dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_54515 | Periodontal pockets which offer the least possibility for
bone regeneration are classified as ________ pockets. | [
"suprabony",
"one-wall infrabony",
"two-wall infrabony",
"three-wall infrabony"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12595 | A lady presented in the emergency depament with a stab injury to the left side of the abdomen. She was hemodyamically stable and a contrast enhanced CT scan revealed a laceration in spleen and a contrast enhanced CT scan revealed a laceration in spleen. Laparoscopy was planned, however the patients PO2 suddenly dropped as soon as the pneumonperitoneum was created. What is the most likely cause? | [
"Gaseous embolism through splenic vessels",
"Injury to the left lobe the diaphragm",
"Inferior vena cava compression",
"Injury to colon"
] | Sudden drop in pO2 immediately during induction of pneumoperitoneum at the time of insuflations of gas from unintended insufflations of gas directly into an open vein. Gas embolism may have resulted from inadveent inseion of the trocar or veress needle into a vessel or abdominal organ. Gas Embolism Most commonly seen during induction of pneumonperitoneum at the time of insufflations of gas directly into an open vein. The more soluble a gas in the blood, the lower chances are for gas embolism CO2 is preferred for pnemoperitoneum as it is highly soluble in blood and is rapidly eliminated. CO2 Embolism: An initial rise in ET-CO2 due to pulmonary excretion of absorbed CO2 is followed by a sudden decrease due to fall in cardiac output. Ref: Laparoscopic Surgery By Garcia & Jacobs/25 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14227 | Perioral pallor and Dennie-Morgan folds are seen in: | [
"Atopic dermatitis",
"Chronic actinic dermatitis",
"Blood dyscrasia",
"Perioral contact dermatitis"
] | Ans. a. Atopic dermatitisPerioralpallor(headlightsign)Follicularplugging(Autennaesign)Thinningoflateraleyelsrous.(Hertoghesign) [?][?][?][?][?] Seeinatopicdermatitis- "ITCH- SCRATCH-ITCH" cycle is seen. Skin is dry or xerotic | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24723 | Which of the following drug is used to decrease postpaum hemorrhage in a normotensive woman? | [
"Oxytocin",
"Methergine",
"Progesterone",
"Prostaglandins"
] | Ergot alkaloids markedly increase the motor activity of the uterus. They are used to prevent or treat postpaum hemorrhage in normotensive women. In this setting, the preferred ergot alkaloids are ergonovine (ergotrate) or its methyl analog methylergonovine (methergine). They are administered intramuscularly or intravenously, exhibit rapid onsets of action (2-3 minutes intramuscularly, Ref: Schimmer B.P., Parker K.L. (2011). Chapter 66. Contraception and Pharmacotherapy of Obstetrical and Gynecological Disorders. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22849 | Necrotizing fasciitis is caused by - | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Beta hemolytic streptococci",
"Clostridium perfringens",
"Pneumococcus"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34368 | The main Side effect of Imatinib mesylate | [
"Leg ulcers",
"Fluid retention",
"Flagellate hyperpigmentation",
"Irreversible myelosuppression"
] | The main side effects are fluid retention, nausea, muscle cramps, diarrhea, and skin rashes. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23621 | Which of the following statement about Standard Distribution curve is true? | [
"Mean = 2 Median",
"Mean = Median",
"Median = Variance",
"Standard Detion = 2 Variance"
] | The standard distribution curve (Normal distribution) is a perfectly symmetrical, bell shaped curve such that the mean, median and mode, all have the same value and coincide at the centre. Mean is obtained by adding individual observations and then divided by the number of observations. Median is obtained by arranging the data in ascending or descending order of magnitude and then the value of the middle observation is located which is called the median. Mode is the most frequently occurring value. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, By K. Park, 19th Edition, Pages 699-702 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35593 | Cleft lip is due to the nonfusion of | [
"Maxillary process with lateral nasal process",
"Maxillary process with medial nasal process",
"Maxillary process with mandibular process",
"All of the above"
] | Human embryology Tenth edition Inderbier Singh Page no:160 Harelip: when one or both maxillary process do not fuse with the medial nasal process, this gives rise to defect in the upper lip. These may vary in degree and unilateral or bilateral | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32365 | Turbulence of blood flow increases when | [
"Viscosity",
"Diameter of blood vessel |",
"Density |",
"Straight aeries"
] | According to Reynold&;s equation: Re= rDV/eWhere Re is the Reynolds number, named for the man who described the relationship; r is the density of the fluid; D is the diameter of the tube under consideration; V is the velocity of the flow, and e is the viscosity of the fluid.The higher the value of Re, the greater the probability of turbulenceTherefore increase in diameter cause increase in Re and hence increase turbulenceRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:540 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4324 | anorexia nervosa is treated with | [
"anti depressents",
"clozapine",
"clorpromazine",
"pimozide"
] | Anorexia nervosa Anorexia nervosa is a eating disorder where the patient has decreased weight and altered body image and persistent desire to maintain thinness * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Intense fear of becoming fat * Restriction of food intake * Restricting type * Binge eating and purging type * Amenorrhea is not needed for diagnosis, previously amenorrhea is considered as a diagnostic criteria for diagnosis, in recent DSM 5 amenorrhea is considered for a diagnosis * Association= * OCD and depression * Decreased interest in sex * Complication * 7-14% moality * ECG changes * Hypokalemic alkalosis because of induced vomiting * Gastric dilation * Drugs * Cypro hepatidine * SSRI * Management * Admit in severe cases * Prevent vomiting by making restroom inaccessible for 2 hours after food intake * Avoid laxatives * Small frequent meals * Avoid refeeding syndrome Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 509 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_211 | Flea bitten appearance of the kidney is seen in- | [
"Malignant hypeension",
"Benign hypeension",
"Chronic pyelonephritis",
"Diabetes mellitus In an adult"
] | Causes of the flea-bitten kidney: Malignant hypeension Subacute bacterial endocarditis Rapidly progressive GN Henoch-Schonlein purpura. Ref: RAM DAS NAYAK EXAM PREPARATORY MANUAL FOR UNDERGRADUATES 2nd ed. pg no: 621 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31725 | Platelet-activating factor is biochemically a | [
"Prostaglandin",
"Glycolipid",
"Glycerol ether phospholipid",
"Leukotrienes"
] | Platelet-activating factor (PAF) (I-alkyl-2-acetyl-sn-glycerol-3- phosphocholine) is synthesized from the corresponding 3-phosphocholine derivatives. It is formed by many blood cells and other tissues and aggregates platelets at concentrations as low as 10 mol/L. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19925 | Using a small fine probe, single lactiferous duct is excised. What is the name of the procedure: | [
"Macrodochectomy",
"Microdochectomy",
"Webster operation",
"Hadfield operation"
