dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_29686 | Female patient with multiple, way lesions sessile, seen on vulva. Don't bleed on touch? | [
"Condyloma accuminata",
"Chancroid",
"Molluscum",
"Herpes genitalis"
] | Condyloma acuminata Caused by HPV 6>11 C/F- Pointed lesions ,Asymptomatic, pink verrucous lesion. Site - In males- Coronal sulcus, frenulum In females- Posterior fourchette Treatment- Topical {Imiquimod> Podophyllotoxin} | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28270 | Placement of double lumen tube for lung surgery is best confirmed by: | [
"EtCO2",
"Airway pressure measurement",
"Clinically by auscultation",
"Bronchoscopy"
] | D i.e. Bronchoscopy During thoracic surgery there may be a need for one lung to be deflated offering surgeon easier and better access. This is achieved by double lumen endotracheal tubes that allows anesthetist to selectively deflate one lung while maintaining standard ventilation ti of other. The position of the tube should be checked by auscultation immediately after intubation but the confirmation of correct placement of the tube should be done by flexible fiberoptic bronchoscopyQ EtCO2 (Persistent detection of CO2 by capnography) is best confirmation of tracheal placement endotracheal tube. Capnography can detect whether the tube is in trachea or oesophagus but cannot differentiate between tracheal intubation /endobronchial intubation. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31411 | False +ive VDRL test is/are seen in- | [
"Leprosy",
"Malaria",
"Relapsing fever",
"All"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Leprosy; 'b' i.e., Malaria; 'c' i.e., Relapsing fever | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25492 | Acoustic dip occurs at - | [
"2000Hz",
"4000 Hz",
"500Hz",
"1500 Hz"
] | Acoustic dip is dip seen in pure tone audiometry due to noise trauma, which is seen typically at 4 kHz i.e. 4000 Hz. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10393 | Aerial blood gas analysis of a patient reveals - pH 7.2, HCO3 36 mmol/L pCO2 70 mmHg. The abnormality is | [
"Respiratory acidosis with metabolic alkalosis",
"Respiratory acidosis",
"Respiratory alkalosis with metabolic acidosis",
"Respiratory acidosis with metabolic acidosis"
] | Answer- A. Respiratory acidosis with metabolic alkalosisIn this patientpH - DecreasedHCO3 - IncreasedPCO2 - IncreasedPCO2 is increased which indicates respiratory acidosisHCO3- is increased which indicates metabolic alkalosisThus this is a case of mixed disorder, where respiratory acidosis and metabolic alkalosis exist together. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52285 | Microalbuminuria is defined as albumin | [
"<30 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection",
"30-300 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection",
"300-550 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection",
">550 microgms/24 hrs. urine collection"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28549 | Which ATT drug is to be avoided in pregnancy - | [
"INH",
"Rifampicin",
"Streptomycin",
"Ethambutol"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Steptomycin o Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal ototoxicity,o Recommended treatment in pregnancy is (2HRZ + 4HR) for 6 months by WHO and British Thoracic Society,o Ethambutol can be added during late but not early pregnancy.o In India, treatment for pregnant women is 2HRE + 7 HR (Total 9 months). | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38194 | Inhalational agent of choice in children: | [
"Sevoflurane",
"Isofurane",
"Desflurane",
"Halothane"
] | A. i.e. Sevoflurane | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31775 | Advantage of desmopressin over vasopressin in the treatment of diabetes insipidus is that desmopressin : | [
"Causes less formation of factor VIII",
"Causes less hypernatremia",
"Is more selective for V2 receptor subtype",
"Provides greater relief of excessive thirst the patient is experiencing"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22208 | Pathological nipple discharge is mostly associated with? | [
"Fibroadenoma",
"Duct papilloma",
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Lobular carcinoma"
] | Ans. (b) Duct papillomaRef: Bailey & Love 24th ed p 828, Schwartz 9thed ch-17 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38652 | All of the following are used in the treatment of hyperkalemia except: | [
"Calcium gluconate",
"Hypertonic saline",
"Sodium bicarbonate",
"Insulin"
] | b. Hypertonic saline(Ref: Nelson 20/e p 357-362)Drugs used in the treatment of acute hyperkalemia include: Calcium gluconate, Sodium bicarbonate, Insulin infusions & salbutamol nebulisation | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8479 | Suicidal enzyme is - | [
"C ycl oxygen ase",
"Lipoox ygen se",
"Dehydrogenase",
"Pyruvate kinase"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cycloxygenase | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50014 | The chemotactic factor is: | [
"C2a",
"C3b",
"C4a",
"C5a"
] | C5a is a chemotactic molecule specifically recognized by polymorphonuclear leukocytes or phagocytic cells.
This substance causes leukocytes to migrate to a tissue in which an antigen–antibody reaction is taking place.
At that site, a phagocytic cell recognizes opsonized particles and ingests them.
C5a not only has a chemotactic effect on neutrophils, but also activates these cells causing their reversible aggregation and release of stored enzymes, including proteases.
C5a also enhances the adhesiveness of neutrophils to the endothelium.
Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page:120 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14954 | Which of the following viral infections is associated with highest risk of progression to fulminant disease and acute liver failure: | [
"HEV infection",
"HBV Infection",
"HBV/HDV coinfection",
"HDV /HBV Superinfection"
] | Answer is D (HDV/HBV Superinfection) HDV superinfection of chronic Hepatitis B is associated with a 20 percent risk of progression to fulminant hepatitis and Acute Hepatic Failure. Feature HAV HCV HEV HBV Fulminant Infection 0.1% 0.1% 1-2 % HBV : 1 % (Acute Liver Failure) in HEV pregnant p HBV/HDV Co-infection : 5 % Women: 20% HDV/HBV Superinfection: 20 % Tendency to cause acute liver failure (fulminant infection) is highest with HDV Superinfection on Chronic Hepatitis B and Hepatitis E infection in pregnant women (up to 20 percent) Note: Hepatitis E is the most common cause of Acute Liver Failure in India Hepatitis B remains the most common viral agent responsible for Acute Liver Failure Worldwide Although Hepatitis E has a higher tendency to cause fulminant infection (1-2 %) in comparison to Hepatitis B infection (Up-to 1%), Hepatitis B is the most common cause of fulminant infection overall since the overall incidence of Hepatitis B Hepatitis is higher than the incidence of Hepatitis E Hepatitis Tendency to cause acute liver failure (fidminant infection) is highest with HDV Superinfection on Chronic Hepatitis B and Hepatitis E infection in Pregnant women (up to 20 percent) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29449 | Fallots tetralogy manifestation | [
"Left axis detion",
"Left ventrucular hyperophy",
"VSD",
"All"
] | Answer is C (VSD ) Tetralogy of Fallot is associated wit Right axis detion Tetralogy of Fallot is associated with right ventricular Hyperophy Morphine is indicated in the management of-Anoxic Spells | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22401 | A post-operative cardiac surgical patient developed sudden hypotension, raised central venous pressure, pulsus paradoxus at the 4th post operative hour. The most probable diagnosis is: | [
"Excessive mediastinal bleeding",
"Ventricular dysfunction",
"Congestive cardiac failure",
"Cardiac tamponade"
] | Answer is D (Cardiac tamponade) Features of rising pressure, falling aerial pressure and pulsus paradoxus following surgery on the hea leads us to the diagnosis of cardiac tamponade. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19046 | Acne vulgaris is caused by- | [
"Staph aureus",
"Diphtheroids",
"Sweat gland hyperplasia",
"Obstruction to pilosebaceous duct"
] | D i.e. Obstruction to pilosebaceous duct | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33911 | A patient was brought to the ER with non stop talking, singing, uncontrollable behavior and apparent loss of contact with reality. It is diagnosed as a case of acute mania. Which of the following drugs is most suitable for rapid control of his symptoms? | [
"Lithium",
"Haloperidol",
"Valproate",
"Diazepam"
] | When the question clearly mentions rapid control of symptoms, antipsychotics are the preferred answer. For rapid control of agitation, and psychosis, usually Parenteral antipsychotics are used. Benzodiazepines can also be used. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31639 | What procedure was most recently performed on this patient? | [
"Mitral-valve repair",
"Pancreatectomy",
"Roux-en-Y gastric bypass",
"Thyroidectomy"
] | Answer A. Mitral-valve repairThe peripheral-blood smear showed schistocytes, spherocytes, and polychromasia suggestive of hemolytic anemia. Following mitral-valve repair, some patterns of the regurgitant flow disturbances associated with high shear stress are responsible for the hemolysis. Transesophageal echocardiography in this patient showed a jet of mild transvalvular mitral regurgitation. The hemolysis resolved after mitral-valve replacement. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47464 | most comon type of carcinoma thyroid is | [
"Anaplastic",
"Papillary",
"Follicular",
"Medullary"
] | The most common thyroud carcimoma is papillary carcinoma 75 - 85% of all cases. Option 2 is right. Robbins basic pahology. 7th edition. Chapter Endocrine system. Page no. 1177. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24931 | Endogenous triglycerides in plasma are maximally carried in | [
"VLDL",
"Chylomicrons",
"LDL",
"HDL"
] | VERY LOW-DENSITY LIPOPROTEINS Synthesis of VLDL They are synthesised in the liver from glycerol and fatty acids and incorporated into VLDL along with hepatic cholesterol, Apo-B-100, C-II and E. Apo-B-100 is the major lipoprotein present in VLDL when it is secreted. Apo-E and C-II are obtained from HDL in plasma. Metabolism of VLDL The half-life of VLDL in serum is only 1 to 3 hours. When they reach the peripheral tissues, apo-C-II activates LpL which liberates fatty acids that are taken up by adipose tissue and muscle. The remnant is now designated as IDL (intermediate density lipoprotein) and contains less of TAG and more of cholesterol . The major fraction of IDL fuher loses triglyceride, so as to be conveed to LDL (low-density lipoprotein). This conversion of VLDL to IDL and then to LDL is referred to as lipoprotein cascade pathway. A fraction of IDL is taken up by the hepatic receptors. Function of VLDL VLDL carries triglycerides (endogenous triglycerides) from liver to peripheral tissues for energy needs.Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 8th edition, page no: 153 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2165 | Feature of hemorrhagic disease of new born is - | [
"Prolonged prothrombin time",
"Defective platelet count",
"Prolonged bleeding time",
"Prolonged thrombin time"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49886 | Most common parotid gland tumour is | [
"Pleomorphic adenoma",
"Monomorphic adenoma",
"Primary lymphoma",
"Adeno carcinoma"
] | (A) Pleomorphic adenoma # Parotid tumours> Most common is pleomorphic adenoma (80-90%)> Low-grade malignant tumours cannot be distinguished from benign neoplasms> High-grade tumours grow rapidly are usually painful and often have lymph node involvement of presentation> CT and MRI are useful> Fine-needle aspiration is better than open biopsy> Tumours should be excised, not enucleated | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36477 | True about GVHD is? | [
"Occurs when host is immunocompetent",
"Most common organ involved is lung",
"Most common in renal transplant",
"Occurs when donor cells are immunocompetent"
] | Graft versus host (GVH) Disease:
Graft versus host disease occurs in any situation in which immunologically competent cells or their precursors are transplanted into immunologically crippled patients and the transferred cells recognize alloantigens in the host.
Graft versus host disease occurs most commonly in the setting of allogeneic bone marrow transplantation but may also follow transplantation of solid organs rich in lymphoid cells (e.g. the liver) or transfusion of un-irradiated blood.
Recipients of bone marrow transplants are immunodeficient because of either their primary disease or prior treatment of the disease with drugs or irradiation.
When such recipients receive normal bone marrow cells from allogeneic donors, the immunocompetent, T cells present in the donor marrow recognizes the recipient's HLA antigen as foreign antigen and react against them. Both CD4+ and CD8+T cells recognize and attack host tissues
In clinical practice, GVH can be so severe that bone marrow transplants are done only between HLA matched donor and recipient
There are three principal target tissues affected in GVHD : Skin, liver, and gut | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23937 | In cervical spondylosis the disc space narrowing is most often evident on x-ray at | [
"C3-C4",
"C4-C5",
"C5-C6",
"C6-C7"
] | Cervical disk herniation is usually posterolateral near the lateral recess and interveebral foramen and is most commonly encountered at C5-C6 level. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20139 | Sphenopalatine foramen opens in which wall of pterygopalatine fossa? | [
"Medial wall",
"Lateral wall",
"Superior wall",
"Inferior wall"
] | The pterygopalatine fossa is a small pyramidal space inferior to the apex of the orbitThe pterygopalatine fossa communicates to:DirectionPassageConnectionPosteriorlyforamen rotundummiddle cranial fossaPosteriorlypterygoid canal (Vidian)middle cranial fossa, foramen lacerumPosteriorlypalatovaginal canal (pharyngeal)nasal cavity/nasopharynxAnteriorlyinferior orbital fissureorbitMediallysphenopalatine foramennasal cavityLaterallypterygomaxillary fissureinfratemporal fossaInferiorlygreater palatine canal (pterygopalatine)oral cavity, lesser palatine canals | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37974 | Acute aoic reguritation can occur as a complication of all of the following conditions, except | [
"Acute MI",
"Infective endocarditis",
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"Marfan's syndrome"
] | Acute aoic regurgitation often occur as a complication of Marfan's syndrome, Ankylosing spondylitis and Infective endocarditis. Most common valvular complication of acute MI is mitral regurgitation not aoic regurgitation. Severe mitral regurgitation is seen in association with inferior myocardial infarction and involvement of posteromedial papillary muscle. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41890 | Endoscopes are strelized by: | [
"Glutaraldehyde",
"Autoclave",
"Formaldehyde",
"Hot air oven"
] | Glutaraldehyde | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33174 | Best epidemiological study to know Causality is: | [
"Coho study",
"Case control study",
"Cross sectional study",
"Ecological study"
] | Temporal association Implies 'cause precedes effect' or 'effect follows cause'. Is 'most impoant criterion' of casual association. Is ' best established by a coho study' (Especially concurrent coho study) as coho study is forward study. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16065 | Mifepristone is an antiprogestin agent. All of the following are indications of using mifepristone, EXCEPT: | [
"Aboion",
"Cushing's syndrome",
"PPH",
"Cervical ripening"
] | Therapeutic uses of Mifepristone: Termination of early pregnancy Cervical ripening Postcoital contraceptive Once a month contraceptive Induction of labour Cushing's syndrome (because of its anti-glucocoicoid activity) Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology by KD Tripathi, 5th edition, Page 283-284. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12317 | Not a differential Diagnosis for grey white membrane on Tonsil | [
"Candidiasis",
"Ludwig's Angina",
"Vincent's Angina",
"Malignancy tonsil"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35802 | A 40 year old male patient complains of decayed tooth. Patient gives history of class I cavity preparation and restoration with conventional amalgam with 26. Intra-oral examination reveals proximal caries with 26. The copper content of the restoration done in this patient is? | [
"2-5%",
"6%",
"12-30%",
"9%"
] | Low-copper amalgam alloys contain 2% to 5% copper. The earliest successful amalgams were made by combining filings of such alloys with mercury. A typical modern low-copper amalgam alloy may contain 69.4% Ag, 26.2% Sn, 3.6% Cu, and 0.8% Zn. Amalgams made from such low-copper alloy filings are often referred to as conventional amalgams. High-copper amalgam alloys contain 12% to 30% copper, and because of their higher copper content, they display significantly better corrosion resistance than low-copper amalgams.
