dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_42697 | Antihypeensive not contraindicated in pregnancy? | [
"Spironolactone",
"Labetolol",
"Sodium nitroprusside",
"ACE inhibitor"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Labetolol See above question | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50358 | Which of the following statement is true regarding binding of O2 to hemoglobin? | [
"Results in a release of the heme from the interior to the exterior of the Beta subunits leading to an increase in O2 affinity of the alpha subunits",
"Causes a large shift of the surrounding secondary structures which leads to decreased affinity of the deoxy subunits for CO2",
"Is Cooperative, meaning that aft... | The deoxygenated subunits of the hemoglobin tetramer exist in the T ("tense") conformational state. As erythrocytes enter the capillaries of the lung alveoli, the paial pressure of O2 has increased sufficiently to allow binding to hemoglobin. When one mole of O2 binds, it causes a shift in the overall conformation of the other subunits to a more R ("relaxed") conformational state. This change in conformation leads to higher affinity of the remaining monomers for O2. Each deoxygenated monomer has a progressively increased affinity for O2 as more oxygen binds. This cooperative binding is observed as a sigmoidal curve when plotting the paial pressure of oxygen versus moles of O2 bound. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 35. Gas Transpo & pH. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds),Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21093 | In SDS-PAGE (Sodium Dodecyl Sulfate-Polyacrylamide Gel Electrophoresis) proteins are separated on basis ofa) Massb) Chargec) Densityd) Molecular weighte) Solubility | [
"b",
"ad",
"ac",
"ab"
] | In SDS-PAGE the separation of molecules depends mainly on their molecular size.
Therefore, SDS-PAGE is commonly used for molecular weight determination. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32864 | Foramen Transversarium transmit | [
"Inferior jugular vein",
"Inferior petrosal sinus",
"Sigmoid sinus",
"Veebral aery"
] | Foramen transversarium transmits 1st, 2nd, pa of the veebral aery which is present in the cervical veebra Ref: Gray's 40e/p-250-251 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26752 | Creatinine Clearance test is used to assess: | [
"Glomerular Filtration",
"Proximal Tubulr Function",
"Distal Tubular Function",
"Renal Plasma Flow"
] | Answer is A (Glomerular Filtaration): Creatinine Clearance is used to assess Glomerular function or the Glomerular Filtration Rate. Creatinine in serum is the end product of endogenous muscle breakdown. Creatinine is comptetely filtered by the glomerulus and neither significantly absorbed nor significantly secreted into the tubules and hence for clinical purpose creatinine clearance is the most commonly used test to assess Glomerular function. Estimation of Glomerular Function Creatinine Clearance Tests Inulin Clearance testy (used to assess Glomerular Filtration Rate- GFR) Estimation of tubular function Water Deprivation Test (used to assess Distal Tubular Function) Estimation of Renal Blood Flow/ Renal Plasma Flow Paraaminohippurate (PAH) clearance (used to assess Renal Plasma Flow -RPF) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12186 | An interparietal hernia at the level of arcuate line and lateral border of rectus is called | [
"Spigelian hernia",
"Lumbar hernia",
"Richter's hernia",
"Epigastric hernia"
] | A Spigelian hernia is a variety of an interparietal hernia occurring at the level of the arcuate line.They arise through a defect in the Spigelian fascia, which is the aponeurosis of transversus abdominis. The Spigelian fascia extends between the transversus muscle and the lateral border of the rectus sheath from the costal margin to the groin, where it blends into the conjoint tendon.Often these hernias advance through the internal oblique as well and spread out deep to the external oblique aponeurosis. Most Spigelian hernias appear below the level of the umbilicus near the edge of the rectus sheath, but they can be found anywhere along the Spigelian lineBailey and Love27e pg: 1041 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7044 | First hormone to be produced in cholesterol synthesis is? | [
"Epinephrin",
"Ergosterol",
"Lanosterol",
"Secretin"
] | Lanosterol is the first steroid to be synthesized in cholesterol synthesis. Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45737 | Cystic medial necrosis responsible for aortic dilatation and rupture is seen in | [
"Syphilitic aneurysm",
"Takayasu arteritis",
"Atherosclerosis",
"Marfan syndrome"
] | In Marfan syndrome, a connective tissue disorder of autosomal dominant inheritance, the basic biochemical abnormality is a mutation affecting fibrillin.
Most serious, however, is the involvement of the cardiovascular system. Fragmentation of the elastic fibers in the tunica media of the aorta predisposes affected patients to aneurysmal dilation and aortic dissection.
These changes, called cystic medionecrosis, are not specific for the Marfan syndrome.
Similar lesions occur in hypertension and with ageing.
Loss of medial support causes dilation of the aortic valve ring, giving rise to aortic incompetence. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30102 | A 26 year old female patient complains of discoloration between her upper front teeth. Intra-oral examination reveals proximal caries between upper right and left central incisors extending lingually. Which technique of instrument grasp will most likely be used for the preparation of these teeth? | [
"Modified pen grasp",
"Inverted pen grasp",
"Palm and thumb grasp",
"Modified palm and thumb grasp"
] | Inverted Pen Grasp - The finger positions of the inverted pen grasp are the same as for the modified pen grasp. The hand is rotated, however, so that the palm faces more toward the operator. This grasp is used mostly for tooth preparations employing the lingual approach on anterior teeth.
