query stringlengths 1 1.57k | pos stringlengths 1 22.5k | idx int64 0 161k | task_name stringclasses 1
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False negative hydrostatic test in live fetus is for | False negative hydrostatic test can be seen in :- 1. Diseases e.g. : acute edema, pneumonia, Congenital syphilis. 2. Atelectasis False positive hydrostatic test can be seen in :- 1. Presence of putrified gases. 2. Aificial inflation. | 17,600 | medmcqa_train |
30 To -60 degree axis detion indicates: | Answer is A (Left Axis Detion): Detion of the cardiac axis more negative than -30 (Between -30 to -90) indicates Left Axis Detion. | 17,601 | medmcqa_train |
The characteristics of polio vaccine are all except - | Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 23rd edition Page no: 206, 207 After 3 doses of OPV, the mean propoion of infants with detectable serum neutralizing antibody level was only 73% for type1, 90% for type 2 and 70% for type 3 polio virus | 17,602 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest site for ischemic colitis is - | Ans is 'b' ie. Splenic flexure "Although splenic flexure is the most common site of ischemic colitis, any segment of colon may be affected. The rectum is relatively spared because of its rich collateral circulation." | 17,603 | medmcqa_train |
A patient having multiple Gall stones and shows 8 mm dilation and 4 stones in CBD, best treatment modalities are -a) Cholecystectomy with choledocholithotomy at same settingb) ESWLc) Cholecystectomy and wait for ERCPd) Sphincterotomy and then cholecystectomye) Cholecystectomy and after 14 days sphincterotomy done | Management of suspected or proven CBD stones associated with gall bladder stones
For gallstones - laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the procedure of choice.
For CBD stones two things can be done :
1) If the surgeon is experienced in laparoscopic techniques of CBD stone removal then both cholecystectomy and choledochol... | 17,604 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are moality indicators except? | Disability adjusted life years (DALY) is a disability rate. Moality Indicators are: Crude death rate Life expectancy Infant moality rate Propoion moality rate Case fatality rate Years of potential life lost (YPLL) | 17,605 | medmcqa_train |
Modifiable risk factors for hypertension is ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Obesity Risk factors for hypertensionModifiableNon - modifiableo Obesity'o Salt intakeo Saturated fato Dietary fibreo Alcohol intakeo Physical activity'o Environmental stresso Socio-economic statuso Ageo Sexo Genetic factorso Ethnicity | 17,606 | medmcqa_train |
which of the following is true regarding competitive reversible antagonism | COMPETITIVE Reversible ANTAGONISM 1.Same receptor by forming Weak bonds 2. Maximal response is concentration dependent 3.The effect of antagonist can be overcome by increasing the concentration of agonist 4. Parallel rightward shift of DRC COMPETITIVE Irreversible ANTAGONISM 1. Have affinity for the same receptor sites... | 17,607 | medmcqa_train |
True about Pendred syndrome is: | Ans. D. All of the abovePendred syndrome, a disorder of the pendrin gene, is associated with decreased intracellular transport of iodine and deafness. Transient congenital hypothyroidism may occur following transplacental passage of TSH receptor blocking anti bodies iodine exposure and treatment with drugs like amiodar... | 17,608 | medmcqa_train |
Golden period for treatment of open wounds is .....hours - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 4 | 17,609 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following can be used in increased ICT except | (A) Ketamine # Complications of Ketamine:> Hypertension, tachycardia> Emergence delirium, nightmares, hallucinations (less frequent with intramuscular injection, least in elderly and below 15 yrs.)> Salivation, Increased intracranial pressure; Prolonged recovery.> Allergic reactions - Transient erythema/Morbilliform ra... | 17,610 | medmcqa_train |
In abdominal aoic aneurysm indication of operation is when size of aneurysm is ? | <p> Abdominal aoic aneurysm: Most commonest type of large vessel aneurysm. 95% have associated atheromatous change. 95% occur below renal aeries. Symptomatic aneurysms may cause minor symptoms such as back and abdominal discomfos, before severe sudden abdominal pain due to rupture develops. Asymptomatic aneurysms are f... | 17,611 | medmcqa_train |
