dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_15382 | All of the following are true about childhood polycystic kidney disease, except – | [
"Autosomal dominant",
"Pulmonary hypoplasia",
"Renal cyst present at birth",
"Hepatic fibrosis"
] | Childhood polycystic kidney disease
Childhood polycystic kidney disease has autosomal recessive inheritance, therefore it is also known as autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease.
Defective gene is the PKHD1 (Polycystic Kidney and Hepatic Di8easel) which codes for a protein fibrocystin. Associations
Maternal oligohydramnios
Potter's syndrome
Pulmonary hypoplasia
Congenital hepatic fibrosis
Hepatic cysts
Biliary ductal atresia
Clinical features
Majority of patients present during the first year of life (during infancy). However, sometimes patients may present later in life (in young adults).
The presentation is variable : -
1. Renal
Enlarged cystic kidney at birth.
Hypertension, Renal failure, Proteinuria.
2. Respiratory
Respiratory distress due to pulmonary hypoplasia.
3. Hepatic
Hepatomegaly
Portal hypertension → Esophageal varices, hypersplenism. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39825 | Which is the most likely complication of IUD ? | [
"Hypofibrogenemia",
"Sterility",
"Cervical tear",
"None of the above"
] | Complications of IUD : Psychological upset Uterine infections Blood coagulation disorder Hypofibrogenemia occurs due to gradual absorption of thromboplastin, liberated from the dead placenta and decides. Ref: Datta Obs 9e pg 304. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18367 | Most radiosensitive tumor is | [
"Renal cell carcinoma",
"Carcinoma colon",
"Hepatocellular carcinoma",
"Testicular seminoma"
] | Ref Robbins 8/e p989 In general, radiation therapy is mainly used for patients with seminoma, which is very sensitive to radiation. Sometimes it's used after orchiectomy (the operation to remove the testicle) and is directed at the lymph nodes at the back of the abdomen (the retroperitoneal lymph nodes). This is to kill any tiny bits of cancer in those lymph nodes that can't be seen. It can also be used to treat small amounts of seminoma that have spread to the nodes (based on changes seen on CT and PET scans). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17652 | Below is shown the Slide of Testis. Suppoing cells of testis are: | [
"Leyding cells",
"Seoli Cells",
"Spermatids",
"Spermatogonia"
] | Seoli Cells | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16408 | The following enzyme defect causes acute intermittent porphyria | [
"Uroporphyrinogen III synthase",
"Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase",
"Hydroxymethylbilane synthase",
"Protoporphyrinogen oxidase"
] | The defective enzyme in acute intermittent porphyria is hydroxymethylbilane synthase (uroporphyrinogen I synthase)ALA and porphyrobilinogen accumulate in body tissues and fluids.It is an autosomal dominant disorder.While most porphyrias are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, congenital erythropoietic porphyria is inherited in a recessive mode. The defective enzyme in congenital erythropoietic porphyria is uroporphyrinogen III synthase,Harper 30th edition pg: 329 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2846 | Laryngeal cailage forming complete circle is | [
"Thyroid",
"Cricoid",
"Corniculate",
"Arytenoid"
] | Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. Cricoid cailage is shaped like a ring. It encircles the larynx below the thyroid cailage. It is thicker and stronger than the thyroid cailage. The ring has a narrow anterior pa called the arch, and a broad posterior pa called the lamina. The lamina projects upwards behind the thyroid cailage and aiculates superiorly with the arytenoid cailages. The inferior cornua of the thyroid cailage aiculate with the side of the cricoid cailage at the junction of the arch and lamina. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51778 | All are food foification except - | [
"Addition of colour to saccharin",
"Addition of Vit A to food stuff",
"Addition of extra nutrients to food stuff",
"Iodisation of salt"
