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Which of the following is the most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycosis?
(a) Aspergillus species(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 732)The most common etiological agent in paranasal sinus mycosis is Aspergillus fumigatus.
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An 18-year-old woman presents for follow-up of an abnormal Pap smear that revealed an abnormality suggestive of HPV infection. Which of the following was the likely cytopathologic finding?
Koilocytes are indicative of HPV-infected epithelial cells. Viral infection causes intracytoplasmic vacuolation that is apparent in cytopathologic and histopathologic preparations. Donovan bodies represent macrophages stuffed with numerous C.(Donovania) granulomatis organisms. Clear cells are characteristic of clear ce...
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All are a mechanism of defence except -
Defence mechanism Narcissistic (Psychotic) :- Denial, disortion, projection. Immature:- Blocking, introjection, passive-aggressive behavior, acting out, hypochondriasis, regression, schizoid fantasy, somatization. Neurotic :- Controlling, Displacement, inhibition, externalization, intellectualization, isolation, rati...
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Advantage of case control over coho study
Case-control study yields only estimate of relative risk Coho study yields incidence rates, relative risks as well as attributable risk (refer pgno:79 park 23 rd edition)
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Puerperal sepsis/infection occurs up to?
Ans- B 2 week PUERPERAL SEPSIS DEFINITION Puerperal sepsis is any bacterial infection of the genital tract which occurs after the birth of a baby. It is usually more than 24 hours after delivery before the symptoms and signs appear. Some of the most common bacteria are: streptococci staphylococci escherichia coli (E.co...
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A 45 year old female complains of progressive weakness and spasticity of the lower limb with difficulty in micturition. CT scan shows an intradural mid dorsal midline enhancing lesion. The likely diagnosis is:
Meningiomas are most common primary intracranial tumors which arise from the duramater and more precisely from the arachnoid cells. They are dural based tumors most commonly found adjacent to the venous sinuses and dural infoldings. They are characteristically slightly hyperdense and enhance on contrast administration....
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Primary Health Care includes all, except?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Treatment by doctor Primary heath care o "Primary health care is essential health care made universally accessible to individuals and acceptable to them, through their full paicipation and at a cost the community and country can afford." o There are 4 main principles of primary health care : 1. Equita...
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Treatment of middle ear malignancy includes - a) Excision of petrous part of temporal bone b) Subcortical excision c) Modified radical mastoidectomy d) None
Most common malignant tumor of middle ear and mastoid is squamous cell carcinoma. Clinical Features It affects age group 40–60 years Slightly more common in females Most important predisposing cause is long standing CSOM Patient may present with chronic foul smelling blood stained discharge Pain is severe and comes at...
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Most sensitive investigation of pancreatic carcinoma is –
Investigation of choice for pancreatic carcinoma → CT scan (CECT) Most sensitive test for pancreatic carcinoma      → Endoscopic ultrasound.
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Microscopy of corneal ulcer showed branching septate hyphae. The probable diagnosis -
Filamentous fungi eg.Aspergillus,fusarium,Alternaria,Cephalosporium,Curvularia and Pencillium are septate multicellular fungi.Mucor and rhizopus are non-septate fungi.Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,6th edition,page no.106
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Quaternary structure of protein is:
Ans. D. The inter relation and arrangement of a polypeptides in the protein with more than 2 polypeptides chains)a. Protein that contain two or more polypeptide chains associated by non-covalent forces are said tob. exhibit quaternary structure.c. The arrangement sequence of amino-acids in the polypeptide chain -- is p...
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Which is false about Wuchereria bancrofti ?
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Man and anopheles are host . Man is the definitive host and culex quinquefosciatus (C. fatigons) is the intermediate host (not Anopheles). . W. bancrofti has long and slender body. . Its microfilaria has tail tip free from nuclei (terminal nuclei absent). . It causes lymphatic filariasis.
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Which of the following is preferred for cutting ductile materials such as dentin?
Burs are generally preferred for cutting ductile materials such as dentin, whereas Diamonds are most efficient when used to cut brittle materials and are superior to burs for the removal of dental enamel. Dental stones, especially diamonds, have the highest efficiency in removing enamel (brittle material), whereas carb...
