dataset
string
id
string
question
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choices
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rationale
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answer
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subject
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medmcqa
medmcqa_38754
In tubo-tympanic CSOM commonest operation done is:
[ "Modified radical mastoidectomy", "Radical mastoidectomy", "Simple mastoidectomy", "Tympanoplasty" ]
(d) Tympanoplasty(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2; 997)Management of tubo-tympanic CSOM is tympanoplastyRadical and modified radical mastoidectomy are done for unsafe CSOM.Simple mastoidectomy or Schwartze operation is done for acute and coalescent mastoiditis.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_49156
True statement about symmetrical lUGR with respect to asymmetrical lUGR :
[ "Worse prognosis", "Late onset", "Brain sparing effect", "More common" ]
Intrauterine growth retardation refers to those fetuses that have failed to achieve their own genetic growth potential. Features of symmetrical IUGR: Uniformly small Ponderal index(Bih weight/Crown heel length) -Normal HC:AC and FL:AC Ratios-Normal Etiology: Genetic disease or Infection,Early onset Severe HTN Intrinsic to fetus. Early onset. All organs equally affected HC/AC and FL/AC normal Poor neonatal prognosis Features of Asymemetrical IUGR Head larger than Abdomen Ponderal Index-Low HC/AC and FL/AC ratios- Elevated Chronic placental insufficiency Extrinsic to fetus Late onset Usually uncomplicated having Good prognosis. REF: DC DUTTA'S TEXT BOOK OF OBS, 9th edition,page 432
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_52578
Giant platekets are seen in all these conditions except
[ "Bernard Soulier syndrome", "Glanzmann thrombasthenia", "May Heggalin anamoly", "Gray platelet syndrome" ]
Glanzmann thrombasthenia is associated with normal sized platelets. Rest are associated with giant platelets.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_49449
Aphthous ulcers are known as -
[ "Canker sores", "Marjolin's ulcer", "Curling's ulcer", "Cushing ulcers" ]
Aphthous ulcers Also known as Canker Sores These are superficial Ulcerations of the oral mucosa. The lesions may be Single or multiple. Ulceration is surrounded by an erythematous halo and is Covered by a thin exudate.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_35526
Which is not true regarding varicocele -
[ "Testicular veins involved", "More common on the right side", "May be the first feature of a renal tumour", "Feels like a bag of worms" ]
Ans:B.)More common on Right Side.VaricoceleA varicocele is an abnormal enlargement of the pampiniform venous plexus in the scrotum. This plexus of veins drains blood from the testicles.The varicoceles might be noticed as soft lumps, usually above the testicle and mostly on the left side of the scrotum. Some people who have them feel pain or heaviness in their scrotum. An obvious varicocele is often described as feeling like a bag of worms.Varicoceles are much more common (approximately 80-90%) in the left testicle than in the right because of several anatomic factors, including the following:The angle at which the left testicular vein enters the left renal veinThe lack of effective antireflux valves at the juncture of the testicular vein and renal veinThe increased renal vein pressure due to its compression between the superior mesenteric aery and the aoa (ie, nutcracker effect).Varicocele may be seen in Renal Tumor due to obstruction of the testicular vein
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_33244
In a patient with compensated liver cirrhosis presented with history of variceal bleed. The treatment of choice in this patient is
[ "Propanalol", "Liver transplantation", "TIPS(Transjugular intra hepatic poal shunt)", "Endoscopic sclerotherapy" ]
Management of variceal bleeding In addition to pharmacologic therapy endoscopy should be carried out as soon as possible If varices are found they are treated with either endoscopic ligation or sclerotherapy EVL is the treatment of choice for variceal bleeding Endoscopic scleropathy Variceal bleeding suspected based on history ABC's and resuscitation Sta vasopressin or octreotide infusion Variceal bleeding confirmed on EGD Endoscopic band ligation (or scleropathy) If bleeding stopped - Vasopressin/octreotide for 3-5 days. Complete 7 days of antibiotics. Repeat endoscopic banding every 10-14 days until eliminated If bleeding didn't stop - Balloon tampon ade consider TIPS or surgical shunt if TIPS fails or not vavilable Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1444
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29405
The color code of plastic bag for disposing microbial laboratory culture waste -
[ "Black", "Red", "Blue", "Yellow" ]
- microbial laboratory culture wastes comes under category 3. - the category 3 wastes should be disposed in red colour plastic bag. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no :793,794 <\p>
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_25920
An 85-year-old ventilator-dependent male was endotracheally intubated 10 days ago. He remains unresponsive and is not a candidate for early extubation. The intensive care unit (ICU) attending elects to perform tracheostomy at the bedside. During the procedure, copious dark blood is encountered. This is most likely due to transection of which of the following:
[ "Anterior jugular vein", "External jugular vein", "Internal jugular vein", "Middle thyroid vein" ]
The anterior jugular vein can cross the mid-line overlying the proximal trachea. Midline cervical dissection without adequate visualisation can injure the vein and require open surgical repair. The other veins do not cross the midline and are not generally at risk in tracheostomy.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_30606
A child presents with Hepatosplenomegaly, Abdominal distension, Jaundice, Anemia and Adrenal calcification. Which of the following is the Diagnosis ?
[ "Adrenal hemorrhage", "Wolman's disease", "Pheochromocytoma", "Addison's disaease" ]
Wolman disease is a congenital disease characterized by an impaired metabolism of the fats (lipids). It is the most severe type of lysosomal acid lipase deficiency. The lysomal acid lipase deficiency causes a buildup of lipids (fats) in body organs and calcium deposits in the adrenal glands. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8503
Lines of zahn occur in which of the following
[ "Postmoem clot", "Infract", "Embolus", "Coralline thrombus" ]
Ref Robbins 9/e p 125 thrombi often have grossly and microscopically apparent laminations called lines of zahn,these represent pale platelet and fibrin deposit altered with red cell rich layers .such laminations represent that thrombus has formed in flowing blood.their presence can be therefore distinguish antemoem thrombus from the bland non lamentated clots occuring in postmoem clot
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_54582
Which of the following are intracellular events occurring in fibroblast during synthesis of collagen-
[ "Hydrolysis of procollagen to collagen", "Glycosylation of proline", "Formation of triple helix", "Formation of covalent cross link b/w fibrils" ]
Formation of triple helix (of pre-a-chains) takes place intracellularly in RER. Formation of a cross-link between fibrils (i.e. self-assembly of tropocollagen monomers into mature collagen fiber) occurs extracellularly after secretion from fibroblasts. Glycosylation also occurs intracellularly, but its glycosylation of hydroxylysine (not of proline).
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_1216
Pulmonary wedge pressure is indirectly
[ "Left atrial pressure", "Right atrial pressure", "Right ventricular pressure", "Left ventricular pressure" ]
(A) Left atrial pressure # Pulmonary capillary pressure is about 10 mm Hg.> Whereas the oncotic pressure is 25 mm Hg, which keeps the alveoli free of fluid.> When pulmonary capillary pressure is more than 25 mm Hg - as it may be, for example, when there is "backward failure" of the left ventricle-pulmonary congestion and edema result.> Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or PCWP (also called the pulmonary wedge pressure or PWP, or pulmonary artery occlusion pressure or PAOP) is the pressure measured by wedging a pulmonary catheter with an inflated balloon into a small pulmonary arlerial branch.> Because of the large compliance of the pulmonary circulation, it provides an indirect measure of the left atrial pressure.> For example, it is considered the gold standard for determining the cause of acute pulmonary edema; this is likely to be present at a PCWP of >20mmHg.> It has also been used to diagnose severity of left ventricular failure and mitral stenosisCalculating PCWP is also important in diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).Physiological pressure: 6-12 mm Hg.
A
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medmcqa
medmcqa_21526
During Pomeroy's method of female sterilization, which poion of the tube is ligated ?