] | <p> Food foification :- Public health measure aimed at reinforcing the usual dietary intake of nutrients with additional supplies to prevent/control some nutritional disorders. WHO has defined it as the process by which nutrients are added to foods to maintain or improve the quality of diet of a group, community or a population. Programmes demonstrated effectiveness of foification of food or water are: 1. Flouridation of water as a preventive dental caries. 2. Iodization of salt for combating the problem of endemic goitre. 3. Food foification(eg: vanaspati, milk) with vitamins A and D. 4. Twin foification of salt with iron and iodine. In order to qualify as suitable for foification, the vehicle and nutrient must fulfill ceain criteria: 1. The vehicle foified must be consumed consistently a pa of regular daily diet by the relevant sections of the population or total population. 2. The amount of nutrient added must provide an effective supplement for low consumers of the vehicle, without contributing a hazardous excess to high consumers. 3. The addition of nutrient should not cause it to undergo any noticeable change in taste, smell appearance or consistency. 4. The cost of foification must not raise the price of food beyond reach of the population in greatest need. Food additives: Defined as non nutritious substances which are added intentionally to food , generally in small quantity, to improve its appearance, flavour , texture, or storage propeies. Eg: colouring agents(saffron), flavouring agents(vanilla essence), sweeteners(saccharin). Reference: Park&;s textbook of community medicine 23 rd edition pg no. 658} | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37383 | Which of the following immunohistochemical stains is used for the diagnosis of lymphomas - | [
"5-100",
"HMB-45",
"Leukocyte common antigen",
"Cytokeratin"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Leukocyte common antigen CD45 (leucocyte common antigen) is a _family of single chain transmembrane glycoproteins. o CD45 (leucocyte common antigen) is exclusively expressed in hematolymphoid cells. o Almost all hematolymphoid cells including precursor cells and mature B and T lymphocytes granulocytes, monocytes/ histocytes and interdigitating reticulum cells and follicular dendritic cells express CD45. o While CD45 is strongly expressed on the lymphocytes membranes, histiocytes only exhibit a weak membrane staining. o CD45 is lost in maturing erythrocytes, megakaryocytes and plasma cells. o CD45 is detected in large majority of hematolymphoid neoplasmic e.g. leukemias and malignant lymphomas. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44514 | Acute adrenal insufficiency can present as | [
"Acute abdomen with abdominal tenderness, nausea, vomiting and fever",
"Neurologic disease with decreased responsiveness progressing to stupor and coma",
"Hypovolemic shock",
"All of the above."
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Presentation in Acute Adrenal Insufficiency* Acute adrenal insufficiency usually occurs after a prolonged period of nonspecific complaints and is more frequently observed in patients with primary adrenal insufficiency, due to the loss of both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid secretion.* Postural hypotension may progress to hypovolemic shock.* Adrenal insufficiency may mimic features of acute abdomen with abdominal tenderness, nausea, vomiting, and fever.* In some cases, the primary presentation may resemble neurologic disease, with decreased responsiveness, progressing to stupor and coma.* An adrenal crisis can be triggered by an intercurrent illness, surgical or other stress, or increased glucocorticoid inactivation (e.g., hyperthyroidism). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16400 | What will be the effect on respiration if a transmission is made between the pons & medulla | [
"Apnoea",
"Irregular & gasping",
"No effect",
"Slow & deep"
] | B i.e. Irregular and gasping The main component of respiratory control pattern generator responsible for automatic respiration are located in the medulla. After transection of brain stem at inferior border of pons spontaneous respiration continues, albeit somewhat irregular and gasping.Q Whereas, transection at mid (upper) pons leads to slow and deep breathing() (vagi intact) or apneustic breathing (or prolonged respiratory spasm) Q, when vagi are also cut. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4821 | 35 year old female patient presents with dysmenorrhea, not associated with nausea or vomiting. She has history of menorrhagia. Her urine pregnancy test being negative, has symmetric enlarged tender uterus. She undergoes hysterectomy and the specimen is shown below. Diagnosis | [
"Endometrial cancer",
"Adenomyosis",
"Cervical cancer",
"Endometrial hyperplasia"
] | The specimen shows spongy, trabeculated myometrium texture suggestive of Adenomyosis. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47122 | Reactive oxygen free radical in lysosome is released by | [
"NADPH oxidase",
"Superoxide dismutase",
"Peroxidase",
"Myeloperoxidase"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40935 | A 7 year old boy is newly diagnosed to have type 1 Diabetes mellitus and staed on Insulin therapy. When should the screening for Nephropathy begin in this child? | [
"Immediately",
"1 year after the onset of Diabetes",
"5 years after the onset of Diabetes",
"10 years after the onset of Diabetes"
