query stringlengths 1 1.57k | pos stringlengths 1 22.5k | idx int64 0 161k | task_name stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|
Not true about acdes mosquito | Eggs are cigar shaped. | 18,000 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following enzymes are involved in oxidation reduction reactions, Except | Enzymes involved in oxidation (removal of e-) and reduction (gain of electrons) are called oxido - reductase and are classified into 4 groups: oxidase, oxygenase, dehydrogenase, hydroperoxidase (peroxidase and catalase).Hydrolase is another class of enzyme that catalyzes hydrolysis i.e. cleavage of bonds by addition of... | 18,001 | medmcqa_train |
Migraine is due to | K.D Tripathy essentials of medical pharmacology 7th edition . *Neurogenic theory consider it to be spreading depression of coical electrical activity followed by vascular phenomena. | 18,002 | medmcqa_train |
A 40-year-old multigravida with multiple fibroids in the lower segment of the uterus in the 3rd trimester. Most appropriate in this case would be? | If a cesarean hysterectomy is planned, the best abdominal entry technique is via midline vertical incision.
This allows retractor placement and optimizes exposure to nearby organs and may facilitate access to the upper abdomen.
This incision is in general preferable to the Pfannenstiel or low transverse (“bikini cut”) ... | 18,003 | medmcqa_train |
A 36 years male presented with complain of productive cough and fever for last 2 months. Hehas undergone kidney transplantation 2 years back. His sputum examination revealed a grampositive filamentous bacteria that showed acid fastness with modified Ziehi-Neelsen staining(1% H2S04). The most likely etiological agent is... | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Nocardia asterordes [Ref: Previous explanation)o Symptoms of pneumonia by a filamentous acid fast bacterium suggest the diagnosis of Nocardia.NOCARDIAMorphologyo Grant positiveo Acid fast (N. astroides and N. brasiliensis)o Crooked, branching, beaded, filamentous.Cultureo Use paraffin as a carbon sour... | 18,004 | medmcqa_train |
Intramuscular injection of atropine causes initial bradicardia. The reason for this effective being seen is | Ref-KDT 6/e p107 Atropine is a non-selective antagonist of M1, M2, and M3 muscarinic receptors. M2, cholinergic receptors are responsible for bradycardia and blockade of these receptors can result in tachycardia. Atropine initially acts on presynaptic M1, receptors (normally decrease the release of ACh) and result in g... | 18,005 | medmcqa_train |
In a radiograph, contrast is directly affected by altering: | Radiographic contrast is a general term that describes the range of densities on a radiograph. It is defined as the difference in densities between light and dark regions on a radiograph. An image that shows both light areas and dark areas has high contrast; Alternatively, a radiographic image composed only of light gr... | 18,006 | medmcqa_train |
Wimburger sign is seen in ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Scurvy Radiological features of scurvy The typical radiological features occur at the ends of long bones, paicularly around knee, i.e. lower end of femur and upper end of tibia. Other common site is proximal end of humerus. Features are - Ground glass appearace of bone Pencil thin coex White line offr... | 18,007 | medmcqa_train |
Vanishing tumor is seen in | Answer- B. LungAccumulation of fluid in the interlobar spaces of the lung (as a result of CHF) appears as a neoplasm on a radiograph.It is called as Phantom tumor or pseudotumor or vanishing tumor. | 18,008 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the most common type of female pelvis: | Gynaecoid | 18,009 | medmcqa_train |
Uteroplacental blood flow at term is : | Using ultrasound to study the uterine aeries, uteroplacental blood flow has been measured to increase progressively during pregnancy from approximately 450 ml/min in mid trimester to nearly 500-700 ml/min at 36 weeks. Ref: Williams Obs 25 e pg 132. | 18,010 | medmcqa_train |
True statement about Ductus Aeriosus is : | Answer is D (May cause machinery murmur by its patency) Shunt murmur in patent ductus aeriosus is a continuous machinery murmur. Anatomic closure of Ductus aeriosus may take upto three months. Physiological closure (mediated by bradykinin) occurs almost immediately after bih by contraction of its muscular wall. Anatomi... | 18,011 | medmcqa_train |
Bare area of liver is related to | The bare area of the liver (nonperitoneal area) is a large triangular area on the diaphragmatic surface of the liver, devoid of peritoeal covering. It is attached directly to the diaphragm by loose areolar connective tissue . The coronaryligament represent reflections of the visceral peritoneum covering the liver onto ... | 18,012 | medmcqa_train |