] | Microdochectomy: Small fine probe inseed into duct Peri-areolar incision is made By dissecting nipple flap, duct is excised Done for duct papilloma Hadfield operation: Conical excision of major ducts Done for duct ectasia | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37208 | Which of the follow ing is not a rate-limiting enzyme- | [
"HMG CoA reductase",
"Phosphofructokinase",
"Acetyl CoA carboxylase",
"Malonate dehydrogenase"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Malonate dehydrogenase o Malonate dehydrogenase is not a rate-limiting enzymes. o HMG-CoA reductase (in cholesterol synthesis), phosphofructokinase I (in glycolysis) and acetyl-CoA carboxylase (in fatty acid synthesis) are rate-limiting enzymes, Reactions Rate-limiting enzymes Glycolysis Phosphofructokinase Glycogen synthesis Glycogen synthetase Glycogenolysis Glycogen phosphorylase TCA cycle Isocitrate dehydrogenase Fatty- acid synthesis Acetyl CoA carboxylase Cholesterol synthesis HMG CoA reductase Ketone body synthesis HMG CoA synthase Bile acid synthesis 7-oc-hydroxylase Catecholamine synthesis Tyrosine hydroxylase Urea synthesis CPS - I | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6383 | Paneth cells - true is | [
"Rich in rough endoplasmic reticulum",
"High zine content",
"Foamy cytoplasm",
"Numerous lysozyme granules"
] | INDERBIR SINGH&;S TEXTBOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY-PAGE NO:276 Paneth cells These cells are found only in the deeper pa of intestinal crypts.they contain prominent eosinophilic secretory granules with the em paneth cells seen to contain considerable rough endoplasmic reticulum | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54708 | A patient of acute leukemia is admitted with febrile neutropenia. On day four of being treated with broad spectrum antibiotics, his fever increases. X-ray chest shows bilateral fluffy infiltrates. Which of the following should be the most appropriate next step in the management? | [
"Add antiviral therapy",
"Add antifungal therapy",
"Add cotrimoxazole",
"Continue chemotherapy"
] | The Patient's history of acute leukemia with febrile neutropenia is suggestive of Immunocompromised state The clue to the diagnosis here is fluffy chest infiltrate which are seen in Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. The treatment of choice for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia is Cotrimoxazole | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25318 | True about obstructive sleep apnea are all except | [
"Females affected more than males",
"Commonly associated with hypeension",
"Day time sleepiness is seen",
">5 episodes of apnea per hour"
] | Obstructive sleep apnea is defined as the coexistence of unexplained excessive daytime sleepiness with at least 5 obstructed breathing events (apnea or hypopnea) per hour of sleep.Male sex and middle age(40-65 years) are predisposing factors.It is associated with elevated 24-h mean blood pressure.The increase is greater in those with recurrent nocturnal hypoxemia,is at least 4-5 mmHg and may be as great as 10 mmHg in those with >20% aerial oxygen desaturations per hour of sleep.This rise probably results from a combination of surges in blood pressure accompanying each arousal at apnea/hypopnea termination and from the associated 24-h increases in sympathetic tone. Ref:Harrison's medicine-18th edition,page no:2187. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40682 | In nucleus ambiguus, originating fibers of all the following are present except: | [
"Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"Vagus nerve",
"Accessory nerve",
"Hypoglossal nerve"
] | Ans. d (Hypoglossal nerve) (Ref. BDC Vol. III 4th/pg. 324, 325)NUCLEUS AMBIGUUSA. Most axons are in CN X# Innervates striated muscles of palate, pharynx, larynx# Efferent limb of 'gag reflex'# Lesion: difficult swallowing (because innervates pharynx)B. Some axons are in CN IX from rostral portion of nucleus ambiguus# Innervates stylopharyngeus# Some axons are in CN XI (spinal accessory) from caudal portion of nucleus ambiguusC. Joins CN 10 and innervates same structuresWallenberg syndrome is infarction in posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) - lateral medulla 1. lesion in nucleus ambiguus - difficulty in swallowing and hoarseness - loss of gag reflex 2. vestibular nucleus - dizziness and nystagmus 3. trigeminal - loss of pain and temperature on ipsilateral 4. inferior cerebellar peduncle - ipsilateral limb ataxia 5. anterolateral system - reduced pain and temperature on contralateral limb 6. ipsilateral Horner's syndrome hiccup - for reasons not known; solitary nucleus may also be destroyed - leading to loss of taste on ipsilateral half of tongue. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41277 | Which of the following is true about Nodular Regenerative Hyperplasia? | [
"Nodule size 0.1 to 1 cm",
"Fibrosis septa present",
"Portal hypertension seen in 50% of patients",
"AST and ALT are markedly elevated"
] | Ans: (c) Portal hypertension seen in 50% of patientsRef: Robbins Pathology, 9th editionFeatures of Nodular Regenerative Hyperplasia of LiverNodular hyperplasia diffusely affecting entire liver but with no / minimal fibrous septaDevelops at all ages but usually symptomatic at age 40+Associated with:Portal hypertensionConnective tissue disease (rheumatoid arthritis, polyarteritis nodosa)Myeloproliferative disordersLymphoproliferative disordersVascular disordersChemotherapyImmunosuppressive drugsAST - ALT mild elevation or normalPresents as non-cirrhotic portal hypertensionPathology (Gross and Microscopy)1-3 mm diameter nodulesNo fibrosis, only nodulesOn biopsy, apparent lack of central veins and presence of curvilinear areas of congestion are suggestiveReticulin stain highlights the fibrous nature | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45971 | Scutum is? | [
"Bony pa of outer attic wall",
"Bony pa of inner attic wall",
"Cailaginous pa of outer attic wall",
"Cailaginous pa of inner attic wall"
] | Scutum forms bony pa of lateral attic wall. Reference: Dhingra 6th edition | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45824 | Acute viral hepatitis - | [
"Ballooning degeneration",
"Acidophilic inclusion (necrosis)",
"Interphase hepatitis",
"All"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ballooning degeneration; 'b' i.e., Acidophilic inclusion (necrosis); `c' i.e., lnterphase hepatitis | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20536 | In anoxia of liver, necrosis is seen in -a) Centrilobularb) Around the peripheryc) Around the central veind) Around the bile duct | [
"ac",
"bc",
"ad",
"b"
] | Architecture of liver lobule
Liver is divided into hexagonal lobules oriented around the terminal tributaries of the hepatic vein (Terminal hepatic veins), i.e. Terminal hepatic vein is in the centre of the lobule and area around the hepatic vein is called centrilobular zone.
At peripheri of lobule, lies the portal tract containing hepatic artery, bile duct and portal vein. Area around portal tract is called periportal zone.
Area between periportal zone and centrilobular zone is called midzonal area.
So, the blood supply (hepatic artery & portal vein) comes from the peripheral part of the lobule → thus periportal area is nearest to the blood supply and least susceptible to ischemic necrosis, on the other hand centrilobular area is farthest from blood supply and is most susceptible to ischemic necrosis.
Following information have been added in 8th/e of Robbins
Acute liver failure is defined as an acute liver illness that is associated with encephalopathy within 6 months after the initial diagnosis.
Fulminant liver failure → when encephalopathy develops rapidly, within 2 weeks of the onset of jaundice.