Reference: Sturdevant’s Art and Science of Operative Dentistry, Mosby, 4th Edition, Page No: 149 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52622 | Grievous hurt is defined under: | [
"320IPC",
"318 IPC",
"321 IPC",
"375 IPC"
] | Ans: a (320 IPC) Ref: Reddy, 21st ed, p. 244Grievous hurt is defined under IPC 320Some important IPC'sIPC 375 - definition of rapeIPC 376 - punishment of rapeIPC 320 - definition of grievous heartIPC 84 - deals with the criminal responsibility of insaneIPC304A - deals with criminal negligenceIPC 304B - dowry deathIPC 300 - defines murderIPC 299 - defines culpable homicideIPC 302 - punishment of murderIPC 304 - punishment of culpable homicide | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20032 | Epstein Barr virus causes all the following Except | [
"Hodgkin's lymphoma",
"Kaposi's sarcoma",
"Nasopharyngeal carcinoma",
"Burkitt's lymphoma"
] | Kaposi's sarcoma is associated with HIV. Epstein Barr virus is best known as the cause of infectious mononucleosis(glandular fever). It is also associated with paicular forms of cancer, such as Hodgkin's lymphoma, Burkitt's lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma, and conditions associated with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), such as hairy leukoplakia and central nervous system lymphomas. There is evidence that infection with the virus is associated with a higher risk of ceain autoimmune diseases, especially dermatomyositis, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid ahritis, Sjogren's syndrome, and multiple sclerosis. Ref: Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 474 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27845 | Congenital toxoplasmosis - False is- | [
"Diagnosed by detection of IgM in cord blood",
"IgA is more sensitive than IgM for detection",
"Dye test is gold standard for IgG",
"Avidity testing must be done to differentiate between IgA & IgM"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44816 | Which type of Amyloidosis is caused by mutation of the transthyretin protein ?- | [
"Familial Mediterranean fever",
"Familial amyloidotic polyneuropathy",
"Dialysis associated amyloidosis",
"Prion protein associated amyloidosis"
] | In contrast with familial Mediterranean fever, a group of autosomal dominant familial disorders is characterized by deposition of amyloid predominantly in the peripheral and autonomic nerves. These familial amyloidotic polyneuropathies have been described in kindreds in different pas of the world--for example, in Pougal, Japan, Sweden, and the United States. As mentioned previously, the fibrils in these familial polyneuropathies are made up of mutant forms of transthyretin (ATTRs). Robbins 9 th edition page no. 156 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32518 | When activated by b-adrenergic receptors, the G protein: | [
"Activates phospholipase C",
"Activates adenylate cyclase",
"Activates protein kinase C",
"Conves guanosine diphosphate (GDP) to guanosine triphosphate (GTP)"
] | When norepinephrine binds to a beta-adrenergic receptor, it activates a G protein (i.e., a guanosine triphosphate (GTP) binding protein), which, in turn, activates adenylate cyclase. Adenylate cyclase catalyzes the formation of cyclic adenosine 3',5'-monophosphate (cAMP), which activates a variety of kinases. One of these kinases (protein kinase A) phosphorylates phospholamban, which reduces the inhibition of the sarcoplasmic reticular Ca2+ pump, increasing sequestration of Ca2+ from the cytoplasm. Ref: Biaggioni I., Robeson D. (2012). Chapter 9. Adrenoceptor Agonists & Sympathomimetic Drugs. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds),Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54762 | Paprika sign during debridement is crucial in management which of the following condition? | [
"Chronic osteomyelitis",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Osteoid osteoma",
"Brodies abscess"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chronic osteomyelitis Sequestrectomy and curettage for chronic osteomyelitis* Sequestrectomy and curettage require more time toperform and result in considerably more blood loss than aninexperienced surgeon would anticipate. Consequently,appropriate preparation should be made before surgery.Sinus tracks can be injected with methylene blue 24 hoursbefore surgery to make them easier to locate and exciseTechnique:* Expose the infected area of bone, and excise all sinus tracts completely.* Incise the indurated periosteum, and elevate it 1.3 to2.5 cm on each side.* Use a drill to outline an oval cortical window at the appropriate site, and remove it with an osteotome.* Remove all sequestra, purulent material, and scarred and necrotic tissue. If sclerotic bone sealsoff a cavity within the medullary canal, open it into thecanal in both directions to allow blood vessels to growinto the cavity. Use a high-speed burr to debride necrotic or ischemic bone until the "paprika sign" (active punctate bleeding bone) is achieved, indicating healthy tissue.Tissue obtained at surgical debridement should be sentfor culture and pathology studies.* After removing all suspicious matter, carefully excise the overhanging edges of bone. Subsequent dead space can be filled with antibiotic PMMA beads. A soft tissue, a localmuscle flap, or a free tissue transfer can be performed atthe time of bead removal.* If there is nonunion with any bony instability, the bonemust be stabilized, preferably with an Ilizarov-type external frame.* If possible, close the skin loosely over drains and ensurethat no excessive skin tension is present. If closure isimpossible, pack the wound open loosely or apply an antibiotic bead pouch and plan for delayed closure or skingrafting at a later time.* Appropriate antibiotics should be used before, during, and after the operation. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2544 | True about Folic acid | [
"Is also called as pteroyl glutamic acid",
"Is useful in carriage of one carbon atom moiety",
"Tetrahydrofolate is the active form",
"All of the above"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49462 | A hair is found at a crime scene and you are asked to evaluate whether it is of human origin. Which of the following attributes indicates that the hair will be of human origin? | [
"Medullary index of 0.5",
"Cuticle completely covers hair shaft",
"Pigment granules present in coex and medulla",
"Medullary index of 1"
] | The cuticle completely covers the hair shaft in human hair. It only paly covers the hair shaft in animal hair. Human hair has 3 pas: Cuticle - outermost layer; Coex - middle layer; Medulla - innermost pa. Coex is thick (4 - 10 times that of medulla) such that the medullary index is <0.3 (Medullary index=diameter of medulla/diameter of hair). The pigment in human hair is present only in the coex, where it is evenly distributed. Reference The Synopsis of FORENSIC MEDICINE and Toxicology 29th Edition | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24973 | Species identification is done by | [
"Neutron activation analysis (N.A.A.)",
"Precipitin test",
"Benzidine test",
"Spectroscopy"
] | B i.e. Precipitin test | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14439 | Congenital hypertropic pyloric stenosis is diagnosed by – | [
"CT",
"USG",
"MRF",
"X-ray"
] | USG is the investigation of choice for CHPS | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30461 | Which of the following syndromes have mitochondrial inheritance? | [
"Leigh's syndrome",
"NARP syndrome",
"MELAS syndrome",
"All of the above"