The retina is an out growth of the : | B i.e. Diencephalon - Forebrain (prosencephalon) consists of telencephalon (anterior or rostral pa) and diencephalon (posterior or caudal pa). - Telencephalon forms cerebral hemisphere and their cavities -- lateral ventricle and pa of 3rd ventricle- Diancephalon forms - optic cup & stalkQ, pituitary, thalmus, hypothlmu... | 18,013 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following statement is true regarding pathogenicity of Mycobacteria species ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., M. Kansasii can cause a disease indistiguishable from tuberculosis M. Kansasii can produce pulmonary and systemic disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis - Jawetz . M tuberculosis and mycobacterium bovis are equally pathogenic for humans. Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex refers to a group of ver... | 18,014 | medmcqa_train |
Drugs which can cause pseudolymphoma are all except: | Furosemide | 18,015 | medmcqa_train |
Following are principles in the treatment of compound fractures except -a) Wound debridementb) Immediate wound closurec) Tendon repaird) Aggressive antibiotic therapy | The four essential principles for compound fracture treatment are : -
Antibiotic prophylaxis
Urgent wound and fracture debridement.
Stabilization of the fracture by internal or external fixation.
Early definitive wound cover.
About option 'b & c'
Wound closure can be done immediately if the wound is clean and con... | 18,016 | medmcqa_train |
A 48-year-old female nurse is seen with complaints of cough. She has been treated for "bronchitis" without much improvement. On exam, she is afebrile and has crackles in the upper zones of the lung field. PPD is negative and sputum for AFB is negative. CXR is shown.All of the following findings may be seen in this pati... | A bilateral upper zone interstitial pattern is seen with hilar and paratracheal adenopathy. Lung volumes are normal. Cardiac size is normal. The physical signs are inconsistent with an infectious process. The CXR shows hilar, paratracheal LN, and parenchymal disease. Sarcoidosis may be associated with uveitis, skin les... | 18,017 | medmcqa_train |
During direct immunofluorescence testing of renal biopsy specimen, lumpy bumby immune deposits are seen with conjugated antibodies against: | Direct immunofluorescence of renal biopsy specimen Direct immunofluorescence with Conjugated antibodies against IgG, IgM, and IgA to detect the presence of "lumpy-bumpy" immune deposits and Linear IgG or IgA antibodies bound to GBM antibodies against trapped complement proteins (C3 and C4). Ref: Harrison-18, P-2339. | 18,018 | medmcqa_train |
Rule of 10 for cleft lip repair does not include: | Other than these weight of the child should be 10lbs. | 18,019 | medmcqa_train |
Crescents are characteristic of | Crescents are histological characteristic of RPGN. | 18,020 | medmcqa_train |
Milligan-Morgan operation is indicated in | (Haemorrhoids) (1259-LB) (1256-B &L 25th)Indication of Haemorrhoidectomy* Third degree haemorrhoids* Second degree haemorrhoids which have not been cured by non operative treatments* Fibrosed haemorrhoids* Intero-extemal haemorrhoids when the external haemorrhoids is well definedHaemorrhoidectomy can be performed using... | 18,021 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a Channelopathy | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Anderson | 18,022 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the most sensitive test for ureteric stone? | Where available, a non-contrast helical CT scan with 5 millimeters (0.20 in) sections is the diagnostic modality of choice in the radiographic evaluation of suspected nephrolithiasis. All stones are detectable on CT scans except very rare stones composed of ceain drug residues in the urine, such as from indinavir. | 18,023 | medmcqa_train |
A 20yr old patient with a recent history of swimming in fresh water developed headache, fever, vomiting, seizures.CSF examination revealed motile amoeba which is the probable causative agent? | Naegleria fowleri produces primary amoebic meningoencephalitis which typically has headache with history of swimming. The ameba is commonly found in warm freshwater (e.g. lakes, rivers, and hot springs) and soil. Naegleria fowleri usually infects people when contaminated water enters the body through the nose Ref: D.R.... | 18,024 | medmcqa_train |
Best view for right lung field will be: | Ans. Left anterior | 18,025 | medmcqa_train |
