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Anterolateral avulsion fracture of the distal tibia! physis is known as -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tillaux fracture Trillaux fractureso Fracture occurring in older adolescents.o Mechanism of injury is an external rotational force with stress placed on the anterior tibio - fibular ligament, causing avulsion of the distal tibial physisanterolaterallv.o It occurs after the medial part of the physis ha...
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Serous demilunes are present in large number in which gland:
Parotid gland is predominantly a serous gland & sublingual gland is mucous. Submandibular gland is mixed type with a cap of serous gland appearing on mucus (serous demilune) in histological preparations.
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The common preoperative causes of endodontic treatment failure include all of the following except which one?
Failure  of  previous  endodontic  therapy  can  be  attributed  to various  factors,  such  as  procedural  errors,  missed  canals,  or persistent periapical pathosis. Knowledge of the cause of failure is pertinent to the treatment of these cases because it allows the cause to be adequately rectified. Misdiagnosis, p...
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Renin antagonist is -
Ans. is'C' i.e., Remikiren Drugs acting on RAS ACE inhibitors: Captopril, enalapril, lisinopril, ramipril, perindopril, imidapril, trandopril, benazepril, fosinopril. Renin inhibitors: Aliskiren, remikiren, enakiren. AT1 blockers: Losartan, candesartan, irbesartan, valsartan, telmisartan.
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Most resistant organ to electric current: UP 12
Ans. Bone
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Diaphyseal aclasis is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Multiple exostosis Hereditary multiple exostoses The ordinary osteochondroma is single; but in the condition known as Diaphysial aclasis (multiple exostosis) the tumor affect several or many bones. Hereditary multiple exostoses is an autosomal dominant hereditary disorder. The risk of malignant change...
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The most commonest cause for chronic cor pulmonale is
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1505 Once patients with chronic pulmonary or pulmonary vascular disease develop cor pulmonale, the prognosis worsens. Although chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and chronic bronchitis are responsible for approximately 50% of the cases of cor pulmonale .
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The definitive diagnosis of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is -
Its life cycle begins when cysts rupture and release sporozoites, which mature into trophozoites that eventually form cysts. The diagnostic methods for P. carinii pneumonia (PCP) have progressed from open lung biopsy to bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) and induced sputum analysis . Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1056
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Itchy polygonal violaceous papules seen in -
LICHEN PLANUS:- Inflammatory T cell mediated auto immune disorder affecting skin, hair,nails and mucous membranes.Four Ps- purple , polygonal and pruritic papule.Classic lesion- small polygonal shaped, and red/ violet, flat topped papule. Surface is slightly shiny/ transparent,and a network of fine,white lines called '...
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Which of the following bacteria is associated with bright red fluorescence under UV light?
Ans: A (Prevotella melaninogenica) Ref:Ananthanarayan, 7th ed, p. 269 Examination of prevotella melaninogenica coming under bacteroids species shows bright red fluorescence under ultraviolet light. Porphyromonas gingivalis also coming under bacteroids sp is responsible for periodontal disease. Pseudomonas also produce ...
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Which of the following statements about Gastric carcinoma is true
Achlorhydria is associated with intestinal metaplasia which is a risk factor for developing gastric carcinoma. most common histological type is adenocarcinoma, a patient will have occult blood in the stool
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A patient Manoj with severe pain thought to be of gastrointestinal origin received 60 mg of meperidine subsequent to which he developed reaction characterized by tachycardia, hypeension, hyperpyrexia and seizures. He gave the history that he is also taking some medicine for his psychiatric condition. Which of the follo...
Meperidine (pethidine) is metabolized mainly to meperidinic acid (inactive) by MAO inhibitors. Minor pathway is conversion to nor-meperidine (possesses excitatory propeies and shows cumulation) MAO inhibitors like phenelzine inhibits the major pathway; therefore minor pathway assumes impoance resulting in generation of...
