation for cardiac tamponade is:
Ans. 2-D echocardiography
1
2-D echocardiography
Real time echocardiography
Ultrasound
M-mode echocardiography
Radiology
null
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Alpha fetoprotein is a marker of
Ref Robbins 8/e p 327; 7/e P339,9/e p869_870 AFP is Glycoprotein synthesized in fetal life by yolk sac,fetal liver,fetal GIT.It is a marker of hepatocellular carcinoma,non seminomatous germ cell tumor Of testis Elevated level of AFP Is found less regularly in carcinoma of lung,colon, pancreas IImpoant points about hepa...
1
Hepatoblastoma
Seminoma
Renal cell carcinoma
Choriocarcinoma
Anatomy
General anatomy
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single
DNA dependent RNA synthesis is inhibited by which of the following drug?
Rifampicin is an antimycobacterial drug which exes both intracellular and extracellular bactericidal activity by binding to and inhibiting mycobacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase blocking RNA synthesis. Ethambutol is a bacteriostatic against M tuberculosis. It acts by inhibiting arabinosyl transferases involved in c...
1
Rifampicin
Ethambutol
Colchicine
Chloromycetin
Pharmacology
null
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single
In which of the following conditions, the root can be left in the alveolar process?
Conditions for a root to be left in the alveolar process: The root fragment must be small, usually no more than 4 to 5mm in length. The root must be deeply embedded in bone. The tooth involved must not be infected, and there must be no radiolucency around the apex. When the risk is too great, if removal of the root wi...
4
Small root fragment, if size is 4-5 mm in length
The root must be deeply embedded in bone
The tooth involved must not be infected, and there must be no radiolucency around the apex.
All of the above
Surgery
null
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Using a new technique, Hb was estimated in a blood sample. The test was repeated for 10 times. The repos were : 9.5, 9.2, 9.4, 9.6, 9.7, 9.9, 10.2, 10.3, 10.5, 12.1. Accurate value of Hb was estimated by standard tests to be 10.2. The new technique has ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e. low validity and low reliability Validity (Accuracy) o The validity of a test is the extent to which it accurately measures which it purpos to measure. In other words its the ability to show which individuals have the disease in question and which do not. o Validity has two components - sensitivity & s...
2
High validity and high reliability
Low validity and low reliability
High validity and low reliability
Low validity and high reliability
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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Acetyl CoA is generated primarily in mitochondria. However, fatty acid synthesis from acetyl CoA occurs extramitochondrial (in the cytosol). By which one of the following mechanisms does acetyl CoA leave the mitochondrion and enter the cytosol?
Carnitine transfers fatty acids from cytosolic fatty acyl CoA to form mitochondrial fatty acyl CoA. The conversion of acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA occurs in the cytosol. Coenzyme A cannot pass through the inner mitochondrial membrane. Acetoacetyl CoA has to be conveed to HMG CoA before it is conveed to acetoacetate. Ref: ...
2
The acetyl group is transferred to carnitine to form acetyl carnitine, which is transpoed across the inner mitochondrial membrane to the cytosol where it reacts with CoA to regenerate acetyl CoA
Acetyl CoA condenses with oxaloacetate to form citrate, which is transpoed into the cytosol where it is cleaved to generate acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate in an ATP-dependent reaction
Acetyl CoA reacts with carbon dioxide to form malonyl CoA, which is transpoed across the mitochondrial membrane
The mitochondrial membrane permits permeation of acetyl CoA by active transpo
Biochemistry
null
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Features of Barrett's esophagus are all Except
Barrett's esophagus is specialized columnar metaplasia that replaces the normal squamous mucosa of the distal esophagus in some persons with GERD. Barrett's epithelium is a major risk factor for adenocarcinoma of the esophagus and is readily detected endoscopically, due to proximal displacement of the squamocolumnar ju...
2
Metaplasia
Always gastric type of epithelium
Adenocarcinoma more common
Present as patchy or ring involvement
Medicine
C.V.S
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Peripheral neuritis induced by isoniazid is prevented by giving which vitamin along with it?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vitamin B6 Isoniazid induced peripheral neuritis/ neuropathy* Peripheral neuritis is a well documented adverse effect of INH, which is also the most important dose dependant toxic effect.* Peripheral neuropathy is observed in 10 to 20% of patients given dosages greater than 5 mg/kg/d, but it is infreq...
2
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B12
Pharmacology
Anti Microbial
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Most common position of appendix is
The tip of the appendix can have a variable position within the abdominal cavity : retro-caecal (65-70%) pelvic (25-30%) pre- or post-ileal (5%) Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg269
4
Pre ilial
Post ilial
Pelvic
Retro caecal
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
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The capsule of the crystalline lens is thinnest at -
The lens capsule is thickest at pre-equator regions (14u) and thinnest at the posterior pole (3u).