Subfulminant liver failure → when encephalopathy develops within 3 months of onset of jaundice. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13337 | This condition is associated with: | [
"Osteopetrosis",
"Marfan syndrome",
"Osteogenesis imperfecta",
"All of the above"
] | Osteogenesis imperfecta is a hereditary autosomal dominant disorder. Pale blue sclera is one of the characteristic features of osteogenesis imperfecta. Blue sclera are also seen in osteopetrosis, fetal rickets, marfan's syndrome, and Ehlers - Danlos syndrome. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10184 | Macrophages are major source of? | [
"IL-1",
"IL-5",
"IL-7",
"IFN- y"
] | IL-1 REF: Jawett's microbiology, 24th edition chapter 8 Immunology Table 8-3 See APPENDIX-19 for list of "CYTOKINES" | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53336 | Cavity formation in bronchogenic carcinoma occurs in | [
"Oat cell carcinoma",
"Squamous cell carcinoma",
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Bronchoalveolar"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26423 | Salivary gland stone most commonly involves | [
"Submandibular gland",
"Parotid gland",
"Sub lingual glands",
"Lingual glands"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29349 | All are true about Adie's pupil EXCEPT: | [
"Seen due to inflammation of ciliary ganglion secondary to post viral illness",
"Pupil is super sensitive to pilocarpine",
"Bilateral constricted and irregular pupil",
"Adie's pupil shows no response to light"
] | Ans. (c) Bilateral constricted and irregular pupilRef: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. 1317* Bilaterally constricted and irregular pupil is a feature of Argyll Robertson Pupil aka Prostitues pupilArgyll (Neurosyphillis)Adie's* B/L constricted and irregular* Light reaction: -ve* Accomodation:+ ve* Aka prostitute's pupil* Seen post viral illness a infl of ciliary ganglion - sympathathetic stimulation* Dilated pupil, other is N.* NO RESPONSE TO LIGHT* Accomodation slow* Pupil is super sensitive to pilocarpine | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2197 | MRI done in a 28yrs old male suffering from Neurofibromatosis 2 showed ice cream cone appearance. On asking he fuher revealed that it began with ringing sensation in ears which progressed to balance problems and hearing loss. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis - | [
"Meningioma",
"Ependymoma",
"Schwannoma",
"Gangioneuroma"
] | NF2 is associated with bilateral vestibular schwannomas and hearing loss benign tumors usually originate from perineural fibroblasts. intracranial schwannomas originate from vestibular branch of eighth cranial nerve. Malignant schwannomas although rare, are treated with radiation therapy, if the curative resection is not possible. C/F :- SNHL (M/C) presentation Tinnitus Veigo/Dizziness MRI shows - ice cream cone appearance - depicting b/l vestibular schwannomas | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50730 | Germline mutations in which of the following genes is not associated with hereditary breast cancer? | [
"CHEK2",
"GATA2",
"BRCA2",
"TP53"
] | Mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 are responsible for 80% to 90% of single gene familial breast cancers and about 3% to 6% of all breast cancers. BRCA1-associated breast cancers are commonly poorly differentiated, often have characteristic morphologic features, and usually fall in the TNBC subgroup. BRCA2-associated breast carcinomas also tend to be poorly differentiated, but are more often ER-positive than BRCA1 cancers. Other tumor suppressor genes associated with germline mutations that convey a high risk for breast cancer: TP53, PTEN, STK11, CDH1, PALPB2 (high penetrance) ATM, CHEK2 (moderate penetrance) Germline GATA2 mutations predisposes to development of myeloid neoplasms. Germline GATA2 gene mutations were originally identified as four separate syndromes: MonoMAC syndrome, characterized by monocytopenia and non-tuberculous mycobacterial infection Dendritic cell, monocyte, B- and NK-lymphoid (DCML) deficiency with vulnerability to viral infections Familial myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)/acute myeloid leukemia (AML) Emberger syndrome, characterized by primary lymphoedema, was and a predisposition to MDS/AML | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15023 | Dream theory of Freud includes all, except | [
"Symbolism",
"Projection",
"Displacement",
"Confabulation"
] | Ref. Oxford textbook of Psychiatry. Page. 18
Dream theory of Freud
Freud classified five separate processes that facilitate dream analysis.
1) Displacement occurs when the desire for one thing or person is symbolized by something or someone else.
2) Projection happens when the dreamer places their own personal desires and wants onto another person.
3) Symbolization is illustrated through a dreamer’s unconscious allowing of repressed urges and desires to be metaphorically acted out.
4) Condensation illustrates the process by which the dreamer hides their feelings and/or urges through either contraction or minimizing its representation into a brief dream image or event
5) Rationalization (also referred to as secondary revision) can be identified as the final stage of dream work in which the dreaming mind intently organizes an incoherent dream into something much more comprehensible and logical for the dreamer
There is no confabulation in dream theory | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11440 | PET scan uses which tracer material? | [
"FDG",
"CDF",
"ADP",
"MIBG"
] | ANSWER: (A) FDGREF: Sutton's Radiology, 7th edition, page 1826"Currently the mainstay of clinical PET is deoxyglucose labelled with fluorine-18 (5FDG)" | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16463 | Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed in: Al 06; NEET 14 | [
"1994",
"1996",
"2000",
"2002"
] | Ans. 1994 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32103 | Most common primary cardiac tumor is? | [
"Myxoma",
"Rhabdomyosarcoma",
"Fibroma",
"Lipoma"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Myxoma * The most common cardiac tumor is metastasis (secondries).* The most common primary cardiac tumor (overall) is cardiac myxoma.* Most common primary cardiac tumor in adults is cardiac myxoma. The most common primary cardiac tumor in infant and children is rhabdomyoma. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31468 | 42 year-old male presents with dimness of near vision and can not read the newspaper print clearly. On examination, the media was clear in both the eyes and no fundus abnormality was seen. What would be the next step? | [
"Refraction with near addition",
"Refraction under atropine",
"Radial keratotomy",
"Cataract surgery"
] | *With age the accommodative power of crystalline lens decreases so the near vision gets deteriorated. This condition is called presbyopia for which near add (convex glasses) is prescribed to individual. *Surgical Modalities to correct Presbyopia a)Multifocal IOL b)Crystalens c)Presbyopic LASIK | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22406 | Maximum oxygen saturation is there in which of the following blood vessels in a fetus? | [
"Ascending aoa",
"Descending aoa",
"Inferior vena cava",
"Ductus venosus"
] | Oxygen saturation of different blood vessels in fetus: Umbilical vein > Ductus venosus > Inferior vena cava > Ascending aoa > Descending Aoa > Umbilical aeries | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37384 | Dopamine agonist used in treatment of parkinsonism? | [
"Ropinirole",
"Pramipexole",
"Bromocriptine",
"All of the above"
] | Ans. d (All of the above) (Ref H-17th/121)NEUROLEPTIC MALIGNANT SYNDROME (NMS)# Features: Hyperthermia, Extrapyramidal effects, Autonomic dysregulation, and "Lead-pipe" muscle rigidity.# Rx:- Dantrolene: 1-2.5 mg/kg given IV every 6 h for at least 24-48 h--until oral dantrolene can be started.- NMS may also be treated with.* Bromocriptine0,* Amantadine, or* Levodopa,* Nifedipine0* Curare and Pancuronium (induction of muscle paralysis).Drugs causingHeat StrokeDrug-InducedHyperthermiaNMSSerotoninsyndromeMalignantHyperthermiaExertionalAmphetaminesPhenothiazinesSSRIsInhalationalAnticholinergicsCocaineButyrophenonesMAOIsanestheticsAntihistaminesPhencyclidine (PCP)HaloperidolTCAsScolineAntiparkinsonianMDMA; "ecstasy"Bromperidol DiureticsLSDLoxapine PhenothiazinesSalicylatesTCAs LithiumMetoclopramide AnticholinergicsDomperidone SympathomimeticsThiothixene Molindone Withdrawal of dopaminergic Fluoxetine # Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may be treated with physostigmine. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20125 | Which of the following is not true about measurement of BP? | [
"Cuff length should be 80% and width should be 40% of mid arm circumference",