Ref: Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry. 4th edition page 315-316. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17888 | Which is Not required for visualisation of gall bladder in oral cholecystography: | [
"Functioning liver",
"Motor mechanisms of gall bladder",
"Patency of cystic duct",
"Ability to absorb water"
] | B i.e. Motor mechanism of Gall bladdar Oral Cholecystography (Graham - Cole - Test) OCG was introduced in 1924 by Graham & Cole. - Na/Ca-Iopanoic acid (TelepaqueQ / Biloptin/ Solubiloptine) dye is used as contrast media. - 3 gmQ of dye is given & X Rays are taken at an interval of 12-15 hours. - USG has replaced itQ. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45847 | Which of the following drug shows disulfiram like reaction with alcohol? | [
"Amphotericin B",
"Griseofulvin",
"Terbinafine",
"Rifampicin"
] | Drugs causing disulfiram like reaction Sorry-Sulfonylureas(1st generation- like chlorpropamide) Pluto-Procarbazine Can't-Cephalosporins(Cefotetan,Cefoperazone) Go-Griseofulvin to Mars-Metronidazole | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48519 | Which one of the following is NOT a feature of Kartagener's syndrome: | [
"Bronchiectasis",
"Ciliary dyskinesia",
"Dysphagia",
"Situs inversus"
] | Ans. (c) Dysphagia(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 683-684)Kartagener syndrome refers to bronchiectasis, sinusitis, and situsinversus; QIt is seen in 50% patients with primary ciliary dyskinesia | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3415 | Pterygium is | [
"An inflammatory response",
"A connective tissue disorder",
"An infection",
"Assosciated with vitamin A deficiency"
] | Pterygium is subconjuctival fibrobasvular growth encroaching on the cornea REF:Refer Khurana 6th edition page number 87 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46284 | This clinical sign is seen in <img src=" /> | [
"Carcinoma colon",
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Crohn's disease",
"Tuberculosis"
] | This is a contrast study showing string sign of KantorIn Crohn&;s disease, edema, bowel wall thickening, and fibrosis of the bowel wall within the mass account for the radiographic "string sign" of a narrowed intestinal lumen.Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 1953 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35039 | Which of the following has cyclic GMP mediated action? | [
"Photochemical reactions of visual cycle",
"Steroidogenesis",
"Thyroid hormone action",
"Recruitment of glucose transpoers to cell membrane"
] | cGMP is involved in Visual cycle Vasodilation caused by nitric oxide Activation of peptide hormones like Atrial natriuretic peptide ANP and brain-type natriuretic peptide BNP. cGMP cAMP Secondary messenger Secondary messenger (more inolved) Long term and sustained cellular response Less sustained respone Activates protein kinase G which causes phosphorylation and various other events Activate protein kinase A which causes phosphorylation | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33527 | Bile salts act as all except | [
"Emulsifying agent",
"Detergent",
"Surface tension lowering agents",
"Help in fat digestion"
] | The bile salts have a number of impoant actions: They reduce surface tension and have detergent effects.In conjunction with phospholipids and monoglycerides, are responsible for the emulsification of fat preparatory to its digestion and absorption in the small intestine.They are amphipathic, that is, they have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic domain, therefore, the bile salts tend to form micelles.REF: GANONG&;S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY PAGE NO:439,440 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17134 | Anti Spasmodic effect is seen with - | [
"Neostigmine",
"Propantheline",
"Nikethamide",
"Ambenonium"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Propantheline Antispasmodic drugs i) Quaternary compounds - Propantheline, Oxyphenonium, Clidinium, Pipenzolate, Methylbromide, Isopropamide, Glycopyrrolate. ii) Teiary amines - Dicyclomine, Valethamate, Pirenzepine. iii) Vasoselective antispasmodic (drugs acting on urinary bladder) - Oxybutynin, Tolterodine, flavoxate. iv) Drotaverine Note? All above drugs are anticholinergic except drotaverine. Drotaverine is a non-anticholinergic smooth muscle antispasmodic which acts by inhibiting phosphodiesterase - 4 (PDE-4) selective for smooth muscle. Elevation of intracellular cAMP/cGMP causes smooth muscle relaxation. It is used in intestinal, biliary and renal causes, uterine spasm, irratable bowel syndrome. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18346 | Gas causing green house effect ? | [
"CO2",
"Methane",
"Sulfur hexafluoride",
"All of the above"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8245 | low tracheostomy is incision below | [
"2nd Tracheal ring",
"3rd Tracheal ring",
"4th Tracheal ring",
"1st Tracheal ring"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51533 | Village affected by epidemic of cholera, what is 1st step which should be taken to prevent deaths? | [
"Treat everyone",
"1st chemoprophylaxis",
"Cholera vaccination",
"Safe H2O supply and sanitation"
] | Sanitation measures for control of cholera (a} WATER CONTROL : As water is the most impoant vehicle of transmission of cholera, all steps must be taken to provide properly treated or otherwise safe water to the community for all purposes (drinking, washing and cooking}. Various approaches have been described for supplying safe water quickly and with limited resource. Facilities selected and installed should be appropriate and acceptable to the community. The ultimate aim should be provision of piped water supply on a permanent basis and elimination of alternative unsafe water sources. Because of financial limitations and other competitive priorities, this measure cannot be applied immediately on a large scale in developing countries, such as India. As an emergency measure, in urban areas, properly treated drinking water containing free residual chlorine should be made available to all families; this water should be stored in the household in narrow-mouthed, covered containers. In rural areas, water can be made safe by boiling or by chlorination. The emergency measures should be followed by the development of more permanent facilities. Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 233 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42945 | Which of the following will cause lathyrism? | [
"Kesari dhal",
"Mung dhal",
"Jhunjunia seeds",
"Gondhli seeds"
] | Ans: a (Kesari dhal) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 512, 524Kesari dhal consumption leads to lathyrism.Toxic principle in kesari dhal is beta oxalyl amino alanine (BOAA).Diet containing over 30% of this dhal if taken over a period of 2-6 month will result in eurolathyrism.The disease mainly affects young males and manifests itself in stages.Interventions:Vitamin C prophylaxisBanning the cropRemoval of toxin - steeping method and parboilingEducationGenetic approachEndemic ascites - Panicum miliare (Gondhli) which gets contaminated with the seeds of crotalaria (Jhunjhunia), which contain pyrrolizidine alkaloids which are hepatotoxic.Epidemic dropsy - Due to ingestion of mustard oil contaminated with argemone oil which contains sanguinarine.Clinical features of epidemic dropsy include:* Swelling of legs* Diarrhoea* Cardiac failure* Glaucoma.The toxic substance interferes with the metabolism of pyruvic acid leading to its accumulation. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44814 | Depression is not caused by: | [
"Clonazepam",
"methyldopa",
"Metformin",
"Coicosteroid"
] | Drugs that cause depression as side effects- Antihypeensives like reserpine,methyldopa,beta blockers Steroids(OCPs and coicosteroids)- Progesterone> estrogen Interferons Barbiturates BZD | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18608 | Which of the following divisions stand for compromised bone | [
"Division A",
"Division B",
"Division C",
"Division D"
] | The Division C available bone is deficient in one or more dimensions (height, length, height, angulation, or crown height-bone height ratio).
Therefore the width may be less than 2.5 mm, the crown height more than 15 mm, and the bone angulation greater than 30 degrees, regardless of the position of the implant body into the edentulous site. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20863 | Radiological hallmark of primary tuberculosis in childhood is? | [
"Ghon's focus",
"Normal chest Xray",
"Lymphadenopathy",
"Pleural effusion"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lymphadenopathy Lymphadenopathy with or without parenchymal abnormality is the radiological hallmark of primary tuberculosis in childhood. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32777 | An intestitinal biopsy is most diagnostic in which of the following conditions? | [
"Celiac disease",
"Tropical sprue",
"Whipple disease",
"Lactose intolerance"
] | Whipple disease A gram-positive actinomycete, named Trophyrema whippleii, is responsible for Whipple disease. Clinical symptoms occur because organism-laden macrophages accumulate within the small intestinal lamina propria and mesenteric lymph nodes, causing lymphatic obstruction- resulting in malabsorptive diarrhoea due to impaired lymphatic transpo. Morphological hallmark- dense accumulation of distended, foamy macrophages in the small intestinal lamina propria. The macrophages contain periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive, diastase-resistant granules that represent lysosomes stuffed with paially digested bacteria. Intact rod-shaped bacilli can also be identified by electron microscopy. Distension of villi due to dense macrophage infiltrates, impas a shaggy gross appearance to the mucosal surface. In Whipple disease, bacteria-laden macrophages can accumulate within mesenteric lymph nodes, synol membranes of affected joints, cardiac valves, the brain, and other sites. Findings typically seen in celiac disease such as intraepithelial lymphocytosis and villous atrophy are not specific for celiac disease and can be present in other diseases, including viral enteritis. Therefore, a combination of histology and serology is most specific for diagnosis of celiac disease. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5256 | Congenital anamolies are most severe in | [
"Rubella infection",
"Mumps",
"CMV",
"Toxoplasma"
] | Ans. is 'a' Rubella infectionRubella causes numerous serious defects in the fetus, but nowhere is it specifically written that it causes most severe congenital deformities. Just have a look at the various defects caused by Rubella and you won't need any further confirmation for the answer.Various fetal defects caused d/t RubellaCardiac malformations* PDA (most common)* VSD, PS, (Coarctation of Aorta is not present)*Deafness*Cataract*Glaucoma*Retinopathy*Microcephaly*Cerebral palsy*1UGRHepatosplenomegalyMental & Motor retardationThese defects occuring singly or in combination are known as "Congenital Rubella Syndrome" | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29017 | Test tube rete pegs are the characteristics feature of : | [
"Dilantin hyperplasia.",
"Lichen planus.",
"Oral submocous fibrosis.",
"All of the above."