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FISCH classification is used for
FISCH classification is used for glomus tumours based on the extension into surrounding anatomic structures. Type A tumour - Tumour limited to the middle ear cleft (glomus tympanicum) Type B tumour - Tumour limited to the tympanomastoid area with no infralabyrinthine compament involvement Type C tumour - Tumour involvi...
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WHO Global Target for Prevention and Control of Non-communicable Disease by 2025 is to decrease Hypeension by:-
THE WHO NCD TARGETS (to be achieved by 2025) : Target 1: 25% relative reduction in the overall moality from cardiovascular diseases, cancer, diabetes, or chronic respiratory diseases. Target 2: At least 10% relative reduction in the harmful use of alcohol, as appropriate, within the national context. Target 3: 10% rela...
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A child presents with gelastic seizures, precious puberty. MRI shows small pedunculated mass attached to tuber cinerum. What is the diagnosis?
Hypothalamic hamartoma : Most common brain lesion causing central precocious puberty. Consists of ectopically located neural tissue. May be associated with gelastic seizures (laughing spells). MRI - small pedunculated mass attached to cinerum or floor of 3rd ventiricle.
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For how long in cremation, 900-1000degC is used:
Ans: a (30 min)In cremation 900-1000degC is used for at least 30 min.
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All of the following statements about keloids are true except:
Keloids and hypertrophic scars both occur aftet injuries operations. Hypertrophic scars remain confined to the original injury site and usually regress spontaneously. By contrast, keloids extend beyond the original wound and rarely regress. Keloids contain abnormally large amounts of soluble collagen and water. Keloids...
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Which one of the following DOES NOT lie within the posterior mediastinum?
Phrenic nerve lies in the superior mediastinum and not in the posterior mediastinum. All other choices lies within the posterior mediastinum.Posterior mediastinum: The region containing anatomic structures deep to the pericardial sac, including the thoracic poion of the descending aoa, the azygos system of veins, the t...
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Biochemical etiology of Alzheimer's disease relates it to :
A i.e. Acetyl choline
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The most frequent cause of scalded skin syndrome is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Staphylococci Toxin mediated illness caused by staphylococcus aureus are : Toxic shock syndrome Food poisoning Styphylococcus scalded-skin syndrome Toxic epidermal necrolysis
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Granuloma formation is not seen in?
Ans, is 'a' i.e. Asthma List of important granulomatous diseases* Important causes of immune granuloma arei) Bacterial infections TB, leprosy, syphilis, brucellosis, salmonellosis, Q-fever, cat scratch disease, yersinia.ii) Fungus & parasites Histoplasma, blastomycosis, coccidioidomycosis, schistosomiasis, trichiniasis...
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Pringle's Maneuver is used to stop the bleeding from
Pringle maneuver is soft clamping hepatic artery and portal vein at the point of entry. It is done for liver trauma patients.
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Which of the following does not require a lumbar puncture in children?
b. HL(Ref: Ghai 8/e 616-617)Discussing the options one by one,a. ALLCNS infiltration is common in ALL, so diagnostic lumbar puncture & CSF cytopathology to look for blasts is done; LP is also done to administer intrathecal methotrexateb. HLUsually Lumbar puncture is not requiredc. NHLHematogenous spread may cause CNS s...
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Mechanism of action of duloxetine is ?
Ans. C. Selective inhibition of both serotonin and nor-epinephrine reuptakeDuloxetine, is a drug classified under serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (sNRJs).At lower doses it is more prominent serotonin reuptake inhibitor.Whereas at higher doses it is more prominent inhibitor of nor-epinephrine reuptake.It ha...
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Epinephrine added to a solution of lignocaine for a peripheral nerve block will:
(Ref: K DT 6/e p354) Adrenaline and felypressin are the vasoconstrictors that are added to LA solution. By causing vasoconstriction, these drugs - decrease the systemic absorption resulting in less CNS adverse effects (decreased chances of seizures). Prolong the stay of drug at the site of action resulting in the incre...