] | All are example of mitochondrial inheritance. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16694 | All of the following may be used for premedication except | [
"Diazepam",
"Pethidine",
"Atropine",
"Pancuronium"
] | Diazepam (benzodiazepine) is used for relieving anxiety, inducing good sleep and producing amnesia. Opioids for producing analgesia and atropine (anticholinergics) for drying up the secretions. Pancuronium is non-depolarizing muscle relaxant used during surgery to produce muscle relaxation. REf KATZUNG 12TH ed. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11960 | Which of the following is not an accepted method of randomization- | [
"Computer drawn randomization",
"Odd/even day hospital admission",
"Lottery",
"Random number table"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Odd/even day hospital admission Methods of Randomization o Randomization is accomplished in a number of classic ways 1. Lottery method Suppose 10 patients are to be put in a control group or the trial group out of 100 available. The serial numbers of patients are noted on 100 cards and then shuffled well. The cards are drawn one by one and thus patients are allocated into trial and control groups. 2. Table of Random Numbers Published tables of Random numbers are used. This is considered to be the best method of randomization. A computer program is used for randomization o Randomization methods , which may at first seem reasonable (odd-even day randomization or daytime-nighttime convenience randomization), may actually suppo bias, paicularly if the study is open-label or the operator or subject are not blinded as to the nature of the intervention. For example, if the study involves a procedure such as wound irrigation and the patients are randomized to have wounds irrigated with sterile saline on even days and tap water on odd days, a patient may present on an even day and the treating clinical investigator may elect not to enroll the patient in the study or to break the randomization, because they "just think that this paicular wound needs saline irrigation." This is a very common error in otherwise well-designed clinical studies. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20366 | Nerve supply of scalp: | [
"Auriculotemporal nerve",
"Zygomatic nerve",
"Occipital nerve",
"All"
] | A i.e. Auriculotemporal nerve; B i.e. Zygomatico temporal nerve; C i.e. Occipital nerve | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49829 | Which among the following gas is stored in liquid form? | [
"CO2",
"N2O",
"Cyclopropane",
"O2"
] | Storage Nitrous oxide is stored as a liquid in French blue cylinders with a gauge pressure of 51 bar at 20?C, which therefore bears no correlation to cylinder content until all remaining N2O is in the gaseous phase. N2O is usually stored below its critical temperature and so it is in simultaneous liquid and vapor phases. Miscellaneous Anaesthetics Colour coding of Gas cylinders Colour coding of Gas cylinders (for UK and ISO) : Substance Gas/vapour Symbol Colour coding Cylinder Colour coding Shoulder Oxygen Gas O2 Black White Nitrous oxide Vapour N2O Blue Blue Entonox Gas and Vapour N2O/O2 Blue White/Blue Air Gas AIR Black White/Black Carbon dioxide Vapour CO2 Grey Grey Helium Gas He Brown Brown Ref: Fundamentals of Anaesthesia By Tim Smith, Colin Pinnock, Ted Lin, 3rd Edition, Page 830. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17660 | All of the following method used for detecting heavy metals, except - | [
"Harrison & Gilroy test",
"Paraffin test",
"Neutron activation analysis",
"Atomic adsorption spectroscopy"
] | Tests used in firearm discharge
Based on detection of nitrate : Dermal nitrite (Paraffin) test.
Based on detection of heavy metal: Harrison and Gilroy test, neutron activation analysis, Atomic absorption spectroscopy, and flameless atomic absorption spectroscopy. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34501 | Which of the following is true about P. falciparum ? | [
"James dots are seen",
"Accole forms are seen",
"Relapses are frequent",
"Longest incubation period"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Accole forms are seen The parasite often attaches itself to the margin or the edge of the host cell, the nucleus and a small pa of the cytoplasm remaining almost outside. This is known as form applique or accole. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1520 | In treatment of Papillary Carcinoma thyroid, Radioiodine destroys the neoplastic cells predominantly by- | [
"X rays",
"b rays",
"g rays",
"a paicles"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., b rays | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11064 | Clinical features of minimal change : glomerulonephritis are all except | [
"Hypeension",
"Edema",
"Selective proteinuria",
"Fever"
] | Answer is A (Hypeension): Hypeension is not a feature of nephrotic syndrome and is rare in Minimal change disease. Edema and Selective proteinuria are features of nephrotic syndrome. Fever may be present on account of increased susceptibility to infection. Minimal Change Disease is the most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in children. Hypeension is not a feature of nephrotic syndrome and is rare in Minimal change disease. Features Light Microscopy Electron microscopy Immuno fluorescence Serum complements Age of onset Type of Onset Hematuria Hypeension Edema Proteinuria Response to steroids Prognosis Minimal Change Disease Minimal Change / No significant abnormalities Obliteration of epithelial foot processes No deposits of immune reactants Levels are normal Q Mainly below 6 years Q Insidious Q Rare Q Rare Q Presenting featureQ Present (mainly Albumin)Q Excellent (Abolition of sroteinuria) Q Good | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10639 | A young long-distance lorry driver presents to the clinician with a painless penile ulcer 9 days after sexual intercourse with a professional sex worker. What is the likely diagnosis? | [
"Herpes Genitalis",
"Chancre",
"Chancroid",
"Traumatic ulcer"
] | Chancre is a sign of primary syphilis which occurs within 2-3 weeks of initial inoculation. The lesion is characteristically painless. It is initially a dull red macule which becomes papular and fuher erodes to become an indurated ulcer called chancre. These lesions resolves spontaneously within 2 months if not treated. Herpes, Chancroid and Traumatic ulcer are painful lesions. Ref: Davidson's Principles and Practice of Medicine, By Sir Stanley Davidson, Christopher Haslett, 2002, Page 97. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7018 | Tumbling motility is seen in: | [
"Yersinia",
"Listeria",
"Proteus",
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa"
] | Ans. (b) ListeriaRef: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker 8th ed. / 226, 395* Listeria is the bacteria that is classically associated with tumbling motility.Swarming MotilityProteusGliding MotilityP. Auriginosa, MycoplasmaDarting MotilityCampylobacter, Vibrio CholeraFalling Leaf MotilityGiardiaShooting Star MotilityVibrioCork Screw MotilityT. PallidumLashing motilityBorrelia | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7899 | Cause of U/L secretory otitis media in an adult is - | [
"CSOM",
"Nasopharyngeal carcinoma",
"Mastoiditis",
"Foreign body of external ear"
] | Unilateral serous otitis media in an adult should always raise the suspicion of a benign / malignant tumor of nasopharynx
“In adults presenting with a unilateral middle ear effusion the possibility of a nasopharyngeal carcinoma should be considered”.