"Diastolic pressure is indicated by Korotkoff sound",
"Small cuff measures falsely high BP",
"Cuff should be tied at the level of hea"
] | Korotkoff sounds are thought to originate from a combination of turbulent blood flow and oscillations of the aerial wall and have been classified as 5 phases. The Korotkoff sound method tends to give values for systolic pressure that are lower than the true intra-aerial pressure, and diastolic values that are higher. There is general consensus that the fifth phase or disappearance of sound should be taken as DBP, except in situations in which the disappearance of sounds cannot reliably be determined because sounds are audible even after complete deflation of the cuff, for example, in pregnant women, patients with aeriovenous fistulas and aoic insufficiency. The "ideal" cuff should have a bladder length that is 80% and a width that is at least 40% of arm circumference (a length-to-width ratio of 2:1). Cuff should be tied at the level of hea. Due to gravitational force BP decreases above the hea and increases below the hea by 0.77 mm Hg/cm. For this reason, when measurements are taken in the supine position the arm should be suppoed with a pillow. In the sitting position, the right atrium level is the midpoint of the sternum or the fouh intercostal space. The lower end of the cuff should be 2 to 3 cm above the antecubital fossa to allow room for placement of the stethoscope. Recommended deflation rate: 2 to 3 mm Hg per second Blood pressure is measure falsely high when the cuff is too small relative to the patient's arm circumference. At the initial visit, blood pressure should be measured in both arms. The patient should be instructed to relax as much as possible and to not talk during the measurement procedure; ideally, 5 minutes should elapse before the first reading is taken. In older patients with a wide pulse pressure, the Korotkoff sounds may become inaudible between systolic and diastolic pressure, and reappear as cuff deflation is continued. This phenomenon is known as the auscultatory gap. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29712 | Most common congenital anomaly of larynx: | [
"Laryngeal web",
"Laryngomalacia",
"Laryngeal stenosis",
"Vocal cord palsy"
] | (b) Laryngomalacia(Ref. Current Diagnosis & Treatment Otolaryngology, Lalwani, 3rd ed., 480; Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2; 333)Most common congenital anomaly of larynx is laryngomalacia followed by vocal cord palsy and laryngeal stenosis (subglottic stenosis). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5421 | Femoral hernia presents: | [
"Below and lateral to pubic tubercle",
"Above and medial to pubic tubercle",
"Below and medial to pubic tubercle",
"Above and lateral to pubic tubercle"
] | Ans. (a) Below and lateral to pubic tubercleRef: Bailey and love 26th ed, ch. 60 / 960* The femoral hernia appears below and lateral to the pubic tubercle and lies in the upper leg rather than in the lower abdomen. Inadequate exposure of this area during routine examination leads to failure to detect the hernia.* The hernia often rapidly becomes irreducible and loses any cough impulse due to the tightness of the neck. It may only be 1-2 cm in size and can easily be mistaken for a lymph node | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9399 | Regarding phenytoin ,false is: | [
"Induces microsomal enzymes",
"At very low doses,zero order kinetics occurs",
"Higher the dose,higher is half life",
"Highly protein bound"
] | The kinetics of metabolism is capacity limited; changes from first order to zero order over the therapeutic range-- REF: KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED. page 414 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26119 | Influenza pandemic is mainly caused by - | [
"Type A",
"Type B",
"Type C",
"All"
] | ↵
Influenza
Influenza is an acute respiratory tract infection caused by influenza virus.
There are three viral subtypes
Type A → Causes all Pandemics and most of the epidemics
Type B → Can cause epidemics
Type C → Causes endemic infection
Three types of influenza viruses are circulating in world → A (H1N1), A (H3 N2) and B
A New type has been recognized → A (H5 N1)
Source of infection → case or subclinical case
Mode of transmission → Droplet infection by respiratory route
Incubation period →18-72 hours
Clinical manifestations
Most infections are subclinical
fever, headache and myalgia
Respiratory → coughing
There is no virernia
Complications
Pneumonia → M.C. by str. pneumoniae
Worsening of COPD
Encephalitis
Reye's Syndrome → with type B virus
GB. Syndrome
G I Symptoms (gastric flu) → type B virus
Laboratory diagnosis
Most commonly, the diagnosis is established by the use of rapid viral tests that detect viral nucleoprotein or neuraminidase - Harrison - 1069
Best specimen is nasopharyngeal secretion. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17068 | In the following X-ray marked structure is- | [
"Transverse process",
"Lamina",
"Pedicle",
"None of the above"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pedicle* Given image is the AP view spine and the marked structure is pedicle of vertebra. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33302 | Genetic risk factor for COPD is | [
"a1 Antitrypsin Deficiency",
"Cystic fibrosis",
"Marfan syndrome",
"Severe combined immunodeficiency"
] | Severe a1 Antitrypsin deficiency is a proven genetic risk factor for COPDAlthough only approximately 1% of COPD patients are found to have severe a1AT deficiency as a contributing cause of COPD, these patients demonstrate that genetic factors can have a profound influence on the susceptibility for developing COPDSpecific treatment in the form of a1AT augmentation therapy is available for severe a1AT deficiency as a weekly IV infusion Patients with cystic fibrosis develop bronchiectasisRef: Harrison 19e pg: 1704 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15644 | Which of the following is true about Odontogenic keratocyst? | [
"Most common in females",
"Not pre malignant",
"Seen in posterior mandible",
"Treatment is observation"
] | Odontogenic keratocyst has risk for SCC transformation. Treatment is removal. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43429 | A chronic alcoholic presents with complaints of confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia and peripheral neuropathy. Diagnosis is | [
"Alcoholic hallucinations",
"Wernicke's encephalopathy",
"Korsakoff's psychosis",
"Delirium tremens"
] | Wernicke&;s encephalopathy:This is an acute reaction due to severe thiamine deficiency (Vit. B-1), the commonest cause being chronic alcohol abuse. Characteristically, the onset occurs aftera period of persistent vomiting.Signs and Symptoms:i. Ocular: Coarse nystagmus and ophthalmoparesis (usually the VIth cranial nerve is involved). Pupillary irregularity, retinal hemorrhages, papilledema and impairment of vision.ii. CNS: Disorientation, confusion, recent memory disturbances, poor attention span, and distractibility. Apathy and ataxia are early symptoms.iii. Peripheral neuropathy and serious malnutrition are often coexistent.Pathologically, neuronal degeneration and hemorrhage is seen in the thalamus, hypothalamus (mammillary bodies) and midbrain. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4869 | A middle aged female presented with a solitary thyroid nodule of size 2 cm. What is the next line of management? | [
"Removal of the nodule",
"FNAC",
"Subtotal thyroidectomy",
"Total thyroidectomy"
] | The most common presentation of a patient with thyroid carcinoma is the presence of a solitary thyroid nodule. Cytologic examination of a fine-needle aspirate of a nodule more than 1cm in diameter is the most appropriate first diagnostic procedure. Papillary, medullary, and anaplastic carcinomas can be readily diagnosed by fine-needle aspiration (FNA). The majority (85-95%) of thyroid nodules are benign. Ref: Busaidy N.L., Habra M.A., Vassilopoulou-Sellin R. (2011). Chapter 38. Endocrine Malignancies. In H.M. Kantarjian, R.A. Wolff, C.A. Koller (Eds), The MD Anderson Manual of Medical Oncology, 2e. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5690 | Serial 7 substraction is used to test ? | [
"Working memory",
"Long term memory",
"Mathematical ability",
"Recall power"
] | Ans. A. Working memorySerial sevens substraction testSerial sevens, counting down from one hundred by sevens, is a clinical test used to test mental function; for example, to help assess mental status after possible head injury or in suspected cases of dementia.This well-known test, in active documented use since at least l944,was adopted as pa of the mini-mental state examination.The test is also used in determining when a patient is becoming unconscious under anaesthetic, for example prior to major dental surgery. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22071 | 'Confounding bias' in a case control study can be removed by: | [