2
Anterior pole
Posterior pole
Equator
null
Ophthalmology
Lens
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60 years old man with foul breath, Regurgitates food eaten 3 days ago, the likely diagnosis
null
2
Loss of tone of upper esophageal sphincter
Zenker's Diverticulum
Achalasia cardia
Carcinoma esophagus
ENT
null
8fb62140-9920-4c0b-ac9c-524492439015
single
Autoregulation means
null
1
Maintains the blood flow
Vary with change in pressure
Regulated by local metabolites
Well developed in the skin
Physiology
null
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An idiotype is characterized by
Idiotypes are antigenic determinants that appear only on the Fab fragments of antibodies and appear to be localized at the ligand-binding site; thus, anti-idiotype antisera may block reactions with the appropriate hapten. The carbohydrate side chains of immunoglobulins are relatively nonimmunogenic. New determinants ma...
2
Determinant exposed after papain cleavage to an F(ab')2 fragment
Determinant from one clone of cells and probably located close to the antigenbinding site of the immunoglobulin
Determinant inherited in a Mendelian fashion and recognized by crossimmunization of individuals in a species
Heavy-chain determinant recognized by heterologous antisera
Microbiology
Immunology
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All are features of Peussis except-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cerebellar ataxia Complications of Peussis o Respiratory - o Patchy Atelatasis Subcutaneous emphysema o Neurological Persistent seizures Paraplegia Ataxia o Gasro Intestinal manifestation --> Hernia & Rectal Prolapse o Hemorrhagic --> Subconjuctival hemorrhage, Intracranial hemorrhage o Severe malnutr...
2
Encephalopathy
Cerebellar Ataxia
Subconjunctival hemorrhage
Bronchiectasis
Pediatrics
null
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Pauci immune glomerulonephritis is seen in-
Pauci-immune type crescentic GN is defined by the lack of anti-GBM antibodies or significant immune complex deposition. Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) typically are found in the serum, which, have a pathogenic role in some vasculitides. In some instances, therefore, crescentic GN is a component of system...
2
After transplant in Alpos
Microscopic polyangitis
Henoch-schonlein nephritis
Lupus
Pathology
Urinary tract
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All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except:
null
3
Neisseria meningitides
Salmonella typhi
Streptococcus pyogenes
Legionella pneumophila
Microbiology
null
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Which of the following is not stored at cold temperature?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Platelet concentrateoWhole blood contains 350 ml of donor blood plus anticoagulants. Once blood is removed from the donor, it starts a sequences of in vitro changes that change its physiological properties. Ensuring the blood and its products transfusion safe, their storage is a must. The main aim is ...
4
Whole blood
Packed RBCs
Leucoreduced RBCs
Platelet concentrate
Pathology
Blood
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Marble bone disease is an inherited disease of the skeleton which is accompanied by an increase in calcified bone tissue. It is also known as:
Osteopetrosis or Albers-Schonberg Disease or Marble Bone Disease is an inherited disease of the skeleton which is accompanied by an increase in calcified bone tissue - namely osteosclerosis. The bone marrow cavity is almost completely filled with compact bone tissue and coex is thickened by periosteal bone deposition. ...
3
Osteoporosis
Osteochondritis
Osteopetrosis
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Surgery
null
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Antrochoanal polyp opens In which meant
ANTROCHOANAL POLYP most commonly seen in children. They are unilateral, usually arises from the mucosa of maxillary antrum near its accessory ostium comes out of it & grows in the channel & nasal cavity. Maxillary sinus opens into the middle meatus.
1
Middle meatus
Superior meatus
Inferior meatus
Sphenoethmoidal recess
ENT
null
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A 41-year-old man presented to the emergency department with a 9-month history of cough, exertional dyspnea, nocturnal diaphoresis, and weight loss of 10 kg. The physical examination revealed painless, massive, discrete, rubbery cervical, supraclavicular and axillary lymphadenopathy. Plain radiography of the chest show...
null
1
Chemotherapeutic regimen of doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblatine, and dacarbazine
Anti tuberculosis regimen of INH, rifampicin, ethambutol and PAS
Lineac radiation to the chest
Radial thyroidectomy and neck node dissection
Medicine
null
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A 42-year-old woman complains of pain and stiffness in her neck. She was injured sliding into second base headfirst during her company softball game. Radiographs reveal no fractures of her spine. However, upon physical examination her right shoulder is drooping and she has difficulty in elevating that shoulder. If you ...
The thoracodorsal nerve innervates the latissimus dorsi, which has no action on the shoulder girdle. The spinal accessory nerve is the eleventh cranial nerve (CNXI) and innervates both the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles. The loss of CNXI results in drooping of the shoulder due to paralysis of the trapezius. ...
2
Thoracodorsal nerve
Spinal accessory nerve
Dorsal scapular nerve
Greater occipital nerve
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
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Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagic stroke -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Phenylpropanolamine o Many repos associating phenylpropanolamine use for weight loss with haemorrhagic stroke among women, appeared in U.S.A.