Ref. Dhingra 5/e, p 72, 6/e, p 251; Current Laryngology 2/e, p 659 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5595 | True about iron deficiency anemia in children ? | [
"Iron absorption from terminal ileum",
"Cow milk contain less iron than breast milk",
"Serum ferritin depletes first",
"All"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Serum ferritin depletes firsto Iron is absorbed from proximal small intestine mainly from duodenum.o Cow milk has slightly more amount of iron than breast milk. However, bioavailability of iron of breast milk is much greater than cow milk.Clinical manifestations o Pallor is most impoant sign of iron deficiency. Infact WHO recommended the use of palmar pallor as screening measure for anemia.o Pagophagia, the desire to ingest unusual substances such as ice or di may be present.o In some children, the ingestion of lead containing substances may lead to concomitant plumbism & helminthic parasitic infection.o In severe anemia, irratibility and anorexia are prominent. Tachycardia and cardiac dilatation occur. Systolic murmur is often present.o Iron deficiency affects attention span, aleness and learning in both infant and adolescents.Laboratory findings o S. ferritin depletes firsto Next, serum iron level decreases, the iron binding capacity of serum (serum transferrin) increases, and percent saturation (transferrin saturation) is reduced.o RDW is increased in iron deficiency anemia. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22106 | Dracunculosis infection occurs through - | [
"Ingestion of water containing cyclops",
"Ingestion of water containing the parasite",
"Ingestion of fish",
"Penetration of skin"
] | Humans are the definitive host and cyclops are the intermediate host.The adult female worm discharges larvae which are ingested by the intermediate host the cyclops.Humans become infected by drinking unfiltered water containing infective cyclops (refer pgno:175 baveja 3 rd edition) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4264 | Aldosterone secretion is increased when there is a fall in | [
"Plasma K+",
"Plasma Na+",
"pH of the plasma",
"Angiotensin II levels"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40149 | Which of the following drugs has no cycloplegic action? | [
"Atropine",
"Cyclopentolate",
"Tropicamide",
"Phenylepherine"
] | Ans. d (Phenylephrine). (Ref. KD Tripathi, Pharmacology, 4th ed., 88, Basak, Ophthalmology, 2nd ed., 44)# Sympathomimetic mydriatics like atropine (strongest cycloplegic), homatropine, cyclopentolate, tropicamide have cycloplegic action.# Pure a-adrenergic agent - PHENYLEPHRINE (Sympathomimetics) is not cycloplegic.# PILOCARPINE is a local parasympathomimetic ocular hypotensive drug whose mitotic effect is useful in the management of angle closure glaucoma.# It is not a cycloplegic drug.Note: a -adrenergic agents such as phenylephrine or oxymetazoline are generally used topically to alleviate nasal congestion and obstruction. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30338 | A 6 weeks pregnant primigravida is brought to the emergency depament with severe, acute abdominal pain. USG shows ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following has the LEAST risk of ectopic pregnancy? | [
"Tubectomy",
"Infeility >1 year",
"Copper T",
"Condoms"
] | Condoms reduces the incidence of tubal infeility and ectopic pregnancy. Risk factors of ectopic pregnancy: Prior ectopic pregnancy Prior tubal surgery Smoking >20 cigarettes per day Prior STD with confirmed PID by laparoscopy and/or positive test for Chlamydia trachomatis Three or more prior spontaneous miscarriages Age 40 years Prior medical or surgical aboion Infeility >1 year Lifelong sexual paners >5 Previous IUD use Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics by D C Dutta, 6th edition, Page 533. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27117 | A child developed methemoglobinemia after receiving local anaesthesia during a surgical procedure which was treated by the intravenous administration of methylene blue. Which of the following anaesthetic must have given in this child? | [
"Procaine",
"Bupivacaine",
"Prilocaine",
"Lignocaine"
] | Prilocaine is an intermediate-acting amino amide. Prilocaine has the highest clearance of the amino-amide anesthetics, impaing reduced risk of systemic toxicity. It has propensity to induce methemoglobinemia, which results from accumulation of one its metabolites, oho-toluidine, an oxidizing agent. Development of methemoglobinemia is dependent on the total dose administered, usually appearing after a dose of 8 mg/kg. If necessary, it can be treated by the intravenous administration of methylene blue (1-2 mg/kg). Ref: Drasner K. (2012). Chapter 26. Local Anesthetics. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds), Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7310 | The highest percentage of glomerular filtrate reabsorption occurs in: | [
"Bowman's capsule",
"Proximal tubule",
"Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle",
"Distal tubule"
] | Under all circumstances most of the filtrate is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. Normally, this reabsorption amounts to about two-thirds of the sodium and water filtered. Normally 60% of Na+ is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule, primarily by Na-H exchange. Ref: Ganong's review of Medical Physiology, 23rd Ed, page 648-650 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50625 | Osteomeatal complex (OMC) connects: | [
"Nasal cavity with maxillary sinus",
"Nasal cavity with sphenoid sinus",
"The two nasal cavities",
"Ethmoidal sinus with ethmoidal bulla"
] | Osteomeatal complex lies in the middle meatus.It is the final common drainage pathway for the maxillary, frontal and anterior ethmoid sinuses into the nasal cavity. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29979 | An IQ between 50 & 70 would be classified as what kind mental retardation – | [
"Mild",
"Moderate",
"Severe",
"Borderline"
] | The WHO classification of mental retardation is based on the concept of IQ and includes the following categories: | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30847 | Which is the commonest ocular manifestation of Tuberculosis? | [
"Phlyctenular conjunctivitis",
"Choroiditis",
"Eales' disease",
"Acute Retinal necrosis"
] | Phlyctenular conjunctivitis used to be most common manifestation of tuberculosis, but now it is causes by staphylococcus Eales' disease (periphlebitis retinae ) occur in tuberculosis but it is not very common. Acute retinal necrosis occurs in Herpes simplex and varicella infection not in tuberculosis. Choroiditis is by far the most common manifestation of tuberculosis. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29297 | Acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity requires: | [
"Pantothenate",
"Biotin",
"Thiamine pyrophosphate",
"Riboflavin"
] | 4 carboxylases that require biotin Acetyl-CoA carboxylase Pyruvate carboxylase, Propionyl-CoA carboxylase, Methyl-crotonyl coA carboxylase | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43094 | Most common Thyroid CA post radiation exposure - | [
"Papillary CA",
"Medullary CA",
"Follicular CA",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Papillary CA o Radiation induced thyroid carcinoma is papillary carcinoma."Papillary carcinoma accountsfor 80% ofall thyroid malignancies in iodine sufficient areas and is the predominant thyroid cancer in children and individuals exposed to external radiation | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21793 | All of the following can be used for establishing antenatal diagnosis except : | [