[ "Isthmus", "Ampullary", "Isthmo-ampullary", "Cornual" ]
Ans. is c i.e. Isthmo-ampullary I have given these 2 questions (4 and 5) simultaneously so that you understand how the answer changes as the options of the question change. Sterilization is done at the junction of proximal and middle third - the loop formed consists mainly of isthmus and pa of the ampullary region of the tube. Therefore if in options- isthmo-ampullary is given, it is the best choice but if isthmo ampullary is not given Isthmus is the next best choice.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47368
Structure passing along with the aoa in the diahragmatic opening :
[ "Thoracic duct", "Greater splanchnicn nerve", "Sigmoid mesocolon", "Internal iliac aery" ]
A i.e. Thoracic duct
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32457
The intra-abdominal pressure during laparoscopy should be set between:-
[ "5-8 mm of Hg", "10-15 mm of Hg", "20-25 mm of Hg", "30-35 mm of Hg" ]
Laparoscopy Needle used for pneumoperitoneum veress needle Most commonly used gas: CO2 Flow of gas: 1L /min Intra-abdominal pressure: 12-15 mm Hg Trocar is inseed at or just below the umbilicus penetrating skin, superficial & deep fascia, fascia transversals & parietal peritoneum
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31486
Eggs does not Float on saturated salt solution is
[ "Fertilised egg of Ascaris", "Trichuris trichura", "H. Nana", "Unfertilized egg of Ascaris." ]
Eggs that Float E. granulosis H.Nana All Nematodes (except unfertilised egg of Ascaris)
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_28242
Which prostaglandin helps in cervical ripening?
[ "PGI2", "PGF2", "PGE2", "PGD2" ]
Dinoprostone - PGE2. Orally - to augmenting labor & to check PPH. Vaginally- softens the cervix before labor induction. Preferred over oxytocin for labor induction in pre-eclampsia, eclampsia, cardiac & renal disease. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY;7TH EDITION;KD TRIPATHI;PAGE NO 189
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_5761
Congenital anomalies that can be identified by USG are all except: September 2009
[ "Hydrops fetalis", "Esophageal atresia", "Anencephaly", "Cystic hygroma" ]
Ans. D: Cystic Hygroma Common anomalies that can be seen in USG are: Cranial anomalies-anencephaly, hydrocephalus.choroid plaexus cysts Spinal anomalies-Spina bifida occulta and Spina bifida apea Fetal hea Fetal abdomen and abdominal wall-Esophageal atresia, omphalocoele, gastroschisis Hydrops f etalis
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_28604
Which of the following is used for treatment of myopia:
[ "Nd: YAG laser", "Excimer laser", "Argon laser", "Holmium laser" ]
Ans. Excimer laser
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_20924
A patient has a right homonymous hemianopia with saccadic pursuit movements and defective optokinetic nystagmus. The lesion is most likely to be in the
[ "Frontal lobe", "Occipital lobe", "Parietal lobe", "Temporal lobe" ]
Right nomonymous hemianopia with saccadic pursuit movements and detective optokinetic nystagmus confirms the diagnosis of perietal lobe lesion. Optokinetic Nystagmus: - It can be elicited in all normal individuals. Defect in optokinetic nystagmus and lesions of brain associated with it. In a case of hemianopia due to lesions of the parietal lobe optokinetic nystagmus is absent. Other lesions where optokinetic Nystagmus is defective:- Frontal lobe lesions - it inhibits this response only temporarily. Brainstem lesions - it results in asymmetry of this response in vertical plane.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53654
Most sensory information reaches the cortex after first being processed by the:
[ "Basal ganglia", "Brain stem", "Thalamus", "Cerebellum" ]
(C) Thalamus > There is a major input from the anterolateral systems into the mesencephalic reticular formation. Thus, sensory input activates the reticular activating system, which in turn maintains the cortex in the alert state.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_33268
All of the following are features of temporal lobe lesions Except:
[ "Wernicke's Aphasia", "Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia", "Auditory hallucinations", "Hemineglect" ]
Answer is D (Hemi neglect): Hemineglect or neglect of contralateral side is a feature of Parietal lobe lesion (Non dominant hemisphere) and is not a feature of temporal lobe lesion. Wernicke's Aphasia contralateral superior homonymous quadrantopia and auditory hollucinations are all features of temporal lobe lesions.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_27110
Primary hyperparathyroidism is caused by ?
[ "Parathyroid hyperplasia", "Adenosis", "MEN 1", "All" ]
Answer is 'a' i.e. Parathyroid hyperplasia; 'b' i.e. Adenosis; 'c' i.e. MEN 1 Hyperparathyrodism is defined as elevated serum PTH due to increased secretion. It is of two types. a) Primary & b) Secondary with a rare third type - c) Teiary Primary hyperparathyroidism Primary hyperparathyroidism is due to intrinsic abnormality of one or more parathyroid glands: Single Adenoma --> 83% Multiple Adenomas ---> 6% Hyperplasia --> 1% Carcinoma --> 1% Adenomas and hyperplasia of the parathyroid usually occur sporadically, but in few cases, they are pa of familial syndromes Familial syndromes associated with Primary Hyperparathyroidism MEN type 1-Wermer's syndrome MEN type 2a - Sipple syndrome Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia Secondary Hyperparathyroidism Sec. hyperparathyroidism is increased secretion of PTH by the parathyroids in response to a lowered serum ionized calcium level Causes - Chronic renal failure (most common cause) - Malabsorption syndrome - Vitamin D deficiency - Medullary carcinoma of thyroid Teiary Hyperparathyroidism Teiary hyperparathyroidism follows long standing secondary FIPT when the chronically stimulated parathyriod glands act independently of the serum calcium concentration. Autonomous hypersecretion of PTH may persist despite correction of the underlying condition.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_45993
Blue ear drum is seen in:
[ "Tympanosclerosis", "Secretory otitis media", "Otosclerosis", "Myringitis bullosa" ]
The "blue ear drum" generally refers to a condition in which blood or blood products are found in the middle ear. After all possible causes for hemotympanum, including blood dyscrasias and trauma are searched for and ruled out, the patient may have chronic serous otitis media accompanied by bloody effusion. Treatment for all of these patients is conservative, consisting of medical therapy and, if need be, myringotomy and inseion of ventilation tubes. In spite of proper treatment, rarely the condition may progress, over a long period of time, to a state of intractability. Characteristic findings are a hypocellular mastoid, hyperplastic and metaplastic mucoperiosteal lining, including the presence of glands and cysts and Cholesterin granuloma. The recommended procedure is a modified radical mastoidectomy, placement of silicone rubber sheeting in the middle ear and inseion of a ventilation tube. It is to be emphasized that mastoid surgery is rarely indicated for these patients and only after all else has failed.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_38415
Which of the following is a wrong association ?
[ "HPV - CaCx", "EBV - Burkitt's lymphoma", "HHV 8 - Kaposi sarcoma", "CMV - Nasopharyngeal carcinoma" ]
Ans. is 'd' i.e., CMV-Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_27261
All of the following forces are involved in antigen antibody reaction, EXCEPT:
[ "Vander Waal's forces", "Electrostatic bond", "Hydrogen bond", "Covalent bond" ]
Answer is D (Covalent bond) : The combination between antigen and antibody is effected during the primary stage of an Ag-Ab reaction. This reaction is essentially reversible and effected by the weaker intermolecular forces such as: Vander Waal's, Hydrogen bonds, Ionic bonds and not by the firmer covalent bonds. Frequently asked questions on immunoglobulins: Immunoglobulin to fix complements classical pathway Immunoglobulin to fix complements alternate pathway Immunoglobulin with maximum serum conc. Immunoglobulin with minimum serum conc. Immunoglobulin that in heat labile Immunoglobulin in primary immune response Immunoglobulin in secondary immune response Immunoglobulin with maximum molecular weight Immunoglobulin present in milk Immunoglobulin with maximum sedimentation coefficient Immunoglobulin with shoest 1/2 life Immunoglobulin in seromucinous glands Immunoglobulin resp. for hypersensitive pneumonitis Immunoglobulin mediating the prausnitz Kustner reaction Homocytotropism is seen in which Ig IgG & IgM (IgM > IgG)Q IgAQ & IgDQ IgGQ IgEQ IgEQ IgMQ IgGQ IgMQ IgAQ & IgGQ IgMQ IgEQ IgG & IgAQ IgGQ IgEQ IgEQ
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_2
A 11-year-old boy presents in the outpatient department with complaints of not developing secondary sexual characteristics. On examination, child is found to have tall stature, no secondary sexual characteristics. Testes are found to be small and firm and gynecomastia is noted. What is the most probable clinical diagnosis?