1
Phenylpropanolamine
Terfenadine
Quinidine
Fenfluramine
Pharmacology
null
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Vitamin K is required for:
Vit k Act as coenzyme in Carboxylation of clotting factor 2,7,9,10 Only fat-soluble vitamin with coenzyme function. 3 forms k1-phyloquinone k2-menaquinone k3-manadione (water soluble)-synthetic form Deficiency lead to hemorrhagic disease of new born Prophylactic administration of Vit k for all new born advised
4
Hydroxylation
Chelation
Transamination
Carboxylation
Biochemistry
FMGE 2018
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The most liberal rule regarding criminal responsibility of an insane person is ______
Durhams rule or product rule was too broad that it was repealed later
2
Mc naughten's rule
Durham's rule
Curren's rule
Federal rule
Anatomy
All India exam
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single
Proved association of celiac sprue is with:
Answer is A (Dermatitis Herpetiformis) Celiac disease is associated with Dermatitis Herpetiformis Dermatitis Herpetiformis is regarded as cutaneous variant of celiac disease. Almost all patients with dermatitis N as Herpetiformis have evidence of celiac disease on intestinal biopsy' - CMD Associations of Celiac Disease...
1
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Scleroderma
Pemphigus
Pemphoid
Medicine
null
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Mesangial deposits of monoclonal kappa/Lambda light chains in indicative of:
Mesangial deposits of monoclonal kappa/lambda light chains suggest the diagnosis of Amyloidosis. Renal amyloidosis is the most common cause of death due to amyloidosis Amyloid deposition begins from mesangium and involves other pa later Clinical features - proteinuria , urinary cast present , kidney size increases. In ...
4
Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis
Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis
Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions
Amyloidosis
Pathology
Kidney disorders
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Which of the following enzymes is known as 'suicide enzyme'?
Cyclooxygenase can switch off the synthesis of prostaglandins by undergoing self-catalysed destruction. That is why this enzyme is known as suicidal enzyme. (Do not confuse this with suicidal inhibition). Cyclooxygenase aka prostaglandin H synthase Bifunctional enzyme with two activities - cyclooxygenase and peroxidase...
1
Cyclooxygenase
Lipoxygenase
Phospholipase C
Xanthine oxidase
Biochemistry
Miscellaneous
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Route of infection in Tubercular Pyelonephritis -
null
3
Ascending
Descending
Haemotogenous
Airborne
Pathology
null
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Treatment of middle ear papilloma is ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Tympanomastoidectomy Middle ear pappilomas The middle ear papillomas are rare presentations and medical literature is mainly limited to case repos or case series. These include aggressive pappilary tumors, schneiderian type of pappilomas and inveed pappilomas. They are associated with hearing difficul...
3
Myringotomy and simple excision
Myringectomy and simple excision
Tympanomastoidectomy
Local infiltration with podophyllin
ENT
null
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single
Which of the following is an indication of complete veneer prosthesis as retainers for FPD?
Indications of complete veneer prosthesis as crown: Presence of extensive caries. Large defective restorations. Endodontically treated teeth. Fractured tooth. Need to change contour for removable partial denture retention. Indications of complete veneer prosthesis as retainer for FPD: Short abutment. Long-span fixed ...
4
Presence of extensive caries
Large defective restorations
Endodontically treated teeth
Long span fixed partial dentures
Dental
null
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multi
Transamination of pyruvate with glutamate leads to:
Transamination, a chemical reaction that transfers an amino group to a ketoacid to form new amino acids. This pathway is responsible for the deamination of most amino acids.
4
Oxaloacetate and aspartate
Alanine and aspartate
Oxaloacetate and alpha ketoglutarate
Alanine and alpha ketoglutarate
Biochemistry
null
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Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through
Explanation: Fimbriae Certain (Gram-negative bacilli carry very fine, hair-like surface appendages called fimbriae or pili. They are shorter and thinner than flagella Fimbriae can be seen only under the electron microscope. Fimbriae function as organs of adhesion, helping the cells to adhere firmly to particles of vari...
2
Sex pili
Fimbriae
Flagella
Mesosomes
Microbiology
null
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Which of the following statements about changes in aicular cailage with aging is not TRUE?
In ageing there will be no increase in enzymatic degradation of proteoglycans. The enzymatic degradation is slow and constant throughout the life. Ref: Biology of Cailage Cells, Stockwell, R.A, 1976, 1st Edition, Page 245; Osteoahritis : A companion to Rheumatology, Elsevier, 1st Edition, 2007, Page 79.
4
Total proteoglycan content is decreased
Synthesis of proteoglycans is decreased
Total water content of cailage is decreased
Enzymatic degradation of proteoglycans is increased
Surgery
null
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Anti cancer drug causing nephrotoxicity ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cisplatin Platinum compound These are alkylating agents and act by similar mechanism. Drugs are - First generation -9 - Cisplatin Second generation - Carboplatin Third generation - Oxaliplatin Side effects of Cisplatin Vomiting Ototoxicity Hyperuricemia Nephrotoxicity Neuropathy Note ? Cisplatin is mo...
3
Cyclophosphamide
Busulfan
Cisplatin
Procarbazine
Pharmacology
null
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Which is a fructosan
The polysaccharide of glucose (glucosan or glucan):- starch, glycogen, cellulose, dextrin, dextran, chitin The polysaccharide of fructose (fructosan) :- Inulin
3
Pectin
Chitin
Inulin
Glycogen
Biochemistry
null
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In ulcerative colitis, after colectomy least likely to resolve is:
Extraintestinal Manifestations of Ulcerative Colitis Ahritis Ankylosing spondylitis Erythema nodosum Pyoderma gengrenosum Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) Colectomy has no effect on the course of PSC in UC. Pyoderma gangrenosum is more common in UC. MC cutaneous manifestation of IBD: Erythema nodosum Erythema nodos...