"Fetal blood",
"Maternal blood",
"Amniotic fluid",
"Decidua"
] | Answer is D (Decidua) : Decidua has not been mentioned to play any role in antenatal diagnosis Maternal Blood Can be used as in estimation of AFP (MSAFP) : MSAFP level is elevated in a number of conditions. - wrong gestational age - open neural tube defects Q - multiple pregnancy Q - Intra uterine fetal death Q - Renal anomalies Q Amniotic fluid Forms on impoant tool for antenatal diagnosis. Following tests may be performed on amniotic fluid : - estimation of Alpha feto-protein (AFP). - culture and chromosomal study of desquamated fetal cells in the amniotic fluid. Fetal Blood May be used for - fetal anemia - Bleeding disorders - Rheusus disease - Non-Immune Hydrops Fetalis | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49310 | Not a posterior mediastinal tumor : | [
"Neurofibroma",
"Lymphoma",
"Thymoma",
"Gastroenteric cyst"
] | Ans is 'c' ie Thymoma Mediastinum- is situated b/w the lungs in the center of the thorax.It is divided into 3 compartmentsAnterior or Anterosuperior it lies in front of the anterior pericardium & tracheaMiddle mediastinum or Visceral compartment it lies within the pericardial cavity including the tracheaPosterior mediastinum or paravertebral sulci it lies posterior to the post pericardium & tracheaLocations of the common Mediastinal MassesAnterior mediastinumMiddle MediastinumPost. MediastinumThymoma (most common in Ant med.)LymphomaGerm cell tumorsMesenchymal tumorsThyroid & parathyroid massesThymic cystCysts (MC in Mid. Med.)pleuropericardialbronchogenicenterogenousneuroentericVascular masses (aneurysm)Lymph node enlargement (including lymphoma)Mesenchymal tumorsPheochromocytomaMC tumor in middle Mediastinum- LymphomaNeurogenic tumors (MC overall)MeningoceleGastroenteric cystMesenchymal tumorsPheochromocytomaLymphoma | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10363 | Soft granuloma is typically found in - | [
"Amoeboma",
"Leprosy",
"Tuberculosis",
"Gumma"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Tuberculosis Soft granuloma (soft tubercle) is seen in TB. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_455 | All of the following statements about nasiritide are true except: | [
"It is a BNP analogue",
"It can be used in decompensated CHF",
"It can be administered orally",
"It causes loss of Na+ in the urine"
] | Ref:CMTD 2014/936;KDT 6/e p507 Nesiritide is a recombinant BNP It reduces vasodilation and natriuresis it has to be administered by i.v. route. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9109 | Organism with sterols in their cell wall is: | [
"Mycoplasma",
"Bacillus",
"Streptococcus",
"Spirillum"
] | Ans: a (Mycoplasma) Ref: Ananthanaryan, ed, p. 395"Mycoplasma lack a rigid cell wall and they are bounded by a triple layered unit membrane that contains sterols."Mycoplasma PPLO - by Nocard & Roux* Smallest free living organism* Gram negative.highly pleomomorphic organism, stained by Giemsa* Found in the form of elementary bodies & filaments of various size* Facultative anaerobe, require a source of cholesterol for growth* Media = hayflick media, eatons media* Colonies = biphasic with a fried egg appearance* C/F: Primary atypical pneumonia. Bullous myringitis. Otitis* Lab diagnosis:1. Isolation of organism - from throat swab, respiratory secretion2. serological diagnosis -1. Specific - HI, IF. metabolic inhibition2. Nonspecific- streptococcus MG3. Cold agglutinationTreatment: DOC- Erythromycin (Presence of 70 S ribosome makes it susceptible to antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis; but due to the lack of cell wall they are resistant to penicillin)Remember* Ureoplasma ureolyticum belongs to the family mycoplasmatacea; which can hydrolyse urea & is a cause for nongonococcal urethritis* L forms of bacteria - are due to the loss of bacteria but they retain the biochemical & antigenic properties of present bacteria. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35213 | In a patient with multiple injuries, first thing is to be done is | [
"Patency of airway",
"Maintenance of B.P.",
"Immobilize cervical spine",
"Lateral position with mouth gas"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1102 | Which of the following is the common aetiological agent in paranasal sinus mycoses? | [
"Aspergillus species",
"Histoplasma",
"Conidiobolus coronatus",
"Candida albicans"
] | Fungi invading paranasal sinuses include Aspergillus sp., Rhizopus sp., Candida albicans, Fusarium and Altemaria sp. Aspergillus sp. is the most common. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14206 | Classic triad of congenital rubella includes all except | [
"Catract",
"Deafness",
"Retinal detachment",
"CHD"
] | Common Transient and Permanent Manifestations in Infants with Congenital Rubella SyndromeTransient ManifestationsPermanent ManifestationsHepatosplenomegalyInterstitial pneumonitisThrombocytopenia with purpura/petechiae (e.g., dermal erythropoiesis,or "blueberry muffin syndrome")Hemolytic anemiaBony radiolucenciesIntrauterine growth retardationAdenopathyMeningoencephalitisHearing impairment/deafnessCongenital hea defects (patentductus aeriosus, pulmonary aerialstenosis)Eye defects (cataracts, cloudy cornea,microphthalmos, pigmentary retinopathy,congenital glaucoma)MicrocephalyCentral nervous system sequelae(mental and motor delay, autism)Ref: Harrison&;s principles of Internal Medicine; 19th edition; Page no 230e-2 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18742 | Irregular and infrequent menstruation is known as: | [
"Amenorrhoea",
"Oligomenorrhoea",
"Polymenorrhoea",
"Menorrhagia"
] | Oligomenorrhoea - Infrequent and irregularly timed episodes of bleeding usually occuring at intervals of more than 35 days Polymenorrhoea - Frequent episodes of mentruation usually occurring at intervals of 21 days or less Menorrhagia - Increased menstrual flow/Increased duration at regular cycles Hypomenorrhoea - Scanty bleeding and shoer days of bleeding Metrorrhagia - Irregular bleeding in between the cycles Menometrorrhagia - Increased menstrual flow as well as irregular bleeding between the cycles | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40584 | A 26-year-old man has noted lumps in his neck that have been enlarging for the past 6 months. On physical examination, he has a group of enlarged, nontender right cervical lymph nodes. A biopsy of one of the lymph nodes microscopically shows macrophages, lymphocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, and a few plasma cells. There are scattered CD15+ large cells with multiple nuclei or a single nucleus with multiple nuclear lobes, each with a large inclusion-like nucleolus. What is the most likely cell of origin with infectious agent for these large cells? | [
"B lymphocyte, Epstein-Barr virus",
"CD4+ cell, human T lymphotropic virus",
"Endothelial cell, Kaposi sarcoma herpesvirus",
"Macrophage, human immunodeficiency virus"
] | The large cells are Reed-Sternberg cells, and they elaborate cytokines that promote an accompanying reactive cellular proliferation that forms the bulk of the neoplastic mass. Reed Sternberg cells are of B-cell origin, and in many cases, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection can be demonstrated in these cells. The other listed options are not part of the pathogenesis for Hodgkin lymphoma. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_554 | Example of cold burn is /are: | [
"Frostbite",
"Trench foot in soldiers.",
"Immersion foot occurring in shipwrecked persons.",
"All of the above."