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Multifactorial inheritance is known in ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cardiac septal defects
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C-3 nephritic factor is associated with which of the following conditions?
Dense-Deposit Disease (type II MPGN) Resulting in excessive activation of the alternative complement pathway. Normally, this C3 convease is labile, but more than 70% of patients with dense-deposit disease have a circulating autoantibody termed C3 nephritic factor (C3NeF) that binds the alternative pathway C3 convease a...
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Autosomal recessive diseases are except
Hereditary spherocytosis is an autosomal dominant disorder Refer Robbin's 7th/151,8th/151-2,9/e p141
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What is Ranne complex?
The central part of the TB lesion contains caseous, soft, and cheesy necrotic material (caseous necrosis). This necrotic material may undergo calcification at a later stage called Ranne complex, in the lung parenchyma and hilar lymph nodes in few cases. Key concept: Necrotic material undergoing calcification which is se...
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Principle of Radiotherapy is:
Ans: C (DNA damage) Ref: General Principles of Radiation Therapy by Gary J Schreiber, Medscape and Perez and Brady's Principles and Practice of Radiation Oncology, Edited by Edward C. Halperin, 5 Ed, pg 10Explanation:" The exact mechanism of cell death due to radiation is still an area of active investigation. A large ...
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The rate of bone mineralization is identical to the rate of osteoid production. The rate of newly synthesized osteoid is best estimated by:
Pulse labeling with tetracycline allows detection of rate of formation of osteoid.Two discrete tetracycline lines in tissue section separated in space can reflect the formation of bone that occurred between two oral administrations of tetracycline.The distance between the two labels can be measured and constitute the q...
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The following is not true of syphilis -
Ans. is 'c' i.e., VDRL is negative in secondary syphilis
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A 5 year old male patient presents with a complaint of multiple decayed teeth. His previous dental treatment was deferred because of uncooperative behavior. Which of the following drugs cannot be used for the pharmacological management of the patient’s behavior?
Chloral Hydrate is an aldehyde compound that is metabolized by alcohol dehydrogenase in the liver to its active metabolite, trichloro ethanol. In vitro studies have suggested that trichloroethanol acts upon GABA receptors in a manner similar to barbiturates and benzodiazepines. It is a chemical irritant to the skin and...
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Most important mediator of chemotaxis is:
Role of different mediators in Inflammation
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Absolute C/I of MRI is – a) Pacemakerb) Pregnancy at 1st trimesterc) Aneurysmal clipd) Phobia
Cardiac pacemakers and ferromagnetic hemostatic clips in CNS (aneurysmal clip) are absolute contraindications for MRI.
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The first human protein produced by rDNA technology:
The first human protein produced by rDNA technology is Insulin. Production of recombinant Insulin: NOTE: Gene coding for insulin is localized on 11p15 site of chromosome.
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Delta waves on EEG is seen in: March 2013 (e)
Ans. B i.e. Fully relaxed deep sleep
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Sabin-Feldman dye test is used for diagnosis of: March 2005, 2009 and September 2007
Ans. D: Toxoplasma The most common method of laboratory diagnosis of toxoplasma gondii is by serology like Sabin-Feldman dye test, indirect immunofluorescence, indirect haemagglutination, complement fixation and ELISA. Sabin-Feldman dye test is based on the specific inhibition by antibody of the staining of the trophoz...
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Which of these is a conservative mutator
Conserved mutation means altered AA has same properties of original AA. e.g. glutamic acid to aspartic acid (both acidic) or alanine to leucine (both aliphatic).
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The X-ray appearance of a CBD stone on cholangiography is:
Ans. Meniscus appearance
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Cells present in cerebral coex are all, except:
Bipolar cells
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McNaughten's rule relates to?
Ans. c (Criminal responsibility). (Ref. Parikh, FMT, 5th ed., 538).The following are the tests for determining criminal responsibility of Insane.1. Me. Naughten Rule: "An accused person is not legally responsible, if it is clearly proved, that at the time of committing the crime, he was suffering from such a defect of ...
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Which of the following is a phytosterol?