[ "Klinefelter's syndrome", "Edwards syndrome", "Patau syndrome", "Turner syndrome" ]
Ans. A. Klinefelter syndromeKlinefelter syndrome is a genetic condition that results when a boy is born with an extra copy of the X chromosome.Klinefelter syndrome is a common genetic condition affecting males, and it often isn't diagnosed until adulthood. It refers to a form of hypogonadism comprising small testis, failure of development of secondary sexual characteristics and increased gonadotropins. Affected males tend to be shy and sensitive and difficulty expressing thoughts and feelings.Chromosomal analysis reveals 47 XXY karyotype. As the number of X chromosomes increases beyond 2, the clinical manifestations increase correspondingly. Management includes behavioral and psychosocial rehabilitation.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53224
Bevelling of the skull is seen in the:
[ "Broad end of the entry point in bullet injury", "Narrow end of the entry point in bullet injury", "Exit point of bullet", "Depressed fracture of the skull" ]
Broad end of the entry point in bullet injury
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_24013
Fordyce's Granules Oral cavity arise from -
[ "Mucous glands", "Sebaceous glands", "Taste buds", "Minor salivary glands" ]
Fordyce's spot represents ectopic sebaceous glands on lips (most common site) and oral mucosa. They may also appear on vulva and penis, where they are called Tyson's gland, i.e., ectopic sebaceous gland at penis (prepuce) and vulva is called Tyson's gland. These glands have histopathology similar to normal sebaceous glands, despite their ectopic location. They are regarded as hamartomas as they are not associated with hair follicles (In contrast to normal sebaceous glands which have their ducts in hair follicles). Fordyce's spot is totally benign condition which occurs in normal people. It is characterized by discrete, pin-head sized superficial, light or yellow milia-like, maculo-papular lesions in the mucous membrane of lips (especially vermilion portion), and sometimes buccal mucosa. The condition usually appears at puberty and is more common in males. Fordyce's spots are often confused with koplik's spot of measles → There is erythematous halo around the Koplik's spot which is not there in Fordyce's spot. As the condition is asymptomatic, no treatment is required, other than reassurance. Oral isotretinoin can be used for large disfiguring spots.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13622
Epiphyseal tumor is -
[ "Osteoclastoma", "Chondromyxoid fibroma", "Osteosarcoma", "Ewing sarcoma" ]
GCT is an osteolytic tumor arising from the epiphysis and is common between the age of 20-40 years.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_39182
Reinke's edema is seen in -
[ "Vestibular folds", "Edges of vocal cords", "Between true & false vocal cords", "In pyriform fossa" ]
null
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_22950
With regards to imaging of primary extra nodal lymphomas, in which of the following sites does extra nodal Hodgkin's disease most commonly occur:
[ "Spleen", "Thymus", "Thyroid", "Small bowel" ]
At presentation, Hodgkin disease is usually supra diaphragmatic which means thymus is involved due to contiguous spread from one nodal group to the next along the lymphatic pathways. Hence thymus is involved before spleen and other abdominal organs. Thyroid gland is rarely involved in Hodgkin lymphoma.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_10404
Daing motility is shown by ?
[ "Listeria", "Campylobacter", "Borrelia", "Mycoplasma" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Campylobacter
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_54711
Drug used for Buerger's disease:
[ "Xanthinol nicotinate", "Propranolol", "CCBs", "All of the above" ]
Xanthinol Nicotinate Xanthinol nicotinate (or xanthinol niacinate or complamina) is a vasodilatorQ. It is a combination of xanthinol and niacin (nicotinic acid) This vasodilator is used in the treatment of Raynaud's phenomenon and Buerger's disease. All other forms of pharmacologic treatment have been generally ineffective in the treatment of Buerger's disease, including, steroids, calcium channel blockers, reserpine, vasodilators, antiplatelet drugs.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_44057
The height of a child is double the bih height at the age of _________
[ "1 year", "2 years", "4 years", "6 years" ]
The infant measures approximately 50cm at bih, 60cm at 3 months, 65cm at 6 months, 70 cm at 9 months, 75cm at 1 yr and 90cm at 2 yr. A normal Indian child is 100cm tall at the age of 4 yr. Thereafter, the child gains about 6cm in height every year, until the age of 12 yr. After this, increments in height vary according to the age at the onset of pubey Ref : Essential pediatrics, op ghai , 8th edition pg no:13.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32774
In opioid overdose treatment of choice is
[ "Naloxone IV", "Nalorphine IV", "Haemodialysis", "Forced alkaline diuresis" ]
(A) Naloxone IV
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_49782
What is the cut off value for Mid Upper Arm circumference (MUAC) to diagnose severe malnutrition?
[ "11.5 cms", "12.5 cms", "13.5 cms", "14.5 cms" ]
Ans. A. 11.5cmsMUAC is widely used measurement and requires minimum equipment. It increases rapidly in the first year (11-16cms) and then is found to be relatively stable between the ages 1 and 5 years at a value of 16-17cms. Any value below 13.5cms is abnormal and suggestive of malnutrition. However, a value below 11.5cms is suggestive of severe malnutrition.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29851
All are true bout Oral anticoagulants EXCEPT:
[ "Acts in vivo", "Acts both in vivo and in vitro", "Interferes with synthesis of Vit K", "Causes Hematuria" ]
Ans. (b) Acts both in vivo and in vitro* ORAL ANTICOAGULANT is warfarin. It is used only in vivo (body), NOT in vitro (lab).* Warfarin is not used to store blood.* It acts by inhibiting Vitamin K. Due to overdose, hematuria is the First manifestation noted.* Dose monitoring is done by INR.* Antidote of warfarin overdose: Vitamin KPT (Prothrombin Time)aPTT (activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)* Assess activity of Extrinsic coagulation pathway* Used when on warfarin treatment* WePT: Warfarin for extrinsic; PT value assessed.* Assess activity of Extrinsic coagulation pathway.* Used while on heparin treatment.* HINT: Heparin for Intrinsic; aPTT value assessed.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53943
Most common site of intracranial hemorrhage is
[ "Basal ganglia", "Brainstem", "Cerebellum", "Hippocampus" ]
The most common locations of hypeensive ICH are: 1) Basal ganglia (putamen or caudate), 2) Thalamus, 3) Pons and 4) Cerebellum. Within the basal ganglia region, it is rare for an ICH to specifically affect one area; Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2334
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_43874
All are true about local potential except
[ "Does not follow all or none low", "Can be depolarised or hyperpolarised", "It is proportional to stimulus strength", "Summation not possible" ]
Local Potential  Proportional to stimulus strength Does not follow all or none law It is not propagated Exhibits summation Can be depolarising / hyperpolarising
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_15898
A 45 years male presented with chief complaints of abdominal pain with associated nausea, diarrhea, fatigue, abdominal discomfo, anorexia, weight loss, diarrhea, and jaundice. On imaging of the liver with ultrasound, it shows intra- and extra- hepatic dilatation and strictures with intraductal pigmented stones,What can be the causative agent?