Which of these pas of Veebral Canal will show secondary curves with concavity backwards | Fetus - universal flexion - 1deg curvature After bih - Cervical Lordosis - 2deg curvature begins when child stas to gain head stability lumbar lordosis - convex anteriorly begins to appear when child learns to sit. Cervical lordosis - 2deg Thoracic kyphosis - 1deg Lumbar lordosis - 2deg Sacral kyphosis - 1deg | 18,026 | medmcqa_train |
XXY klinfilter which has extra- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., X-ehromosomeo The major numerical disorders of chromosomes are 3 autosomal trisomiesTrisomy 21 -- Down syndromeTrisomy 18 - Edwards syndromeTrisomy 13 - Patau syndromeo Four types of sex chromosomal aneuploidies:Turner syndrome (usually 45,X)Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY)47,XXX47.XYYo By far the most c... | 18,027 | medmcqa_train |
NOT a content of carpal tunnel:- | CARPAL TUNNEL:8 carpal bones covered by flexor retinaculum CONTENTS: 9 flexor tendons + median nerve 9 tendons: 4 tendons of flexor digitorumsuperficialis 4 tendons of flexor digitorum profundus 1 tendon of flexor pollicis longus Carpal tunnel syndrome: the overuse of these 9 tendons, causes the inflammation which comp... | 18,028 | medmcqa_train |
Spoligotyping is done for - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mycobacterium tuberculosis * Spoligotyping (spacer oligotyping) is a type of polymerase chain reaction (PCR).* Compared with other PCR-based methods that combine detection and typing of such DNA, spoligotyping is more sensitive, because it targets the direct repeats (DRs) present in multiple (sometime... | 18,029 | medmcqa_train |
Casal's Necklace is seen in deficiency of | Pellagra Pellagra occurs due to Vitamin B3 (Niacin) deficiency Pellagra is characterized by by 4D's : 1.Diarrhoea 2.Dermatitis 3.Dementia 4.Death. Skin rash in Pellagra may appear as pigmented and scaly in areas exposed to sunlight. Especially neck when it is known as 'Casal's Necklace' Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 65... | 18,030 | medmcqa_train |
Which drug is to be given in a truck driver for rhinitis ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cetrezine | 18,031 | medmcqa_train |
Following are true regarding Typhoid ulcer EXCEPT | (D) Stricture occurs # Typhoid ulcer is parallel to the long axis of the bowel and usually typhoid enteritis does not cause stricture. | 18,032 | medmcqa_train |
The most common antecedent of erythroplakia and leukoplakia is | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tobacco use Leukoplakia (from the Greek, ieukos, "white" andplax, "plaque")o Is an asymptomatic white lesion on the surface of a mucous membrane that affects both sexes equally, mostly after the third decade of life.o A variety of diseases are characterized by white plaques on the oral mucosa (e.g., c... | 18,033 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following mode of treatment for achalasia is associated with high rate of recurrence? | Botulinum toxin, injected into the lower esophageal sphincter under endoscopic guidance, inhibits acetylcholine release from nerve endings and improves dysphagia in about 66% of cases of achalasia for at least 6 months. This technique is useful only for temporary relief of symptoms, thus associated with high rate of re... | 18,034 | medmcqa_train |
Gallbladder contraction is stimulated by : | D i.e. Cholecystokinin | 18,035 | medmcqa_train |
Dimorphic fungi are all except - | Ans. is None All are dimorphic fungi | 18,036 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following occurs in acute trauma? | CSDT says "following injury, neural impulses carried spinothalamic pathways activate the brain stem and thalamic and coical centres, which stimulate the hypothalamus. Hypothalamic stimulation triggers combined neural and endocrine discharges. Norepinephrine is released sympathetic nerve endings, epinephrine from the ad... | 18,037 | medmcqa_train |
Ropy discharge is seen in: | Ans. (d) Veneral conjunctivitisRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. /79-80Trachoma: is a chronic keratoconjunctivitis, primarily affecting the superficial epithelium of conjunctiva and cornea simultaneously.# It is one of the leading causes of preventable blindness in the world.Etiology* Causative organism: caused by Chlamydia tr... | 18,038 | medmcqa_train |
True about Budd-Chiari syndrome is the following except | Budd-Chiari syndrome It is caused by obstruction of hepatic venous outflow producing intense congestion of the liver Etiology Polycythemia rubrs Vera is the most common etiology In the West, thrombosis of the major hepatic veins is more common In BCS all three major hepatic veins usually are occluded Small hepatic vein... | 18,039 | medmcqa_train |
Anti RO antibodies are seen in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Subacute cutaneous lupus Anti-RNP SS-A (Ro), SS-B (La) are seen in neonatal lupus with congenital hea block and in subacute cutaneous lupus.These antibodies are associated with decreased risk of lupus nephritis. | 18,040 | medmcqa_train |