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22328 | True about Heliox – a) Helium is an inert gasb) Less viscous than airc) Higher density than aird) Reduces work of breathinge) Mixture of He & O2 | [
"acd",
"ade",
"abd",
"ad"
] | Heliox is a mixture of helium (80%) and oxygen (20%). Heliox has a similar viscosity to air but a lower breathing and lowers airway resistance.
Helium is an inert gas. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52912 | ART drug which is entry inhibitor - | [
"Enfuvirtide",
"Abacavir",
"Efavirez",
"Amprenavir"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Enfuvirtide Antiviral drugs1. Anti-herpes virus - Idoxuridine, Acyclovir, Valacyclovir, Famciclovir, Ganciclovir, Foscamet, Trifluridine, Vidarabine.2. Anti-RetrovirusNucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) - Zidovudine. Didanosine, Zalcitabine, Stavudine, Lamivudine, Abacavir.Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors - Nevirapine, Efavirenz, Delavirdine.Protease inhibitors - Ritonavir, Indinavir, Nelfinavir, Saquinavir. Amprenavir. Lopinavir.Fusion inhibitors (entry inhibitor) - Enfuvirtide3. Anti-influenza virus - Amantadine, Rimantadine, Oseltamivir, Zanamivir.4. Nonselective - Ribavirin, Adefovir, Dipivoxil, Interferon a. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19686 | Mycobacterium TB can be differentiated from other mycobacterium by- | [
"Production of niacin",
"arylsulphate test",
"Coagulase test",
"Bile solubility test"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Production of niacin | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9733 | Haverhill fever is caused by- | [
"Bartonella henselae",
"Streptobacillus moniliformis",
"Eikenella corrodens",
"Coccidioides"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Streptobacillus moniliformis * Streptobacillus moniliformis causes rat-bite fever in humans.* It enters the body through the wound caused by the rat bite.* The infection also occurs by the ingestion of water, milk or food contaminated with rat excreta. In these cases, the infection is known as 'Haverhill fever'.* Clinical symptoms include fever, rash and arthralgia. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53871 | Most important investigation for pericardial effusion – | [
"Cardiac catheterization",
"USG",
"Echocardiography",
"X-ray chest"
] | 2 D-echo is the investigation of choice for pericardial effusion. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22104 | 62. Growth sites in maxilla is / are | [
"maxillary tuberosity",
"sutures",
"nasal septum",
"all of the above"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39235 | Which of the following amino acids is absent in human milk? | [
"Glycine",
"Threonine",
"Lysine",
"Leucine"
] | Among the amino acids, glutamic acid is maximum and glycine is absent in human milk. Ref: Nutrition and Child Development, K.E. Elizabeth, 4th edition pg: 17 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9087 | Histopathology of staging laparotomy done for carcinoma endometrium reveals more than 50% myometrium invasion with vaginal involvement, parametrial involvement but no pelvic and paraaoic lymph node involvement. What is the Stage of Ca Endometrium ? | [
"III B",
"III A",
"III C1",
"III C2"
] | FIGO staging system for Ca Endometrium Stage Ia Tumor contained to the corpus uteri IA No or less than half myometrial invasion IB Invasion equal to or more than half of the myometrium Stage II Tumor invades the cervical stroma but does not extend beyond the uterusb Stage IIIa Local and /or regional spread of tumorc III A Tumor invades the serosa of the corpus uteri and/or adnexas III B Vaginal and/or parametrial involvement III C Metastases to pelvis and/or para-aoic lymph nodes III C1 Positive pelvic nodes III C2 Positive para-aoic lymph nodes with no without positive pelvic lymph nodes Stage IVa Tumor invades bladder and/or bowel mucosa and/or distant metastases IVA Tumor invasion of bladder and/or bowel mucosa IVB Distant metastases, including intra-abdominal metastases and or inguinal lymph nodes aInclude grades 1,2, or 3 bEndocervical glandular involvement only should be considered as stage I and no longer as stage II. cPositive cytology has to be repoed separately without changing the stage. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41853 | The most unlikely clinical feature of Hepatocellular carcinoma is - | [
"Hepatomegaly",
"Raised a-fetoprotein levels",
"Raised alkaline phosphatase",
"Jaundice"
] | "Jaundice is rare, unless significant deterioration of liver function or obstruction of bile ducts occurs. Serum elevations of alkaline phosphates and alpha fetoprotein are common" -- Harrison 16/e (not mentioned in 17th edition) HCC tends to present at late stages because it occurs in patients with underlying cirrhosis and the symptoms and signs may suggest progression of the underlying disease. Symptoms at this advanced stage are vague upper quadrant abd. pain nonspecific sym. of advanced malignancy (i.e. anorexia, wt. loss, lethargy) Hepatomegaly or a mass is palpable in many patients. Serum elevation of alkaline phosphates and a feto-protein are common. Most common symptom- abdominal pain. Most common physical sign- hepatomegaly Ref : Harrison 17/e 581 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3323 | In Ingle's method of Endodontic working length determination, safety allowance is for | [
"Possible image distortion or magnification",
"To confirm with apical termination",
"Periapical bone resorption",
"Recording final working length"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21707 | Protein to lipid ratio is LEAST in: | [
"Inner mitochondrial membrane",
"Outer mitochondrial membrane",
"RBC membrane",
"Myelin sheath"
] | Myelin sheath has the least Protein:Lipid Ratio Membrane Protein Lipid Carbohydrate Red blood cell membrane 49% 43% 8% Myelin around nerve cells 18% 79% 3% Inner mitochondrial membrane 76% 24% 0% | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40520 | S.A. node acts as a pacemaker of the hea because of the fact that it: | [
"Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously",
"Has rich sympathetic innervations.",
"Has poor cholinergic innervations",
"Generates impulses at the highest rate."
] | D i.e. Generates impulses at the highest rate | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30267 | Mobility of teeth is measured using: | [
"Periodontometer",
"Periotron",
"Spechtometer",
"Densitometer"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3844 | Symmetrical persistent enlargement of the parotid gland is seen in: | [
"Sjogren syndrome.",
"Cylindroma.",
"Mickuliz disease.",
"All of the above."