] | MC - Type 1 Diabetes | DOC - Insulin Mixed split regime Basal bolus regime - Screening for Nephropathy should begin: In Pre-pubeal age - 5 years after onset Pubeal age - 2 years after onset | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16414 | Which feature would most likely be found in a patient with lepromatous leprosy? | [
"No bacteremia",
"Macrophages with a foamy appearance in the dermis",
"A positive lepromin reaction",
"A high cell-mediated response against Mycobacterium leprae"
] | The disease of leprosy is divided into two basic types: lepromatous and tuberculoid. The lepromatous form is an aggressive disease, whereas the tuberculoid form tends to be self-limiting. Individuals with lepromatous leprosy have an inflammatory skin infiltrate, which consists largely of macrophages that have a characteristic vacuolated or "foamy" appearance (caused by the accumulation of lipids within phagocytes) and intracellular acid-fast bacilli. In the lepromatous form, presence of organisms indicates impaired cellular immunity, unlike the tuberculoid type, which can effectively kill the bacteria. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6377 | The protein quality indicator adopted by ICMR in recommending dietary protein requirements is | [
"Amino acid score",
"Net protein utilization",
"Biological value",
"Protein efficiency ratio"
] | Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in 2010 recommended 1.0g protein/Kg body weight for an India adult, assuming a Net protein utilization (NPU) of 65 for dietary proteins.Park 23e pg: 610 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34013 | Symptoms of Hanup's disease mimic:- | [
"Beri-Beri",
"Pellagra",
"Kwashiorkor",
"Korsakoff psychosis"
] | Deficiency of tryptophan will lead to the deficiency of Niacin in the body Thus causing pellagra like symptoms (neurological and dermatologic), Hanup's Disease: AR (autosomal recessive), rare disorder Defect in neutral amino acid transpoer also called mono-amino mono carboxylic amino acid transpoer which transpos neutral amino acid including tryptophan. Failure to absorb tryptophan from intestine and also reabsorb it by kidneys Tryptophan forms Niacin (Vitamin B3) in the body, Deficiency of it will lead to the deficiency of Niacin in the body Thus causing pellagra like symptoms (neurological and dermatologic),despite an adequate intake of both Tryptophan and niacin. C/F - Aminoaciduria i.e. Tryptophan in urine without a corresponding increase in plasma tryptophan levels | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34342 | The distinct neurotoxin produced by which Clostridia? | [
"Clostridium welchii",
"Clostridium tetani",
"Clostridium septicum",
"Clostridium oedematiens"
] | (B) Clostridium tetani # Toxins: Cl. tetani produces at least two distinct toxins - a hemolysin (tetanolysin) and a powerful neurotoxin (tetanospasmin).> Two are antigenically and pharmacologically distinct & their production is mutually independent | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51382 | You are conducting a study on a new type of infectious disease and find that the case fatality rate is high. It means that: | [
"The disease is highly infective",
"The disease has a sho incubation period",
"The disease is caused by a virulent organism",
"All the above"
] | Case fatality rate = Total number of deaths due to a paicular disease/Total number of cases of the same disease It is a measure of the killing power of a disease and is closely related to the virulence. Ref: Park, Edition 21, Page - 54. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26877 | Last ocular muscle to be involved in Grave's disease? | [
"Inferior rectus",
"Lateral rectus",
"Superior rectus",
"Inferior oblique"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Inferior oblique Order of involvement (Mnemonic : IM SLO(W)) :- Inferior rectus > medial rectus > superior rectus > Lateral rectus > obliques. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41978 | The space maintainer which is contraindicated in a child
suffering from sub acute bacterial endocarditis is | [
"Removable",
"Crown and loop",
"Band and Loop",
"Distal shoe"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23695 | fibrinoid necrosis is senn all the following except ? | [
"malignant hypeension",
"acute rheumatic fever",
"polyahropathy",
"polyairitis nodosa"
] | Fibrinoid necrosis : alSo called "fibrinoid degeneration" It appears as strongly eosinophilic, reflexible small granules, pieces or amorphous materials, in the wall of blood vessel or in connective tissue. The original structure is destroyed. It can be seen in rheumatic fever, allergic vasculitis and other immune complex injury . * (type 3 hypersentitivity reaction) ref : robbins 10th ed | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1442 | Clergyman knee affects | [
"Prepatellar bursa",