[ "Clonorchis sinensis", "Enterobius ( Pin worm)", "Strongyloides stercoralis", "Ancylostoma duodenale" ]
Parasites which can cause biliary obstruction: Cestodes??" Echinococcus granulosus Trematodes??" Fasciola hepatica, Opisthorchis, Clonorchis sinensis(oriental / chinese liver fluke) Nematodes??" Ascaris lumbricoides
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_19600
Naturally, occurring glucocoicoid is
[ "Hydrocoisone", "Coisol", "Prednisolone", "Coicosterone" ]
Glucocoicoids (GC) are a class of steroid hormones that bind to the glucocoicoid receptor (GR), which is present in almost every veebrate animal cell. The name glucocoicoid (peaining to glucose +coex ) derives from its role in the regulation of the metabolism of glucose, its synthesis in the adrenal coex.Coisol is the major natural glucocoicoid elaborated by the adrenal coex; it affects the metabolism of glucose, protein, and fats and has mineralocoicoid activityHydrocoisone a steroid hormone, of the adrenal coex, active in carbohydrate and protein metabolism, similar to coisone in effect.Prednisolone is a synthetic coicosteroid, derived from coisol and used as an anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive, and antiallergic drug.Coicosterone is a coicosteroid that is involved in water and electrolyte balance.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-362
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_53351
Which of the following studies have given coronary risk factor and their relative impoance-
[ "Framingham study", "noh kerala study", "Standford study", "MONICA STUDY" ]
since 1951, one of the best known large prospective studies the Framingham study,has played a major role in establishing the nature of CAD risk factors and their relative impoance.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34774
A 36-year-old primigravida develops peripheral edema late in the second trimester. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 155/95 mm Hg. Urinalysis shows 2+ proteinuria, but no blood, glucose, or ketones. At 36 weeks, she gives birth to a normal viable but low-birth-weight infant. Her blood pressure returns to normal, and she no longer has proteinuria. Which of the following pathologic findings is most likely to be found on examination of the placenta?
[ "Chorioamnionitis", "Chronic villitis", "Hydropic villi", "Multiple infarcts" ]
Toxemia of pregnancy in this case is best classified as preeclampsia because she has hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, but no seizures. The placenta tends to be small because of reduced maternal blood flow and uteroplacental insufficiency; infarcts and retroplacental hemorrhages can occur. Microscopically, the decidual arterioles may show acute atherosis and fibrinoid necrosis. Chorioamnionitis is most often due to ascending bacterial infections and leads to, or follows, premature rupture of membranes. A chronic villitis is characteristic of a congenital infection such as cytomegalovirus. Placental hydrops often accompanies fetal hydrops in conditions such as infections and fetal anemias. In a partial mole, a fetus is present, but it is malformed and rarely live-born.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_44608
An anaesthetist is using Mallampati classification for which of the following purpose?
[ "Inspection of oral cavity before intubation", "Size of the airway", "Size of the ET tube", "Tracheostomy tube" ]
Mallampati classification is based on the structures seen with maximal mouth opening and tongue protrusion without phonation in the sitting position. The observer's eye should be at the level of the patient's mouth. This classification correlates with intubation difficulty. Mallampati classification (Modified by Samsoon and Young): Mallampati Class Intraoral structures visible Class I Soft palate, fauces, uvula, pillars Class II Soft palate, fauces, poion of uvula Class III Soft palate, base of uvula Class IV Hard palate only (later added by Samsoon and Young)
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_30304
Do the embryological first pharyngeal arches remain?
[ "Sphenomandibular ligament", "Stylohyoid ligament", "Stylomandibular ligament", "Styloid ligament" ]
The pa of the cailage extending from the region of the middle ear to the mandible disappears, but it's sheath forms the anterior ligament of the malleus and the sphenomandibular ligament Ref: Human Embryology, Inderbir Singh, 10th edition, page no: 131
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_42970
The metabolic functions of insulin include all of the following except:
[ "Increased glycogen synthesis in liver", "Decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis", "Increase lipoprotein lipase activity", "Increase transport of glucose into the deep tissue" ]
Insulin is secreted from the beta cells of the pancreas.  It lowers the blood glucose levels.  It stimulates glucose transport into muscle and adipose tissue. It stimulates the activity of glycogen synthase thus it promotes glycogen storage in the liver. It inhibits hepatic glucose production by decreasing glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.  It also inhibits lipoprotein lipase thus decreases hydrolysis of triglycerides in the adipose tissue.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_18988
Biochemical oxygen demand is determined by
[ "Oranic matter and bacteria", "Oxygen content", "Alage content in water", "Agriculture fertiliser content in water." ]
Ans. is 'a' . Organic matter & Bacteria. "The strength of sewage is expressed in terms ofBiochemical oxygen demandChemical oxygen demandsSuspended solids demand""Biochemical Oxygen demand -It is the most important test done on sewage. It is defined as the amount of oxygen absorbed by a sample of sewage during a specified period, generally 5 days, at a specified temperature, generally 20 deg. G, for the aerobic destruction or use by organic matter and living organisms. BOD value ranges from about 1 mg per litre for natural waters to about 300 mg per litre for untreated domestic sewage. If the BOD is 300 mg/I and above, sewage is said to be strong ; if it is 100 mg/l, it is said to be weak."
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_43890
A 6 month old child presents with congenital inguinal hernia. Next step would be:March 2012, September 2012
[ "Observation", "Wait for 3 years & operate", "Operate immediately", "Truss" ]
Ans: C i.e. Operate immediately
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_6644
A young 8-year old boy presents with multiple discrete, shiny, pin-head papules on dorsal aspect of hand, forearms and shaft of penis. The diagnosis is:
[ "Molluscum contagiosum", "Scabies", "Lichen planus", "Lichen nitidus" ]
Ans. d. Lichen nitidus (Ref: Mark Lebwoht 2/e p345)A young 8-year-old boy presents with multiple discrete, shiny, pin-head papules on dorsal aspect of hand, forearms and shaft of penis. The diagnosis is Lichen nitidus.FeatureLichen NitidusMolluscum contagiosumLichen planusSymptomsAsymptomaticAsymptomaticItchy (marked)Cutaneous lesion* Multiple, discrete (or closely grouped), minute, pinpoint to pinhead sizedQ (1-2mm), flat/ round or dome shaped papule with a glistening (shiny surface)Q* Papules are flesh colored or pink or shiny hypopigmentedQ (in blacks)* Extremely small, pinkJshiny pearly white/or flesh-skin coloredQ, dome shaped hemispherical papules with a characteristic central dell or umblicationQ* Containing a grayish central plug (pore) and white curd like substanceQ* It may enlarge slowly* Larger, plain (flat) topped, polygonal, pruritic, pink/purple (violaceous) papuleQWickham's striaeAbsentAbsentPresentQGroupingPresentQPresentQUsually notMucous membrane involvementUncommonNot commonCommonQ (Variably present)Site* Most frequently on flexural surfaces of upper extremities i.e. arm, forearm, wrist and dorsal surface of hands, lower abdomen, breast, the glans and shaft of penis and other areas of genital regionQ* Intertriginous sites such as axillae, popliteal fossa and groinQ.