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2734 | A man presents with mass at duodenojejunal flexurs invading renal papillae. Histopathology repos it as lymphoma; true statement is: | [
"II E stage",
"III E Stage",
"IV E stage",
"Staging cannot be done until bone marrow examination is performed"
] | Involvement of another organ (kidney) by GI lymphoma of duodenojejunal flexure classifies it as a stage IV lymphomaGI lymphomas are staged using a modified Ann Arbor classification:IE: tumor confined to small intestineIIE: spread to regional lymph nodesIIIE: spread to non-resectable nodes beyond regional nodesIVE: spread to other organs(ref: Meningot 10/e p1181) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15857 | Unilateral high stepping gait is seen in - | [
"L5 radiculopathy",
"Distal radiculopathy",
"Cauda Equino syndrome",
"None of the above"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49922 | Penile angiography is reliable only after intracavernosal injection of vasoactive substances. All are indications for penile angiography, EXCEPT: | [
"Painful priapism",
"Peyronie's disease",
"Erectile dysfunction",
"Aeriovenous malformation"
] | Priapism is a prolonged, unwanted erection not associated with sexual stimulation. It is classified as low-flow (venous) and high-flow (aerial) priapism. Doppler US can distinguish the type of priapism, with low-flow priapism showing decreased or no blood flow in the cavernosal aeries. The most reliable method, however, involves testing aspirated blood from the corpus cavernosum for blood gas analysis. Ref: Liu D.R. (2011). Chapter 127. Urologic and Gynecologic Problems and Procedures in Children. In J.E. Tintinalli, J.S. Stapczynski, D.M. Cline, O.J. Ma, R.K. Cydulka, G.D. Meckler (Eds), Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine: A Comprehensive Study Guide, 7e. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48993 | As per RCH, the community health centre is a ? | [
"First referral unit",
"Secondary referral unit",
"Teritary referral unit",
"Not a referral unit"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., First referral unit First Referral Units (FRU) under the RCH programe 3 Community Health Cetres and Subdistric Hospitals that provide the following services can be declared as FRUs under the RCH programme. Three critical determinants for a facility to be declared as an FRU o Availibility of surgical interventions. o Availibility of new born care. o Availibility of blood storage facility on a 24 hour basis. o To be able to perform the full range of FRU functions a health facility (CHC or subdistrict hospital or otherwise) must have the followine facilities. Facilities required (not critical) to perform full range of FRU functions : a)A minimum bed strength of 20-30. However in difficult areas, as the Noh-East states and the under-served areas. this could initially be relaxed to 10-12 beds. b) A fully functional operation theatre c) A fully functional labour room d) An area equipped for new-born care in the labour room, and in the ward. e) A functional laboratory f) Blood storage facility g) 24-hour water supply and electricity supply h) Arrangements for waste disposal and i)Arnbulance facility | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17584 | Ethmoid bone forms A/E - | [
"Superior turbinate",
"Middle turbinate",
"Inferior turbinate",
"Uncinate process"
] | "The inferior turbinate is a separate bone, while rest of the turbinates are a part of ethmoidal bone". —Tuli 1st/e p. 135 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8964 | Upper border of pubic ramus forms - | [
"Pubic tubercle",
"Pubic symphysis",
"Arcuate line",
"Upper margin of obturator foramen"
] | Ans. is'c'i.e., Arcuate lineSuperior (upper) border of superior pubic ramus (also called pectineal line or pecten pubis) forms ) Arcuate line.Inferior border of super pubic ramus forms > upper margin of obturator foramen | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29353 | Nasal valve is formed by all except: | [
"Septum",
"Middle turbinate",
"Lower end of upper lateral cailage",
"Inferior turbinate"
] | Anterior nasal valve it is the narrowest pa of nose and is less well defined physiologically than anatomically. It is formed by the lower edge of the upper lateral cailages, the anterior end of the inferior turbinate and the adjacent septum. Ref. Dhingra 5/e, p 150. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32816 | Carrier stage seen in -a) Poliob) Cholerac) Pertusis d) Plague e) Tetanus | [
"da",
"abc",
"dea",
"ac"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34612 | DNA onchogenic viruses are all EXCEPT: (80) DNA onchogenic viruses are all EXCEPT: | [
"HTLV",
"Adenovirus",
"EBV",
"HPV"
] | HTLV REF: Robbin's 7th ed p. 324 Virus Disease Cancer Papova viridae Papilloma virus (some) Was, includingSTD genital was Uterine (cervical) cancer Herpes viridae Lymphocryptovirus (Epstein-Barr virus) Infectious mononucleosis Burkitt's lymphoma Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Hodgkin's disease Hepadna viridae Hepatitis B virus(HBV) Hepatitis B (infectious hepatitis) Liver cancer Adenoviridae Acute respiratory disease Common cold Adenocarcinomas (cancer of glandular epithelial tissues) Poxviridae Smallpox; cowpox Miscellaneous Oncogenic RNA Viruses of the Family Retroviridae Human T-cell leukemia virus (HTLV-1; HTLV-2) Adult T-cell leukemia Lymphoma Sarcoma viruses of cats, chickens, rodents Sarcomas (cancer of connective tissues) Mammary tumor virus of mice Mammary gland tumors Feline leukemia virus (FeLV) Feline leukemia | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45973 | 16 yr unmarried girl came for vaccination against cervical cancer. Which vaccine to he given: | [
"Gardasil",
"Rabivac",
"Biovac",
"Tvac"
] | Ans. (A) Gardasil(Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynecology 16th Ed; Page No 495)Gardasil is the vaccine of choice in this situation.Other options:Biovac: It is freeze-dried live attenuated vaccine indicated for the prevention of Hepatitis A in persons of age 1 year or older.Rabivac: It is monovalent inactivated rabies vaccine for cats and dogs.Tvac: It is tetanus vaccine.HPV vaccinesHPV vaccines have been developed from the inactivated capsid coat of the virus.HPV vaccines were earlier of two types. During its Feb 2015, meeting Advisory Committee on Immunization Practises (ACIP) recommended 9-valent HPV vaccine (9V HVP) as one of the three vaccines for preventive HPV.CharacteristicBivalent (2V HPV)Quadrivalent (4V HPV)9 Valent (9VHPV)Brand nameCervarixGardasilGardasil-9HPV subtypes16,186,11,16,186, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58Protects againstCIN, Ca cervixAnogenital warts, CIN, Ca cervixAnogenital warts CIN, Ca cervix, vulva intraepithelial neoplasia, vaginal intraepithelial neoplasiaManufacturingTrichoplusia insect line infected with L1 encoding baculovirusSaccharomyces cerevisiae expressing L1Saccharomyces cerevisiaeexpressing L1Adjuvant500 mcg aluminum hydroxide with monophosphoryl lipid A225 mcg Al(OH)PO4 SO4 500 meg Al(OH)PO4 SO4 Dose0.5 mL0.5 mL0.5 mLAdministration1/m1/m1/mAdministered to males or femalesOnly femalesBoth males and femalesBoth males and femalesAge in females Ideal age range11-12 years9-26 years11-12 years9-26 years11-12 years9-26 yearsAge in males Ideal age range---11-12 years9-26 years11-12 years9-15 years--FDA approved9-26 years--ACIP recommendation | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51299 | ICATIBANT IS A ? | [