Sterols are molecules with the cyclopentano-perhydro-phenanthrene (CPP) nucleus Sitosterol Plant (phyto) sterol Ergosterol Fungal (myco) sterol Cholesterol Animal (zoo) sterol Plant sterols (sitosterol) | absorption of cholesterol Sitosterolemia Autosomal recessive disorder Defects in either ABCG5 or ABCG8 | Plant ster...
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patient with stab injury to the lower chest presented with low pulses and BP improved after giving IV fluids Chest Xroy showed clear lung fluids Next step in the management
abdominal injury=Stable- CECT/ Unstable - eFAST ref : bailey and love 27th ed
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The minimum number of polyps necessary for a diagnosis of Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAP) is:
Ans. (d) 100(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 809; 8th/pg 820-824)Classic FAP -At least 100 polyps are necessary for a diagnosis QAttenuated FAP-lower number of adenomatous polyps (around 30)
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Nutrient and oxygen reach the chondrocytes across perichondrium by -
Answer- B. Diffusionchondrocytes within the matrix must receive nutrients and oxygen by diffusion from vessels that lie outside the cailage.
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In which of the following corneal ulcers signs are more than symptoms:
Ans. (a) Fungal corneal ulcerRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. H06, Khurana 4th ed./100* Fungal corneal ulcer aka fungal keratitis is most commonly caused by Aspergillus fusarium. Patient in this condition presents with history of trauma with vegetative matter.* Symptoms shown by patients here are milder than signs. Signs are ...
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A 14 yr old boy with abnormal movements. MRI shows involvement of bilateral striatum, thalami, puns, centrum semiovale and asymmetrical diffuse white matter involvement. What could be the possible diagnosis?
Ans. Wilson's disease
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Epiglottis is derived from ?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4th archAll cailages of larynx (except arytenoid) are derived from 4th arch - epiglottis, cricoid, thyroid, corniculate and conciform.Arytenoid is derived from 6" arch.See explanation-8 of session-1.NoteDevelopment of laryngeal cailages is controversial. According to some textbooks, all laryngeal cail...
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Which of the following is a psychiatric emergency
Suicide is a psychiatric emergency. Suicide is preventable and can be identified early using a scale called as SAD PERSONS scale. Other impoant psychiatric emergencies are neuroleptic malignant syndrome Serotonin syndrome Agitated patient Ref.Kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 763
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True about spinal cord
*Upto 3rd month of intrauterine life, spinal cord extends throughout the entire length of veebral canal.*Thereafter, the veebral column grows faster than the Spinal cord and the terminal end of Spinal cord gradually shifts to a higher level.*At bih, it ends at level of L3 veebra and in adults, it ends at level of lower...
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Saturated salt solution concentrates eggs of all, except-
Helminth eggs floating in saturated salt solution: Hell FATE Hell-Helminth,H.nana F-Feilised eggs of Ascaris A-Ancylostoma duodenale T-Trichuris trichiura E-Enterobius vermicularis
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In acute convulsions due to toxicity to local anaesthetic most important step in immediate management is –
Treatment of local anesthetic toxicity First step is to ensure adequate oxygenation, by face mask or intubation. LA infusion should be stopped immediately. Anticonvulsants like benzodiazepines (midazolanz) and barbiturates (thiopentone) are the drugs of choice for seizure control. Propofol can also be used. For hypote...
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ABO antigen are found in all except ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., CSF ABO antigen can be demenstrated in all body fluids except CSF"_________ Reddy. They are detected in almost all tissues, but not found in - Nerve tissue Epithelium Skin appendages Bone Cailage
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CSF pressure depends primarily upon?
Ans. B. Rate of absorptionCSF pressure depends primarily upon Rate of absorption because the rate of the formation is fairly constant.
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Third pa of veebral aery is related to which marked area in the following diagram
Marked structures are as follows: A: Posterior arch of atlas; B: Foramen transversarium; C: Anterior arch; D: Superior aicular facet. Veebral aery has 4 pas: V1 - Preforaminal (from subclan aery to transverse foramen of C6) V2 - Foraminal (through the transverse foramina of C6 to C2) V3 - Extradural (from the transvers...