"Infrapatellar bursa",
"Olecranon",
"Ischial bursa"
] | BursitisNamed diseasePrepatellar BursitisHouse Maid's Knee Infrapatellar BursitisClergyman's Knee / Vicars Knee Olecranon BursitisStudents elbow Ischial BursitisWeavers Bottom Lateral Malleolus Bursitis Tailors Ankle Great Toe BursitisBunion (Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 450, 528) | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4399 | False statement regarding cholestasis in pregnancy: | [
"Recurs In subsequent pregnancy",
"Ursodeoxycholic acid relieves pruritus",
"Mild jaundice occurs in majority of patients",
"Pruritus may precede laboratory findings"
] | Recurrence is common in subdequent pregnancies (90%)and with the use of oestrogen containing oral contraceptivr pills.Such patients are at risk for chronic liver disease and should be closely followed up aftet pregnancy. Refer page no 280 of Text book of obsteics,sheila balakrishnan,2 nd edition. OR Reccurence rate is high(50-60%) Cholestyramine is effective for itching. Jaundice is slight. REference: Textbook of Duttas ,9th edition,page 271 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11233 | Break bone fever is caused by: | [
"Variola",
"Coxsackie",
"Dengue",
"Adenovirus"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., DengueThe dengue virus causes classic dengue or break bone fever characterized by fever, muscle and joint pain, lymph - adenopathy and rash. In addition, it also causes dengue hemorrhagic fever, i.e., a much more severe disease than classic dengue fever with a high fatality rate. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44523 | Proteins directed to which of the following organelles are synthesized by ribosomes attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum? | [
"Lysosomes",
"Mitochondria",
"Nucleus",
"Peroxisomes"
] | Proteins for many cellular destinations are synthesized by ribosomes which are attached to the endoplasmic reticulum. Proteins synthesized in this way include lysosomal enzymes, proteins located in the plasma membrane and proteins found in the endoplasmic reticulum itself. These proteins are transpoed through the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi cisternae where they are soed into appropriate vesicles. In contrast, proteins required by the nucleus, mitochondria, and peroxisomes as well as cytoplasmic proteins are all synthesized by polyribosomes in the cytoplasm. Reference: Harper; 30th edition | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24377 | Genetic reassortment is seen with - | [
"Astrovirus",
"Herpes virus",
"Rotavirus",
"Hepadnavirus"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29729 | True about hiatus hernia | [
"Surgery indicated in all symptomatic cases of paraesophageal",
"Para-esophageal type is more complicated",
"Para-esophageal type is common type",
"Common in infants"
] | HIATUS HERNIA is the most common type of a diaphragmatic hernia classified into type 1 -commonest, small, reducible and is the cephalad displacement of the gastro oesophagal junction into the mediastinum. type 2 -superior migration of fundus of the stomach alongside the GE junction type 3 -combination of both sliding hernia is most commonly associated with GORD. A rolling hernia (para-oesophageal )common in elderly.The usual clinical features include postprandial bloating, dysphagia and early satiety.This can lead to complications such as gangrene of stomach, perforations, volvulus ischaemic longitudinal gastric ulcer. treatment is always surgical. *excision of the sac and repair of the defect.mesh reinforcement to close the hiatus may be required.approaches can be abdominal, thoracic or laparoscopic. Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,5th ed, pg no 796 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31714 | Which of the following drugs acts on trabecular meshwork and affects the aquatic outflow | [
"Timolol",
"Pilocarpine",
"Brimonidine",
"Brinzolamide"
] | Miotics-like pilocarpine act by increasing the trabecular outflow. Drugs for Glaucoma- Mechanism of Action Brimonidine- Reducing aqueous production and Latanoprost- Increasing uveoscleral flow . Pilocarpine-Increase the trabecular outflow Betaxolol-Reduces aqueous secretion by cilary body Ref-KDT 6/e p145 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40262 | Vestibular function is assessed by - | [
"Fistula test",
"Hallpike manaeuver",
"Caloric test",