A 14 year old boy complains of pain during reading. On examination, his both eyes are normal and vision with Snellen's reading is 6/5. He still complains of pain on occluding one eye. The diagnosis is : | B i.e. Pseudomyopia This boy is having symptom of ocular strain (pain during reading) but vision with snellen's reading (without cycloplegia) is normal (6/5 or 6/6) because he is compensating for his refractory error by hyperaccomodation. So the diagnosis is Pseudomyopia/ Accommodative spasm. | 18,041 | medmcqa_train |
The radiological appearance of rickets include all Except | Fraying, Cupping and Splaying occur in rickets whereas Pelikan spur is a feature of scurvyImaging findings of rickets:Cupping and fraying of metaphysicsPoorly mineralized epiphyseal centers with delayed appearanceIrregular widened epiphyseal plates (increased osteoid)Increase in distance between the end of shaft and ep... | 18,042 | medmcqa_train |
The cranial nerve most commonly involved in malignant otitis externa is? | It is an inflammatory condition caused by Pseudomonas infection, usually in the elderly diabetics or in those on immunosuppressive drugs. There will be excruciating pain and granulations in the ear canal. Facial paralysis is common. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 55) | 18,043 | medmcqa_train |
The tongue is formed from | The tongue has contributions from all pharyngeal arches which changes with time.
The tongue initially begins as swelling rostral to foramen cecum, the median
tongue bud.
Arch 1 - oral part of tongue (anterior 3/2)
Arch 2 - initial contribution to surface is lost
Arch 3 - pharyngeal part of tongue (posterior 1/3)
Arch 4... | 18,044 | medmcqa_train |
Papilledema is caused by: | (Vitamin A): Ref: (532-Park 20th) Vitamin A intoxicationAcute toxicity: - Increased intracranial pressure vertigo, diplopia, buldging frontanels in children, seizures, and exfoliative dermatitisChronic toxicity: - Dry skin, cheilosis, glossitis, vomiting, alopecia, bone pain hypercalcemia, lymph node enlargement, hyper... | 18,045 | medmcqa_train |
Snowflake cataract is associated with: September 2008 | Ans. D: Juvenile diabetes Snowflake Cataracts: This type of cataract represents dots of various sizes (and sometimes various colours) distributed throughout the coex surrounding the nucleus for 360deg. This is the most common cataract seen in Down Syndrome (extra copy of chromosome 21 also called trisomy 21) and juveni... | 18,046 | medmcqa_train |
A secretary comes to you complaining of pain in her wrists from typing all day. You determine she likely has carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following condition would help you determine the diagnosis? | Carpal tunnel contains median nerve and tendons of flexor pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus, and flexor digitorum superficialis muscles. It results from injury to median nerve, which supplies the thenar muscle. Thus, injury to this nerve causes flattened thenar eminence. Middle finger has no attachment for ad... | 18,047 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following not true about alveolar lining? | The alveoli contain two types of epithelial cells. Type I cells are flat cells with large cytoplasmic extensions and are the primary lining cells of the alveoli, covering approximately 95% of the alveolar epithelial surface area. Type II cells (granular pneumocytes) are thicker and contain numerous lamellar inclusion b... | 18,048 | medmcqa_train |
Hypercalcemia caused by which one of the following is most likely to respond to treatment with coicosteroids? | Hypercalcemia is a highly prevalent complication of sarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis is due to the uncontrolled synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 by macrophages. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 leads to an increased absorption of calcium in the intestine and to an increased resorption of calcium in the bone Ref D... | 18,049 | medmcqa_train |
Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies are seen in | Rhinoscleroma # Chronic granulomatous infection of nose and upper respiratory tract # Affects adults, mainly in tropical locations # Transmitted by inhalation of Klebsiella rhinoscleromatis # a/w cellular immune defects: inability of macrophages to kill phagocytosed bacteria - Mikulicz cells (large, vacuolated histiocy... | 18,050 | medmcqa_train |
Not true about sudden infant death syndrome – | Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDs)
SIDS is defined as the sudden death of an infant that is unexpected by history and unexplained by a thorough postmortem examination.