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Conduct disorder in a child manifests with
A i.e. Disregard for rights of others; B i.e. Doesn't care for authority; C i.e. Backward in studies C.D. is characterized by a persistent & significant pattern of conduct in which the basic rights of others are violated or rules of society are not followedQ. Clinical features include: Frequent lying Stealing or robber...
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Roughly what percentage of patient with metastatic epithelial ovarian cancer will be benefited by treatment with an alkylating agent :
50 to 74 percent
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Immunisation for HBV is which level of prevention
Specific protection for HBV, comes under primary prevention.
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The upper lip is derived from
The upper lip is formed by the fusion of two maxillary prominences with the two medial nasal prominences Ref : Langman's Medical Embryology 14e pg 295,298.
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IUGR babies on delivery are called?
Small for date REF: Williams Obstetrics 22nd edition Chapter 36 Low bihweight defines neonates who are born too small, and preterm or premature bih are the terms used to define neonates who are born too early. With respect to gestational age, a newborn may be preterm, term, or postterm. With respect to size, a newborn ...
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Anterior fontanelle ossifies by: March 2013 (b, f)
Ans. C i.e. 18 months Its pathological if anterior fontanelle fails to ossify by 24 months
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Impression material that do not harden by chemical reaction:
Reversible materials, such as agar and impression compound, soften upon heating and solidify slightly above body temperature with no chemical change taking place.
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Which of the following is true about Coronary blood flow?
Ans. (b) Maximum during diastoleRef.: Ganong 25th ed. 1611* The Flow in coronary arteries occurs in the sub- endocardial portion of the left ventricle only during diastole, although the force is sufficiently dissipated in the more superficial portions of the left ventricular myocardium to permit some flow in this regio...
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Radiotherapy after mastectomy would not be required in which of the following case scenarios of breast ca:
Ans is 'b' i.e. Metastasis "Radiotherapy to the chest wall after mastectomy is indicated in selected patients in whom the risks of local recurrence are high. This includes patients with large tumours and those with large numbers of positive nodes or extensive lymphovascular invasion." - Bailey and Love For distant meta...
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Who introduced the vaccination for smallpox?
"Edward Jenner introduced vaccination for smallpox with cowpox virus in 1798" Ref: Ananthanarayanan, 7/e, Page 5-7
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A lady with prolapsed uterus after Fothergill's repair will complain of following except:
In Fothergill's repair ceroidical amputation is done which leads to Incompetent os Habitual abortion (second-trimester abortion and not first trimester, as incompetent os, leads to second-trimester abortion) Preterm deliveries Premature rupture of membranes                                                              ...
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Hampton hump is seen in:
Ans. (c) Pulmonary embolismRef: Harrison 19th ed. /1633HAMPTON HUMP is a radiologic sign which consists of a shallow wedge-shaped opacity in the periphery of the lung with its base against the pleural surface.
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Which of the following has autosomal inheritance-
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Marfan syndrome o Marfan syndrome is an autosomal disorder (autosomal dominant).o Hemophilia is X-linked recessive.o CHD and gout have multifactorial inheritence.
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A 65-yrs-old man has broad-based ataxia, loss of pain, and temperature sensation in the lower extremities with lightening pains. His pupils accommodate but do not constrict with direct light stimulation. The spinal fluid would be expected to exhibit.
This patient has tabes dorsalis, which is a form of neurosyphilis where the spirochete attacks the posterior columns and the dorsal roots of the spinal cord. This attack produces: 1. Impaired joint position sense (proprioception), leading to a broad-based ataxia and a positive Roan berg test 2. Loss of pain and vibrati...
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A CKD patient had to undergo dialysis. His Hb was 5.2 gm% so two blood transfusions were to be given. First bag was completed in 2 hours. Second was started and midway he developed shortness of breath, hypertension. Vitals: BP 180/120 mm Hg and pulse rate 110/min. What is the cause?