"All of the above"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Vestibular systemo The vestibular system contributes to balance and to the sense of spatial orientation.o It is a sensory system that provides the leading contribution about movement and sense of balance.o It includes the labyrinth (semicircular canals and otolith : utricle & sacules) of the inner ear and is situated in the vestibulum in the inner ear.o The symptoms of vestibular dysfunction are vertigo, dizziness and imbalance.o There are several tests of vestibular function :-Clinical testsLaboratory testo Spontaneous nystagmuso Fistula testo Romberg testo Gaito Past- pointing and fallingo Hallpike manaeuver (Positional test)o Caloric test* Cold caloric test with ice cold water (modified Kobrak's test)* Fitzgerald - Hallpike test (Bithermal caloric test)Temperature of water used is +- 7 degC from normal body temperature.* Cold-air caloric test by Dundas- Grant method. Done in case of perforation of tympanic membrane.o Electronystagmographyo Optokinetic testo Rotation testo Galvanic testo Posturography | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44702 | Abandoning a child will be punished for | [
"2 years",
"4 years",
"5 years",
"7 years"
] | Abandoning of a child Father or mother of a child who is under 12 years or anyone who is having care of such child, leaves such a child in any place with the intention of abandoning the child shall be punished with imprisonment upto 7 years. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 354 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20408 | Superior wall of middle ear is formed by ? | [
"Tympanic membrane",
"Jugular bulb",
"Tegmen tympani",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Tegmen tympani Roof (superior wall) of middle ear is formed by tegmen tympani. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5303 | The best available treatment for poal hypeensive gastropathy is: | [
"Beta blocker",
"TIPS",
"Surgical poacaval shunt",
"Liver transplantation"
] | Poal hypeensive gastropathy (PHG) is the ectatic blood vessels in the proximal gastric body and cardia causing oozing of the blood. Less severe grades of PHG appear as a mosaic or snakeskin pattern and are not associated with bleeding. Severe PHG with diffuse bleeding is treated by b-adrenergic receptor blockers or possibly with placement of a TIPS or surgical poacaval shunt. The best treatment is liver transplantation Ref:Sleisenger and Fordtran's,E-9,P-300. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39552 | Altered presumption of real objects is | [
"Illusion",
"Delusion",
"Hallucination",
"Delirium"
] | (A) Illusion # Hallucination-- caused by a substance; seeing and/or hearing people, objects that are not there & verbally responding to them.> Delusion--false idea; misbeliefs (example) thinking one is a king or God or the president. Ideas of grandeur.> Illusion-- seeing an object that isn't there; misconception of looking at something, but seeing it as something other than what it really is. (E.g.) a puff of smoke may look like a ghostly figure or a tree trunk with branches, may look like a person with arms extended. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8453 | An infant develops cough and fever. The X-ray examination is suggestive of bronchopneumonia. All of the following viruses can be the causative agent, EXCEPT: | [
"Parainfluenza viruses",
"Influenza virus A",
"Respiratory syncytial virus",
"Mumps virus"
] | Mumps occur between the ages of 5 & 15. Infants are rarely involved due to presence of transplacentally acquired maternal mumps antibodies. Ref: O P Ghai Essential Pediatrics, 6th Edition, Page 209 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34008 | A 9 months old previously healthy infant was brought with complaints of fever of 12 hours' duration along with a running nose and an episode of generalized tonic clonic movements lasting for 34 minutes. Child was brought to the emergency within 1 hour. Child was observed in the emergency and was found to be alert active and playful after the fever came down. The most probable diagnosis in this infant is: | [
"Febrile convulsions",
"Transient myoclonic epilepsy",
"Hypocalcemia",
"Hypernatremia"
] | Ans. A. Febrile ConvulsionsFebrile convulsions are the commonest provoked seizures affecting 3-5% children. They are defined as seizures. During fever occurring between 6 months and 5 yr. age in the absence of infection of the central nervous system in a neurologically normal child. Febrile seizures are frequently genetically determined. The convulsions are not related to the degree of temperature, but are frequent if temperature rises abruptly. Febrile convulsions may be (i) simple, benign; or (ii) atypical, complex. Lumbar puncture should be performed in the first episode of febrile seizure, in infants below 1 yr who are not immunized with Hib and pneumococcal vaccine, In all patients with febrile convulsions, a lumbar puncture is not required routinely. EEG and neuroimaging have no role in febrile seizures. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22944 | Which of the following gene mutations is most commonly associated with systemic mastocytosis? | [
"CALR",