* Genital and perianal lesions can develop in children and mostly are non-STD* Hypertrophied, hyperplastic epidermisQ with intact basal cell layer.* Above the basal layer, enlarged cells containing large intracytoplasmic inclusions (Handerson - Paterson bodies) are seen.* Flexures (wrist), extremities (shin), lower back and genitalsQGrouped pinhead lesions on elbow. abdomen, penis and dorsum of hand in a child as shown in the picture is highly suggestive of lichen nitidus.Lie hen scrofulosorum is an uncommon asymptomatic lichenoid eruption of minute papule occurring in children and adolescents with strongly positive tuberculin reaction. It mainly involves perifollicular distribution on abdomen, chest, back and proximal limbs. A hallmark is that superficial epitheloid dermal granuloma surround hair follicles and sweat ducts and may occupy several dermal papillae. Lichen NitidusLesion and etiology are similar, but size is smaller 1.2 mm (pinhead sizeQ)Occurs as grouped lesions on elbow, abdomen, penis and dorsum of handQMucosal or nail changes are rareSelf limiting, non-itchyQHistopathology:Dense, circumscribed and distinctive infiltrate of histio-lymphocytic cells situated directly beneath thinned epidermis results in widening of papillary dermis with elongation and the appearance of embracement by neighboring rete ridges ( Ball in clutch appearanceQ).Thinned epidermis demonstrates central parakeratosisQ, variable /focal hyper keratosis without hypergranulosis, minimal hydropic degeneration and few dyskeratotic cellsTreatment:Antihistaminics particularly AstemazoleQ is effective. Lichen ScrofulosorumLichen scrofulosorum is a lichenoid eruption of minute papulesQOccurs in children and adolescents with tuberculosis.Pathogenesis:Usually associated with chronic tuberculous disease of the LNs and honesQClinical Features:Eruption is asymptomatic and is usually confined to the trunkQ.Lesions consist of symptomless, small, firm, follicular or parafollicular papules of a yellowish or pink color with flat-top or bear a minute homy spine or fine scales on their surfaceQ.It mainly involves perifollicular distribution on abdomen, chest, back and proximal limbsQ.Histopathology:A hallmark is that superficial epitheloid dermal granuloma surround hair follicles and sweat ducts and may occupy several dermal papillaeQ.Treatment:Antituberculous therapy results in complete resolution within a matter of weeksQ.FeatureLichen NitidusLichen planusSymptomsAsymptomaticItchy (marked)Cutaneous lesionMultiple, discrete (or closely grouped), minute, pinpoint to pinhead sizedQ (1- 2mm), flat/ round or dome shaped papule with a glistening (shiny surface)Q.Papules are flesh colored or pink or shiny hypopigmentedQ (in blacks)Larger, plain (flat) topped, polygonal, pruritic, pink/purple (violaceous) papuleQWickham's striaeAbsentPresentQGroupingPresentQUsually notMucous membrane involvementUncommonCommonQ (Variably present)SiteMost frequently on flexural surfaces of upper extremities i.e. arm. forearm, wrist and dorsal surface of hands, lower abdomen, breast, the glans and shaft of penis and other areas of genital regionQFlexures (wrist), extremities (shin), lower back and genitalsQScabiesInfestation caused by Acarus or Sarcoptes scabieQUsually a disease of children, with no gender predilectionMainly involving lower socio economic strata living in poor hygiene and crowdingTransmitted by close physical contact from human to human or from pets to human.Thus there are often several cases in same householdEpidemiology:Incubation period: 2-4 weeksQMC symptom: Itching (worse at night)Family history of similar itchy eruptions in close contactQMorphology of lesions and variants:Primary lesions are of three types:Burrow: Serpentine (S-shaped) path traversed by parasite in stratum corneumQ. It is pathognomic of lesion Papules and papulovesicles: Due to hypersensitivity to the mite Fine pin head size follicular papulesSecondary lesions:Pustules due to 2deg infection is one of commonest form of presentationEczematized exudative crusted lesions, in infants and children are predominant lesionsNodular lesions are seen on scrotumQ (MC), groin, and anterior axillary fold (Nodular scabies)Variants/Types:Crusted Norwegian scabies is most severeQ form seen in immunocompromised or mentally ill patients, and showing hyperkeratotic crusted lesions on whole body.Scabies incognetio is wrongly treated with steroids.Site of predilection:In adults web of fingersQ, flexure aspect of wrist, ulnar aspect offorearm, anterior axillary fold, umbilicus, periumbilical fold, genitalsQ (penis and scrotum in males, nipple and areola in females), upper thigh, lower part of buttocks Back is rarely affectedScalp, face, palms and soles are characteristically spared in adultsQ.In Infants, scalp, face, palms and soles are typically involvedQ.An anatomical circle, encompassing the axial, elbow flexures, wrists, hands, and genital region has been referred to as the circle of Hebra.Site of predilection for scabies is circle of HebraQ.Scabies and scabies in circle of hebra (both) simulate sabra dermatitis seen in prickly pears (eg. cactus with spines and glochids) pickers.TreatmentDrug of choice: PermethrinQ (1st) > BHCQ (2nd)Oral drug (only): IvermectinQOther drugs: Benzyl benzoateQ 25%, CrotamitonQ 10%, Malathion, MonosulfiramIn 2deg infection: IV antibioticsScabicides should be applied to the whole body (below jaw line in adults) to all members of family whether symptomatic or notQOrdinary laundering of cloths and bed linen. Mites any way die in unworn clothes in ~ 7 days.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3633
For which one of the following tumors Gastrin is a biochemical marker?
[ "Medullary carcinoma of thyroid", "Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor", "Pheochromocytoma", "Gastrointestinal stromal tumor" ]
Gastrin is secreted by Gastrinomas, which are neuroendocrine tumors most commonly found in duodenum. Gastrinoma:- Type of pancreatic Neuro endocrine tumor(PNET) Patient with MEN I syndrome have more chance of developing gastrinoma. -Other neuroendocrine tumor is carcinoid tumor. -Marker of medullary carcinoma of thyroid is calcitonin and GIST is CD117 (c-kit) -GIST- Mesenchymal tumor.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_48130
Peripheral blood smear in Plasmodium falciparum infection may show all of the following except -
[ "Male gametocyte", "Trophozoite", "Female gamatocyte", "Schizont" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_48681
The following are the indications for performing thoracotomy after blunt injury of the chest, except:
[ "100 ml drainage after placing an intercoastal tube", "Continous bleeding through intercostal tube of more than 200 ml/hour for three or more hours", "Cardiac tamponade", "Rib Fracture" ]
Indications of thoracotomy: Initial tube thoracostomy drainage of >1000ml (Penetrating injury) or >1500 ml (blunt injury) Ongoing tube thoracostomy drainage of >200 ml/hr for 3 consecutive hours in non-caogulopathic patients Caked hemothorax despite of placement of two chest tubes Tracheobronchial injury Selected descending torn aoa or great vessel injury Pericardial tamponade Cardiac herniation Massive air leak from chest tube with inadequate ventilation Open Pneumothorax Esophageal perforation Ref: Sabiston 20th edition PGno: 427, 429
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_41011
In an epidemic first to be done is -
[ "Identity the cases", "Confirm the diagnosis", "Identify The prone people", "Identify the causative factors" ]
verification of diagnosis is the first step in the investigation of an epidemic.it is necessary to examine all cases before arriving at a diagnosis.a clinical examination of a sample of cases may suffice.laboratary investigations can also be employed in such way that it is not delaying any of the epidemiological investigations concerned. ref:park&;s textbook,ed22,pg no 123
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_30884
'Intermediate form' of Non hodgkin's lymphoma is ?