Ans. B Transfusion related circulatory overloadRef: Harrison 20th ed. pg. 814* This CKD patient has developed severe anemia which is a compensated heart failure state. The patient was given first unit of blood in two hours instead of standard four hours and he is already in compensated heart failure.* The acute decompe...
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Epiretinal membrane is seen in -
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Posterior vitreous detachment o Epiretinal membrane is a disease of the eye in response to changes in the vitreous humor or more rarely, diabetes. It is also called macular pucker.o Sometimes, as a result of immune system response to protect the retina, cells converge in the macular area as the vitreou...
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Histamine stimulate the secretion of:
According to Davenport theory, hydrochloric acid secretion is an active process in the canaliculi of parietal cells in gastric glands, utilising the energy derived from oxidation of glucose. Factors stimulating the secretion of HCl: Gastrin Histamine Vagal stimulation Factors inhibiting the secretion of HCl: Secreti...
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Least common site involved in osteoahritis is
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Distal carpophalangeal joint In the hand the joints specifically involved are ? Distal interphalangeal join& (of paicular impoance is the point that this joint is not involved in rheumatoid ahritis). Proximal interphalangeal join& First carpometacarpal jointsQ Remember these two impoant features of jo...
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Which of the following anti-retroviral drugs does not cause peripheral neuropathy?
Ans. A. Lamivudinea. Peripheral neuropathy (PN) is a well-known adverse effect of NRTIs, mainly Zalcitabine, didanosine and stavudine. Several studies have shown that PN is more frequent when didanosine and stavudine are used in combinationb. Emtricitabine and lamivudine are safest NRTIs. These are not associated with ...
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Radiation exposure during which period of Pregnancy is highly lethal
Lethality risk is highest during the pre-implantation period - up to 10 days post conception. This is likely due to blastomere destruction caused by chromosomal damage.
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Which of the following finding is MOST compatible with sudden rhythm disturbance and cessation of the action of the hea?
The light lungs are more compatible with sudden rhythm disturbance and cessation of action of hea. The heavier lung (450 - 500 gms or more) indicates cessation of respiration with continuation of the hea beat for several minutes. Ref: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayan Reddy, Edition 21, Page - 115...
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C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency causes -
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hereditary angioneurotic edema o Hereditary angioneurotic edema is due to Ci inhibitor (Cj esterase inhibitor) deficiency.Complement Deficiencies and Associated DiseasesComponentAssociated DiseasesCLASSIC PATHWAYClq,Clr,ClS,C4C2Cl inhibitorImmune-complex syndromes, "pyogenic infections"Immune-complex ...
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The following information is available about the body fluid volumes of a normal male: total body water, 40 liters; intracellular water, 25 liters; plasma water, 4 liters. The volume of the interstitial water is?
Subtracting the intracellular water from the total body water gives the extracellular water (15 liters). Since the extracellular water exists primarily of the plasma water and the interstitial water, subtracting the plasma water (4 liters) from the extracellular water (15 liters) gives the interstitial water (11 liters...
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The most common location of hypeensive intracranial haemorrhage is
Most common locations of hypeensive intraparenchymal hemorrhage are basal ganglia (especially the putamen) thalamus cerebellum pos It usually results from spontaneous rupture of small penetrating aery deep in the brain. Ref : Harrison, 17/e p2531
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For glucose estimation in blood, the mode of transpo from a PHC to lab:
Zinc finger motiff The specificity involved in the control of transcription requires that regulatory proteins bind with high affinity to the Correct region of DNA. Three unique motifs - The helix-turn-helix - Zinc finger - The leucine zipper accounts for many of this specific protein DNA interactions. So zinc finger mo...