] | Cold burns include
Freezing injuries (frostbite)
Non-freezing cold injuries e.g. chilblain (localized painful erythema in the fingers, toes or ears produced by cold damp weather)
Trench foot seen in soldiers
Immersion foot occurring in shipwrecked persons. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8455 | Which of the following impact strength test measures the strength through both preswing and postswing? | [
"Charpy",
"I rod",
"Both",
"None"
] | I Rod is newer and easier method to measure the impact strength through pre swing only. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22299 | In 'A'-Esotropia the amount of detion: | [
"Increases in upward gaze and decreases in down gaze",
"Decreases in upward gaze and increases in down gaze",
"Increases in upward as well as downward gaze",
"Decreases in upward as well as downward gaze"
] | Ans. Increases in upward gaze and decreases in down gaze | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46702 | Which of the following cranial nerve is a pure motor nerve? | [
"3",
"5",
"8",
"9"
] | Pure sensory 1-olfactory 2-optic 8-vestibulocochlear Pure motor 3-oculomotor 4-trochlear 6-abducent 11-accessory 12-hypoglossal Mixed 5-trigeminal 7-facial 9-glossopharyngeal 10-vagus | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25994 | Relative risk of a disease measures which of the following- | [
"Strength of association between suspected cause and effect",
"Biological plausibility between suspected cause and effect",
"Temporal relationship between suspected cause and effect",
"Specificity of association between suspected cause and effect"
] | Relative risk = Incidence among exposed /incidence among non exposed A typical case control study does not provide incidence rate from which relative risk can be calculated directly because there is no appropriate denominator or population at risk to calculate these rates.in general relative risk can be exactly determined from a coho study Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 86 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2955 | Homer's syndrome is associated with: March 2010, March 2013 | [
"Bronchiectasis",
"Apical lung carcinoma",
"Chronic bronchitis",
"Bronchial asthma"
] | Ans. B: Apical lung carcinoma | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35194 | Meralgia paresthetica is due to involvement/injury of which of the following nerve ? | [
"Medial cutaneous nerve of thigh",
"Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh",
"Sural nerve",
"Femoral nerve"
] | Meralgia paresthetica is due to the involvement of lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh . *type - idiopathic , spontaneous , iatrogenic * clinical features - pain ,numbness, & paresthesia along the anterolateral aspect of thigh *Diagnostic test -if there is relief if pain after & paresthesia after injecting local anaesthetic * treatment : conservative - idiopathic : improve by removal of compressive agent ,NSAIDS & local steroid injection - iatrogenic : care should be exercised during pelvic surgery : surgery - neurolysis or transection of the nerves REF:textbook of ohopedics, John Ebenezer,4th edition,pg.no.347 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50313 | Instantaneous rigor is seen in- | [
"Cadaveric spasm",
"Rigor mortis",
"Cold stiffening",
"Gas stiffening"
] | Cadaveric spasm is also referred as to instantaneous rigor. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13001 | In Troisiers sign the lymph nodes involved are | [
"Right axillary nodes",
"Left axillary nodes",
"Right supraclavicular nodes",
"Left supraclavicular nodes"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15803 | Which of the following drugs is used for Narcoanalysis: | [
"Atropine",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Scopolamine",
"Pethidine"
] | C i.e. Scopolamine Scopolamine and sodium pentothal /amytal / or seconalQ can be used for narcoanalysis. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7319 | Cholera toxin binds to which receptors in intestine: | [
"Sphingosine through A subunit",
"Sphingosine through B subunit",
"GM1 gangliosides through A subunit",
"GM1 gangliosides through B subunit"
] | Ans. is. 'd' i. e., GM1 gangliosides through B subunit | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11891 | Which of the following is not true about Familial adenomatous polyp ? | [
"Autosomal dominant inheritance",
"Screening done by sigmoidoscopy",
"Polyps develop in late adulthood",
"Epidermoid cysts & osteomas may occur"
] | FAP is an autosomal dominant inherited disease due to mutation of the APC gene (chromosome no. 5q21).Polyps are usually visible on sigmoidoscopy by the age of 15 years and will almost always be visible by the age of 30 yearsGardner syndrome, a variant of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by GI polyps, multiple osteomas, and skin and soft tissue tumours. Cutaneous findings of Gardner syndrome include epidermoid cysts, desmoid tumors, and other benign tumors.Reference: page 1161 Bailey and Love&;s sho practice of surgery 26th edition | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35819 | A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very uncomfoable. His stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhoea frequently. These symptoms do not appear when he eats food other than dairy products. Which of the following is most likely enzyme in which this young man is deficient: | [
"Alpha amylase",
"Beta galactosidase",
"Alpha glucosidase",
"Sucrase"
] | The patient has abdominal discomfo & diarrhoea after taking milk. Diagnosis is Lactose Intolerance. Enzyme deficient in this patient is b-Galactosidase which is also known as Lactase. It breaks down milk sugar lactose into glucose and galactose which can be easily absorbed. a-Amylase digests Starch (Option a) a- Glucosidase or Acid Maltase is minor pathway of Glycogen breakdown in lysosomes (Option c) If abdominal discomfo & diarrhea appear after taking sugar or sugarcane juice, then enzyme deficient is Sucrase (Option d) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50378 | All are true about mediastinum EXCEPT - | [
"Hea passes through superior mediastinum",
"Hea passes through middle mediastinum",
"Thymus present in superior mediastinum",
"Lower border of posterior mediastinum is extended more than anterior mediastinum"
] | Mediastinum : is middle space left in thoracic cavity in between the lungs. The superior & inferior mediastinum is divided by an imaginary line passing through sternal angle anteriorly & lower border of T4 posteriorly. Inferiorly, mediastinum is subdivided into anterior, middle & posterior mediastinum by the pericardium. CONTENTS OF MEDIASTINUM: Superior mediastinum Middle mediastinum Anterior mediastinum Posterior mediastinum Oesophagus Trachea Aoic arch + branches Upper pa of SVC Phrenic nerves Vagus nerve Major pa of thymus Pericardium Hea Pulmonary trunk Ascending aoa Lower SVC Upper IVC Phrenic nerve Sterno - pericardial ligaments Lymph nodes Lowest pa of thymus Areolar tissue Oesophagus Descending thoracic aoa Vagus nerve Azygous, hemiazygos veins. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16228 | Which of the following is the allosteric activator of carbamoyl phosphate synthase I? | [