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Regarding upper GI bleed-true statement is
Ref. Sabiston Textbook of Surgery. Pg. 1142   GI Bleeding Most common cause of GI Bleed is Non variceal bleeding (80%) Upper GI bleed is defined bleeding arising from esophagus ,stomach ,or duodenum . Rockall and Baylor scoring for predicatabilty of rebleeding and mortality 1st line management includes IV Fluids + blo...
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Which one of the following is not a non-metastatic complication of malignancies -
<img src=" /> Image ref - Harrison internal medicine 20e p541
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A 68-year-old diabetic male presents with persistent ear discharge with fever and headache. He complained of pain out of propoion. On examination, granulations and tenderness are observed on the floor of the external auditory canal along with facial nerve palsy. He is not responding to antibiotics. What is the most pro...
Ans. a. Malignant otitis externa Presence of a painful lesion in the external ear with the evidence of granulation tissue and associated cranial nerve palsies (VII nerve) in a diabetic (or immunocompromised) patient suggest a diagnosis of malignant otitis externa.
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Polyamine like putrescine is derived from:
Ans. (b) Ornithine* Polyamines like spermine, spermidine and putrescine metabolite are produced from L-ornithine by action of ODC (ornithine decarboxylase).* S-Adenosylmethionine, the methyl group donor for many biosynthetic processes, also participates directly in spermine and spermidine biosynthesis.
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Which is the most common side effect of inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate:
Most of the side effects of steroids are mainly hoarseness, oropharyngeal candidiasis, decreased growth in children with adrenal suppression. • The plausible explanation is that since these drugs are inhaled, they avoid the first pass metabolism that orally administered steroids undergo and hence have a preponderance t...
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Lung granuloma with necrosis are seen in -a) PANb) TBc) Histoplasmosisd) Cryptococcosise) Wegener's granulomatosis
Granuloma with necrosis TB    → caseous necrosis Syphilis    → caseous necrosis Coccidiodomycosis   →  caseous necrosis Histoplasmosis   →  caseous necrosis Wegner’s granulomatosis – Non-caseous necrosis
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With regards to imaging of primary extra nodal lymphomas, in which of the following sites does extra nodal Hodgkin's disease most commonly occur:
At presentation, Hodgkin disease is usually supra diaphragmatic which means thymus is involved due to contiguous spread from one nodal group to the next along the lymphatic pathways. Hence thymus is involved before spleen and other abdominal organs. Thyroid gland is rarely involved in Hodgkin lymphoma.
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All of the following are true about Type I DM, Except:
Answer is A (Family history is present in 90% of cases): A strong family history (.90%) is a feature of type II DM and not type I DM. Family history may he present in only about 15% cases of type I DM.
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Rubella is caused by
Family Togaviridae includes Genus Alphavirus --> Western Equine Encephalitis (WEE) , Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE) , Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis (VEE) and Chikungunya fever (CGF) Genus Rubivirus --> Rubella Rubella: Aka German measles. I.P - 14-21 days Source : cases Mode of transmission : Respiratory / air drop...
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True about legionella:
Ans. is. 'b' i. e., There is no man to man transmission
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Cardiac motion is visible with trans vaginal imaging when the embryo length has reached
Cardiac motion is visible when embryo reaches length of 5mm.
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Oil and grease are sterilised by-(
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hot air oven
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Common organisms causinh sinusitis:
according to scott Brown 7/e,p 1441 M/C Organism causing sinusitis in adults is also Streptococcus pneumoniae followed by H.influenza. In childreb M/C is streptococcus pnuemonia followef by both H.influenza and moraxella catarrhalis.
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Liquid medium for tuberculosis -
Ans. is 'd' i.e., MGIT o Mycobacterial growth indicator tube (MGIT) is an automated liquid culture method. It contains 7 ml of modified Middle brook 7 H9 Broth base.Media for tubercular bacilliSolid mediaLiquid mediao L.J. mediumo Dorset mediumo Petragnini mediumo Loeffer mediumo Tarshis mediumo Duboso Middle brook'so ...