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A 32-week baby is born to a mother with eclampsia, who was given IV magnesium sulphate. The baby was resuscitated and transferred to the NICU. 12 hours later, the baby showed hypotonia, lethargy, constricted pupils and two episodes of seizures. The staging of HIE is:
Ans. b. 2
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Data collection for Active malaria surveillance at PHC level is done by:
Ans. a. MO-PHCSurveillance/ case detection and management. The report of surveillance by ASHA/ MPW/Health facility (M-l) is maintained at every level diagnosing and treating cases like ASHAS/ AWWs/ CHVs at village level, MPWs at sub-center level and MO-PHCs at PHC level.
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The minimum distance for two point discrimination on fingeips -
Ans. is'a'i.e., 2mmlRef: Ganong 25th/ep. 170 6 24'h/e p. 1621The magnitude of two point discrimination thresholds varies from place of place on the body and is smallest where touch receptors are most abundant.Stimulation points on the back must be separated by at least 65 mm before they can be distinguished as separate...
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Which of the secretions does have highest HCO3 level?
The pancreatic juice is alkaline and has a high HCO3- content (approximately 113 mEq/L vs 24 mEq/L in plasma). About 1500 mL of pancreatic juice is secreted per day. Bile and intestinal juices are also neutral or alkaline, and these three secretions neutralize the gastric acid, raising the pH of the duodenal contents t...
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Most common type of cervical cancer
Ans. A. Squamous cell CA* The two most common histologic subtypes of cervical cancer are squamous cell and adenocarcinoma.* Of these, squamous cell tumors predominate, comprise 85 percent of all cervical cancers, and arise from the ectocervix* Adenocarcinomas comprise 10 to 15 percent of cervical cancers and arise from...
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Roth spots are seen in:
Ans: A (Infective endocarditis) Ref; Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine 18th edition ROTH SPOTS in Infective Endocarditis They are retinal hemorrhages with pale centres. They represent capillary hemorrhages and not bacterial infection. Apart from IE, they can also be seen in vasculitis, anemia, leukemia, diabete...
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A patient presented to casualty with nausea, vomiting. Intravenous glucose was given & the patient recovered. After few months, patient presented with same complaints. Blood glutamine was found to be increased. Also uracil levels were raised. What is the diagnosis?
Increase in Blood glutamine indicates hyperammonemia, which occurs in all enzyme defect of urea cycle Increased uracil indicate Ornithine trans carbamoylase deficiency Orotic acid, OMP, UMP are increased in OTC defect. OTC deficiency (Excess carbamoyl phosphate from mitochondria enters cytoplasm and takes pa in pyrimid...
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Normal intrapleural pressure at the sta/beginning of inspiration is----- cm of H2O.
During inspiration, the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. This causes the intrapleural pressure to become more negative, which increases the transpulmonary pressure, causing the lungs to expand Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 editio...
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Juxtaglomerular apparatus is involved in regulation of-
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tubulo-glomerular feed back Tubulo-glomerular feedbacko To perform the function of autoregulation, the kidneys have a feedback mechanism that links changes in sodium chloride concentration at the macula densa with the control of renal arteriolar resistance. This feedback helps to ensure a relative con...
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Behavioral therapy is done in ?
Ans. B. AgoraphobiaMost impoant use of behavioral therapy - Phobia & OCD.Other users are - Other anxiety disorders (including panic), Eating disorders, Autism, ADHD, some personality disorder, sexual dysfunctions, depression.
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The right lobe of liver consists of which of the following segments:
A. i.e. V, VI, VII, and VIII
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A 12-year-old child with acute kidney injury after a bout of dysentery. Not seen is:
Ans. (c) Normal serum haptoglobin.
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Stapes is derived from which branchial arch:
Ans (b) IIRef: Inderbir Singh's Embroyology, 7th ed. 1119-120* Ear ossicles are derived from branchial arch I and II* Malleus and incus: BA-I* Stapes: BA- II
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A 34 year old chronic smoker presents to you with progressive claudication of the left arm with ulcers on the ring finger. The patient also gives history suggestive of recurrent superficial phlebitis. There is also history of Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the best treatment for the patient?