Marker for ovarian cancer is | CA 125 | 17,612 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following therapy is used in treatment of borderline personality disorder? | Psychotherapy(Dialectical behaviour therapy) is most effective in treatment of Borderline PD. Apa from it antidepressants , antipsychotics and carbamazepine can be used. Psychotherapies for Borderline Personality Disorder: Dialectical Behavior Therapy Mentalization Based Therapy (NIMHANS 2018) Transference Focused Psyc... | 17,613 | medmcqa_train |
Inclusion bodies of vaccina is known as - | Vaccinia infected cells show rather small multiple inclusions known as Guarnieri bodies. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:444 | 17,614 | medmcqa_train |
Raised JVP and not fall back of JVP is a feature of? | In Atrial fibrillation there is a disorganized, rapid, and irregular atrial activity with the loss of atrial contraction. This insufficient atrial contraction results in accumulation of blood in the atrium, which results in increase in JVP which does not fall back. In ventricular tachycardia, atria empty completely and... | 17,615 | medmcqa_train |
A 2 day old newborn baby presented with microcephaly, macroglossia, visceromegaly and a blood glucose level of 20 mg/d1. What is the most likely diagnosis | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beckwith-Wiedman syndrome o Beckwith-Wiedman syndrome has been explained -3 See wilms tumor. | 17,616 | medmcqa_train |
Tc labeled RBCs are used for all except | Tc-99m labellee rbc is used in assessment of GI bleeding . | 17,617 | medmcqa_train |
Severe malaria is indicated on peripheral smear by: | Severe malaria is indicated by Hyperparasitaemia (>5% parasitized RBCs in low endemic and >10% in hyperendemic areas) Ref: | 17,618 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is seen in cold temperature:March 2011 | Ans. A: Increased Thyroxine releaseEndocrine mechanisms which causes heat production (thermogenesis) are epinephrine, norepinephrine and thyroxine Thermoregulatory response activated by exposure to cold ( posterior hypothalamus)Increased heat production- ShiveringHunger- Increased voluntary activity- Increased TSH secr... | 17,619 | medmcqa_train |
A 30 year old male patient who has taking haloperidol for the past 1 month is brought to the emergency department with a temperature of 103.5degF, blood pressure of 176/100 mmHg, rigidity and confusion. Which one of the following seems to be the most likely possibility? | Ans. B. Neuroleptic malignant syndromeNeuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening reaction that can occur in response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medication. Symptoms include high fever, confusion, rigid muscles, variable blood pressure, sweating, and fast heart rate. Complications may include rhabdo... | 17,620 | medmcqa_train |
True about ARDS are all except: March 2010 | Ans. C: Recovery in terms of lung functions is poor in ARDS survivors Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by the development of sudden and severe breathlessness, hypoxemia and diffuse pulmonary infiltrate. Clinical Conditions Associated with Development of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome Dir... | 17,621 | medmcqa_train |
Unfolded proteins are handled by? | Ans. (a) ChaperonesRef Harper's Biochemistry 28/e, ch. 45y Table 45-5y & Table 45-6 | 17,622 | medmcqa_train |
A 25-year-old man with a history of autism and mental retardation is seen by a genetic counselor. The man has coarse facial features, an increased head circumference, and macro-orchidism. His maternal uncle is similarly affected. After further evaluation, a diagnosis of fragile X syndrome is rendered. What is the most ... | Fragile X syndrome, the most common cause of inherited mental retardation, is caused by expansion of a CGG trinucleotide repeat in a noncoding region immediately adjacent to the FMR1 gene on the X chromosome. In a poorly understood manner, the expanded CGG repeat silences the FMR1 gene by methylation of its promoter. T... | 17,623 | medmcqa_train |