"Double blinding",
"By properly recalling events",
"Matching",
"By selecting representative population"
] | Ans; C (Matching) Ref: Park 22nd editionExplanation:Confounder is a variable which is an independent risk factor for disease and is non- causal.ly associated with the exposure.That is the variable should be related to the disease and to the risk factor under study like shown in the following figure: To remove the effect of confounding at the design-stage, matching is done, i.e., cases and controls are similar with respect to confounding variable. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50083 | Antral sign is seen in | [
"Juvenile angiofibroma",
"Otosclerosis",
"CSOM",
"Sinusitis"
] | Anterior bowing of the posterior wall of maxillary sinus often called antral sign or Holman-Miller sign, which is pathognomic of angiofibroma. (Ref: Diseases of ear, nose and throat, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, page 281) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11772 | Which is true for malate shuttle? | [
"Mitochondria to cytoplasm",
"Cytoplasm to mitochondria",
"Both (A) and (B)",
"None of these"
] | Ans. B Cytoplasm to mitochondria Ref- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malate-aspartate_shuttle The primary enzyme in the malate-aspartate shuttle is malate dehydrogenase. Malate dehydrogenase is present in two forms in the shuttle system: mitochondrial malate dehydrogenase and cytosolic malate dehydrogenase. The two malate dehydrogenases are differentiated by their location and structure, and catalyze their reactions in opposite directions in this process. First, in the cytosol, malate dehydrogenase catalyses the reaction of oxaloacetate and NADH to produce malate and NAD+. In this process, two electrons generated from NADH, and an accompanying H+, are attached to oxaloacetate to form malate. Once malate is formed, the first antiporter (malate-alpha-ketoglutarate) imports the malate from the cytosol into the mitochondrial matrix and also exports alpha-ketoglutarate from the matrix into the cytosol simultaneously. After malate reaches the mitochondrial matrix, it is converted by mitochondrial malate dehydrogenase into oxaloacetate, during which NAD+ is reduced with two electrons to form NADH. Oxaloacetate is then transformed into aspartate (since oxaloacetate cannot be transported into the cytosol) by mitochondrial aspartate aminotransferase. Since aspartate is an amino acid, an amino radical needs to be added to the oxaloacetate. This is supplied by glutamate, which in the process is transformed into alpha-ketoglutarate by the same enzyme. The second antiporter (the glutamate-aspartate antiporter) imports glutamate from the cytosol into the matrix and exports aspartate from the matrix to the cytosol. Once in the cytosol, aspartate is converted by cytosolic aspartate aminotransferase to oxaloacetate. The net effect of the malate-aspartate shuttle is purely redox: NADH in the cytosol is oxidized to NAD+, and NAD+ in the matrix is reduced to NADH. The NAD+ in the cytosol can then be reduced again by another round of glycolysis, and the NADH in the matrix can be used to pass electrons to the electron transport chain so ATP can be synthesized. Since the malate-aspartate shuttle regenerates NADH inside the mitochondrial matrix, it is capable of maximizing the number of ATPs produced in glycolysis (3/NADH), ultimately resulting in a net gain of 38 ATP molecules per molecule of glucose metabolized. Compare this to the glycerol 3-phosphate shuttle, which reduces FAD+ to produce FADH2, donates electrons to the quinone pool in the electron transport chain, and is capable of generating only 2 ATPs per NADH generated in glycolysis (ultimately resulting in a net gain of 36 ATPs per glucose metabolized). (These ATP numbers are prechemiosmotic, and should be reduced in light of the work of Mitchell and many others. Each NADH produced only 2.5 ATPs, and each FADH2 produces only 1.5 ATPs. Hence, the ATPs per glucose should be reduced to 32 from 38 and 30 from 36. It should also be noted that the extra H+ required to bring in the inorganic phosphate during oxidative-phosphorylation contributes to the 30 and 32 numbers as well). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7697 | All are risk factors of squamous cell carcinoma except | [
"Ultraviolet radiation",
"Tar",
"Tobacco",
"HPV 18"
] | Ultraviolet radiation, chronic inflammation, and chemical carcinogens (arsenicals, tar) and infection with HPV 5 and 16.There is also evidence that current and previous tobacco use doubles the relative risk of SCC.Ref: Bailey and Love, 27e, page: 606 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15473 | Regarding proteoglycans, false is: | [
"Chondroitin sulphate is a proteoglycan",
"They hold less amount of water",
"They are made up of sugar",
"They carry charge"
] | GAGs are generally associated with a small amount of protein forming proteoglycans which contain > 95% carbohydrate. Whereas, glycoproteins contain primarily protein & a small amount of carbohydrate.
All the GAGs, except hyaluronic acid, form proteoglycans. It is also the only GAG which is not sulfated and also found in bacteria.
Proteoglycan monomer resembles a bottle brush as it consists of a core protein to which linear GAG chains are covalently attached. Each chain may be composed of > 100 monosaccharide chains, remain separated from each other because of charge repulsion.
The GAGs present in the proteoglycans are polyanions and hence bind polycations and cations such as Na+ and K+. This latter ability attracts water by osmotic pressure into the extracellularmatrix and contributes to its turgor. GAGs also gel at relatively low concentrations.
Because of the long extended nature of the polysaccharide chains of GAGs and their ability to gel, the proteoglycans can act as sieves, restricting the passage of large macromolecules into the ECM but allowing relatively free diffusion of small molecules.
Again, because of their extended structures and the huge macromolecular aggregates they often form, they occupy a large volume of the matrix relative to proteins.
proteoglycan=GAGs + Protein (≤ 5%) = + proteins
Key Concept:
The GAGs present in the proteoglycans are polyanions and hence bind polycations and cations such as Na+ and K+. This latter ability attracts water by osmotic pressure into the extracellularmatrix and contributes to its turgor. Thus, they hold more amount of water. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28922 | A 65-year-old man with a long history of diabetes mellitus was hospitalized for treatment of an ulcer, which had been present on his left great toe for several months. Left sided below knee amputation was performed because of the inability multiple courses of oral antibiotics to resolve the ulcer, On the first postoperative day, he developed fever which worsened by day 2. His amputation stump was mottled with many areas of purplish discoloration, and the most distal areas were quite obviously necrotic. Crepitus was palpable up to his patella. An X-ray of the left lower extremity was done. What is the likely pathogen? | [
"Escherichia coli",
"Actinomyces israelii",
"Clostridium perfringens",
"Staphylococcus aureus"
] | X-ray of the left lower extremity shows gas in the soft tissues, extending beyond the knee to the area of the distal femur This patient had Clostridium perfringens gas gangrene It is one of the dreaded complications that may follow lower extremity amputation in diabetics. * The resulting dead or dying tissue has very low oxygen tension, which greatly ours the growth of anaerobes. If the amputation is insufficient, it may leave behind tissue whose blood supply is compromised to the point that oxygen tension in the remaining stump ours the growth of anaerobes. The elaboration, by C. perfringens, of large amounts of gas that are not absorbed by the tissues allows the clostridial organisms to spread along fascial planes, which are separated by the pressure of the gas as the clostridia grows. Thus, gas production acts as a "virulence factor," which makes this organism quite ferocious. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30517 | Which of the following pathway occurs paly in mitochondria and paly in cytosol? | [
"Glycolysis",
"Kreb's cycle",
"Ketogenesis",
"Urea cycle"
] | In mammals, the urea cycle takes place primarily in the liver, and to a lesser extent in the kidney. The urea cycle consists of five reactions: two mitochondrial and three cytosolic. The cycle conves two amino groups, one from NH4+ and one from Asp, and a carbon atom from HCO3-, to the relatively nontoxic excretion product urea at the cost of four "high-energy" phosphate bonds (3 ATP hydrolyzed to 2 ADP and one AMP). Ornithine is the carrier of these carbon and nitrogen atoms.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 196,203,226 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14289 | What is the generation time of Mycobacterium leprae? | [