"bradykinin B 1 antagonist",
"bradykinin B 2 antagonist",
"bradykinin B 3 antagonist",
"histamine receptor H3 antagonist"
] | Icatibant, New Bradykinin-Receptor Antagonist, in HAE Icatibant (Firazyr, Shire) synthetic selective decapeptide bradykinin B2 receptor competitive antagonist contains 5 non-natural amino acids to enhance resistance to peptidases Icatibant administered sc injection as single 30 mg peak concentration within 30 minutes, ref : kd tripathi 8th ed | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3451 | Only finger drop and no wrist drop in Posterior interosseus nerve injury, is due to sparing of | [
"Triceps",
"Brachioradialis",
"Anconeus",
"Extensor carpi radialis longus"
] | (D) Extensor carpi radialis longus> Posterior interosseous neuropathy is purely a motor syndrome resulting in finger drop, and radial wrist deviation on extension.# LESIONS OF RADIAL NERVE:> All branches below the injured region will be interrupted.1. Axilla (Very high):> Causes: Glenohumeral dislocation, Fracture proximal humerus, Crutch palsy> Deficit: Total palsy# Triceps weakness: Tested by resisted active extension of elbow and feeling for muscle contraction# Brachioradialis: Tested by resisted active flexion of elbow with forearm in midprone position and feeling for muscle contraction# Wrsit drop: Due to paralysis of wrist extensors- Ask to grasp something, the wrist becomes flexed if extensors are weak# Finger drop: Due to paralysis of long finger extensors causing inability to extend fingers at MCPJ# Thumb drop: Due to paralysis of extensor pollicis longus and abductor pollicis longus- Extensor pollicis longus is examined by stabilizing the MCPJ of thumb and resisted active extension of IP joint of thumb# Sensory loss: Over autonomous zone (1st dorsal webspace)2. Radial groove (High):- Cause: Fracture shaft of humerus, Saturday night palsy, Injection, Callus, Torniquet- Deficit: Brachioradialis weakness, Wrist drop, Finger drop, Thumb drop, Sensory loss3. Below Elbow (Low):- Causes: Fracture of radial head, Posterior dislocation of radius at elbow joint- Deficit: Posterior Interosseous Nerve# No wrist drop (Sparing of Extensor carpi radialis longus which enables extension of wrist)# Finger drop, Thumb drop# No Sensory loss | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47155 | True statement regarding covalent bonds is : | [
"Electrons have same spin",
"Electrons have opposite spin",
"They are weak bonds",
"None of the above"
] | B i.e. Electrons have opposite Spin | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27717 | Most common clinical presentation of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy: | [
"Generalised tonic clonic seizures in sleep",
"Generalised tonic clonic seizures in awake state",
"Myoclonus",
"Absence seizures"
] | Ans. c. Myoclonus (Ref: Harrison 19/e p2544, 18/e p3253)Most common clinical presentation of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is myoclonus."Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME) is a generalized seizure disorder of unknown cause that appears in early adolescence and is usually characterized by bilateral myoclonic jerks that may be single or repetitive. The myoclonic seizures are most frequent in the morning after awakening and can be provoked by sleep deprivation. Consciousness is preserved unless the myoclonus is especially severe. Harrison 18/e p3253Juvenile Myoclonic EpilepsyJuvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME) is a generalized seizure disorder of unknown cause that appears in early adolescenceCharacterized by bilateral myoclonic jerks that may be single or repetitiveQ.Clinical Features:Myoclonic seizures are most frequent in the morning after awakening and can be provoked by sleep deprivationQ.Consciousness is preserved unless the myoclonus is especially severe.Many patients also experience generalized tonic-clonic seizures, and up to one-third have absence seizures.Although complete remission is relatively uncommon, the seizures respond well to appropriate anticonvulsant medication.There is often a family history of epilepsy, and genetic linkage studies suggest a polygenic cause.Juvenile Myoclonic EpilepsyTreatment:Valproate is often used to treat juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.Other epilepsy drugs are effective in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy:LevetiracetamQTopiramateQLamotrigineQFor most people with JME, treatment is long-term, and often lifelongQ.However, treatment is effective, allowing most people with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy to go five years or more between seizures. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33163 | Most common extra-cranial complication of ASOM is: | [
"Facial nerve paralysis",
"Lateral sinus thrombosis",
"Subperiosteal abscess",
"Brain abscess"
] | Ans. C Subperiosteal abscessAs discussed earlier therelative incidence of various extracranial complications in a case of chronic, otitis media are:Extracranial complicationPercentagePost auricular abscess:Fpcial palsyBezold abscessPetrous apicitis (Petrositis)Meningitis 75620.212 So M/C complication is post auricular abscessNow what is post auricular abscessThere are many abscesses in relation to mastoid -Post aural subperiosteal abscessZygomatic abscessBezold abscessIt is the commonest abscess thatforms over the mastoidPinna is displaced forward, out wardand downward In infants and chiidrenabscess forms overMcEwan's trianglePosterior root of zygoma is invovedSwelling lies in front of and above thepinnaAssociated oedema of upper eye lidPus lies superficial or deep totemporalis muscle. Passes throughthe tip of mastoid intosterno cleido mastoid muscle in theupper pa of neck.? Citelli abscessLucs abscess (Meatal abscess) Pus passes through inner-table ofmastoid process into the dfgastrictriangle? ln-thiscase, pus breaks throughthebony wall between the antrum andexternal osseus meatus. Swelling is.seen in deep pa of rneatus.? lateral sinus thrombosis So As is clear from above explanation - M/C. Extra cranial complication is - Post Aural sub periosteal abscess: If this optionis not given then the next best option would be Mastoiditis. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52184 | Risk factors associated with development of Gou include all of the following, Except : | [
"Female sex",
"Alcohol",
"Hyperlipidemia",
"Hypeension"
] | Answer is A (Female Sex): Male sex is a risk factor for development of gout. Gout is more widespread in men than women. Women represent only 5-20 percent of patients with gout. Women are seldom affected until after menopause. Premenopausal gout is rare due to uricosuric effect of estrogen Non-modifiable and modifiable risk factors for gout Non modifiable risk factors Modifiable risk factors Age (Increasing age) Hyperuricemia Gender (Male) Obesity Race Hypeension Ethnicity Hyperlipidemia Ischemic cardiovascular disease Diabetes mellitus Chronic kidney disease Dietary factors Medications that alter urate balance | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44995 | Common between B and T cells - | [