A 55-year-old male presented to surgery OPD with complaints of scrotal swelling. Patient also gives a history of anorexia and weight loss. On examination the swelling was hard. All of the following investigations are advised except: | Ans. A. Incisional biopsyExplanationBecause of the characteristic and well-described lymph drainage of the testicle, there is no role for trans-scrotal biopsy or orchiectomy.If the intrascrotal tissue planes are violated during orchiectomy, the lymphatic drainage can be altered, affecting future treatment.Testicular ca... | 17,624 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements are true about mifepristone : | Ans. is a, b, c Also called RU - 486; It is a 19 Norsteroid; Acts on receptors; Used for menstrual regulation Route of administration : Oral RU 486 (Mifepristone) is a 19 Norsteroid synthetic derivative of progesterone. It has affinity for progesterone receptors and therefore blocks its actions. Uses : As post coital (... | 17,625 | medmcqa_train |
The tributaries of the inferior vena cava include all of the following, except: | Left gonadal vein | 17,626 | medmcqa_train |
Thymoma commonly presents with | Thymus is abnormal in 75% patients with MG; 65%is hyperplastic and 10 % have thymic rumours or thymomas These patients may present with cough, chest pain, superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome, dysphagia, and hoarseness if the recurrent laryngeal nerve is involved. One third of cases are found incidentally on radiographic ... | 17,627 | medmcqa_train |
According to the 2013 amendment the age for sexual consent is: | Ans. c.18 years (Ref: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Criminal_Law_(Amendment)_Act,_2013)According to the 2013 amendment, the age for sexual consent is 18 years."The age of consent in India has been increased to 18 years, which means any sexual activity irrespective of presence of consent with a woman below 18 years of a... | 17,628 | medmcqa_train |
Aerial supply to putamen includes all EXCEPT: | Majority of the aerial supply to the basal ganglia comes from the striate aeries, which are branches from the roots of the anterior and middle cerebral aeries.. Posteroinferior pa of the lentiform complex is supplied by the thalamostriate branches of the posterior cerebral aery. The anterior choroidal aery branch of th... | 17,629 | medmcqa_train |
The immediate complication of vesicular mole evacuation is : | Bleeding | 17,630 | medmcqa_train |
The most important indication for surgical repair of a bicornuate uterus is: | Ans. is d, i.e. Habitual abortionRef: Munrokers Operative Obstetrics 10th/ed, pl92-193; Jeffcoate 7th/ed, p204; Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p418Management: Bicornuate uterus requires surgical treatment only when it causes habitual abortions.Q"When a bicornuate or septate uterus has caused not less than 3 miscarriages and no... | 17,631 | medmcqa_train |
In Bilateral palsy of recurrent larygeal nerve there is | In BLL RLN palsy - VC is in median position, so speech preserved has stridor and dysphoea. | 17,632 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following vaccine preventable diseases are covered under Mission Indradhanush except: | Ref. Foundations of Community medicine. Page. 541
Mission Indradhanush is a health mission of the government of India. It was launched on 25 December 2014.
It aims to immunize all children under the age of 2 years, as well as all pregnant women, against seven vaccine preventable diseases. The diseases being targeted... | 17,633 | medmcqa_train |
Benzodiazepine without anticonvulsant property is - | Ans. is 4d' i.e., Temazepam o BZDs with significant anticonvulsant property are diazepam, clonazepam, nitrazepam, lorazepam andflurazepam.Effects of benzodiazepineso In contrast to barbiturates, BZDs are not general depressant, but exert relatively selective anxiolytic, hypnotic, muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant effe... | 17,634 | medmcqa_train |
Capacity of producing IgG stas at what age | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 6 months Immediately after bih, the newborn has high level of IgG antibodies in blood stream. But these antibodies are passively transferred to the baby from mother (i.e., maternal antibodies). During next few months, the maternal IgG antibodies steadily decrease. When healthy baby is about 2-3 months... | 17,635 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the least common cause of ambiguous genitalia in a female child- | Ans is 'a' i.e., Fetal placental steroid sulfatase deficiency o Placental steroid sufatase deficiency is an X-linked disorder (affects only males) that does not lead to ambiguous genitalia in a female child. o 'Placental steroid sullatase deficiency is a rare X-linked disorder and all affected fetuses are males' Willia... | 17,636 | medmcqa_train |