[ "Small noncleaved cell", "Diffuse, small cleaved cell", "Lymphoblastic", "Large cell immunoblastic" ]
Ans is b' i.e., Diffuse, small cleaved cellWorking formulation of NHL for clinical usage is as follows:Low grade :small lymphocyticFollicular, predominantly small cleaved cellFollicular mixedIntermediate Grade :1. Follicular predominantly large cell2. Diffuse small, mixed , as well as large cell.High grade :Large cell immunoblasticLymphoblasticSmall non cleaved cell.Note that all varieties of diffuse fall in the intermediate grade category only.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_1089
Time dependent killing is shown by -
[ "Aminoglycosides", "Fluoroquinolones", "Linezolid", "All of the above" ]
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Linezolid o Some, antimicrobial drugs have time dependent effect while others have concentration dependent effects :1. Time dependent effect# Action depends on length of time concentration remains above MIC, e.g. for macrolides fi-lactam. clindamycin, linezolid, tetracycline, and streptogramin.2. Concentration dependent effect# Action is dependent on peak concentration of drug, e.g. for aminoglyco-sides, quinolones, daptomycin, and metronidazole.o Post-antibiotic effect (PAE) is persistent suppression of microbial growth that occurs after levels of antibiotic have fallen below MIC. It is seen in aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, daptomycin, metronidazole, macrolides, tetracycline, clindamycin, linezolid and streptogramins.Time dependent killingNo post-antibiotic effectAll (3-lactams, vancomycinTime dependent killing with prolonged post-antibiotic effectAzithromycin, clindamycin, Linezolid, Macrolides, tetracyclines, streptogramin, tigecyclin, telithromycinConcentration dependent killing with prolonged post-antibiotic effectAminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones, daptomycin, metronidazole.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_37086
Drug acting tyrosine kinase receptor is
[ "TRH", "TSH", "Insulin", "MSH" ]
Drugs acting on tyrosinase kinase receptors - Prolactin Insulin Growth hormone TRH, TSH and MSH acts on GPCR receptors
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13903
The age and sex structure of a population can be described by a
[ "Life table", "Correlation coefficient", "Population pyramid", "Bar cha" ]
The age and sex structure of a population are best represented by &;age pyramid&;.Developing countries have a broad base and tapering top. Developed countries show a bulge in the middle and have a narrower base.Park 23e pg: 482
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_37287
First rank symptoms of schizophrenia are all except
[ "Ambivalence", "Running commentary", "Primary delusion", "Somatic passivity" ]
First Rank Symptoms (SFRS) of Schizophrenia 1. Audible thoughts: Voices speaking out thoughts aloud or 'thought echo'. 2. Voices heard arguing: Two or more hallucinatory voices discussing the subject in the third person. 3. Voices commenting on one's action. 4. Thought withdrawal: Thoughts cease and subject experiences them as removed by an external force. 5. Thought inseion: Experience of thoughts imposed by some external force on person's passive mind. 6. Thought diffusion or broadcasting: Experience of thoughts escaping the confines of self and as being experienced by others around. 7. ' Made' feelings or effect. 8. 'Made' impulses. 9. 'Made' volition or acts: In 'made' affect, impulses and volitions, the person experiences feelings, impulses or acts which are imposed by some external force. In 'made' volition, for example, one's own acts are experienced as being under the control of some external force. 10. Somatic passivity: Bodily sensations, especially sensory symptoms, are experienced as imposed on the body by some external force. 11. Delusional perception: Normal perception has a private and illogical meaning. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 55
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47658
A3 month baby will have -
[ "Pincer grasp", "Head control", "Sitting with suppo", "Transfer objects" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Head control o Pincer grasp develops by 9 months. o Head control develops by 3 months. o A child can sit with suppo by 5 months. o A chid can transfer the object from one hand to another by 5-7 months. o A child can use 2 words with meaning by 1 year.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_44333
The professional antigen presenting cells are
[ "Endothelial cells", "Dendritic cells", "T cells", "B cells" ]
Professional APC Express MHC class II molecules Dendritic cells Immature dendritic cells (Langerhans cells) Macrophages B cells Non - professional APC Do not express MHC class II molecules Stimulated by cytokines like IFN Fibroblasts Thymic epithelial cells Thyroid epithelial cells Glial cells Pancreatic beta cells Endothelial cells
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_54683
Which of the structure in central nervous system where the major autonomic reflex centers are found?
[ "Cerebellum", "Medulla oblongata", "Hypothalamus", "Thalamus" ]
The medulla oblongata, commonly called the medulla, is located at the level of the foramen magnum. It serves as the major autonomic reflex center that relays visceral motor control to the hea, blood vessels, respiratory system, and gastrointestinal tract. It possesses the nuclei for the glossopharyngeal, vagal, accessory, and hypoglossal nerves (CNN IX, X, XI, and XII, respectively). Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 16. Brain. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_27844
Which one of the following is used as an irrigation solution during transurethral resection of the prostate?
[ "1.5% glycine", "Physiological saline", "Ringer's lactate", "5% dextrose" ]
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1.5% glycine
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_647
All of the following are known predesposing factors for cholangiocarcinoma except :
[ "CBD stones", "Clonorchis sinensis", "Ulcerative colitis", "Primary sclerosing cholangitis" ]
Answer is A (CBD stone) : Cholelithiasis is not clearly a predisposing factor for Cholangiocarcinoma - Harrison The predisposing factors of cholangiocarcinoma include : I. Chronic hepato-biliary parasite infection (Clonorchiasis or Asiatic cholangio-hepatitis) Q Congenital Anomaly with ectatic ducts (Choledochal cyst).Q Sclerosing cholangitis Q Ulcerative colitis Occupational exposure to carcinogensQ(Rubber + Automotive plants) Note: Nodular lesions that arise at the bifitrcation of hepatic ducts are called Klastskin tumors. Q
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_37120
Which of the following is a nonculturalable fungus-
[ "Rhinosporidium", "Candida", "Sporothrix", "Penicillium" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34980
All of the following can cause acute pancreatitis except -
[ "Gall stones", "Alcohol", "Trauma", "Hepatitis" ]
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hepatitis Causes of Acute PancreatitisCommon CausesGallstones (including microlithiasis) - most commonAlcohol (acute and chronic alcoholism) - IInd most commonHypertriglyceridemiaEndoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP), especially after biliary manometryTrauma (especially blunt abdominal trauma)Postoperative (abdominal and nonabdominal operations)Drugs (L-asparginase, thiazide diuretics, frusomide, estrogens, azathioprime, 6-mercaptopurine, methyldopa, sulfonamides, tetracyclin, valproic acid, anti-HIV medications).Sphincter of Oddi dysfunctionUncommon causesVascular causes and vasculitis (ischemic-hypoperfusion states after cardiac surgery)Connective tissue disorders and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)Cancer of the pancreasHypercalcemiaPeriampullary diverticulumPancreas divisumHereditary pancreatitisCystic fibrosisRenal failureRare causesInfections (mumps, coxsackievirus, cytomegalovirus, echovirus, parasites)Autoimmune (e.g., Sjogren's syndrome)
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_3063
Radiation exposure during infancy has been linked to which one of the following carcinoma
[ "Breast", "Melanoma", "Thyroid", "Lung" ]
Ref Robbins 8/e p312,425 and 9/e p325 The most radiosensitive organ sites in the children in order of sensitivity are the thyroid gland ,breasts, bone marrow,brain,skin. Radiation, whatever its source (UV rays of sunlight, x-rays, nuclear fission, radionuclides) is an established carcinogen. Unprotected miners of radioactive elements have a 10-fold increased incidence of lung cancers. Follow-up study of survivors of the atomic bombs dropped on Hiroshima and Nagasaki disclosed a markedly increased incidence of leukemia--principally myelogenous leukemias--after an average latent period of about 7 years, as well as increased moality rates for thyroid, breast, colon, and lung carcino- mas. The nuclear power accident at Chernobyl in the former Soviet Union continues to exact its toll in the form of high cancer incidence in the surrounding areas. More recently, it is feared that radiation release from a nuclear power plant in Japan damaged by a massive eahquake and tsunami will result in significantly increased cancer incidence in the surrounding geographic areas. Therapeutic irradiation of the head and neck can give rise to papillary thyroid cancers years later. The oncogenic propeies of ionizing radiation are related to its mutagenic effects; it causes chromosome breakage, translocations, and, less frequently, point mutations. Biologically, double- stranded DNA breaks seem to be the most impoant form of DNA damage caused by radiation. The oncogenic effect of UV rays merits special mention because it highlights the impoance of DNA repair in car- cinogenesis. Natural UV radiation derived from the sun can cause skin cancers (melanomas, squamous cell carcino- mas, and basal cell carcinomas). At greatest risk are fair- skinned people who live in locales such as Australia and New Zealand that receive a great deal of sunlight. Non- melanoma skin cancers are associated with total cumula- tive exposure to UV radiation, whereas melanomas are associated with intense intermittent exposure--as occurs with sunbathing. UV light has several biologic effects on cells. Of paicular relevance to carcinogenesis is the ability to damage DNA by forming pyrimidine dimers.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_28438
Monge's disease refers to:
[ "Primary Familial Polycythemia", "High Altitude Erythrocytosis", "Spurious Polycythemia", "Polycythemia Vera" ]
Answer is B (High Altitude Erythrocytosis) lionge's disease (Chronic :Mountain Sickness) is also known as High Altitude Pathologic Erythrocytosis. Chronic Mountain Sickness; Monge's disease; (High Altitude Pathologic Erythrocytosis; High Altitude Excessive Polycythem a) * Excessive Erythrocytosis (Hb>19 /dL for females and 21/dL for males) Chronic Mountain Sickness is a clinical * Hypoxemia syndrome that occurs in natives or long? * Pulmonary hypeension (in some cases) life residents above 2500m. Headache, * Right hea failure or Cor-Pulmonale (in severe cases) dizziness and fatigue are typical initial * Recovery on descent to low altitude presenting symptoms
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_34947
A man who had undergone total gastrectomy remains well for five years. Then he develops anaemia. What is the most likely cause of this anaemia ?