"Origin from same cell lineage",
"Site differentiation",
"Antigenic marker",
"Both humoral and cellular immunity"
] | The key cells in your immune system are lymphocytes known as B cells and T cells, which originate in our bone marrow. After T cells fuher develop in our thymus. Reff: www.mayoclinic.com | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54222 | GABA is produced from: | [
"Alanine",
"Glycine",
"Glutamate",
"Glutamine"
] | Glutamate | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2391 | Bone dysplasia is invariably seen in - | [
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Developmental defect",
"Osteomalacia"
] | Bone dysplasia is invariably seen in developmental disorders like dysplasias with predominantly physeal and metaphyseal changes(eg.hereditary multiple exostosis, achondroplasia), predominantly epiphyseal changes (eg.Trevor's ds, stippled epiphysis)and predominantly metaphyseal and diaphyseal changes (eg. Pyle's ds, marble bones). REF:Apley's system of ohopaedics- 9th edn- pg no158. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4471 | Moro's reflex disappears by what age: | [
"2 weeks",
"4 weeks",
"3-6 months",
"12-18 months"
] | Ans C. 3-6 monthsMoro reflex is best elicited by the sudden dropping of the baby's head in relation to the trunk; the response consists of opening of the hands and extension and abduction of the upper extremities followed by anterior flexion of upper extremities with an audible cry. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3311 | Antibodies to one of the following infection is not transmitted to child - | [
"Measles",
"Peusis",
"Diphtheria",
"Polio"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Peussis Protective Antibodies against peussis doe not corss plecenta. o So, early immunization is desired. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48103 | True regarding mycobacterium tuberculosis is - | [
"Produces visible colonies in 1 weeks time on Lowenstein-Jensen media",
"Decolorised by 20% sulfuric acid",
"Facultative aerobe",
"Niacin positive"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15882 | Commonest position of appendix is? | [
"Paracaecal",
"Retrocaecal",
"Pelvic",
"Subcoecal"
] | Retrocaecal is the mc position in 65percent cases in 12 o clock position followed by pelvic in 4 o clock position M/C :-retrocaecal>pelvic | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27135 | Which of the following is not a function of liver ? | [
"Production of albumin",
"Detoxification of ammonia",
"Production of vitamin K",
"Metabolism of drugs"
] | Ans. (c) Production of vitamin KRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. Z821* Vitamin K is produced by the bacteria of gut and is used by liver for gamma carboxylation of factor 2/7/9/10.# Liver produces albumin which falls in liver cirrhosis producing ascites/edema.# Ammonia is combined with carbon dioxide to produce urea which in turn is excreted by the liver.# The cytochrome P450 is responsible for metabolism of drugs. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32329 | Which is not a feature of pseudocyesis : | [
"Amenorrhoea",
"Abdominal distension",
"Fetal hea sounds are audible",
"None"
] | Ans. is c i.e. Fetal hea sounds are audible Pseudocyesis : Phantom pregnancy / Spurious pregnancy / False pregnancy. Definition : It is a psychological disorder where the women has a false but firm belief that she is pregnant, although no pregnancy exists. Patient is often infeile and has an intense desire to have a baby. Patient presents with : * Cessation of menstruation. Enlargement of abdomen (due to deposition of fat). Secretions from breasts. palpable by the examiner. Fetal movement (actually intestinal movement). On examination felt and : no No fetal positive pas signs of pregnancy are found i.e. fetal hea sound is not heard, no fetal movement USG / pregnancy immunological tests are negative. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41631 | Tacrolimus inhibits transcription of IL? | [
"1",
"2",
"3",
"4"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46148 | In a 3yr old patient the cement used after pulpectomy is: | [
"Ca(OH)2",
"ZOE",
"Ca (OH)2 + CMCP",
"Active transport"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45844 | Broadcast is characteristic of - | [
"CRF",
"Ac GN",
"ARF",
"Renal TB"
] | Hyaline casts -
These are the most common type of casts and they can be found in normal urine samples.
They consist almost entirely of Tamm Horsfall protein.
Zero-to Two hyaline casts per low power field is considered normal.
Increased numbers of Hyaline casts can occur with exercise, heat exposure, dehydration, fever, congestive heart failure and diuretic.
Renal tubular epithelial cell casts -
These casts results when the epithelial cells of the renal tubules are being excreted along with the casts.
Renal tubular epithelial casts are most suggestive of tubular injury as in acute tubular necrosis.
They are also found in other disorders including eclampsia, heavy metal poisoning, ethylene glycol intoxication (most of these cases lead to acute tubular necrosis).
Granular casts -
These casts are fairly common and occur in both pathological and non-pathological condition.
Granular casts can result either from the breakdown of cellular casts to a point where the cells that once were within them are no longer distinguishable or they can result from the inclusion of aggregates of plasma proteins, fibrinogen or immune complexes within the cast upon formation.
They can be further divided into coarse granular casts and fine granular casts.
Fine granular casts can appear in non-pathological conditions such as vigorous exercise, but the presence of coarse granular cast is abnormal and presents in wide variety of clinical diseases.
They are common in renal parenchymal disease.
Broadcasts -
These casts originate from dilated chronically damaged tubules or the collecting ducts, therefore, they are called renal failure casts.
These are formed in collecting duct as a result of urinary stasis.
Broadcasts are two to six times the size of other types of casts.
Broadcasts or renal failure casts are usually seen in patients with advanced renal failure.
Waxy casts -
Waxy casts are cylinders of smooth highly refractive material.
Waxy casts are seen in final stages of degeneration of fine granular casts. Since the granules need time to degrade, this implies nephron obstruction.
Waxy casts are seen in chronic renal diseases associated with renal failure seen in diabetic nephropathy, malignant hypertension, glomerulonephritis. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17807 | The sputum examination under DTP is done when the patient present with – a) Cough of 1–2 wks durationb) Persistent cough of 1–2 wks durationc) Hemoptysisd) Chest paine) Intermittent fever | [
"ab",
"bc",
"bd",
"cd"
] | Sputum exam. done under DTP if :
Persistent cough of about 3-4 weeks duration.