which of the following antipsychotic drugs is available as a depot injection? | Fluphenazine is an anti depressant that is also available as a depot preparation. REF KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED. | 17,637 | medmcqa_train |
Fetus is most radio sensitive at which week? | ANSWER: (A) 3 weeksREF: Primer of radiobiology by Elizabeth Latorre Travis page 196The first trimester, particularly the first 6 weeks of development, appears to be the most radiosensitive in terms of both lethality and induction of congenital abnormalities in humansHence the answer is 3 weeks | 17,638 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the most common type of congenital cataract causing visual impairment | CONGENITAL AND DEVELOPMENTAL CATARACT Lamellar cataract : Lamellar or Zonular cataract refer to the developmental cataract in which the opacity occupies a discrete zone in the lens. It is the most common type of congenital cataract presenting with visual impairment. Etiology: It may be either genetic or environmental i... | 17,639 | medmcqa_train |
The proteins presents in Deoxyribonucleic acid is | (Histone) (225 - RS 7th)DNA is a polymer of deoxyribonucleotides and is found in chromosomes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts. The nuclear DNA is bound to basic proteins called HistonesHistones - These are basic proteins rich in Arginine & Histidine | 17,640 | medmcqa_train |
In an alcoholic man, Blackout is seen in | Acute Intoxication After a brief period of excitation, there is a generalised central nervous system depression with alcohol use. With increasing intoxication, there is increased reaction time, slowed thinking, distractibility and poor motor control. Later, dysahria, ataxia and incoordination can occur. There is a prog... | 17,641 | medmcqa_train |
A G4, P3, L3 woman has come in labor at 30-week gestation. On pervaginal examination she is 7cm dilated, fully effaced, membranes intact with face presentation and mentum directed anteriorly. How is she managed? | Ans. C. Watch for progress of labora. Multigravida, in active labor, preterm baby and mentoanterior position, can be observed for progress of labor where with progressing uterine contraction and continued flexion of the head the face might revert to vertex position or anterior rotation of the mentum can occur in which ... | 17,642 | medmcqa_train |
Trachea is lined by | Ciliated columnar epithelium is seen in trachea and bronchus Inderbir Singh&;s textbook of human Histology Seventh edition Pg no 45 | 17,643 | medmcqa_train |
The bone tumor seen in children with characteristic "onion-peel" periosteal reaction is? | ANSWER: (C) Ewing's sarcomaREF: Apley's system of orthopaedics 8'h edition page 190, Tureks orthopaedics 6th edition page 307Repeat from June 2008EWING'S SARCOMA:Highly malignant, undifferentiated peripheral primitive neuro ectodermal tumor (PEN)Most common site is diaphysis of femurCommon in 10-20 year old maleHistopa... | 17,644 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not a prodrug: | Remember all ACE inhibitors other than Captopril and lisinopril are prodrugs. | 17,645 | medmcqa_train |
Source of ribose is ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., HMP shunt HMP shunt is paicularly impoant for two purposes :-Synthesis of ribose for nucleotide and nucleic acid formation.Formation ofNADPH which plays impoant role in several other biological processes, e.g. synthesis of fatty acids, cholesterol, steroid hormones and neurotransmitters. | 17,646 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for maternal toxoplasmosis | Ref: Text book of Obstetrics by D.C.Dutta. 7th ed. Pg. 297.Explanation:Treatment of choice for toxoplasmosis during pregnancy:Spiramycin 3 g/dayPyrimethamine 25mg + sulphadiazine 1 gQlD for 4-6 weeksPyrimethamine is not given in 1' trimesterMode of infection : Eating raw, Uncooked meat/ through cat feces/ Through place... | 17,647 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a coccidian? | ANSWER: (D) EnterocytozoonREF: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coccidia, http:vVen.wikipedia.org/wiki/EucoccidioridaCoccidia are a subclass of microscopic, spore-forming, single-celled obligate parasites belonging to the apicomplexan class Conoidasida. Coccidian parasites infect the intestinal tracts of animals, and are t... | 17,648 | medmcqa_train |