2
Ankylosing spondylitis
PSC
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Erythema nodosum
Surgery
Inflammatory bowel disease
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A child can Sit in Tripod position at which month?
Developmental milestones:- GROSS MOTOR DEVELOPMENT: 2 months: Holds head in plane of rest of the body when held in ventral suspension. In prone position in bed, the chin lifts momentarily. 3 months:lift head above the plane of the body. Head control stas by 3 months and fully developed by 5 months. 4 months:Remain on f...
2
5 months
6 months
8 months
9 months
Pediatrics
Growth and development
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All the following adverse effects can be caused by Loop Diuretics EXCEPT:
ANSWER: (A) HypercalcemiaREF: KDT 6th edition page 567"Loop diuretics on chronic use cause hypocalcaemia while thiazides cause hypercalcemia" Adverse effect specific to Loop Diuretics:Hearing lossHypocalcaemiaExcess use causes dehydration & fall in bp.Adverse effect specific to thiazide Diuretics:HypercalcemiaAdverse e...
1
Hypercalcemia
Hyperglycemia
Hypomagnesemia
Hyperuricemia
Pharmacology
Diuretic
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Fischer's angle is formed by the intersection of the protrusive and non-working side condylar paths as viewed in the
null
3
Horizontal plane
Reverse plane
Sagittal plane
Oblique plane
Dental
null
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single
Anterolateral arthroscopy of knee is for:
(a) To see patellofemoral articulationExplanationStandard portals in knee arthroscopy1. Anterolateral portal- Almost all the structures within the knee joint can be seen except the posterior cruciate ligament, the anterior portion of the lateral meniscus, and the periphery of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus i...
1
To see patellofemoral articulation
To see the posterior cruciate ligament
To see the anterior portion of lateral meniscus
To see the periphery of the posterior horn of medial meniscus
Orthopaedics
Knee Ligament Injuries
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Hypothyroidiam is caused by which of the following antitubercular drug
Refer KDT 6/e p743 PAS Ethionamide They can lead to hypothyroidiam
2
Streptomycin
Ethionamide
Thioacetazone
Ethambutol
Pharmacology
Chemotherapy
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Malignancy of the Breast is likely to be associated with -
null
2
Sclerosing adenosis
Atypical epithelial hyperplasia
Cystic change
Apocrine metaplasia
Pathology
null
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What is the chromosomal aberration seen when there is transverse division in centromere:
null
2
Ring chromosome
Isochromosome
Translocation
Inversion
Anatomy
null
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Gallow&;s traction is used for
(A) (Fracture shaft femur) (861 Apley 9th)GALLOWS- TRACTION- is used for treatment of fracture shaft femur in infants and children < 2 years of age* Weight must not be more than 12 kg* Both the fractured and the normal femur are placed in skin traction and the infant is suspended by these from a special frame. The butt...
1
Fracture shaft femur
Fracture neck femur
Shaft tibia
Tibial tuberosity
Unknown
null
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Most common mitochondrial enzyme for metabolism detoxification reaction is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CYP 3A4 Subtypes of cytochrome P-450 Depending upon the extent of amino acid sequence homology, the cytochrome P-450 (CYP) isoenzymes are grouped into families designated by capital letters (A, B, C ....). Individual isoenzymes are again alloted numerals (1, 2, 3 ....). Examples are CYP1A2, 2A6, 2B6, ...
1
CYP 3A4
CYP 1A2
CYP 2A6
CYP 2B6
Pharmacology
null
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All of the following statements about acute adrenal insufficiency are true, EXCEPT:
Adrenal insufficiency is associated with decreased levels of glucocoicoids, mineralocoicoids and androgens. Normally coisol is involved in hepatic glycogen synthesis, gluconeogenesis and release of glucose into the circulation. So in adrenal insufficiency, deficiency of coisol results in hypoglycemia. Adrenal insuffici...
1
Hyperglycemia is usually present
Acute adrenal insufficiency usually is secondary to exogenous glucocoicoid administration
Acute adrenal insufficiency presents with weakness, vomiting, fever, and hypotension
Hyponatremia occurs because of impaired renal tubule sodium resorption
Surgery
null
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Lardaceous spleen is a feature of: March 2010
Ans. B: AmyloidosisSpleen is more frequently the seat of amyloidos is than any other organ, and that it appears in a majority of cases to be the organ primarily affected.There are two forms of amyloid disease, called respectively the Sago form and the diffuse form or waxy spleen, to which a third or combined form may b...
2
Thalassemia
Amyloidosis
Sickle cell anemia
Malaria
Pathology
null
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Paradoxical sleep is?
Ans. B REM sleepRef: Ganong, 25th ed. pg. 274* In REM sleep, the high amplitude slow waves in EEG during sleep are periodically replaced by rapid low voltage EEG activity which is identical to awake aroused state.* Now the point is that the person is sleeping while EEG record is like that of an awake patient. Hence REM...