"2-5 days",
"7-10 days",
"12-14 days",
"20-25 days"
] | Generation time of bacteria refers to the doubling time. Mycobacterium leprae is the slowest growing human bacterial pathogen, it has a doubling time of 14 days. It grows best at 30 degree C, at a temperature lower than body temperature, therefore it grows preferentially in the skin and superficial nerves. Mycobacterium leprae is transmitted by prolonged contact with patients with lepromatous leprosy, who discharge M. leprae in large numbers in nasal secretions and from skin lesions. 2 forms of leprosy are: Tuberculoid and Lepromatous. In tuberculoid type: CMI response to the organism limits its growth, very few acid-fast bacilli are seen, and granulomas containing giant cells form. In lepromatous leprosy: CMI response to organism is poor, the skin and mucous membrane lesions contain large numbers of organisms, foamy histiocytes rather than granulomas are found, and the lepromin skin test result is negative. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 21. Mycobacteria. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37601 | Onodi cells and haller cells are seen in relation to: | [
"Optic nerve and floor of orbit",
"Optic nerve and frontal sinus",
"Optic nerve and ethmoid air cells",
"Optic chiasma and nasolacrimal duct"
] | "Onodi cell" is the posterior most posterior ethmoid cell extending lateral to the sphenoid sinus. While removing disease from the Onodi cells there are chances of injury to optic nerve and internal carotid which lie in the vicinity. The posterior ethmoidal cells in the floor of orbit are known as "Haller cells". | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9736 | Treatment of opium poisoning includes all except | [
"Stomach wash",
"Purgatives",
"Naloxone",
"Digitalis"
] | Opium/Afim : * Opium (poppy) is derived from Papaver somniferum. * Toxic pa: Unripe fruit capsule, latex juice. * Marquis test: to detect opium * Antidote: Nalaxone sodium * Treatment for morphine withdrawal: Methadone * Along with routine viscera, brain, blood and bile to be preserved. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39550 | Which of the following is not lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium? | [
"Hypopharynx and laryngopharynx",
"Oesophagus",
"Cornea",
"Tympanic membrane"
] | . | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8444 | Hemorrhagic pericarditis is seen in | [
"Uremia",
"TB",
"Neoplasm",
"All"
] | Causes of hemorrhagic pericarditis
1. Tuberculosis
2. Malignant involvement of pericardial sac
3. Bleeding diathesis
4. Cardiac surgery
5. Post-myocardial infarction
6. Dissecting aneurysm of aorta
7. Uremic pericarditis | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17758 | Mineralocoicoid receptors are present in all except | [
"Hippocampus",
"Colon",
"Liver",
"Kidney"
] | Mineralocoicoid receptor are present in kidney,hippocampus and colon. Glucocoicoid receptor are present in liver. Mineralocoicoid receptors (MR) bind bothmineralocoicoids and glucocoicoids with high affinity (deoxycoicosterone = coicosterone >/= aldosterone = coisol), and are found in both Na(+) transpoing epithelia (e.g. kidney, colon) and nonepithelial tissues (e.g. hea, brain). (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 277) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19148 | Which of the following ducts are not associated with salivary glands | [
"Whaon's duct",
"Stensen's duct",
"Ducts Of Rivinus",
"Ducts Of Santorini"
] | The accessory pancreatic duct is called the Duct of Santorini.The duct of submandibular gland is Whaon ductThe duct of the parotid gland is Stensen ductThe duct of sublingual gland drains by multiple small numerous small ducts all of which open into the floor of the mouth and are collectively termed as duct of RivinusRef: Bailey and love 27th edition PG 778 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53874 | With respect to ticlopidine, clopidogrei: | [
"Is more likely to cause formation of antiplatelet antibodies",
"15 less likely to cause neutropenia",
"Is more likely to cause severe bleeding",
"Has a greater antiplatelet effect"
] | (Ref: KDT 6/e p610) Ticlopidine and clopidogrel are ADP antagonists and are used as antiplatelet drugs. Antiplatelet action, chances of bleeding and formation of antibodies is similar with these two agents. Clopidogrel is better tolerated because it is less likely to cause severe neutropenia and thrombocy topenia as compared to ticlopidine. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49477 | Nipple inversion occurs due to involvement of: | [
"Cooper's ligament",
"Subareolarm duct",
"Parenchyma of breast",
"Subdermal lymphatics"
] | Ans. (b) Subareolar duct(Ref: Bailey 25/e p834)* Peau- de orange - Subdermal Lymphatic infiltration (T4b)* Dimpling/Puckering/tethering of skin - Due to Coopers ligament of breast involvement (It is not skin involvement is T staging)* Nipple retraction - Fibrosis in and around the Subareolar duct | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5117 | Parkinsonism is characterised by all of the following characteristic features except - | [
"Rigidity",
"Akinesia",
"Tremors at rest",
"Past pointing"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37759 | In cell membrane, on the basis of mass, proteins and lipids are present at a ratio of | [
"1:02",
"1:01",
"2:01",
"4:01"
] | According to 'Principles of Medical Physiology', "The cell membrane contains proteins and lipids in 50:50 ratios. This refers to the ratio of their masses and not numbers". | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28529 | Vaginal changes in normal pregnancy show | [
"High pH",
"Increased lactobacilli",
"Increased anaerobic bacteria",
"Decrease in glycogen contents"
] | Early in pregnancy the vaginal epithelial cells are similar to those found during the luteal phase, As pregnancy advances, two pattern of response may be seen 1. Small intermediate cells called navicular cells by Papanicolaou, are found in abundance in small, dense clusters 2. Vesicular nuclei without cytoplasm or so called naked nuclei, are evident along with an abundance of lactobacillus 3. **pH is acidic, varying from 3.5-6, the result of increased production of lactic acid from glycogen in the vaginal epithelium by the action of lactobacillus acidophilus | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11517 | Which of the following will produce decreased EEG ACTIVITIES? | [
"hypothermia",
"early hypoxia",
"ketamine",
"nitrous oxide"
] | Decreased EEG Increased EEG All inhalational and intravenous anaesthetics Ketamine hypoxia N2O hypercapnia Early hypoxia Hypothermia Early hypothermia Hypotension Early hypercapnia Early hypotension | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19083 | At what age extracellular fluid is equal to the intercellular fluid? | [
"14 days",
"4 weeks",
"2 months",
"3 months"
] | b. 4 weeks(Ref: Avery's 8/e p 373)High Yield Points:In fetus & newborn, ECF volume is larger than ICF volume.Normal postnatal diuresis causes an immediate decrease in the ECF volume.This is followed by continued expansion of ICF volume, which results from cellular growth.By 1 year of age, the ratio of the ICF to ECF volume approaches adult levels. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44079 | A man presented with complaints of scanty, foul smelling, painless discharge from the ear. It is characteristic feature of the following lesion: | [
"ASOM",
"Cholesteatoma",
"Central perforation",
"Otitis externa"
] | Patients with acquired cholesteatomas typically present with recurrent or persistent purulent otorrhea and hearing loss. The discharge is scanty & always foul-smelling due to bone destruction. Facial nerve twitching, palsy, or paralysis can also result from the inflammatory process or from mechanical compression of the nerve. Ref: Chang C. (2012). Chapter 50. Cholesteatoma. In A.K. Lalwani (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment in Otolaryngology--Head & Neck Surgery, 3e. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38209 | Primary Amenorrhea:a) Absence of Menarche by 14 Years without secondary sexual charactersb) Absence of Menarche by 16 Yrs with secondary sexual charactersc) Absence of secondary sexual characters by Yrsd) Endometriosis | [
"ac",
"ab",
"ad",
"bc"
] | Primary amenorrhea is a condition when a female has not attained menarche by the age of 14 years in the absence of growth or development of secondary sexual characteristics.