Continuous fever
Chest pain
Haemoptysis
Unexplained weight loss
Reduced appetite | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48885 | Which ARV has been recommended by WHO as the most effective - | [
"Duck cell vaccine",
"Chick fibroblast vaccine",
"HDCV",
"Sheep brain vaccine"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14384 | What is the type of Gharbi classification of the given hydatid cyst? | [
"I",
"II",
"III",
"IV"
] | GHARBI classification - Based on USG - I - Simple fluid collection II - Floating membrane or undulating membrane known as water lily sign III - Multi loculated or multi septated / honey combing or multi loculated but there are appearing of solitary and cystic areas IV - Complex heterogenous mass V - Calcified cyst | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33973 | who described the anal stage of development | [
"freud",
"erikson",
"seligman",
"lorenz"
] | CONTRIBUTIONS OF FREUD o Father of psychoanalysis He founded a type of psychotherapy called psychoanalysis. It is nothing but analyzing the psych(MIND) o Interpretation of dreams According to Freud dreams are royal road to unconscious In dreams several conflicts that are present in the unconscious comes to the consciousness in the form of dreams Thus by analyzing ones dreams we could understand the unconscious conflicts o Psychosexual stages of life o Freud divided development into 5 stages namely psycho sexual development o It is divivded namely oral , anal , phallic, latent, genital phase. o Conversion disorders conversion disorder is conveing a psychological pain to physical symptoms present physical symptoms which has some connection with unconscious conflict is called SYMBOLIZATION present physical symptoms which has some resemblance with illness in family members, which is called MODELLING patient has illness like neurological deficit but they have apparent in concern towards their own illness which is known as LA BELLE INDIFFERENCE main defense mechanism in conversion disorder is REPRESSION o Repression defence mechanism * REPRESSION is called QUEEN of defense mechanisms o COUCH and FREE ASSOSIATION * He introduced a technique called as a couch technique where he makes the patient lie on the couch, he asks the patient to speak from 'cabbages to kings. This method is called FREE ASSOSIATION. By allowing the patient to speak whatever that comes to their mind randomly so that by analyzing their thoughts we could understand the conflict in the unconscious. o Topographical theory of mind Freud gave topographical theory mind It is divided into pre conscious, unconscious, conscious Later he disregarded topographical theory of mind and gave structural theory of mind o Structural theory of mind It is divided into id, ego, super ego Id= instinctual desires like anger, hunger, sexual instinct Ego= function of mind to work based on ego to avoid guilt from super ego Super ego= based on moral principle, obtained from family members and relatives, teachers Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition pg no. 845 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21504 | A 27-year-old has just had an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following events would be most likely to predispose to ectopic pregnancy? | [
"Previous tubal surgery",
"Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)",
"Use of a contraceptive uterine device (IUD)",
"Induction of ovulation"
] | Any factor delaying transit of the ovum through the fallopian tube may predispose a patient to ectopic pregnancy. The major predisposing factor in the development of ectopic pregnancy is pelvic inflammatory disease. However, any operative procedure on the fallopian tubes may increase a patient's risk. It appears that tubal sterilizations with laparoscopic fulguration have a higher rate of ectopic pregnancy than tubal ligations performed with clips or rings. Women who have had one ectopic pregnancy are at increased risk of having a second. DES exposure, induction of ovulation, and IUD use increase the possibility of ectopic pregnancy | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1066 | All are to access platelet functions except -a) Prothrombin timeb) Bleeding timec) Clot retraction timed) Prothrombin deactivation | [
"ad",
"c",
"ac",
"ab"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35129 | The pathognomonic feature of classic alpo syndrome is: | [
"Lenticonus and hematuria",
"Hematuria and sensorineural hearing loss",
"Sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus",
"Hematuria and hyperextensibility of joints"
] | The diagnosis of classic alpo syndrome is based on X-linked inheritance of hematuria, sensorineural hearing loss, and lenticonus. The lenticonus together with hematuria is pathognomonic of classic Alpo syndrome. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 3213-14 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39604 | Lazy S incision is used while operating for | [
"Seabrooks operation",
"Parotidectomy",
"Submanandibular calculi removal",
"All of the above"
] | Lazy S incision is used for parotidectomy. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7839 | Which of these does not cause crescentric glomerulonephritis - | [
"Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis",
"Alport syndrome",
"Goodpasture syndrome",
"Henoch schonlein purpura"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32370 | The law of insanity and criminal responsibility is embodied in section | [
"83 IPC",
"84 IPC",
"85 IPC",
"86 IPC"
] | B. i.e. (84 - IPC) (6.27 - Parikh 6th)* The law of insanity and criminal responsibility is embodied in section 84 IPC while section 85 and 86 deal with drunkenness and criminal responsibilityIMPORTANT - SECTIONS***Perjury (Giving false evidence)-191-IPC*Fabricating false evidence-192 IPC*Punishment for false evidence-193 IPC*Culpable homicide-299 IPC*Murder-302 IPC***Criminal negligence-304 - A IPC*** Dowry death-304 - B IPC*Abetment of suicide-306 IPC*Attempt to commit suicide-309 IPC***Grievous hurt (Kerala 08)-320 IPC*** Rape-375 IPC** Punishment of Rape-376 IPC* Issuing or signing a false certificate is punishable under section 197 IPC*** **Tests for criminal responsibility - Right or wrong, Durham's, Curren's | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9850 | F plasmid of high frequency recombination is a - | [
"Extrachromosomal",
"Chromosomal",
"Mesosomes",
"Ribosomes"
] | EXTRA CHROMOSOMAL GENETIC MATERIAL Plasmids are circular DNA molecule present in the cytoplasm of bacteria, Capable of autonomous replication (independent replicons). by their ability to transfer genes from one cells to another , plasmids have become impoant vectors in genetic engineering . plasmids may also be seen in yeasts, which are eukaryotes. Plasmid DNA may sometimes be integrated with chromosomal DNA. The name episome was employed for such integration forms,though this distinction is not usually made now. Plasmids have been classified in many ways depending on whether they are self transmissible or nontransmissible on the propey encoded by restriction endonuclease finger printing or other criteria. REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:60 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43849 | Hand foot mouth syndrome is caused by - | [
"Parvovirus 6",
"Parvovirus 19",
"Coxsackie virus A 16",
"Coxsackie virus A 19"
] | HFMD id caused by coxsackie virus A16,A9,B1-3 REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.491 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11200 | Which of the following is a differential of giant cell tumor? | [
"Ossifying fibroma",
"Non-ossifying fibroma",
"Osteogenic sarcoma",
"Chondroblastoma"
] | Eccentric lytic lesion with no calcification is the commonest differential. Calcification: Ossifying fibroma, chondroblastoma osteosarcoma hence non-ossifying fibroma is a preferred answer here. Non-ossifying fibroma Benign (non-cancerous) Eccentric Age <15 years Non-aggressivetumor Metaphyseal lesion Sclerotic margin Histologically Giant cell with foam cell Note: Closest differential is ABC. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_402 | Females with vaginal atresia are characterized by all except | [
"Lack lower portion of vagina.",
"Normal external genitalia.",
"Normal pubertal maturation.",
"Becomes apparent in 1st decade."