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Prolactin is synthesized in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pituitary
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Uveitis is associated most commonly with:
C i.e. Pauciaicular JRA Anterior Uveitis is more common in pauciaicular seronegative (i.e. RA factor negative) IRA Q than in polyaicular JRA or systemic JRA. Seropositivity for ANA factor in pauciaicular JRA predisposes to uveitis. Most of the times the term "Seronegative" or "Seropositive" is used in relation to RA fa...
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The Endotoxin from the gram-negative organism is -
Endotoxins heat stable lipopolysaccharides which form an integral pa of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. Their toxicity depends on the lipid component. They are released only by the disintegration of the cell wall. They cannot be toxoided. They are poor antigens and their toxicity is not completely neutralized ...
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Nerve supply of pinna
A. i.e. Greater auricular nerve; B. i.e. Auriculotemporal nerve; C. i.e. Occipital nerve
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A person has episodes of vomiting 6 hrs after consuming milk. Organism responsible for this may be: March 2009
Ans. B: Bacillus cereus and D: Staphylococcus Incubation period of food poisoning due to: Clostridium perfringenes: 6-24 hours Bacillus cereus-It produces atleast 2 distinct enterotoxins. One, the emetic form with a sho incubation period (1-6 hours) characterized by predominantly upper gastrointestinal tract symptoms, ...
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medmcqa_train
What is the most likely diagnosis of this penile lesion found in a 54-year-old man with lymphadenopathy and weight loss?
Answer A. Squamous-cell carcinomaSquamous-cell carcinoma is the correct answer. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common risk factor for squamous-cell carcinoma of the penis, as is the case here. HPV can also cause cervical cancer in women. The presence of metastasis to the inguinal lymph nodes is a poor prognostic facto...
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All are true about Giant cell arteritis except -
It is the most common form of systemic vasculitis in adults, is an acute and chronic, often granulomatous, inflammation of arteries of large to small size. It affects principally the arteries in the head-especially the temporal arteries — but also the vertebral and ophthalmic arteries and the aorta, where it may cause ...
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The infratentorial dura is supplied by branches of the
The tentorium cerebelli is a tent-shaped fold of dura mater, forming the roof of the posterior cranial fossa.It separates the cerebellum from the occipital lobes of the cerebrum and broadly divides the cranial cavity into supratentorial and infratentorial compaments. The infratentorial compament, in other words, is the...
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TRUE about folic acid and vitamin B12 is all, except-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Recommended daily allowances for Folic acid is 1000 micro grams
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Which of the following fungi is/are difficult to isolate culture -
Malassezia furfur does not grow on regular sabouraud's medium. It requires complex media to grow M. furfur is a lipid-dependent fungus and 1% emulsified olive oil is added to sabouraud medium for its cultivation Two media are now widely employed for all Malassezia species. Dixon medium Modified Dixon medium
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Asplenic pt-more susceptible to-
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pneumococcus o Most common infection after splenectomy is by - streptococcus pneumoniae ( -50-90% of cases )o Other common bacteria! infections:Haemophilous influenzae type BMeningiococcusGroup A streptococcuso Common Protozoan inf. after splenectomy are:BabesiaEhrlichiaMalariao No increased risk of v...
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Which of the following antiepileptic drugs can cause hirsutism in a 30 year old woman?
ADVERSE EFFECT OF PHENYTOIN: H - Hirsutism , Hyperophy of gums O - Osteomalacia T - Teratogenicity M - Megaloblastic anemia A - Ataxia and nystagmus L - Lymphadenopathy I - Inhibits insulin release (hyperglycemia) K - Vitamin K deficiency A - Arrhythmias
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The most frequent cause of recurrent genital ulceration in a sexually active male is
PCR testing of genital ulcers now clearly implicates genital herpes as the most common cause of genital ulceration in developing countries Genital herpes is a common sexually transmitted disease (STD) that any sexually active person can get. Most people with the virus don't have symptoms. Even without signs of the dise...
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Which of the following is an impoant marker for myocardial infarction?