Most cases of are between 1 month to I year.
Incidence is higher in the winter months.
Risk factors for SIDS
Maternal and antenatal
Smoking and alco... | 18,051 | medmcqa_train |
In case of Duchenne Muscular dystrophy, dystrophin gene mutation occurs in promoter region. What process could get affected | Promoter regions are DNA sequences that define where transcription of a gene should begin.
If mutation occurs in promoter region transcription will get affected. | 18,052 | medmcqa_train |
Desmosomes are helpful in connecting | They are the major adhesion complexes in the epidermis. Desmosomes bridge adjacent keratinocytes and allow cells to withstand trauma. Keratinocytes are created in the lower layers of the epidermis and operate with a phospholipid cell membrane, which can be quite permeable. When the keratinocytes are pushed to the strat... | 18,053 | medmcqa_train |
A 25 year old young woman has recurrent episodes of headache and sweating. Her mother had renal calculi and died after having a neck mass. The physical exaination reveals a thyroid nodule but no clinical sign of thyrotoxicosis. Before performig thyroid surgery, the surgeon should order : | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Serial 24 hrs tests for catecholamines, metanephrine and vanillylmandelic acid excretion.This topic is one of the favorites of AIIMS ExaminersIt is a case of MEN Type II a i.e.-Medullary Carcinoma thyroid*Hyperparathyroidism *Pheochromocytoma. *Now lets us see which among the following investigation, t... | 18,054 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following has no role in the diagnosis of childhood TB? | Lab investigations of pediatric TB
ESR and blood count: No value in diagnosis or follow up of TB.
Demonstration of AFB: Children don't expectorate out sputum, but swallow it. Therefore sputum is not available for examination. A laryngeal swab may be obtained for smear and culture examination for mycobacteria. It is cu... | 18,055 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not a barrier method of contraception ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., IUD Barrier methods A variety of barrier or occlusive methods, suitable for both men and women are available. The aim of these methods is to prevent live sperm from meeting the ovum. Barrier methods are less effective than either the pills or IUD. | 18,056 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following test is unable to differentiate between 'in situ' breast cancer and invasive disease: | "FNAC is the least invasive technique for obtaining a cell diagnosis and is very accurate if both operator and cytologists are experienced.
However false negatives do occur, mainly through sampling error, and invasive cancer cannot be distinguished from 'in situ' disease.