2
Seen in obstructive sleep apnea
REM sleep
NRM sleep
Narcolepsy
Physiology
Nervous System
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single
The definition of prolonged seizures following ECT is:
Prolonged seizures - seizures lasting more than 180 seconds * Prolonged seizures can be terminated either with additional doses of the barbiturate anesthetic agent or with IV diazepam * Methohexital can also be used to abo prolonged seizures in ECT or to limit postictal agitation. Extra edge: Tardive Seizures Additiona...
4
>90 seconds
>150 seconds
>120 seconds
>180 seconds
Psychiatry
DNB 2018
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single
Schwartz operation is done in -
Indications of simple / cortical mastoidectomy (Schwartz operation) Acute coalescent mastoiditis. Incompletely resolved acute otitis media with reservoir sign. Masked mastoiditis. As a initial step to perform: Endolymphatic sac surgery Decompression of facial nerve Translabyrinthine or retrolabyrinthine procedures f...
4
CSOM
Serous otitis media
Otosclerosis
Acute mastoiditis
ENT
null
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Which of the following OCP's have the least amount of estrogen:
null
3
Mala N
Triquilar
Femilon
Novelon
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
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single
A child with hypoglycemia is not able to utilize glucose from glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis. Which of the following enzyme is deficient in the child?
Ans. c. Glucose 6-phosphatase (Ref: Harrison 19/e p433e-1, 433e-2t, 433e-5f, 436e-5, 18/e p3200, 3201; Harper's 27/e p166)Diagnosis of a child with hypoglycemia is not able to utilize glucose from glycogenolvsis or gluconeogenesis is Von Gierk's disease. Von Gierk's disease is due to the deficiency of glucose-6 phospha...
3
Fructokinase
Glucokinase
Glucose 6-phosphatase
Transketolase
Pediatrics
Inborn Errors of Metabolism
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single
Which one of the following is not Included in Jone's Major criteria -
Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:146 Jones Criteria for Diagnosis ofRheumatic FeverMajor CriteriaCarditisPancarditis, seen in 50-60% of patients, develops withinthe first 2 weeks of rheumatic fever. Pericarditis isevidenced by presence of a pericardial rub, myocarditisby tachycardia, so...
4
Pan carditis
Syndenhams chorea
Subcutaneous nodule
High ESR
Medicine
C.V.S
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single
Risk of HIV trasnmission is not seen with -
The danger of needle stick injury is present in medical and paramedical personnel,though the chance of infection are much less than with hepatitis B infection. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-583
3
Whole blood
Platelets
Plasma derived hepatitis B vaccine
Leucytes vaccines
Microbiology
Virology
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Papillary Ca thyroid usually presents as
"Most patients are euthyroid and present with a slow-growing painless mass in the neck Dysphagia, dyspnea, & dysphonia are usually associated with locally advanced invasive disease. Lymph node metastases are common, especially in children and young adults, and may be the presenting complaint so-called 'lateral aberrant...
4
Diffuse nodular swelling
Only lymphadenopathy
Hormonal disturbance
Single nodule + local lymph node
Anatomy
Endocrinology and breast
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All of the following are true about X linked dominant diseases, except
X-linked dominant inheritance, sometimes referred to as X-linked dominance, is a mode of genetic inheritance by which a dominant gene is carried on the X chromosome. As an inheritance pattern, it is less common than the X-linked recessive type. In medicine, X-linked dominant inheritance indicates that a gene responsibl...
1
Male to male transmission only
Males are commonly affected
Females are frequently carries
Unaffected males do not transmit to any offspring
Medicine
Miscellaneous
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multi
Which of the following intravenous anaesthetic agent has extrahepatic additional route of metabolism -
The clearance rate of Propofol exceeds hepatic blood flow, suggesting that an extrahepatic route of elimination also contribution its clearance. since propofol has extrahepatic and extrarenal route of metabolism its metabolism is never delayed in hepatic and renal failure.
2
Thiopentone
Propofol
Etomidate
Ketamine
Anaesthesia
Intravenous Anesthetic Agents
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Prolonging a person's life through technological means is known as :?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dysthanasia In medicine, dysthanasia means "bad death" and is considered a common fault of modern medicine: Dysthanasia occurs when a person who is dying has their biological life extended through technological means without regard to the person's quality of life.
1
Dysthanasia
Novus actus interveniens
Euthanasia
Ohotanasia
Forensic Medicine
null
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Micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all EXCEPT
MICRONODULAR CIRRHOSIS < 3.0 mm MACRONODULAR CIRRHOSIS >3.0 mm Micronodular cirrhosis Macronodular cirrhosis -Alcohol Chronic Hep B or Hep C -Hemochromatosis Wilson's disease -Extra hepatic biliary obstruction a-1 antitrypsin deficiency -Veno occlusive disease -Indian childhood cirrhosis
1
Chronic hepatitis B
Alcoholic liver disease
Hemochromatosis
Chronic extrahepatic biliary obstruction
Medicine
Cirrhosis
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multi
All of the following may be used for premedication except
Diazepam (benzodiazepine) is used for relieving anxiety, inducing good sleep and producing amnesia. Opioids for producing analgesia and atropine (anticholinergics) for drying up the secretions. Pancuronium is non-depolarizing muscle relaxant used during surgery to produce muscle relaxation. REf KATZUNG 12TH ed.