LDH is a tetrameric enzyme consisting of two monomers types: H (for hea) and M (for muscle) that combine to yield 5 LDH isoenzymes: HHHH(I1), HHHM(I2), HHMM(I3), HMMM(I4), MMMM(15). Tissue injury releases a characteristic pattern of LDH isoenzymes that can be separated by electrophoresis.The blood test most commonly us...
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DOC for Levodopa induced vomiting is?
Domperidone crosses blood brain barrier poorly. The anti-emetic action is exeed mainly through CTZ which is not protected by blood brain barrier. Because of poor entry into CNS, it does not block the therapeutic effect of Levodopa in Parkinsonism, but counteracts its dose limiting emetic action. It is a D2 receptor ant...
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A 78-year-old man with advanced renal disease has the ECG shown in Figure below (lead II). What is the diagnosis?
No atrial activity is detected. The ventricular rate is slightly irregular. Beat number 4 is a ventricular premature contraction. The T waves are tall and markedly peaked. This type of T wave is characteristic of hyperkalemia, as is absence of visible atrial activity.The potassium level was 8.2mmol/L.
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All are components of basement membrane except -
fibronectin -a major component of the interstitial ECM laminin -a major constituent of basement membrane The GBM consists of collagen (mostly type IV), laminin, fibronectin, entactin(nidogen), and several other glycoproteins. rhodopsin is one of the visual pigment in the eye, present in rods, helps in dim light vision ...
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Type 'A' personality is characterized by all except,
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Mood fluctuations Type A personality disorder also known as type A behaviour pattern is a set of characteristic that includes beingImpatientExcessively time consciousInsecure about one's statusHighly competitiveHostile and aggressiveIncapable of relaxationType A individuals are often highly achieving w...
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'Gastrocolic reflex' is related with?
Mass peristalsis Gastrocolic reflex: Facilitates appearance of mass movements after a meal. Ex., For gastrocolic reflex - Seen in early infancy.
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Gastric motility is increased in:
Acid in duodenum
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Which of the following anticholinesterase is derived from natural source
Refer kDT 6/e p 102 Physostigmine is a highly toxic parasympathomimetic alkaloid, specifically, a reversible cholinesterase inhibitor. It occurs naturally in the Calabar bean and the Manchineel tree. The chemical was synthesized for the first time in 1935 by Percy Lavon Julian and Josef Pikl.
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An 18-year-old man is seen in the clinic for routine assessment. He reports no active symptoms, there is no past medical history and he is not taking any medications. He mentions that his brother has a "low blood count" that is hereditary but does not recall the name of the disorder.His physical examination is entirely...
An increased amount of HbF or HbA2 is present in patients with beta-thalassemia. As the hemoglobin beta-chains are decreased in beta-thalassemia, the excess alpha-chains combine with gamma-and delta-chains to make HbF and HbA2, respectively. Increased osmotic fragility of red cells is a feature hereditary spherocytosis...
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Subclinical infection is common in-
Inapparent infection is one where the clinical effects are not apparent. the term subclinical infection is often used as synonym. Japanese encephalitis is a serious illness and there have been outbreaks in india.the disesa is abrupt in onset with fever,headache and vomiting,followed by signs of encephalitis. In epidemi...
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Flaccid bullae lesions with oral mucosal lesions. The finding in immunoflourescence is –
Flaccid bullae with involvement of oral mucosa suggest the diagnosis of pemphigus vulgaris. In pamphigus, there is intercellular deposition of IgG in fish-net pattern.
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Mode of action of fluoxetine -
Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor.
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Giant&;a&;wave in JVP is seen in-
in Tricuspid stenosis The jugular veins are distended, and in patients with sinus rhythm there may be giant a waves. The v waves are less conspicuous, and because tricuspid obstruction impedes RA emptying during diastole, there is a slow y descent. In patients with sinus rhythm there may be prominent presystolic pulsat...
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Receptor mediated endocytosis requires:
Clathrin-mediated endocytosis occurs at membrane indentations where the protein clathrin accumulates. Clathrin molecules have the shape of triskelions, with three "legs" radiating from a central hub. At the neck of the vesicle, the GTP-binding protein dynamin is involved, either directly or indirectly, in pinching off ...
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Which of the following vitamin has a role in the regulation of gene expression and tissue differentiation?