The triad of claudication, Raynaud's phenomenon and migratory superficial thrombophlebitis in a young male smoker is typical of thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease). An aeriography will show segmental occlusion with collaterals. Histopathology will show sharply segmental acute and chronic vasculitis of small ...
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Scalds are produced by -
Dry heat (e.g. flame) → Simple burns (or burns). Moist heat → Scalde.
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Infectivity period of chickenpox is: March 2009
Ans. A: 1 day before and 4 days after appearance of rash Chickenpox/ varicella is a highly infectious disease that spreads from person to person by direct contact or by air from an infected person's coughing or sneezing. Touching the fluid blister can also spread the disease. A person with chickenpox is infectious from...
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Mechanism of action of azoles is
According to the mechanism of action these can be classified as  Drugs altering membrane permeability  - Azoles  - Triazoles e.g. Fluconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole, terconazole, posaconazole. - Imidazoles e.g. Ketoconazole, miconazole, clotrimazole, econazole, butoconazole, oxiconazole, sertaconazole, sulconazo...
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Radioisotopes are used in the following technique except –
ELISA (Enzyme linked Immunoabsorbent Assay) is an enzyme-based immunoassay and does not use radioactive isotopes. A test similar to ELISA which uses radioactive isotope in place of the enzyme is known as Radioimmunoassay (RIA). Nucleic acid sequencing, mass spectroscopy & RIA are tested using radioisotopes.
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Erlenmeyer flask deformity is classical X-ray finding in
Refer the byte Sphingolipidoses
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Morphine should not be used in:
Ans. B. Biliary colicOpioids have potent analgesic effect via mu, kappa receptor. They are known to increase the intrabilliary pressure by constricting the smooth muscle. Therefore, they are contraindicated in biliary colic.
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Interval between primary and secondary cases ?
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Serial interval Latent period, serial interval and generation time, all are approximate measure of incubation period, i.e., these period can give some idea about incubation period. Latent period The period from disease initiation to disease detection. It is used in non-infectious disease as the equiva...
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Which of the following produce gastrin?
D: Endocrine cells produce gastrin. A: Mucous neck cells are found in the necks of the gastric pits. B: Parietal cells produce HCl. C: Chief cells produce pepsinogen E: Foveolar cells or surface mucous cells are mucus-producing cells which cover the inside of the stomach, protecting it from the corrosive nature of gast...
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Which of the following statement is true about vasa pre
Vasa pre: Fetal moality is high (50%) due to fetal exsanguination Vaginal bleeding is often associated with fetal distress Unsuppoed umbilical vessels lie below the presenting pa Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 243.
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Quinidine belongs to class antiarrhythmic drug is
i.e. (class I): (510-17-KDT 6th) (367-68-MDT-l1)ANTIARRHYTHMIC DRUGSClass Ia Sodium channel blockers* Depress phase O depolarization* Slow conduction, prolong repolarization Drugs* Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide, MoricizineClass Ib * Shorten repolarization Drugs* Lidocaine, MexiletineClass IC * Depress phase O r...
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Which of the following jaw cyst is pre-malignant?
Ans. c. Odontogenic keratocyst (Ref: Scott-Brown's Otorhinolaryngology 7/e p1924, 1925)Odontogenic keratocyst is premalignant."Odontogenic keratocysts are characterized by an epithelial lining that is parakeratinized and stratified. It is characterized by basal lender of neatly arranged, palisaded, columnar and cuboida...
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P.Q.L.I is
Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) is an attempt to measure the quality of life or well-being of a country. The value is the average of three statistics: basic literacy rate, infant moality , and life expectancy at age one, all equally weighted on a 0 to 100 scale. HDI includes knowledge, income(GNI) and life expect...