Impetigo contageosa most commonly due to – | Impetigo contagiosa is caused most often by staph aureus and in some cases by group 'A' streptococci. | 17,649 | medmcqa_train |
Post marketing surveillance included in which phase of drug clinical trial? | Surveillance after marketing, i.e. after the drug is out in the market is a pa of Phase IV of clinical trials. It includes follow-up of patients taking the drug and adverse drug reaction (ADR) repoing as well as looking for newer treatment indications Ref: Park 24th edition | 17,650 | medmcqa_train |
Best prognosis for carcinoma of pancreas is in the region of - | Periampullary Carcinoma
1. Adenocarcinoma of head of the pancreas (40-60%)
2. Adenocarcinoma of ampulla of vater (10-20%)
3. Distal bile duct adenocarcinoma (10%)
4. Duodenal adenocarcinoma (5-10%)
Patients with pancreas adenocarcinoma involving the body or tail of the gland are more likely to have weight loss and abd... | 17,651 | medmcqa_train |
Salmonella osteomyelitis is common in which of the following? | Increased incidence of salmonella (may spread from gallbladder infection) is seen in sickle cell anemia, but staph aureus is still the most common. Staph aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelits in all children, including those with sickle cell disease. Salmonella osteomyelitis occurs most commonly in children w... | 17,652 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are contents of gastric juice in a normal individual in fasting stage, EXCEPT: | Contents of Normal Gastric Juice (Fasting State): Cations: Na+, K+, Mg2+, H+ (pH approximately 3.0) Anions: Cl-, HPO42-, SO42- Pepsins Lipase Mucus Intrinsic factor Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 25. Overview of Gastrointestinal Function & Regulation. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barma... | 17,653 | medmcqa_train |
Medial meniscus of knee joint is injured more often than the lateral meniscus because the medial meniscus is relatively - | *Medial meniscus is more frequently injured than lateral meniscus because: 1) The medial meniscus is securely attached around the entire periphery of the joint capsule, which makes it less mobile. 2) Where as the lateral meniscus is more mobile and has no weak point between a movable and relatively fixed point. 3) Popl... | 17,654 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest metal causing skin hypersensitivity? | Metal dermatitis is most frequently caused by nickel, chromates and mercury. Nickel is naturally present in food (green leafy vegetables) and also present in jewellery, household equipment, wearing apparel and industry. | 17,655 | medmcqa_train |
Most common bacteria associated with conjunctivitis is | Ans. Staphylococcus aureus | 17,656 | medmcqa_train |
A verbal statement recorded by magistrate without oath by an assaulted person narrating the sequence of events responsible for his condition, is called as ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e.,Dying declaration | 17,657 | medmcqa_train |
Most abundant type of Crystalline protein in Lens is | Among the Crystalline proteins, β Crystallin protein forms 55% of the total proteins. | 17,658 | medmcqa_train |
A Child ,Tells a story by the age of ______ | Emerging patterns for language behaviour from 1-5years of age 15months Jargon Follows simple commands May name a familiar object (e.g., ball) Responds to his/her name 18months 10 words (average) Names pictures Identifies 1 or more pas of the body 24months Puts 3 words together (subject, verb, object) 30months Refers to... | 17,659 | medmcqa_train |
Aspirin acts by | (A) Cyclo oxygenase pathway # ASPIRIN prduces its antithrombotic effect by irreversibly acetylating and inhibiting platelet cyclo-oxygenase (COX)-1, a critical enzyme in the biosynthesis of thromboxane A2. At high doses, aspirin also inhibits COX-2, an inducible COX isoform found in endothelial cells and inflammatory c... | 17,660 | medmcqa_train |
Hallmark of breast malignancy on mammography : | Microcalcification's is pathognomonic sign for breast carcinoma. It may be seen in 30% cases of invasive carcinoma and 95% of cases of DCIS (granular and casting). | 17,661 | medmcqa_train |