4
Diazepam
Pethidine
Atropine
Pancuronium
Pharmacology
All India exam
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multi
Hyperkalemia with no ECG finding. The drug that should not be used isaEUR'
Calcium gluconate (Also see AIIMS May 2010) . Calcium gluconate is the fastest acting agent used in t/t of hyperkalemia. . In acts within nzinutes but an impoant point to note is that it does not cause transcellular movement of potassium, instead it acts on cell membrane. - It stabilizes the cardiac cell membrane and r...
2
Sodium bicarbonate
Calcium gluconate
Glucose with insulin
Resins
Surgery
null
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Nerve supply of Lacrimal Gland is:
Ans. A. Greater Petrosal NerveThe lacrimal nerve, derived from the ophthalmic nerve, supplies the sensory component of the lacrimal gland. The greater petrosal nerve, derived from the facial nerve, supplies the parasympathetic autonomic component of the lacrimal gland. The greater petrosal nerve traverses alongside bra...
1
Greater Petrosal Nerve
Lesser Petrosal Nerve
External Petrosal Nerve
Deep Petrosal Nerve
Anatomy
Orbit
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single
Deficit in weight for height in a 3 year old child indicates -
Weight reflects only the present health status of the child, the height indicate the events in the past also. So reduced weight for height denotes acute malnutrition. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 501
1
Acute malnutrition
Chronic malnutrition
Concomittant acute and chronic
Under weight
Social & Preventive Medicine
obstetrics,pediatrics and geriatrics
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Beta blockers are antiarrhythmic agents of type:
II
2
I
II
III
IV
Pharmacology
null
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BIRADS stage 5 is
<img src=" /> Source : Internet
4
Negative
Probably benign
Suspicious abnormality
Highly suggesve of malignancy
Anatomy
Endocrinology and breast
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Embryonic phase of development is from -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4th to 8th week * The development of a new individual in the uterus involves three phasesi) Pre-embro phase or germinal phase (day 0-3 weeks).ii) Embro phase or embryonic period (weeks 4-8).iii) Fetal phase (weeks 8-38).
2
1-3 weeks
4th to 8th week
0-4thweek
6th to 9th week
Anatomy
Embryology
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single
Testicular neoplasms account for 1% to 2% of all male-specific malignant neoplasms. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about testicular tumor?
Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors (NSGCTs) tend to be more aggressive than pure seminomas, spreading earlier the bloodstream, with most patients having disease outside the testis at presentation. Seminomas tend to spread lymphatics initially, with late hematogenous spread. Seminomas are quite radiosensitive, and diseas...
1
Pure seminoma is more aggressive than nonseminoma
Seminoma is radiosensitive
Seminoma can be treated by orchidectomy with radiotherapy
Seminoma spreads commonly through lymphatics
Surgery
null
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Pigmentation and icthyosis are side effects of ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Clofazamine Clofazimine Clofazimine is a leprostatic drug. It acts by interfering the template function of DNA. Adverse effects of clofazimine
1
Clofazamine
Rifampicin
Dapsone
Ethionamide
Pharmacology
null
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single
Median Nerve supplies all EXCEPT:
ANSWER: (B) Adductor pollicisREF: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Median_nerve, Grays anatomy, 39th edition, P 931,932 See chart of previous question for explanation
2
Opponens pollicis
Adductor pollicis
Flexor pollicis brevis
Abductor pollicis brevis
Anatomy
Nerves of Upper Extremity
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Which of the following statements about Pancreatic Carcinoma is not true?
Prognosis in Carcinoma Pancreas Five-year survival after curative resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) approaches 15-20 % Overall, 5 year survival rate with pancreatic cancer is 5 % Median survival in Carcinoma Pancreas Resectable disease (Stage I and II) 15-20 months Locally advanced disease (Stage III) 6-10 months Met...
3
Mutation in P53 gene is associated in 75% of cases
Hereditary Pancreatitis significantly increases the risk
Median survival in locally advanced (stage III) disease is 3-6 months
Five year survival after curative pancreaticoduodenectomy is 15-20%
Surgery
G.I.T
75009fb7-898b-4695-9f90-34179836df4d
multi
Which of the following is used in the treatment of Hepatocellular carcinoma ?
Sorafenib is a Tyrosine Kinase inhibitor which is the drug of choice for Hepatocellular carcinoma.
3
Vandetanib
Pazopanib
Sorafenib
Bevacizumab
Pharmacology
null
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single
The most common benign tumor occurring in oral cavity is:
null
2
Papilloma
Fibroma
Adenoma
Epulis
Pathology
null
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single
Lecithin-Sphingomyelin ratio is used for:
a. Lung maturity(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2088-2093, Ghai 8/e p 379-381)By 35 wk of gestation, the lecithin: sphingomyelin (L:S) ratio averages about 2:1, indicative of lung maturity.