A histological specimen taken by core biopsy al... | 18,057 | medmcqa_train |
Best laser treatment in early stage of primary angle closure glaucoma (PACG) - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Laser iridotomy Treatment of angle closure glaucomao Definitive treatment (treatment of choice) is surgery. However, intially drugs are used to decrease IOP during an acute attack. Approach of treatment is as follow's:-Start i.v. mannitol or i.v. acetazolamideWhen IOT starts falling, start topical pil... | 18,058 | medmcqa_train |
Normal leucocyte count is ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 4000 - 11000The normal range of leucocytes is 4000 - 11000 white blood cells per microliter.Of these, Neutrophils form 50 - 70%, lymphocytes 20 - 40%, monocytes 2 - 8%, eosinophils 1 -4%, basophils 0.4%. | 18,059 | medmcqa_train |
Indications of ahoplasty : | A i.e. Osteoahritis; B i.e. Rheumatoid ahritis; C i.e. Ankylosing spondylosis | 18,060 | medmcqa_train |
Jefferson is: | Ans. is 'a' ie of Atlas Some common named fractures :Jefferson *-Burst of atlas *Hangman's *- of axis *Clayshovellers *-Spines process of C7 * Smiths *-Reverse of colie's * ( at the cortico cancellus junction of radius with volar tilt of the distal fragment)* Barton 's *-distal radius ( extends from the distal articula... | 18,061 | medmcqa_train |
Ganer duct cyst is the remnant of the following embryological structure? | Ganer duct cysts are uncommon vaginal cysts develop from remnants of the mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts. They are typically asymptomatic and are usually found within the lateral vaginal wall. Symptoms may include dyspareunia, vaginal pain, and difficulty inseing tampons or other vaginal devices. Examination reveals a ten... | 18,062 | medmcqa_train |
Gram stain is a? | The Gram stain is the most impoant staining procedure in microbiology. It is used to differentiate between gram positive organisms and gram negative organisms. Hence, it is a differential stain. Gram negative and gram positive organisms are distinguished from each other by differences in their cell walls. Ref: Ananthan... | 18,063 | medmcqa_train |
Medullary thyroid carcinoma is associated with? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., MEN II About 70% of tumors arise sporadically. The remainder occurs in the rsetting of MEN syndrome 2A or 2B or as familial tumors without an associated MEN syndrome (familial medullary thyroid carcinoma, or FMTC. | 18,064 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about cystic hygroma except | Cystic hygroma is not pulsating .So option 1 is incorrect. Cystic hygroma is sequestration of lymphatic tissue. Cyst filled with clear lymph and lined by single layer of epithelium. Mostly found in the neck. It can obstruct labour, and can also cause respiratory difficulty. Swelling is brilliantly transluminant. Manage... | 18,065 | medmcqa_train |
Name the extra ocular muscle which is NOT arising from the apex of orbit? | All the extra ocular muscles except inferior oblique arise from the apex of orbit. Inferior oblique arises from lower and inner orbital walls near the lacrimal fossa and inses in the sclera below and lateral to the posterior pole of the globe. Ref: Parsons' 21st / Pg. 393. | 18,066 | medmcqa_train |
True about lamotrigene ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., t1/2 is 24 hrs | 18,067 | medmcqa_train |
For DNA testing, which tissue sample is taken in an autopsy- | blood and splenic tissues are the best specimen for the DNA analysis and should be frozen if there is leikely to be any delay before reaching the laboratory,fluid, swabs ,hair.other organs( liver, brain kidney and muscle) however also acceptable. With blood samples, a good HMWDNA recovery from all the bodies investigat... | 18,068 | medmcqa_train |
Power of normal eye is: | Total dioptric power of this schematic eye is 58.64 [?] 60D Refractive Power of Cornea =+45 D Refractive Power of Lens =+15 D | 18,069 | medmcqa_train |
Excess sexual desire in male is known as? | Ans is 'b' i.e. Satyriasis * Has been explained in previous sessions. | 18,070 | medmcqa_train |
Ketone body formation without glycosuria seen in - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Prolonged starvation o Amongst the given options, DM and starvation are the causes of ketosisDiabetes :- Ketosis with hyperglycemia and glycosuria Prolonged starvation :- Ketosis with low or normal glucose and without glycosuria.o In diabetic Ketoacidosis:- (i) Positive Rothera's test (due to ketone b... | 18,071 | medmcqa_train |