Investigation of choice for angiofibroma is? | ANSWER: (B) Contrast CTScanREF: Dhingra 5th Ed Pg 261"Contrast enhanced CT scan is the investigation of choice for both Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma and Neuroangiofibroma"NASOPHARYNGEAL FIBROMA (JUVENILE NASOPHARYNGEAL ANGIOFIBROMASIt is a rare tumour, though it is the commonest of all benign tumours of nasopharynx.Aeti... | 17,662 | medmcqa_train |
Vasodilation in acute inflammation is first shown by | Ans. (b) Arterioles(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 74; 8th/pg 47)Vasodilation first involves the arterioles and then leads to opening of new capillary beds in the area.The result is increased blood flow, which is the cause of heat and redness (erythema) at the site of inflammation. | 17,663 | medmcqa_train |
Subepithelial deposits in kidney are seen in- | Glomerular deposits : (i) Subepithelial: o Acute GN (like PSGN) o Membranous GN o Heyman GN o RPGN (ii) Sub endothelial : (iii) Basement membrane : (iv) Mesangium : MPGN (Type- I) SLE o Acute ON (H&; 1583) o MPGN (Type II) o Good pasture syndrome o IgA nephropathy, HSP REF: ROBBINS pathology 10th edition | 17,664 | medmcqa_train |
A patient presents to the emergency room with malaise. The physician notices slight jaundice. Serum chemistries reveal marked elevation of both aspaate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT), with the AST/ALT ratio being 2.5. Alkaline phosphatase is near normal. Serum copper and serum iron are normal... | Elevated AST and ALT with a AST/ALT ratio of greater than 1.5 is strongly suggestive of alcoholic hepatitis. Microscopic features of this condition include swollen and necrotic hepatocytes, neutrophil infiltration, Mallory (hyaline) bodies, fatty change, and fibrosis around the central vein. Biliary cirrhosis would be ... | 17,665 | medmcqa_train |
A 25-year-old woman has a 3-year history of arthralgias. Physical examination shows no joint deformity, but she appears pale. Laboratory studies show a total RBC count of 4.7 million/ mm3, hemoglobin of 12.5 g/dL, hematocrit of 37.1%, platelet count of 217,000/ mm3, and WBC count of 5890/ mm3. The peripheral blood smea... | Although b-thalassemia minor and iron deficiency anemia are both characterized by hypochromic and microcytic RBCs, there is no increase in hemoglobin A2 in iron deficiency states. A normal serum ferritin level also excludes iron deficiency. In contrast to b-thalassemia major, there is usually mild anemia without major ... | 17,666 | medmcqa_train |
Which is most common type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma | Nodular sclerosis is most common type of Hodgkin's Lymphoma. | 17,667 | medmcqa_train |
C3 convease acts on - | C3 convease splits split C3 into two fragments : C3a which is an anaphylatoxin and C3b which remains cell bound along with C4b2a to form a trimolecular complex C4b2a3b which has enzymatic activity and is called C5 convease. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 122 <\p> | 17,668 | medmcqa_train |
Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in all places except | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Brain There are two types of glycolysis : - Aerobic glycolysis : - It occurs when oxygen is plentiful and the final product is pyruvate, i.e., final step is catalyzed by pyruvate kinase (see the cycle above). Which is later conveed to acetyl CoA by oxidative decarboxylation. There is net gain of 7 ATP... | 17,669 | medmcqa_train |
True about Dextrain - | The reversible aggregation of human red blood cells (RBC) continues to be of interest in the field of hemorheology because RBC aggregation is a major determinant of the in vitro rheological propeies of blood. Enhanced aggregation increases low shear blood viscosity and the degree of non-Newtonian behavior (1,2). In add... | 17,670 | medmcqa_train |
When a disease spreads from vertebrate animals to man it is said to be: | Any disease that is transmitted from animals to humans is called Anthropozoonoses. | 17,671 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is NOT used in a preterm infant to assess need for resuscitation? | Respiratory effo is used instead respiratory rate in APGAR scoring system for resuscitation in neonates. Apgar scoring system: Apgar scores are a numerical expression of a newborn infant's physical condition. Usually determined 1 min after bih and again at 5 min, the score is the sum of points gained on assessment of c... | 17,672 | medmcqa_train |