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Which amino acid does not take part in transamination
All amino acids can take part in transamination except: a) Threonine b) Lysine c) Proline
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Day care surgery uses
i.e. (Propofol): (81-A-Yadav 4th)Propofol is the IV agent of choice for day care surgeryBecause-(i) Early induction(ii) Early and smooth recovery(iii) Inactive metabolites(iv) Antiemetic antipruritic* Along with opioids (alfntanil or renifentanil) propofol is the agent of choice for total intravenous anaesthesia (TIVA)...
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A patient suffers from contraction of maxillary arch, labioversion of maxillary incisors, with deep overbite and overjet. These are features of:
Class II: Dental relationship, in which the mandibular dental arch is posterior to the maxillary dental arch in one or both lateral segments as determined by the relationship of the permanent first molars. Mandibular 1st molar is distal to the maxillary 1st molar. Further subdivided into 2 divisions: Division 1:  Bilat...
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Gastric carcinoma is associated with all EXCEPT ?
Ans. is 'd' Activation of RAS In the course of multi-step stomach carcinogenesis, various genetic and epigenetic alterations of oncogenes, tumor-suppressor genes, DNA repair genes, cell cycle regulators and cell adhesion molecules are involved. Genetic alteration in gastric cancer include: Intestinal type gastric cance...
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Most common cause of sub-dural haematoma -
It is due to rupture of bridging veins.
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A child is presenting with vomiting and abdominal pain after 5 hours of eating some food. The most likely causative orgonism -
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bacillus cereus Wef: Harrison 18th/e p. 1088]o Food poisoning presenting within 6 hours is seen (i) Staph aureus, and (ii) B. cereus.o Cl. botulinum causes constipation (not diarrhea) and the incubation period is about 18-24 hourso V. cholerae has incubation period > 16 hours. OrganismSymptomsFood sou...
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In an old patient, the best indicator of probability of developing cardiovascular disease can be calculated by:-
Ans. is 'a' i.e. LDL/HDL ratio Among the given options the best indicator is LDL/HDL ratio.Recent trials have found out that levels of plasma apolipoprotein A-l and apolipoprotein B are better predictors of CHD than LDL/HDL ratio.
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Alpha 2 agonist cause all of the following Except
Ref: KD Tripathi pharmacology 7th edition (page.no: 384) Alpha 2 agonists produce sedation, analgesia, anxiolysis, muscle relaxation, decreases BP they will not increase pain or produce Hyperalgesia eg: clonidine, dexmedetomidine, methyldopa etc
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A 30 years old male patient presents with weakness of right upper and both lower limbs since 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers on right side and 5th finger on left side. On examination, BP was 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. I...
Patient in the question is suffering from hypeension, digital infarcts in presence of palpable peripheral pulses and urine examination showing proteinuria and hematuria. All of these are features of polyaeritis nodosa a necrotizing vasculitis of small and medium-sized muscular aeries with characteristic involvement of ...
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What is the most common site of osteosarcoma:
Ans. is 'a' i.e. lower end of femur * Common sites in decreasing order of frequency:Lower end of femur*Upper end of tibia *Upper end of humerusSome other common sites* Osteoclastoma - lower end of femur** Ewing's -tibia** Ivory osteoma -frontal sinus** Osteoid osteoma -tibia** adamantinoma -mandible** Chordoma -sacrum ...
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All are fibrinolytic, EXCEPT :
Ans. is 'd' Epsilon amino caproic acid Antifibrinolytic drugs are :Tranexamic acid*Epsilon aminocaproic acid*Aprotinin*Fibrinolytic drugs are : ,Streptokinase*Urokinase*rt-PA (Alteplase)*
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The term "dementia" describes all of the following clinical states, EXCEPT:
Dementia is a loss of intellectual functioning. Other operations are affected in dementia, such as language, skilled movements, and perception. However, isolated neurological defects like aphasia are not themselves classified as dementias. Likewise, sensory defects or hemiplegia of body pas would not be included. Nonet...