Functional adrenal incidentaloma of size is managed by | Management of adrenal incidentaloma : | 18,072 | medmcqa_train |
For the physical finding "Short stature, webbed neck, low-set ears, and epicanthal folds" select the cardiovascular disorder with which it is most likely to be associated. (SELECT 1 DISORDER) | Myocarditis, aortitis, and pericarditis all have been described in association with Reiter syndrome; the original description included conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthralgias. Although its cause is unknown, Reiter syndrome is associated with HLA-B27 antigen, as are aortic regurgitation, pericarditis, and ankylosing... | 18,073 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the the following is true about adenoid cystic carcinoma : | Adenoid cystic carcinoma: Most common malignant tumor in submandibular, sublingual and minor salivary glands Most common site is hard palate > sinonasal tract Most common site of metastasis is lungs AKA - Tracherous tumor - tumor is malignant but appear benign Most common type is- Cribriform variety - has swiss cheese ... | 18,074 | medmcqa_train |
A wide and notched P wave is typically seen in | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mitral stenosis Mitral stenosis is icall associated with a Wide and Notched P wave rom Le t Atrial Enlar * ement LAE Cor-Pulmonate, COPD and Pulmonary embolism are all associated with Right Atrial Enlargement resulting in a Tall P wave (not a wide p wave). P wave becomes "tall" in RA enlargement and "... | 18,075 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is an alternative to methadone for maintenance treatment of opiate dependence? | MAINTENANCE TREATMENT OF OPIOID DEPENDENCE: Opioid Substitution Therapy Methadone Buprenorphine Levomethadyl (LAAM) Opioid Antagonists Naltrexone (oral) Naloxone (injectible, sho acting) | 18,076 | medmcqa_train |
The lead of ECG marked as X is called? | And. B. V4R15 - Lead ECGV4R - 5th intercostal space midclavicular line (same as V4 but on the other side)V8 - On the back, 5th intercostal space midscapular line.V9 - On the Back, 5th intercostal space between V8 and the spine | 18,077 | medmcqa_train |
A microbiologist carries out milk ring test, which is positive. What is the most likely organism? | Milk Ring Test (M) is positive for Brucella. It is used for detection of infected animals in dairy farms, etc. A sample of whole milk is mixed with a drop of Brucella antigen and incubated at 70 degC for 40-50 min. If antibodies are present in the milk the bacilli are agglutinated and rise with the cream to form a blue... | 18,078 | medmcqa_train |
Currarino triad includes:- | Currarino triad: Anorectal malformations + Sacrococcygeal osseous defect + presacral mass | 18,079 | medmcqa_train |
Which enzyme is not seen in urea cycle? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II* Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I is an enzyme of Urea cycle* Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase II is an enzyme of Pyrimidine synthesis* Enzymes of Urea cycle are:# Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I# Ornithine Transcarbamoylase# Argininosuccinate synthetase# Argininosucci... | 18,080 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drug is an antidote for cyanide poisoning? | Ans. A. Amyl nitrateAmyl nitrite is one of antidote of cyanide poisoning. It is given via inhalational route. Hydroxocobalamin is also given for cyanide poisoning via intravenous route. | 18,081 | medmcqa_train |
Kumar, a 31 yrs old motorcyclist sustained injury over his Right hip joint. X-ray revealed a posterior dislocation of the Right hip joint. The clinical attitude of the affected lower limb will be: | In posterior dislocation of hip, the limb is held in flexion, adduction and internal rotation. It's the opposite in anterior dislocation. The treatment is emergency reduction of the dislocated hip. Ref: Essential Ohopedics By J Maheswari, 2nd Edition, Pages 181-183 | 18,082 | medmcqa_train |
The complement is fixed best by which of the following immunoglobulins - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., IgMIgM is the most effective antibody to fix complement. | 18,083 | medmcqa_train |
What does a positive schick test indicate? | Immune status of an individual to Corynebacterium diphtheria is assessed by the presence of antitoxin levels or schick test. This test is done by injecting 0.1ml of highly purified toxin into one forearm and 0.1ml of heat inactivated toxin into another forearm as a control. A positive reaction is characterized by a loc... | 18,084 | medmcqa_train |