Retinoic Acid has a Role in the Regulation of Gene Expression and Tissue Differentiation. A major role of vitamin A is in the control of cell differentiation and turnover. All-trans-retinoic acid and 9-cis-retinoic acid regulate growth, development, and tissue differentiation Like the thyroid and steroid hormones and v...
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In Jorgenson technique drugs given by IV routes are:
Jorgenson technique includes intravenous administration of opioids. The drugs used in Jorgenson technique are: a) Pentobarbitol b) Mepiridine c) Scopalamine (Hyoscine) d) Pethidine, etc.
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Sperm attains motility in:
Although initially only slightly motile, spermatozoa obtains full motility in the epididymis Development of the spermSpermatogenesis is the process of spermatagonia (diploid) mature into spermatozoa (haploid).Spermioogenesis is a pa of spermatogenesis where round spermatids mature into the mature spermatozoa form.Sperm...
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Which of the following vitamin deficiencies is uncommon in celiac disease
Ans. is `d' i.e., Vitamin B12 'Vitamin B is absorbed from the body in the end pa of small intestine (terminal ileum). Because this pa of the bowel is seldom damaged - by celiac disease, Vitamin Bit deficiency is not common in this condition'
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Inherited cancer syndrome include all except?
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Neurofibroma Neurofibromatosis (multiple neurofibroma) is inherited cancer syndrome, not isolated neurofibroma.
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The fluoride concentration of human milk ranges from:
Fluoride concentration of human milk ranges from 5-10 µg/L.  These levels are found in nursing mothers living both in non-fluoridated and fluoridated areas.  Cow's milk contains 30-60 µg/L of fluoride. Essentials of preventive and community dentistry  Soben Peter 5th edition
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Pernicious anemia associated with ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gastric Pathology Anemias of Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Pernicious Anemia Pernicious anemia is a specific form of megaloblastic anemia caused by an autoimmune gastritis that impairs the production of intrinsic factor, which is required fir vitamin B12 uptake from the gut. Histologically, there is a chron...
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Which is the shortest acting mydriatic ?
Atropine is longest acting (5-6 days) whereas tropicamide is the shortest acting (15-60 min) mydriatic.
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A 40-yr-female progressive dyspnea from 1 yr. She also has b/I bibasilar end inspiratory crepitation. The true statement is:
The patient is having interstitial inflammatory lung disease with progressive dyspnea & bilateral basal end-inspiratory crackles.9% of ILD can be associated with connective tissue disorders like, SLE, Rheumatoid arthritis, Ankylosing spondylitis, Systemic sclerosis, Sjogren's syndrome, polymyositis-dermatomyositis. In...
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The most common position adopted for surgical procedures is
.Lithotomy position used for all perineal surgeries like for fissure, piles, fistula, and APR. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 913
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The MOST common organism isolated in emphysematous pyelonephritis is:
Emphysematous pyelonephritis is a form of acute necrotizing pyelonephritis secondary to a gas-producing bacteria (E coli in 66% of cases and Klebsiella in 26%). It is commonly seen in patients with poorly controlled diabetes (over 90% of cases) or in patients with upper urinary tract obstruction. The diagnosis is made ...
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Definitive sign of scurvy in X-ray ?
Definitive sign of scurvy in X-rays of long bones is the white line of Frenkel,an irregular thickened line at the metaphyses representing calcified cailage at the zone ofcalcification.Other characteristic findings are ground glass appearance with thinning of coex and a zone of rarefaction under the white line of metaph...
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SI unit for measuring Blood Pressure is :
C i.e. KPa
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Drug(s) included in the treatment of visceral leismaniasis is/are all except -
<p> Pentamidine is not a drug for treatment of leishmaniasis Sodium stibogluconate, Amphotericine B, Miltefosine are dug of choice for visceral leishmaniasis. Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:307. <\p>
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As a junior resident , you are managing a patient of COVID-19 . When will you stop the treatment in COVID 19 patient ?
When will you stop the treatment in COVID 19 patient ? Two consecutive negative PCR repos atleast 24 hours apa WITH Clinico-radiological improvement
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