"JAK2",
"KIT",
"MPL"
] | Myeloproliferative neoplasms Disorder Mutation/Translocation Chronic myeloid leukemia BCR-ABL1 fusion/translocation Polycythemia vera JAK2 mutations Essential thrombocythemia/Primary myelofibrosis JAK2, CALR, MPL mutations Systemic mastocytosis KIT mutations Chronic eosinophilic leukemia FIP1L1-PDGFRA fusion genePDE4DIP-PDGFRB fusion gene Chronic neutrophilic leukemia CSF3R mutations Myeloid neoplasms with eosinophilia Various fusion genes involving FGFR1, PDGFRA, PDGFRB, or JAK2 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43810 | Type IV hypersensitivity to Mycobacterium tuberculosis antigen may manifest as – | [
"Iridocylitis",
"Polyarteritis nodosa",
"Phlyctenular conjunctivitis",
"Giant cell arteritis"
] | Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is type IV hypersensitivity reaction to endogenous allergen (tubercular protein, staphylococcal protein). | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24581 | Which of the following does not form portal triad in liver | [
"Hepatic artery",
"Hepatic vein",
"Bile duct",
"Portal vein"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hepatic vein Histology of the Livero Liver is covered by Glisson's capsule.o Liver is divided into hexagonal lobules oriented around the terminal tributaries of the hepatic vein (Terminal hepatic veins), i.e. Terminal hepatic vein is in the centre of the lobule and area around the hepatic vein is called centrilobular zone.o At periphery of lobule, lies the portal tract containing hepatic artery, bile duct and portal vein. Area around portal tract is called periportal zone.o These three structures (portal vein, hapatic artery and bile duct) form portal triad.o Area between periportal zone and centrilobular zone is called midzonal area,o All around the central vein are the major parenchymal cells, i.e. hepatocytes.o Lobule contains sinusoid (sinusoidal capillaries) which have fenestrated endothelium covering the subendothelial space of Disse. This space contains stellate cell processes and hepatocellular microvilli,o Other important cells of liver are Kupjfer cells, which belong to monocytic-macrophage sytem and function as phagocytic cells. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37279 | The best method to prevent initiation of caries in a four¬year-old child who has no accessibility to community water fluoridation is: | [
"Brushing and flossing",
"2.2% NaF tablet daily",
"0.05% NaF mouthwash daily",
"0.5% NaF toothpaste daily"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38580 | Double track sign is seen in | [
"Duodenal atresia",
"CHPS",
"Gastric ulcer",
"Achalasia"
] | Double/triple track sign is seen in congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33926 | Most common organism cultured in CSOM is ? | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Staphylococcus epidermidis",
"Streptococcus pneumonia",
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pseudomonas aeruginosa Microbiology of CSOM Pus culture in both types of aerobic and anaerobic CSOM may show multiple organisms. Most commonly isolated organisms are gram negative bacilli, i.e., Pseudomonas, proteus, E.coli. These organisms are not commonly found in the respiratory tract, while commonly found in the skin of external ear. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10919 | In rabies the characteristic pathological manifestationis: | [
"Ventriculitis",
"Brainstem encephalitis",
"Basal ganglia affection",
"Meningitis"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Brainstem encephalitis(Ref: Robbin's 7th/e, p. 1375)* Rabies is severe encephalitis, mainly involves. Rhombencephalon (Brainstem), Basal ganglia, Spinal Cord, Dorsal root ganglia. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20055 | Most common complication of pseudocyst of pancreas | [
"Rupture into peritoneum",
"Haemorrhage",
"Infection",
"Rupture into colon"
] | PSEUDOCYST A pseudocyst is a collection of amylase-rich fluid enclosed in a well-defined wall of fibrous or granulation tissue. Pseudocysts typically arise following an attack of mild acute pancreatitis, lie outside the pancreas, and represent an APFC that has not resolved and matured. Formation of a pseudocyst requires 4 weeks or more from the onset of acute pancreatitis. The Term 'pseudocyst' is often used more loosely, to include sterile WON that has failed to resolve, or a collection that has developed in the context of chronic pancreatitis or after pancreatic trauma. If carefully investigated, more than half of these will be found to have a communication with the main pancreatic duct. Pseudocysts are often single but, occasionally, patients will develop multiple pseudocysts. A pseudocyst is usually identified on ultrasound or a CT scan. It is impoant to differentiate a pseudocyst from