[ "Protein deficiency", "Zinc deficiency", "Folic acid deficiency", "Vitamin B12 deficiency" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_38882
All are major criteria for AIDS except -
[ "10% weight loss", "Diarrhoea for 1 month", "Cough for 1 month", "Fever for 1 month" ]
<p> Cough for one month is not a criteria for AIDS. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:348-49. <\p>
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_32941
Which of the following agents is not used in the treatment of Diabetic Macular Edema/ Retinopathy:
[ "Ruboxistaurim", "Pyridazinones", "Benfotiamine", "Tamoxifen" ]
Ans. Tamoxifen
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_39761
Diverticulum through the Killian's dehiscence is called:
[ "Pharyngeal pouch", "Palatine pouch", "Oesophageal pouch", "None" ]
Ans: a (Pharyngeal pouch) Ref: Dhingra, 3rd ed, p. 330 & 4th ed, p. 223Zenker's diverticulumIt is a pulsion diverticulum between 2 parts of inferior constrictorPathology: Arises b/w 2 parts of inferior constrictor due to neuromuscular incordination. The propulsive thyropharyngeal part is supplied by pharyngeal plexus. The sphincteric cricopharyngeus is supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve.Usually starts in midline posteriorly, then comes to lie in the leftSymptoms are dysphagia, regurgitation, cough, aspiration pneumoniaDiagnosis is by barium swallowTreatment:Excision of pouch & cricopharyngeal myotomyDohlmann's procedure - in debilitated patients
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_33263
Rectal adenoma is associated with ?
[ "Familial polyposis coli", "Hypokalemia", "Intussusception", "Hemorrhoids" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hypokalemia
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_13183
Which drug does not cause thyroid dysfunction ?
[ "Amiodarone", "Lithium", "PAS", "Paracetamol" ]
null
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_35304
The chemotherapeutic agents "Cisplatin" is associated with which side effects (SELECT 1 SIDE EFFECT)
[ "Hemorrhagic cystitis", "Renal failure", "Tympanic membrane fibrosis", "Necrotizing enterocolitis" ]
Cisplatin causes renal damage and neural toxicity. Patients must be well hydrated. Its mode of action does not fit a specific category. Taxol can produce allergic reactions and bone marrow depression. Bleomycin and doxorubicin are antibiotics whose side effects are pulmonary fibrosis and cardiac toxicity, respectively Vincristine arrests cells in metaphase by binding microtubular proteins and preventing the formation of mitotic spindles. Peripheral neuropathy is a common side effect.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_19784
A 55-year old woman was found to have Ca cervix, FIGO stage 2-3, locally advanced. What would be the management
[ "Surgery plus chemotherapy", "Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy", "Chemotherapy", "Radiotherapy plus HPV vaccine" ]
Ans. b. Radiotherapy plus chemotherapy Radiotherapy was cornerstone of advanced stage CA cervix management. Current evidence indicates that "concurrent chemotherapy" significantly improves overall and disease free survival of women with advanced cervical cancer. Thus most patients with Stage JIB to IVA are best treated with "chemoradiation". Cisplatin containing regimens are associated with best survival rates.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_31985
Herpes simplex encephalitis affects ………………………….. lobe
[ "Temporal", "Parietal", "Occipital", "Frontal" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_10601
All of the following are storage proteins, except?
[ "Ovalbumin", "Ricin", "Ferritin", "Glutelin" ]
Storage proteins are reserves of metal ions and amino acids. Found in plant seeds, egg whites and milk. Storage proteins are ovalbumin and glutelin. Ricin is a phytotoxin.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_19770
The assessment of Health Programme where the benefit is expressed in terms of results achieved is called -
[ "Cost benefit analysis", "Cost effective analysis", "Cost accounting", "Cost containment" ]
Ans. is `b' i.e., Cost effective analysis Cost-benefit analysi o The economic benefit of any programme are compared with the cost of that programme. o The benefits are expressed in monetary terms. Cost - effective analysis It is similar to cost - benefit analysis except that benefit, instead ofbeing expressed in monetary terms is expressed in terms of results achieved, e.g., number of live saved, the number of days free from disease. Cost-accounting Cost accounting establishes budget and actual cost of operations or processes and the analysis of variance, profitability or social use of funds.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_14641
A punch biopsy shows carcinoma rectum with fixed mass. X-ray chest normal, which of the following is least useful investigation-
[ "Rigid proctoscope", "Barium enema", "CT chest", "MRI- abdomen and pelvis" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_14314
Which of the following is the Nysten's law:
[ "Cadaveric rigidity does not appear in living people", "Cadaveric rigidity appears faster in older and the young than in the middle age", "Cadaveric rigidity occurs in men earlier than in the women", "Cadaveric rigidity affect successively the masticatory muscles, those of the face and the neck, those of the ...
Nysten's rule: It is a sequential development of rigor mois in the body after death. Sequence of appearance: Eyelids, Neck & lower jaw, then Face, Chest Muscles, Upper Limb, Abdomen, Lower limb and lastly Fingers and Toes. Rigor disappears in the same sequence cadaveric rigidity first appears in involuntary muscles; the myocardium becomes rigid in an hour. cadaveric rigidity first seen in myocardium than eye lid but first external site of cadaveric rigidity is eyelid.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_11826
Equatorial diameter of the lens is
[ "7mm", "8mm", "9mm", "10mm" ]
The lens continues to grow throughout life. At bih, it measures about 6.4 mm equatorially and 3.5 mm anteroposteriorly and weighs approximately 90 mg. The adult lens typically measures 9 mm equatorially and 5 mm anteroposteriorly and weighs approximately 255 mg. Ref. AAO Sec.11 (2011-2012) Pg.No. 7
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_52656
A 45 year old female patient comes for regular health checkup. Ultrasound reveals gallstones. She has a family history of gallstones. What is the treatment option
[ "Conservative management", "Cholecystectomy", "Antibiotics alone", "Tube cholecystectomy" ]
Generally less than 10% of the patients with asymptomatic gallstones develop symptoms over 5 years. So aymptomatic patients does not need surgery. Asymptomatic patients will undergo cholecystectomy in following conditions Porcelain gallbladder Family history of gallstones Diabetic Polyps.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_43155
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of warfarin?
[ "Activation of antithrombin lll", "Fibrinolysis", "Inhibition of antithrombin lll", "Inhibition of synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X" ]
Warfarin inhibits vitamin K-dependent coagulation factor synthesis. These include factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C and S. Warfarin acts to increase the prothrombin time. Factors XI and XII are not vitamin K-dependent factors. Therefore, warfarin does not inhibit their synthesis. Activation of antithrombin III is a mechanism of action used by heparin. It acts to prolong the paial thromboplastin time. Fibrinolysis is a mechanism of action used by thrombolytic agents such as streptokinase and urokinase. These agents conve plasminogen to plasmin, promoting fibrinolysis. Inhibition of antithrombin III would promote clot formation. The goal of anticoagulation is to prevent clot formation. Ref: Weitz J.I. (2011). Chapter 30. Blood Coagulation and Anticoagulant, Fibrinolytic, and Antiplatelet Drugs. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_49892
Proteins are soed by :
[ "Golgi Bodies", "Mitochondria", "Ribosomes", "Nuclear Membrane" ]
A i.e. Golgi bodies
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_50536
Which of the following has autosomal inheritance-
[ "Hemophilia", "Marfan syndrome", "CHD", "Gout" ]
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Marfan syndrome o Marfan syndrome is an autosomal disorder (autosomal dominant).o Hemophilia is X-linked recessive.o CHD and gout have multifactorial inheritence.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_43649
Which of the following is a negative phase proteins:
[ "Transthyretin", "C-Reactive Protein", "Ferritin", "Ceruloplasmin" ]
Ans. a. TransthyretinACUTE PHASE PROTEINPositive acute phase proteinNegative acute phase protein*. Ceruloplasmin*. INF-1*. Ferritin*. Transthyretin (Prealbumin)*. C-Reactive Protein*. Albumin*. HSCRP(Highly Sensitive CRP)*. Transferrin*. Serum amyloid A *. Fibrinogen *. Plasminogen activator inhibitor (PAI)
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_12701
False about diphtheria is
[ "M/c location of pseudomembrane is faucial", "Diphtheria is toxaemia", "Antidiphtherial serum of (20,000- 1 lakh units) is given in cutaneous diphtheria", "Myocarditis is the chronic complication" ]
Anti diphtherial serum is not indicated in cutaneous diphtheria.