Bone marrow involvement is maximum in which type of lymphoma? | Bone marrow involvement is seen in 72% of B cell chronic lymphocytic lymphoma. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 926 | 17,673 | medmcqa_train |
Restriction endonuclease cleaves | Restriction endonuclease Cleaves double stranded DNA at palindromic sites/ restriction sites 5' --AAGCTT-- 3'3' --TTCGAA-- 5' A palindromic sequence is a sequence which reads the same backwards as forwards. Found in bacteria Can create sticky ends or blunt ends Restriction endonuclease Sticky ends Blunt ends single-str... | 17,674 | medmcqa_train |
In post burn patient, true is | In, burn there is destruction of red blood cells, which leads to hyperkalemia, Due to loss of fluid, perfusion of the organs also decreases this will lead to metabolic acidosis. | 17,675 | medmcqa_train |
An alpha helix of a protein is most likely to be disrupted if a missense mutation introduces the following amino acid within the alpha helical structure: | * The alpha helix is disrupted by introduction of following amino acids. 1. Proline - Most common 2. Charged amino acids like H - Histidine A - Aspaic acid A - arginine G - Glutamic acid Ly-Iysine 3. Amino acids with bulky side chains if present in large number eg - (a) Tryptophan (b) Valine (c) Isoleucine | 17,676 | medmcqa_train |
Phase of cardiac action potential, where calcium channels close & slow potassium channels open : | In cardiac action potential Phase O - Rapid upstroke - due to fast sodium channels- Influx of Na+Phase I - Initial repolarization - fast Na channels - closePhase II - Plateau - due to calcium influx Phase III - Rapid repolarization - Calcium channels close & slow potassium channels open Phase IV - Resting membrane pote... | 17,677 | medmcqa_train |
True regarding breast carcinoma is: March 2008 | Ans. C: Commoner in nulliparous women Breast carcinoma are found more commonly in upper-outer quadrant | 17,678 | medmcqa_train |
Which is a Loop diuretic? | (D) Bumetanide # Furosemide, Bumetanide are loop diuretics which inhibit Na+/K+ 20 symport from thick ascending limb of loop.> Indapamide is thiazide diuretic inhibits Na+ Cl' symport in distal convoluted tubule.> Triamterene, Spironolactone are potassium sparing diuretics, inhibits Na+ flux in the tubule.> High effica... | 17,679 | medmcqa_train |
Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by | Site I: This involves the transfer of electrons from NADH-CoQ. Obviously, this step is omitted by succinic dehydrogenase whose FADH2 prosthetic group transfers its electrons directly to CoQ bypassing NADH. This step is blocked by piericidin, rotenone, amobarbital, ceain drugs like chlorpromazine, guanethidine. among ba... | 17,680 | medmcqa_train |
A 45-year-old man is admitted to the hospital because of severe pain in the back and lower limb. Radiographic examination reveals spinal stenosis syndrome. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be confirmed by MRI examination? | The ligamentum flavum connects the lamina of two adjacent vertebrae and forms the posterior wall of the vertebral canal. It is the only answer choice that is in direct contact with the vertebral foramen. Therefore, hypertrophy of only the ligamentum flavum would present as spinal stenosis. The supraspinous and interspi... | 17,681 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a Microaerophilic bacteria? | . | 17,682 | medmcqa_train |
Sign of thyroid ophthalmopathy ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Signs of thyroid ophthalmopathy are - Bilateral exophthalmos with associated exposure keratitis. Dalrymple's sign - There is peculiar stare due to retraction of the upper lid Von Graefe's sign - Upper lid lags on downward movments of the eyeball Stellwags sign - There is infrequent an... | 17,683 | medmcqa_train |
Asherman syndrome will produce | Ans: d (All of these)Ashermans syndrome produce:InfertilitySecondary amenorrhoeaRecurrent abortionAsherman syndrome is an important uterine cause of secondary amenorrhoea.When there is absence of menstruation for 6 months or more following normal menstruation, it is called secondary amenorrhoea.Causes of Asherman syndr... | 17,684 | medmcqa_train |