"Glutamine",
"Oxaloacetate",
"N-acetyl aspaate",
"N-acetyl glutamate"
] | Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I is the rate-limiting enzyme of the urea cycle Active only in the presence of N-acetylglutamate(NAG), an allosteric activator that enhances the affinity of the synthase for ATP. Arginine is the allosteric activator of NAG synthase. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44208 | Congo red staining for amyloid under polarized light shows: September 2007 | [
"Silver birefringence",
"Golden birefringence",
"Blue birefringence",
"Green birefringence"
] | Ans. D: Green birefringenceThe traditional way of identifying amyloid in tissue sections has been staining with Congo red and demonstration of green birefringence under crossed polarizers.The original method of Congo red staining was described by Bennhold in 1922.The most common modification in the above technique is the alkaline Congo red method described by Puchtler and coworkers in 1962.Specificity is improved by using freshly prepared stain and a staining solution fully saturated with sodium chloride. Amyloid proteins can be fuher distinguished by autoclaving or by treating the tissue with potassium permanganate or alkaline guanidine.Other methods of detection of amyloid include fluorescent stains, e.g., thioflavin T or S, and metachromatic stains such as crystal violet.Immunofluorescence and immunoperoxidase methods are used to identify and classify amyloid proteins in tissues. Antibodies against the P component, proteins AA and AL and FAP have been used with great precision.Due to cross-reactivity, these methods do not differentiate between some types of familial and senile systemic amyloidosis | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38803 | Angiogenesis is | [
"Formation of the new blood vessels",
"Repair by connective tissues",
"Formation of the blood clot",
"All of the above"
] | (Formation of the new blood vessels) (71-72-R) (70-72- Basic pathology 8th)ANGIOGENESIS or neovascularization by which preexisting vessels send out capillary sprouts to produce new vessels.Angiotensis is a critical process in the healing at sites of injury in the development of collateral circulations at sites of ischemia, and in allowing tumours to increase in size beyond the constraints of their original blood supply.* Steps in the process of angiogenesis1. Basement membrane and extracellular matrix degradation2. Endothelial migration3. Endothelial proliferation (mitosis)4. Organisation and maturation including the recruitment of vascular pericytes or smooth muscle cells5. Increased permeability due to intercellular gaps and increased transcytosis.Thrombosis - Formation of the blood clot (thrombus)Fibrosis - Repair by connective tissues | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6215 | Gold standard investigation for diagnosing cystic echinococcus is: September 2009 | [
"USG",
"X-ray",
"ELISA",
"CT scan"
] | Ans. A: USG For cystic echinococcosis, imaging is the main method that is relied on for diagnosis while serology tests (such as indirect hemogglutination, ELISA (enzyme linked immunosorbent assay), immunoblots or latex agglutination) that use antigens specific for E. granulosus are used to verify the imaging results. The imaging technique of choice for cystic echinococcosis is ultrasonography since it is not only able to visualize the cysts in the body's organs but it is also inexpensive, non-invasive and gives instant results. In addition to ultrasonography, both MRI and CT scans can and are often used although an MRI is often preferred to CT scans when diagnosing cystic echinococcosis since it gives better visualization of liquid areas within the tissue. As with cystic echinococcosis, ultrasonography is the imaging technique of choice for alveolar echinococcosis and is usually complemented by CT scans since CT scans are able to detect the largest number of lesions and calcifications that are characteristic of alveolar echinococcosis. MRIs are also used in combination with ultrasonography though CT scans are preferred. Like cystic echinococcosis, imaging is the major method used for the diagnosis of alveolar echinococcosis while the same types of serologic tests (except now specific for E. multilocularis antigens) are used to verify the imaging results. It is also impoant to note that serologic tests are more valuable for the diagnosis of alveolar echinococcosis than for cystic echinococcosis since they tend to be more reliable for alveolar echinococcosis since more antigens specific for E. multilocularis are available. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38378 | For MTP, consent should be obtained from | [
"Male paner",
"Male and female paner",
"Female paner",
"No consent needed"
] | For medical termination of pregnancy : Only female consent is required Husband consent is not required If the age is less than 18 yrs, consent of parent or guardian is required Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 165. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17207 | After postmoem body is handed over to : | [
"The authority who has conducted inquest in that paicular case",
"Police station near by",
"Coroner",
"Chief magistrate"
] | A i.e. The authority who has conducted inquest in that paicular case | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18852 | HACEK group includes all except - | [
"Haemophilus aphrophilus",
"Acinetobacter baumannii",
"Eikenella corrodens",
"Cardiobacterium hominis"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44376 | All of the following are seen in the Horner&;s syndrome, except | [
"Drooping of upper eyelid",
"Enophthalmos",
"Dilated pupil",
"Loss of sweating of same side of face"
] | Ref: BD Chaurasia&;s HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. Horner&;s syndrome is characterized by (a) Ptosis i.e. drooping of the upper eyelid); (b) miosis (i.e. constriction of the pupil); (c) anhydrosis (i.e. loss of sweating on that side of the face); (d) enophthalmos (i.e. retraction of the eyeball); (e) loss of the ciliospinal reflex (i.e. pinching the skin on the nape of the neck) does not produce dilatation of the pupil (which normally takes place). Horner&;s syndrome can also be caused by a lesion within the central nervous system anywhere at or above the first thoracic segment of the spinal cord involving sympathetic fibres. Horner&;s syndrome is due to involvement of sympathetic pathways in the medulla. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42349 | Poison having local action only: | [
"Sulphuric acid",
"Carbolic acid",
"Oxalic acid",
"Phosphorus"
] | Ans. Sulphuric acid | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13184 | Oochronosis is found in: | [
"Alkaptonuria",
"Tyrosinemia",
"Phenylketonuria",
"Homocystinuria"
] | a. Alkaptonuria(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 636, Ghai 8/e p 652)Ochronosis (dark spot on sclera/ear cartilage) is seen in Alkaptonuria which is an autosomal recessive disorder due to deficiency of enzyme homogentisic acid oxidase. | A | null |
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