an APFC; the clinical scenario and the radiological appearances should allow that distinction to be made. Occasionally, a cystic neoplasm may be confused with a chronic pseudocyst. EUS and aspiration of the cyst fluid is very useful in such a situation. The fluid should be sent for measurement of carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) levels, amylase levels and cytology. Fluid from a pseudocyst typically has a low CEA level, and levels above 400 ng/mL are suggestive of a mucinous neoplasm. Pseudocyst fluid usually has a high amylase level, but that is not diagnostic, as a tumour that communicates with the duct system may yield similar findings. Cytology typically reveals inflammatory cells in pseudocyst fluid. If there is no access to EUS, then percutaneous FNA is acceptable (just aspiration, not percutaneous inseion of a drain). ERCP and MRCP may demonstrate communication of the cyst with the pancreatic duct system, demonstrate ductal anomalies, or diagnose chronic pancreatitis and thus help in planning treatment. Pseudocysts will resolve spontaneously in most instances, but complications can develop. Pseudocysts that are thick-walled or large (over 6 cm in diameter), have lasted for a long time (over 12 weeks), or have arisen in the context of chronic pancreatitis are less likely to resolve spontaneously,but these factors are not specific indications for intervention. Therapeutic interventions are advised only if the pseudocyst causes symptoms, if complications develop, or if a distinction has to be made between a pseudocyst and a tumour. There are three possible approaches to draining a pseudocyst: percutaneous, endoscopic and surgical. Percutaneous drainage to the exterior under radiological guidance should be avoided. It carries a very high likelihood of recurrence. More over, it is not advisable unless one is absolutely ceain that the cyst is not neoplastic and that it has no communication with the pancreatic duct (or else a pancreaticocutaneous fistula will develop). A percutaneous transgastric cystgastrostomy can be done under imaging guidance, and a double-pigtail drain placed with one end in the cyst cavity and the other end in the gastric lumen. This requires specialist expeise but, in experienced hands, the recurrence rates are no more than 15%. Endoscopic drainage usually involves puncture of the cyst through the stomach or duodenal wall under EUS guidance, and placement of a tube drain with one end in the cyst cavity and the other end in the gastric lumen. The success rates depend on operator expeise. Occasionally, ERCP and placement of a pancreatic stent across the ampulla may help to drain a pseudocyst that is in communication with the duct. Surgical drainage involves internally draining the cyst into the gastric or jejunal lumen. Recurrence rates should be no more than 5%, and this still remains the standard against which the evolving radiological and endoscopic approaches are measured. The approach is conventionally through an open incision, but laparoscopic cystgastrostomy is also feasible. Pseudocysts that have developed complications are best managed surgically. There is a small group of patients who, having suffered an attack of necrotising pancreatitis with duct disruption, go on to suffer repeated complications in the form of recurrent fluid collections, pseudocysts, pleural effusions or pancreatic ascites. Very often disruption of the main pancreatic duct in the neck, body or tail is compounded by a stricture or a stone in the head that cannot be treated endoscopically. In such patients, some form of surgical resection and/or a drainage procedure even though it may be technically challenging may be the only way to achieve lasting resolution. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1229 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6802 | layryngeal dystonia which is a psychiatric emergency can be treated with | [
"lorazepam",
"milnacipran",
"dantrolene",
"propanolol"
] | Acute dystonia * <48 hours of staing antipsychotics * M.C in======Younger black males * If a patient develops dystonia he is more prone for eps Patient considers this as an Allergic reaction , thereby may stop drugs Layryngeal dystonia is a Psychiatric emergency, should be treated with IV lorazepam TREATMENT * Diphenhydramine * Benztropine mesylate * Prophylactic anticholinergics helps Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 925 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16301 | Gum tumor with 2 contralateral mobile lymph nodes in cheek comes under -a) T3N2M0b) T2N2M0 c) T4N2M0d) T3N3M0 | [
"ab",
"a",
"ad",
"bc"
] | As the size of tumor is not mentioned so it may be any T.
Since 2 contralateral mobile lymph nodes are present it will be N2 stage.
No local invasion given so it can be T1 or T2 or T3 but not T4.