A patient Amit Kumar is suffering from atherosclerosis. Which of the following lowing is the most beneficial drug for prevention of stroke in this patient? | Ref: KDT 6/e p610,611 Antiplatelet drugs are used for the prophylaxis of aerial thrombotic conditions like stroke and MI. Atrial fibrillation increase the risk of thromboembolism and can result in stroke. | 17,685 | medmcqa_train |
The SI unit of radiation absorbed dose is | Ref Robbins 9/e p428 Gray is a unit that expresses the energy absorbed by the target tissue per unit mass Radiation UNITS Roentgen: Is the measurement of energy produced by Gamma or X-Ray radiation in a cubic centimeter of air. It is abbreted with the capital "R". One milliroentgen, abbreted "mR" is one-thousandth of a... | 17,686 | medmcqa_train |
The respiratory chain is found in which sub cellular compament? | Mitochondria serve as the powerhouses of the cell. In addition to having the respiratory chain and serving as the site for oxidative phosphorylation, mitochondria also contain the enzymes of the citric acid cycle and for b oxidation of fatty acids. | 17,687 | medmcqa_train |
Average rate of cervical dilation is : | 1 cm/hour | 17,688 | medmcqa_train |
Levodopa is contraindicated in:- | Levo-dopa may cause mydriasis, so it is contraindicated in angle closure glaucoma. Vitamin complexes containing pyridoxine decrease the effectiveness of levo-dopa (pyridoxine is a cofactor of dopa decarboxylase and increases the formation of dopamine in the periphery. This results in decrease in l-dopa's central penetr... | 17,689 | medmcqa_train |
Metabolic disturbance seen with pyloric stenosis: March 2007, March 2013 (a, b, d, e) | Ans. A: Hypokalemic hyponatremic alkalosis | 17,690 | medmcqa_train |
Pure red cell aplasia is associated with all except? | Ans. (b) 5q- syndrome(Ref: 9th/pg 653-655)Pure red cell aplasia is not associated with 5q- syndrome Pure red cell aplasia is a primary marrow disorder in which only erythroid progenitors are suppressed. | 17,691 | medmcqa_train |
Most appropriate marker of GIST | Refer Robbins page no 789-790 Cd117 is the most impoant diagnostic marker is detectable in 95 percnt of the patients | 17,692 | medmcqa_train |
A 24-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis involving the sacroiliac joint and fingers is noted to have splenomegaly and neutropenia (Felty's syndrome). She is advised to have splenectomy, but she should be informed that | Felty's syndrome is characterized by splenomegaly, neutropenia, and rheumatoid arthritis. Steroids are used initially, but their effect usually is transient. Splenectomy favorably alters the leukocyte count; it does not alter the clinical course of rheumatoid arthritis. As with all patients undergoing elective splenect... | 17,693 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the follow ing organisms is know n to cause Atrophic rhinitis - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Klebsiella ozaena Atrophic rhinitis (Qzaena)o Atrophic rhinitis is a chronic inflammation of nose characterized by atrophy of nasal mucosa, including the glands, turbinate bones and the nerve elements. Atrophic rhinitis may be primary or secondary : 1) Primary atrophic rhinitis# The primary pathology'... | 17,694 | medmcqa_train |
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis involve: | Answer is A (Anterior Horn Cells): | 17,695 | medmcqa_train |
Transobturator tape approach in treatment of urinary incontinence is known to | TOT approach was introduced with the intention to reduce vascular and lower urinary tract injury risks that can be associated with traversing retropubic space. | 17,696 | medmcqa_train |
Monocular diplopia with homonymous hemianopia originates in the: | Ans. Calcarine coex | 17,697 | medmcqa_train |
Fusion of two eyelids by thin tags is called- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ankyloblepharon filiforme adnatum * In ankyloblepharon filiforme adnatum the upper and lower eyelids are joined by thin tags; most cases are sporadic. Treatment involves transection with scissors; anaesthesia is not required.* Ablepharon consists of deficiency of the anterior lamellae of the eyelids; ... | 17,698 | medmcqa_train |
mood stabilizer used in the management of depression | Lamotrigine is a mood stabilizer which works best in BIPOLAR DEPRESSION Lithium is a mood stabilizer which works best in BIPOLAR MANIA valproate is a mood stabilizer which works best in RAPID CYCLING Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, 935 | 17,699 | medmcqa_train |
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