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_5664
Which of the following muscles is responsible for abduction of vocal cord
[ "Posterior cricoarytenoid", "Lateral cricoarytenoid", "Cricoarytenoid", "Transverse arytenoid" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_44128
Break bone fever is cuased by -
[ "Variola", "Coxsackie", "Arbovirus", "Adenovirus" ]
Break bone fever is caused by the dengue virus. REF:<\p>ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.523
C
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16308
A 22-year-old woman complains of palpitations and has a regular heartbeat at a rate of 170/min, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg. The rate abruptly changes to 75/min after applying carotid sinus pressure. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
[ "sinus tachycardia", "paroxysmal atrial fibrillation", "paroxysmal atrial flutter", "paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)" ]
The patient most likely has PSVT since the tachycardia terminates after carotid sinus massage (CSM). CSM increases vagal tone (parasympathetic) which decreases AV nodal conduction and terminates AV node re-entry arrhythmias. Sinus tachycardia differs from PSVT tachycardia in that it does not start or stop abruptly. In PSVT, the QRS is usually narrow without clearly discernible P waves. A wide QRS in PSVT can result from a preexisting bundle branch block, or a functional bundle branch block secondary to the tachycardia. This can make the distinction from a ventricular arrhythmia quite difficult.
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_1860
In vision 2020 of NPCB, center of excellence are-
[ "20000", "2000", "200", "20" ]
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 20 o 'Vision 2020: The Right to Sight', is a global initiative launched by WHO in 1999 in a broad coalition with a 'Task Force of International Non-Governmental Organisations (NGOs)' to combat the gigantic problem of blindness in the world.o Objective of vision 2020. Objective is to eliminate avoidable blindness by the year 2020 and to reduce the global burden of blindness.o Government of India has adopted 'Vision 2020: Right to Sight' under National Programme for Control of Blindness.o Based on the recommendations of WHO. there is need to develop the infrastructure pyramid wrhich includesPrimary level Vision CentresThere is a need to develop 20000 vision centres,y Each with one Ophthalmic Assistant or equivalent (Community based MLOP)y Covering a population of 50000.Service Centres.There is need to develop 2000 service centres at secondary# level.Each with two ophthalmologists and 8 paramedics (Hospital based MLOP), and one eye care manager,Covering a population of 5 lacs.Training CentresThere is a need to develop 200 "Training Centres' for the training of Ophthalmologists.Covering a population of 50 lacs.Centre of Excellence (COE)There is need to develop 20 COE with well de\>eloped all sub specialities of Ophthalmology\Covering a population of 5 crores.The infrastructure for Vision 2020
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_47623
Middle cerebellar peduncle transmits fibres of -
[ "Ponto cerebellar pathway", "Tectospinal pathway", "Spinocerebellar pathway", "Olivo cerebellar pathway" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_14166
First cellular change in hypoxia:
[ "Decreased oxidative phosphorylation in mitochondria", "Cellular swelling", "Alteration in cellular membrane permeability", "Clumping of nuclear chromatin" ]
null
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_46357
A 78-year-old man is brought to the hospital because of persistent nausea and vomiting. On examination he appears dry, his abdomen is soft, and the JVP is not visible. Laboratory investigations reveal hypernatremia (158 mEq/L) and his calculated free water deficit is approximately 3 L. What segment of the normal kidney is most of the water reabsorbed from?
[ "collecting ducts", "proximal tubule", "distal tubule", "ascending loop of Henle" ]
The largest volume of water is reabsorbed in the nephron at the proximal convolution. Maximally concentrated urine depends on ADH, which allows distal convoluted tubes and collecting ducts to become permeable to water.
B
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_28008
Burst Fracture of spine is a -
[ "Compression Fracture", "Extension injury", "Direct injury", "Flexion - rotation" ]
Burst fracture (crushed communited fracture) is caused by axial (vertical) compression injury.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_29676
For untreated Myocardial infarction condition, select the blood or urine value that best distinguishes Myocardial infarction condition from the others. All values are measured after an overnight fast and are compared with those of a normal individual.
[ "Increased troponin I", "Increased blood ketone bodies", "Decreased creatinine in the urine", "Decreased blood lactate" ]
Tissues contain characteristic isozymes or mixtures of isozymes. Enzymes, such as lactate dehydrogenase and creatine kinase (CK), differ from one tissue to another. Lactate dehydrogenase contains four subunits. Each subunit may be either of the heart (H) or the muscle (M) type. Five isozymes exist (HHHH, HHHM, HHMM, HMMM, and MMMM). CK contains two subunits. Each subunit may be either of the muscle (M) or the brain (B) type. Three isozymes exist (MM, MB, and BB). The MB fraction is most prevalent in heart muscle.Troponin I is found in large amounts in muscle cells. When a tissue is damaged, cellular enzymes leak into the blood. Heart muscle will release cardiac troponin I into the blood in response to a heart attack. In the absence of insulin, a person with type 1 DM will behave metabolically like a person undergoing prolonged starvation, except that blood glucose levels will be elevated. Lipolysis in adipose tissue will produce fatty acids, which will be converted to ketone bodies in the liver if the diabetes is left untreated. Because the blood glucose levels are also elevated, the brain continues to use glucose as a fuel, and the ketone bodies accumulate in the blood. Hepatitis and chronic alcoholism damage the liver, which would interfere with the urea cycle, leading to decreased BUN and increased ammonia in the circulation. Renal failure would display reduced creatinine in the urine and elevated creatinine in the blood.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16270
Narcolepsy is due to abnormality in
[ "Hypothalamus", "Neocoex", "Cerebellum", "Medulla oblongata" ]
Narcolepsy is the prototypical example of sleepiness produced by a basic CNS dysfunction of sleep mechanisms. The etiology stems from a genetically triggered Hypocretin dysfunction and deficit. It is apparent that the hypocretin system plays a critical role in narcolepsy. The Hypocretin producing cell bodies are specific to Hypothalamus and have widespread anatomical projections. Ref: Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11e, pg 548. Ebrahim IO, Howard RS et al. The Hypocretin/ Orexin system. J R Soc Med, 2002 May, 95(5), 227-30.
A
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_8994
Most common cause of rubeosis iridis -
[ "Tumor", "CRAO", "Radiation retinopathy", "Diabetic retinopathy" ]
Rubeosis iridis -neovascularisation of iris.it develops following retinal ischemia which is a common feature of: *proliferative diabetic retinopathy *central retinal vein occlusion *sickle cell retinopathy *Eale's disease Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:250
D
null
medmcqa
medmcqa_16896
A seven year old boy presented to the OPD with complaints of pain and discharge from left ear. On examination the patient was febrile with neck rigidity and positive Kernig's sign. Gram positive cocci were visualised in the gram stained specimen of the discharge. Most likely pathogen is?
[ "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "Staphylococcus aureus", "Haemophilus influenzae", "Staphylococcus epidermidis" ]
The history and clinical features are suggestive of otitis media with meningitis. Pneumococci are the most common cause of otitis media in children. Exclusion of the other options: Haemophilus influenzae is a gram negative bacilli Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus epidermidis are not commonly implicated in the causation of otitis media Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition
A
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