] | Vaginal atresia doesnot become apparent until menarche. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15006 | Which of the following drug prevents the transmission of HIV from an infected pregnant mother to the child | [
"Zidovudine",
"Lamivudine",
"Didanosine",
"All of the following"
] | Nevirapine and zidovudine are used to prevent vertical transmission of HIV from pregnant females to the baby | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9244 | Which of the following is the most serious and life-threatening blood dyscrasias caused with a drug: | [
"Aplastic anemia",
"Megaloblastic anemia",
"Thrombocytopenia",
"Hemolytic anemia"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51684 | Chromosome associated with bipolar disease? | [
"Chromosomel6",
"Chromosome 13",
"Chromosome 14",
"Chromosome 11"
] | B i.e. Chromosome 13 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48860 | Septic arthritis is caused by: | [
"N.gonorrhoea",
"E.coli",
"Mycobacterium tuberculosis",
"All of the above"
] | Ans: d (All of the above) Ref: Bailey, 24,h ed, p. 420All the given organisms can cause septic arthritis in different age groups.Most common cause of septic arthritis - Staph aureus (in all age groups)More common in neonates- E. coli& Group B. StreptococciSickle cell anemia patients are susceptible to salmonella arthritis.Aerobic gram negative organisms cause discitis in elderly.Brucella & Mycobacterium TB are common in tropics. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48778 | Crossed aphasia means- | [
"Right hemispherical lesion in right handed person",
"Right hemispherical lesion in left handed person",
"Left hemispherical lesion in left handed person",
"Left handed lesion in right handed person"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3530 | Advantages of light activated composite resins are: | [
"Extended working time",
"Reduced resistance to wear or abrasion",
"Better resistance to wear or abrasion",
"All of the above"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12021 | Chorionic villous sampling is needed in all except | [
"Neural tube defects",
"Downs syndrome",
"Thalassemia",
"noonan syndrome"
] | Chorionic villous sampling(CVS) is done at the 10 - 13 week of gestation to diagnose conditions which could be debilitating or life threatening for the unborn fetus. Neural tube defects are best assessed at a later gestation around 20 weeks though the earliest to be picked up is ANENCEPHALY which can be picked up by 10-12 weeks with USG. The most specific indicator for Neural tube defects is the acetylcholinesterase | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3489 | Missing cases are detected by | [
"Active surveillance",
"Passive surveillance",
"Sentinel surveillance",
"Prevalence rate"
] | Sentinal surveillance is a method of identifying the missing cases and thereby supplementing the notified cases. Helps to estimate disease prevalence. Repoing bias minimized. Note: India is the 1st country to have Sentinal surveillance set up for follow up of cataract surgeries. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 24th edition - Page no. 45 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4237 | When closure in intercuspal position is attained during
mastication, movement stop for about _________ msec
before another cycle begins. | [
"194 msec",
"94 msec",
"394 msec",
"594 msec"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39578 | Non traumatic amputation is seen in? | [
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Leprosy",
"All of the above"
] | ANSWER: (D) All of the aboveREF: The Washington manual general internal medicine subspecialty consult Geoffrey S. Cislo, Thomas M. De Fer, Katherine E. Henderson Page 178, The Epidemiology of Diabetes Mellitus, Jean Marie Ekoe, Marian Rewers, Rhys Williams Page 573Amputations are the loss of a body part. Amputations are divided into Traumatic Amputations (those involving loss of a body part caused by an injury) and Non-traumatic Amputations. The later often occurs secondary to diabetes, poor circulation, or infection.Diabetes is the most common cause of non-traumatic amputation of the lower limb. This is primarily a result of peripheral neuropathy. 60% of non-traumatic lower-limb amputations occur among diabetics in the US (National Diabetes Statistics fact sheet, NIDDK, 2003)Causes of non traumatic amputation:Diabetes mellitusOsteomyelitisPeripheral neuropathySickle cell anemiaLeprosyPeripheral vascular diseaseAero osteolysis neurogenicCharcot-Marie-Tooth disease, Type 2BCompartment Syn dromeFrostbiteGangreneMycetomaSensory Neuropathy | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54045 | Commonest among diseases with Mendelian inheritance is – | [
"Autosomal dominant",
"Autosomal recessive",
"X–linked recessive",
"X–dominant"
] | It is estimated that the combined incidence of mendelian inheritance (autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, x-linked) in man is about 1% of all live born individuals.
As many as 793 autosornal dominant phenotypes, 629 autosomal recessive traits and 123 sex linked diseases have been catalogued to date. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16013 | In cytochrome P450, P stands for: | [
"Pigment",
"Polymer",
"Structural proteins",
"Substrate protein"
] | Cytochrome P450:
The main reaction involved in phase 1 metabolism is hydroxylation, catalyzed by a family of enzymes known as monooxygenases or 'mixed-function oxidases.'
There are at least 57 cytochrome P450 genes in the human genome.
Cytochrome P450 is a heme enzyme.
They exhibit an absorption peak at 450 nm.
Approximately 50% of the common drugs that humans ingest are metabolized by isoforms of cytochrome P450.
They also act on steroid hormones, carcinogens and pollutants.
In addition to their role in metabolism of xenobiotics, cytochrome P450 are important in the metabolism of a number of physiological compounds — for example, the synthesis of steroid hormones and the conversion of vitamin D to its active metabolite, calcitriol.
NADPH is required to reduce cytochrome P450.
Lipids which are components of cytochrome P450 is phosphatidyl choline. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47573 | The recent treatment of short bridle passable stricture of urethra in the penile and bulbous urethra is- | [
"Internal urethrotomy with Thompson-Walker's urethrotome",
"Optical internal urethrotomy",
"Syme's operation",
"Wheelhouse operation"
] | Campbell says “The data show that strictures at the bulbous urethra that are < 1.5 cm in length and not associated with dense, deep spongiofibrosis (i.e. straddle injuries) can be managed with internal urethrotomy, with a 74% moderately long-term success rate.”
• Internal urethrotomy refers to any procedure that opens the stricture by incising it transurethrally .
• Internal urethrotomy is done for short, soft, passable, bulbar stricture.
• The urethrotomy procedure involves incision through the scar to healthy tissue to allow the scar to expand (release of scar contracture) and the lumen to heal enlarged.
• MC complication of internal urethrotomy is recurrence of stricture.
• The data show that strictures at the bulbous urethra that are < 1.5 cm in length and not associated with dense, deep spongiofibrosis (i.e. straddle injuries) can be managed with internal urethrotomy, with a 74% moderately long-term success rate . | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19853 | Investigation of choice for perthe's disease | [
"TC 99 scan",
"MRI",
"CT Scan",
"X-ray"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18343 | Hepatitis C virus is a ? | [
"Togavirus",
"Flavivirus",
"Filovirus",
"Retrovirus"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Flavivirus | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46878 | Genomics is defined as :- | [
"Introduction of a gene sequence into a cell with an aim to modify the cell's behavior",
"To isolate a DNA sequence and then produce its multiple copies",
"Human manipulation of genetic material by recombinant techniques",
"To characterize the complete genetic makeup (structure and sequence of genes) of an or... | Genomics: Is the science which strives to define and characterize the complete genetic make-up(structure and sequence of genes) of an organism. Is also known as 'Study of genomes of organisms'. Genome: Is sum total of genetic information of an individual, encoded in structure of DNA. Genetics: Is the science which investigates roles and functions of a single gene. Gene therapy : Introduction of a gene sequence into a cell with an aim to modify the cell's behavior. Gene cloning: To isolate a DNA sequence and then produce its multiple copies. Genetic engineering: Human manipulation of genetic material by recombinant techniques. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21788 | You are asked to evaluate an infant born vaginally 3 hours previously to a mother whose only pregnancy complication was poorly controlled insulin dependent gestational diabetes. The nursing staff noticed that the infant was breathing abnormally. On examination, you find that the infant is cyanotic, has irregular, labored breathing, and has decreased breath sounds on the right side. You also note decreased tone in the right arm. You provide oxygen and order a stat portable chest radiograph, which is normal. Which of the following studies is most likely to confirm your diagnosis? | [
"Nasal wash for viral culture",
"Fiberoptic bronchoscopy",
"Chest CT",
"Chest ultrasound"
] | Infants born to mothers with gestational diabetes are at risk for being large for their gestational age and thus at increased risk for peripheral nerve injuries such as Erb-Duchenne and phrenic nerve paralysis. An ultrasound or fluoroscopy of the chest would reveal asymmetric diaphragmatic motion in a seesaw manner. While a chest film can be normal as in this case, an elevated hemidiaphragm may be observed. With a negative chest radiograph, a chest CT would not be helpful at this point. Bronchoscopy would help delineate airway abnormalities and foreign bodies, but would not identify phrenic nerve paralysis. | D | null |
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