OR
No menarche by the age of 16 years regardless of the presence of normal growth and development of secondary sexual characteristics. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8989 | A baby can follows an object with 180deg, can hold neck, can sit with suppo but can not sit without suppo. The age of the baby is - | [
"1 month",
"3 months",
"5 months",
"All"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5 months o A child follows object upto 180deg by 3 months, o Neck holding develops by 3 months. o A child can sit with suppo by 5 months and can sit without suppo by 8 months. o So, the age of this child is between 5-8 months, which may be 5 months (option c) or 6 months (option d) or 7 months. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8610 | A 75-year-old man has a history of transient attacks of loss of vision. The only abnormalities on physical examination are bruits over the carotids in the neck. Two days later he suddenly becomes hemiplegic and loses consciousness. He is rushed to the emergency room and a CT scan shows evidence of cerebral infarction. He is put on life support but dies 5 days later. At autopsy, there is an area of necrosis and microscopically these lesions are noted to have increased numbers of cells distributed around the central zone of necrosis. Which of the following cell types is most likely to have a phagocytic function in these lesions? | [
"Arachnoidal cells",
"Astrocytes",
"Ependymal cells",
"Microglia"
] | Microglial cells are part of the body's fixed macrophage system, derived originally from mesoderm. Microglia can respond to cerebral injuries by taking on a macrophage-like function. The arachnoid layer is part of the meninges covering the brain. Astrocytes can proliferate in response to brain injuries, a process called gliosis, but there is no phagocytosis. Ependymal cells line the ventricular system containing CSF. Oligodendroglial cells provide the myelin sheaths for neuronal axons in the CNS. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15502 | Operation of choice for coalescent mastoiditis is: | [
"Cortical mastoidectomy",
"Modified radical mastoidectomy",
"Radical mastoidectomy",
"Fenestration operation"
] | Coalescent mastoiditis is treated by cortical mastoidectomy, also known as Schwartz operation. In this operation all mastoid air cells are exenterated leaving posterior canal wall intact. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8650 | Brown atrophy is due to accumulation of: | [
"Melanin",
"Hemosiderin",
"Hematin",
"Lipofuscin"
] | ANSWER: (D) LipofuscinREF: Pathology by Edward E Goljan page 7The combination of an atrophic heart and lipofuscin accumulation is referred to as brown atrophy. Lipofuscin is a "wear and tear" pigment that commonly deposits within hepatocytes, splenocytes, and myocardial cells | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8502 | A 43 year old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend her right hand above her head to brush her hair. What is the cause | [
"Damage to scalenus medius",
"Injury to suprascapular nerve",
"Cut to spinal pa of accessory nerve",
"Spread of infection to shoulder joint"
] | Spinal accessory nerveThe damages to spinal accessory nerve damage the trapezius muscle that leads to loss of hyperabduction of arm.reference- Clinical Anatomy for students, a problem-solving approach, Neeta v Kulkarni, 2nd edition, page no.463 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2191 | All of the following are TRUE about the middle ear, EXCEPT: | [
"The joints between ossicles are synol",
"The chorda tympani nerve is related to the lateral wall",
"The facial nerve passes in a canal situated in the medial and anterior walls",
"The auditory tube connects the nasopharynx with the anterior wall"
] | The facial nerve passes in a canal situated in the posterior and medial walls of the middle ear. It is not associated with the anterior wall. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4693 | Mucormycosis- | [
"Angio-invasion",
"Lymph invasion",
"Septate hyphae",
"All"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Angio-invasion MUCORMYCOSIS Mucormycosis is most commonly caused by species ofRhizopus, Rhizomucor and Cunninghamella, but species of Apophysomyces, saksenaea, mucor and Absidia also are occasionally responsible. They appear as nonseptate hyphae in tissues. In all forms of mucormycosis, vascular invasion (angio-invasion) is a prominant feature. . Ischemic or hemorrhagic necrosis is the foremost histological finding. . Predisposing factors: a) For paranasal sinus Diabetes 1. Hematological malignancies Organ transplantation 2. Long term deferoxamine therapy b)For Gastrointestinal mucormycosis Uremia 3. Diarrhea] disease Severe malnutrition - Primary cutaneous inoculation is uncommon but occurs in burn eschars, underneath occlusive dressings, and sites of minor trauma in immunocompromized adults and low-bih-weight neonates. Treatment Debridement plus amphotericin B. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26722 | Which glycogen storage disease (GSD) does not affect muscles? | [
"Type I",
"Type II",
"Type III",
"Type V"
] | Type I GSD (Von Gierke disease) is a liver glycogenoses i.e. involves liver Type 2 (Pompe disease), type V (McArdles disease) and type VII ( Tarui disease) involves muscles (Muscle Glycogenoses) Type 3 GSD (Cori's disease) is predominantly a liver glycogenoses but skeletal muscle involvement may also be seen. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46740 | Length of Female adult cervical canal is - | [
"2 cms",
"2.5 cms",
"6 cms",
"10 cms"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49212 | At which level does methionine enter the TCA cycle? | [
"Acetyl co A",
"Succinyl co A",
"Oxaloacetate",
"Pyruvate"
] | Reference: Lehninger illustrated biochemistry 5th edition | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30965 | True about mesenteric cyst are all Except: | [
"Chylolymphatic is the most common type",
"Enterogenous is second most common type",
"Seen most commonly in males",
"Treatment of choice for enterogenous is resection + anastomosis"
] | Chylolymphatic is the most common type of mesenteric cyst. Enterogenous mesentric cyst- 2nd most common | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22731 | Structures derived from the neural crest are? | [
"Pia",
"Dental papillae",
"Adrenal medulla",
"All of the above"
] | D i.e. All of the above | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21809 | A couple is referred to the physician because their first three pregnancies have ended in spontaneous aboion. Chromosomal analysis reveals that the wife has two cell lines in her blood, one with a missing X chromosome (45,X) and the other normal (46,XX). Her chromosomal constitution can be described as? | [
"Chimeric",
"Monoploid",
"Trisomic",
"Mosaic"
] | The case described represents one of the more common chromosomal causes of reproductive failure, Turner mosaicism. Turner's syndrome represents a pattern of anomalies including sho stature, hea defects, and infeility. Turner's syndrome is often associated with a 45,X karyotype (monosomy X) in females, but mosaicism (i.e, two or more cell lines with different karyotypes in the same individual) is common. However, chimerism (i.e., two cell lines in an individual arising from different zygotes, such as fraternal twins who do not separate) is extremely rare. Trisomy refers to three copies of one chromosome, euploidy to a normal chromosome number, and mono ploidy to one set of chromosomes (haploidy in humans). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_909 | A city has a population of 10000 with 500 diabetic patients. A new diagnostic test gives true positive result in 350 patients and false positive result in 1900 patients. Which of the following is/are true regarding the test ? | [
"Prevalence is 5%",
"Sensitivity is 70%",
"Specificity is 80%",
"All"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Prevalence is 5%; 'b' i.e., Sensitivity is 70% & 'c' i.e., Specificity is 80% In this question : Total patients = 500 (diabetic patients) True positive patients = 350 Thus remaining 150 (500-350) are false negative. 350 So, sensitivity of test = 350+150 70% Similarly, Total non-diseased are = 9500 (10000-500) Among these false positive are = 1900 Thus remaining 7600 are ture negative (9500-1900) 7600 So, specificity of test = = 80% 9500 500 o Prevalance of disease = x 100 = 5% 10000 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31350 | A prodrug is | [