A G4P2 lady presented with history of two aboions at 16 weeks and 20 weeks POG. Which of the following could be the most likely reason for these aboions? | Aboions- MC causes 1st trimester - chromosomal causes 2nd trimester - Anatomical cause | 18,085 | medmcqa_train |
Ritters disease is caused by | scalded skin syndrome Ritter disease: This is the scalded skin syndrome, a potentially serious side effect of infection with the Staph (Staphylococcus) bacteria that produces a specific protein which loosens the "cement" holding the various layers of the skin together. This allows blister formation and sloughing of the... | 18,086 | medmcqa_train |
MAO inhibitors should not be used with - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pethidine o Nonselective MAO inhibitors interact with many food constituents and drugs : 1-Cheese reaction o Ceain varieties of cheese, beer, wines, picked meat and fish, yeast extract contain large quantities of tyramine, dopa. o In MAO inhibited patients these indirectly acting sympathomimetic amine... | 18,087 | medmcqa_train |
Meckel&;s diveiculum is patent of | .Sometimes there may be a patent vitello-intestinal duct or a Meckel's diveiculum, which may require resection along with the bowel segment.Intestinal end may remain patent forming Meckel's diveiculum, which may be attached to umbilicus with a fibrous band. Meckel's diveiculum itself can cause diveiculitis, obstruction... | 18,088 | medmcqa_train |
Mycobacterium avium complex infections are common when the CD4+ counts in cells/mm3 are | The CD4+ T-cell count can define the risk of infection with specific organisms. As a rule of thumb, bacterial and tubercular infections are more likely at higher CD4+ counts (>200 cells/mm3). Pneumocystis pneumonia usually strikes at CD4+ counts below 200 cells/mm3, while cytomegalovirus and Mycobacterium avium complex... | 18,089 | medmcqa_train |
Joint erosions are not a feature of | Ref Semantischolar.org | 18,090 | medmcqa_train |
Polycystic ovaries are associated with : | Endometrial carcinoma | 18,091 | medmcqa_train |
True about Braxton-Hick's contraction are all, except:Maharashtra 09 | Ans. Painful | 18,092 | medmcqa_train |
Hypovitaminosis - D causes - | Zonular or lamellar cataract is a congenital type Etiology may be either genetic or environmental in origin. Environmental form is associated with: deficiencyof vitamin D hypocalcemia Sometimes maternal rubella infection contracted between 7th and 8th week of gestation may also cause lamellar cataract. | 18,093 | medmcqa_train |
Non caseating granuloma is characteristically seen in | ref Robbins 8/e p701 ,9/e p98 NONCASEATING GRANULOMA Sarcoidosis is characterized bynoncaseating granulomas. These are different than the caseating granulomasproduced by other diseases, especially tuberculosis. Caseous necrosis is destruction of cells which are conveed to amorphous greyish debris located centrally ingr... | 18,094 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment for alcoholic hepatitis with discriminant function of >32 is? | Discriminat function of >32 Rx- Predinisolane Discriminant score= 4.6 x + Billirubin ( Normal PT = 11-16) - Alcohol deaddiction - Naltraxone, Acamprosate. - Thiamine - Wernike encephalopathy | 18,095 | medmcqa_train |
Oocyte at the time of bih, is present in which of the following stage of meiosis? | At Time of bih oocyteis dormant in diplotene stage (resting stage during prophase I) Oocyte and Prenatal period. 3rd month end 5th month 7th month Oogonia are arranged in clusters surrounded by a layer of epithelial cells. Number of germ cells in ovary reaches maximum (7 million) Majority of oocyte degenerate, except f... | 18,096 | medmcqa_train |
Cytokine produced by TH1 cells | IL-2 produced by TH1 cells induces proliferation of activated T4 cells, Tc cells and some Nk cells. | 18,097 | medmcqa_train |
To define still bih, period is specified from - | Death of a foetus weighing 1000g at bih (this is equivalent to 28weeks of gestation.) REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 519 | 18,098 | medmcqa_train |
A fifty year old male feels uncomfoable in using lift, being in crowded places and traveling. The most appropriate line of treatment is: | C i.e., Exposure and response preventionThe treatment of choice for established phobia (eg. agoraphobia) is a combination of exposure to phobic situationsQ with training in coping with panic attacks. | 18,099 | medmcqa_train |
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