1
Lung maturity
Age of infant
Kidney maturity
Brain maturity
Pediatrics
Respiratory System
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single
Comedones are seen in-
Acne causes polymorphous cutaneous lesions such as comedones, papules, pustules, pseudocysts and abscesses which may leave scarring.comedones are the characteristic of acne vulgaris. Reference Harrison20th edition pg 1204
1
Acne vulgaris
Lichen Planus
Adenoma sebaceum
Pityriasis
Dental
Anatomy of skin
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Microalbuminuria is defined as protein levels of-
Types of Proteinuria The following five types of proteinuria are distinguished by milligrams (mg) of protein measured during a 24-hour urine collection: Microalbuminuria (30-150 mg) Mild (150-500 mg) Moderate (500-1000 mg) Heavy (1000-3000 mg) Nephrotic range (more than 3500 mg) As kidney disease progresses, more prote...
1
100-150 mg/L
151-200 mg/L
201-300 mg/L
301-600 mg/L
Pathology
Urinary tract
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General paralysis of insane is associated with ?
Ans, A. NeurosyphillisGeneral paresis, also known as general paralysis ofthe insane or paralytic dementia, is a severe neuropsychiatric disorder, classified as an organic mental disorder and caused by the chronic meningoencephalitis that leads to cerebral atrophy in late-stagesyphilis.Degenerative changes are associate...
1
Neurosyphillis
Alzheimer's disease
Parkinson's disease
None of the above
Psychiatry
null
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multi
Cu T with 10 years life is?
ANSWER: (A) Cu 380 AREF: Park 20th edition page 427The T-Cu-38GA has been approved for use for 10 yearT-Cu 200 - 4 yrsNova T - 5 yrsProgestsert - 1 yrs
1
Cu 380 A
Progestasert
Cu T 200
Nova T
Social & Preventive Medicine
Family Planning
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single
Sabre Tibia
D i.e. Syphilis Recurrence of the chancre in its original place due to relapse (not re-infection) in early syphilisQ is called chancre redux. - Vesico - Bullous lesion are charcterstically seen in early congenital syphilisQ & not found in other stages of syphilis. Interstitial keratitis, along with 8th nerve deafness &...
4
Scury
Rickets
Leprosy
Syphilis
Skin
null
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single
Not true about rheumatoid arthritis
null
2
Peri-articular osteopenia
Periosteal reaction seen
Narrowing of joint space
DIP is usually spared
Orthopaedics
null
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multi
Which statements are true about E.coli chromosomal DNA in relation with eukaryotic chromosomal DNA?
A circular bacterial chromosome is a bacterial chromosome in the form of a molecule of circular DNA. Unlike the linear DNA of most eukaryotes, typical bacterial chromosomes are circular.Most bacterial chromosomes contain a circular DNA molecule - there are no free ends to the DNA. Free ends would otherwise create signi...
1
Circular
Packed into nucleolus
Positively supercoiled
Negatively sepercoiled
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
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multi
Disease in which of the following lobes of the brain can manifest as psychiatry illness?
all neurological disorders affecting the frontal coex can present with psychiatric presentations pathology in orbitofrontal coex presents with disinhibition, social inappropriateness pathology in dorsolateral pReferencerontal coex presents with disturbance in planning , programming and execution pathology in medial pRe...
1
Frontal
Parietal
Temporal
Occipital
Psychiatry
All India exam
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single
Most common cause of Aoic dissection ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hypeensiono More than 90% of dissections occur in men between the age of 40 and 60 with antecedent hypeension. Other causes of dissection.o Marfan syndrome causing cystic medial necrosis (second most common).o Ehlers - Danlos syndrome.o Inflammatory aoitis --> Takayasu's disease, Giant cell aeritis.o ...
1
Hypeension
DM
Trauma
Mafan syndrome
Pathology
null
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single
Which of the following condition is true about Barrett oesophagus
Refer Robbins page no Pg 7579/e Damage to the lower poion of the tube that connects the mouth and stomach (oesophagus). Barrett's oesophagus is usually the result of repeated exposure to stomach acid. It's most often diagnosed in people with long-term gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GERD). * The protein AGR2 is elev...
1
Squamous to coulmanr metaplasia
Coulmanr to squamous metaplasia
Does not increase risk of malignancy
None of the above
Anatomy
G.I.T
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multi
A 75-year-old patient suffering from congestive hea failure accidentally ingests a toxic dose of digoxin. Clinical consequences due to the toxic effects of cardiac glycosides are likely to include
Digoxin adverse effects- CNS effects, visual manifestations, arrhythmia and GI symptoms. Digoxin inhibits Na+/K+-ATPase and impairs the uptake of K+ by skeletal muscle, such that digoxin overdose predictably results in hyperkalemia.
2
Seizures
Visual disturbances
Bicarbonaturia
Intermittent claudication
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
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Naltrexone is: March 2013
Ans. C i.e. lc antagonist Naltrexone is an opioid receptor antagonist used primarily in the management of alcohol dependence and opioid dependence.