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A drug used in estrogen-dependent breast cancer
Hormonal drug therapy for breast cancer targets estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. It aims at blocking the action of estrogen on estrogen receptor-positive breast cells. The hormonal therapy of choice for breast cancer in premenopausal women is Tamoxifen. Tamoxifen belongs to a class of drugs known as Selective ...
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The perinatal HIV transmission can be reduced by the following measures except -
The perinatal HIV transmission can not be reduced by Breastfeeding After bih, babies born to a mother with HIV are given A right away for 4 to 6 weeks. If you are treated for HIV early in your pregnancy, the risk of transmitting HIV to your baby can be 1% or less. Breast milk can have HIV in it. So, after delivery, you...
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Wof glucocoicoid has significant (max) mineralocoicoid activity
Hydrocoisone (coisol):- Acts rapidly but has sho duration of action. In addition to primary glucocoicoid, it has significant minera- locoicoid activity as well. Uses:- For Replacement therapy, Shock, status asthmaticus, acute adrenal insufficiency. Topically and as suspension for enema in ulcerative colitis. Ref:- kd t...
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Inhibition of anaerobic glycolysis by increase supply of O2 is called:
Pasteur effect Warburg effect Crabtree Effect In aerobic conditions, glucose consumption decreases Or In the presence of O2 , anaerobic glycolysis is inhibited Under aerobic conditions, glucose consumption increases Or Even In the presence of O2 , anaerobic glycolysis is promoted (in cancer cells) If glucose increases,...
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Carcinoma common in dye industry workers is
Aniline dye is a risk for for TCC of bladder.
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Baby born at 30 weeks for 18-year-old prior gravida of weight 2 kg which died after 48 hours. Apgar scores were 5 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes. On autopsy bilateral enlarged kidney with multiple radially arranged cysts. Which of the following finding is expected to be associated with?
The clinical findings suggest autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease. The diagnosis of autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease is strongly suggested by bilateral palpable flank masses in an infant with pulmonary hypoplasia, oligohydramnios and hypertension and the absence of renal cysts in the parents. On ...
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True about CP angle tumour:
(a) Absent corneal reflex(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2750)Involvement of 3rd and 4th cranial nerve causing pupillary dilatation and medial rectus and superior oblique palsy is not described in Acoustic neuroma.
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A 35-year old male with a history of severe bronchial asthma for several months now complains of weight gain and the development of purple stretch marks. Physical examination shod BP - 149/95 mmHg. supraclavicular fullness. The skin was thinned out with areas of bruising. Neurological examination revealed deceased stre...
Patient developed iatrogenic Cushing syndrome. Bronchial asthma (BA) and Allergic rhinitis (AR) are common clinical problems encountered in day to day practice, where inhalational coicosteroids (ICS) or intranasal steroids (INS) are the mainstay of treatment. Iatrogenic Cushing syndrome (CS) is a well known complicatio...
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Antidote for organophosphorous poisoning is:(1995)
aRef: KDT, 5th ed, p. 91 & 100 & 4th ed, p. 101,89
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A short stature child's growth variation is normal but bone development is not according to chronological age. What is your diagnosis?
Ans. C. Constitutional delayShort stature children with normal growth variation include genetic (familial) short stature and constitutional delay. In genetic short stature bone development matches with the chronological age but not in constitutional delay in which bone development lags behind.
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All are symptoms of deep vein thrombosis except:
Ans: a (High grade fever) Ref: Bailey, 24th ed, p. 971 Box-59-8Deep vein thrombosis presents with pain and swelling of the leg. There may be slight fever. High grade fever is not mentioned as a clinical feature of DVT. If the patient has already had pulmonary embolism, he may complain of chest pain, breathlessness and ...
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Chediak higashi syndrome, defect is ?
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fusion of lysosome Chediak higashi syndrome It is an autosomal recessive disorder. Chediak higashi syndrome is caused due to mutation in the LYST gene. This gene provides instructions for making a protien known as lysosomal trafficking regulator. This protein plays a role in transpo of materials into ...
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