"The proto type member of a class of drugs",
"The oldest member of a class of drugs",
"An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite",
"A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the direction"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42226 | Posterior wall of Rectus sheath below Arcrate line is formed by | [
"Posterior lamina of Internal oblique aponeurosis and Transverse abdominis aponeurosis",
"Fascial transversalis",
"Transverse abdominis aponeurosis and Fascia transversalis",
"Internal oblique Aponeurosis"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52096 | Rhinophyma is associated with- | [
"Hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands",
"Hypertrophy of sweat glands",
"Hyperplasia of endothelial cells",
"Hyperplasia of epithelial cells"
] | Rhinophyma is a slow-growing benign tumor due to hypertrophy of sebaceous gland. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5914 | What is the modern approach treatment of a discoloured crown? | [
"Composite restoration",
"Full crown",
"Bleaching",
"Implant"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_831 | Commonest operation done for peptic ulcer with gastric outlet obstruction is: | [
"Truncal vagotomy with pyloroplasty",
"Highlyselective vagatomy with pyloroplasty",
"Truncal vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy",
"Gastrojejunostomy"
] | Ans: c (Truncal vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy)Ref: Schwartz, 8th ed, p. 961 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2042 | Most common Hodgkin's lymphoma? | [
"Nodular sclerosis",
"Mixed cellularity",
"Lymphocyte depleted",
"Lymphocyte rich"
] | Ans. (a) Nodular SclerosisRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /606-607; Harrison 18th ed. Chapter 110Hodgkin's DiseaseNodular lymphocytePredominant Hodgkin's diseaseClassical Hodgkin's diseaseNodular sclerosis Hodgkin's diseaseLymphocyte-rich classic Hodgkin's diseaseMixed-cellularity Hodgkin's diseaseLymphocyte-depletion Hodgkin's disease | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41063 | Which of the following is a chemotactic factor? | [
"Prostaglandins",
"Prostacyclins",
"Thromboxane",
"Leukotrienes"
] | ANSWER: (D) LeukotrienesREF: Robbins 7th ed page 56"Endogenous chemo attractants are C5a, leukotriene B4, IL-8"See APPENDIX-19 for "CYTOKINES | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15922 | Which device is shown below: | [
"Cochlear implant",
"Auditory brainstem implant (ABI)",
"Bone anchored hearing aid (BAHA)",
"Hearing aid"
] | The external components of the cochlear implant i.e. transmitter coil (rounded structure held to the skin with a small magnet), the microphone and the speech processor (worn on the ear) can be easily seen in the picture | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41096 | A 31-year-old man with AIDS complains of difficulty swallowing. Examination of his oral cavity demonstrates whitish membranes covering much of his tongue and palate. Endoscopy also reveals several whitish, ulcerated lesions in the esophagus. Which of the following enzymes converts the HIV genome into double-stranded DNA in host cells in the patient? | [
"DNA polymerase (Pol-1)",
"DNA polymerase (Pol-2)",
"Integrase",
"Reverse transcriptase"
] | Reverse transcriptase. The primary etiologic agent of AIDS is HIV-1, an enveloped RNA retrovirus that contains a reverse transcriptase (RNA-dependent DNA polymerase). After it enters into the cytoplasm of a T lymphocyte, the virus is uncoated, and its RNA is copied into double-stranded DNA by retroviral reverse transcriptase. The DNA derived from the virus is integrated into the host genome by the viral integrase protein (choice C), thereby producing the latent proviral form of HIV-1. Viral genes are replicated along with host chromosomes and, therefore, persist for the life of the cell.Diagnosis: AIDS | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14120 | In an adult male, on per rectal examination, the following structures can be felt anteriorly except? | [
"Internal iliac lymph nodes",
"Bulb of the penis",
"Prostate",
"Seminal vesicle when enlarged"
] | Internal iliac lymph nodes can be palpated laterally when they are enlarged & not anteriorly. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9886 | A 61-year-old female patient presents to your clinic due to sudden episodes of left-sided facial pain for the last two days. She states that the pain feels like a 'sharp stabbing ' and is a 9/10 in terms of intensity. The pain lasts about 5-10 seconds and then dissipates rapidly. The pain is often brought on by talking and cold wind. Her past medical history is significant for depression and type 2 DM. What is the diagnosis? | [
"Giant cell aeritis",
"SUNCT syndrome",
"Trigeminal neuralgia",
"paroxysmal hemicrania"
] | Option A- Ruled out as it presents with jaw claudication or U/L headache or temporal headache. Option B- Ruled out as It is associated with conjunctival injection and tearing, so RED eye should be present in the question. Option D -Paroxysmal Hemicrania-ruled out Throbbing and stabbing pain at temporal and orbit area Duration 2-30 min No alcohol or cutaneous trigger Have autonomic and migrainous features Respond well to Indomethacin. Trigeminal Neuralgia: Excruciating pain in lips, gums, cheeks or chin. Occurs spontaneously or with chewing, speaking or smiling. Presence of trigger zone (face, lips, tongue) Provoked by cold wind, brushing or washing face. Female> male Onset- Sudden, persist for weeks to months and remit spontaneously. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18127 | Cicatrising alopecia with perifollicular blue-gray patches is most commonly associated with: | [
"Pitting of nails",
"Whitish lesions in the buccal mucosa",
"Ahritis",
"Discoid plaques in the face"
] | Cicatrising alopecia with perifollicular blue-gray patches is likely to be associated with whitish lesions in buccal mucosa which is characteristic of Lichen planus. Ref: Cicatricial Alopecia: An approach to diagnosis and management, By Vera Price, Paradi Mirmirani, Page 1-5. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43452 | Confirmatory diagnosis of Loose anagen hair syndrome is made by? | [
"Presence of loose anagen hair (LAH) >30%",
"Presence of loose anagen hair (LAH) >40%",
"Presence of loose anagen hair (LAH)>50%",
"Presence of loose anagen hair (LAH)>60%"
] | Presence of Loose anagen hair >50% is used to confirm diagnosis of LAH. The presence of anagen hair devoid of its sheath and with 'floppy sock appearance' is a characteristic feature of loose anagen hair (LAH) on trichogram. The percentage of LAH in LAS is more than 50%. Loose anagen syndrome(LAS) is a hair disorder in which the hair is 'loose' and can be painlessly pulled from the scalp. Hair is not anchored into the scalp properly with no known cause. Affected patients have a 'bed head' appearance and hair that doesn't seem to grow. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38737 | All of the following are causes of obesity except | [
"Hypothyroidism",
"Growth hormone excess",
"Cushing syndrome",
"Intake of corticosteroids"
] | Growth hormone deficiency causes obesity not growth harmone excess. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44172 | Rideal Walker test is used to determine the efficiency of the | [
"Disinfectant",
"Moist heat sterilisation",
"Antibiotics",
"Dry heat sterilization"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30255 | A 20 year average weight female presented with oligomenorrhea and abnormal facial hair growth along with high serum free testosterone levels. On USG the ovaries are normal. The diagnosis : | [
"Idiopathic hirsutism",
"PCOD",
"endometriosis",
"Adrenal hyperplaia"
] | Rotterdam criteria of PCOS Diagnosis of PCOS should be based on at least two of three major criteria, including (1) Oligo/anovulation, (2) Clinical or Biochemical signs of Hyperandrogenism (Hirusitism,Acne,Androgenic alopecia.) (3) Polycystic ovaries (as identified by ultrasonography), also excluding other androgen excess disorders Ref: Clinical Gynecologic Endocrinology and Infeility; Eigth edition; Chapter 12 | B | null |
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