3
(mu) agonist
6 (delta) agonist
lc (kappa) antagonist
NOP receptor antagonist
Pharmacology
null
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single
Cause of Farmer's lung –
Farmer's lung is caused by Hay or grain dust.
2
Cotton dust
Grain dust
Sugarcane dust
Iron
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
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single
More than normal posterior angle indicate:
Rakosi- Jarabak analysis The sum of  posterior angles i.e. the cranial base (N–S–Ar), articular (S–Ar–Go), and gonial angles (Ar–Go–Me)> 396 degrees indicates clockwise direction of growth i.e. vertical growth. The sum of  posterior angles i.e. the cranial base (N–S–Ar), articular (S–Ar–Go), and gonial angles (Ar–Go–Me...
2
Horizontal growth
Vertical growth
Sagittal growth
No significance
Dental
null
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single
Which of the following is a bacteria taxonomically -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chlamydia; 'b' i.e., Rickettsia; 'c' i.e., Mycoplasma Bacteria . Bacteria are single celled microorganisms which can exist either as independent (free living) organisms or as parasites (dependent on other organisms for life). . There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and 1 mil...
4
Chlamydia
Rickettsia
Mycoplasma
All
Microbiology
null
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multi
S, ejection click & severe pulmonary stenosis relation is-
Mechanism of inspiratory softening of the pulmonary ejection click. Left-sided ejection clicks occur in the presence of a dilated aoa or aoic valve abnormalities. Ejection clicks occur with flexibly stenotic aoic valves and with nonstenotic bicuspid aoic valves.gap reduces in severe pul monary stenosis Ref Davidson 23r...
2
In severe pulmonary stenosis gap increases
In severe pulmonary stenosis gap reduces
In severe pulmonary stenosis no change
In severe pulmonary stenosis ejection cttek comes_before
Medicine
C.V.S
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First internal sign of putrefaction is found -
null
1
Below the liver
In mediastinum
Below the spleen
In kidney
Forensic Medicine
null
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single
All of these are branches of maxillary nerve in pterygopalatine fossa except:
Infraorbital nerve emerges within the orbit. Gives 2 branches: Middle superior alveolar nerve - arises in infraorbital groove.   Anterior superior alveolar nerve - arises in infraorbital canal. Branches of maxillary nerve in pterygopalatine fossa: Zygomatic nerve:- Zygomaticotemporal Zygomaticofacial Ganglionic br...
2
Zygomatic nerve
Infraorbital nerve
Pterygopalatine nerve
Posterior superior alveolar nerve
Anatomy
null
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multi
Which one of the following is TRUE about amoebic meningoencephalitis?
(B) Trophozoites are found in the CSF> Amebic meningoencephalitis is mainly caused by the free-living ameba of the genera Acanthamoeba, Naegleria, and Balamuthia which are distributed throughout the world.> Naegleria infection--primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is caused by N. fowled followed the aspiration of water ...
2
Only found in tropical countries
Trophozoites are found in the CSF
Transmission is by feco-oral route
Acute condition is caused by Acanthamoeba
Microbiology
Misc.
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multi
Shoest acting benzodiazepine is
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Triazolam
3
Flurazepam
Alprazolam
Triazolam
Diazepam
Pharmacology
null
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single
Which nut has highest protein content -
Nuts and oilseeds Included in this group are groundnut (Peanut), cashewnut, coconut, walnut, almonds, pistachio, mustard seeds, sesame seeds, cotton seeds, sunflower seeds, maize germ and many others from which cooking oils are extracted. Nuts and oilseeds contain good amount of fat and good quality protein in a relati...
2
Walnut
Groundut
Almond
Coconut
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
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single
Which of the following is not associated with malignancy -
Down syndrome is associated with incrased risk of leukemia. _____ Harrison
1
Fragile X syndrome
Fanconi's syndrome
Down's syndrome
Bloom syndrome
Pathology
null
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single
The initial treatment of choice for secondary hyperparathyroidism in renal osteodystrophy is:
Answer is D (Phosphate Binders) The initial treatment of secondary hyperparathyroidism in renal osteodystrophy is management of high phosphate levels by dietary restriction and the use of Phosphate binders The objectives of management are to maintain blood levels of calcium and phosphorous to as close to normal as poss...
4
Cinacalcet
Bisphosphonates
Calcium restriction
Phosphate binders
Medicine
null
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single
To rule out rheumatoid ahriis, most impoant among the followings is -
Answer- B. HLA DR4DR4 is strongly associated with RA (also with Type 1 DM Pemphigus vulgaris).
2
HLA DR8
HLA DR4
HLA DQ1
HLA B27
Pathology
null
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single
Double rise of temperature in 24 hrs is seen in case of -
Double rise of temperature in 24 hrs is seen in case of Kala azar. Option 1, 2, 3, 4 1. L. donovani donovani, infection of the classic kala-azar ("black sickness") or dumdum fever type occurs in many pas of Asia, Africa and Southeast Asia. 2. Kala-Azar Fever: In the early stages of the disease, there is a mild irregula...
1
Kala azar
Malaria
TB
Hodgkin's lymphoma
Microbiology
Parasitology Pa 1 (Protozoology)
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