So stage will be :
- T3N2M0
- T2N2M0 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27754 | The insulin preparation of choice in diabetic ketoacidosis is | [
"Regular insulin",
"Lente insulin",
"Isophane insulin",
"A 30:70 mixture of plain and isophane insulin"
] | Diabetic ketoacidosis (Diabetic coma) Ketoacidosis of different grades generally occurs in insulin dependent diabetics. It is infrequent in type 2 DM. The most common precipitating cause is infection; others are trauma, stroke, pancreatitis, stressful conditions and inadequate doses of insulin Treatment of DKA:- 1. Insulin:- Regular insulin is used to rapidly correct the metabolic abnormalities. A bolus dose of 0.1-0.2 U/kg i.v. is followed by 0.1 U/kg/hr infusion; the rate is doubled if no significant fall in blood glucose occurs in 2 hr. Fall in blood glucose level by 10% per hour can be considered adequate response. Usually, within 4-6 hours blood glucose reaches 300 mg/dl. Then the rate of infusion is reduced to 2-3 U/hr. This is maintained till the patient becomes fully conscious and routine therapy with s.c. insulin is instituted. 2) I v. Fluids 3) kcl Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-267,268 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16167 | Post-transplant cytomegalovirus infection may cause | [
"Pyelonephritis",
"GI ulceration and hemorrhage",
"Cholecystitis",
"Intraabdominal abscess"
] | Overall, 30% of all infections contracted in the posttransplant period are viral. The most common viral infections are DNA viruses of the herpesvirus family and include cytomegalovirus (CMV), Epstein-Barr virus, herpes simplex virus, and varicella zoster virus. CMV infections may occur as either primary or reactive infections and have a peak incidence at about 6-week post-transplant. The classic signs include fever, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, and leukopenia. CMV infection can affect several organ systems and result in pneumonitis; ulceration and hemorrhage in the stomach, duodenum, or colon; hepatitis; esophagitis; retinitis; encephalitis; or pancreatitis. The risk of developing posttransplant CMV depends on donor-recipient serology, with the greatest risk in seronegative patients who receive organs from seropositive donors. Pyelonephritis, cholecystitis, intraabdominal abscesses, and parotitis are caused by bacterial infections or GI perforation and not primarily by CMV infection. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9553 | A patient treated for infeility, was diagnosed with twin pregnancy at 6 weeks gestation. On her follow up USG at 12 weeks, there was a single developing live fetus. Fuher management is? | [
"Advice MTP as the second twin is at increased risk of aboing",
"Continue pregnancy like a normal singleton pregnancy",
"Watch for coagulation defect in mother",
"Chorionic villous sampling"
] | This is a case of vanishing twin. This may occur in upto 1 out of 8 twin pregnancies. When a twin dies in the first trimester it has no significant effect on the mother or the surviving fetus. The pregnancy should therefore be continued as a normal singleton pregnancy. In a slightly more advanced gestation, fetal death may also go unnoticed until delivery and may be compressed appreciably- fetus compressus , or may be flattened remarkably -fetus papyraceus. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11024 | Hair cell of organ of corti supported by-a) Onodi cellsb) Deiter cellc) Hensen celld) Bullar celle) Haller cell | [
"a",
"c",
"ac",
"bc"
] | Supporting cells in organ of corti are PHD i.e. Pillar cells, Hersen cells and Decten cells.
Hellar cells are ethmoidal air cell that extend along the medial roof of the maxillary sinus. They may exist as a discrete cells or the may open into maxillary sinus or infundibulumQ
“Onodi cells are posterior and lateral extension of posterior ethmoidal cells. These cells can surround the optic nerve tractQ and put the nerve at risk during surgery” | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9858 | Increased radiolucency of one sided hemithorax may he caused by all the following except: | [
"Obstructive emphysema",
"Pneumothorax",
"Expiratory film",
"Rotation"
] | Ans. Expiratory film | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6499 | Hypoglossal nerve injury cause: | [
"Detion of soft palate to affected side",
"Detion of soft palate to active side",
"Detion of tongue to lesion side",
"Detion of larynx to affected side"
] | Hypoglossal nerve cause: Tongue to dete to the affected side Larynx to dete to active side | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22598 | 2, 3 DPG binds to __________ site of Hb and __________ release of O2? | [
"One, increase",
"Four, increase",
"One, decrease",
"Four, decrease"
] | The fate of 2,3 - DPG2, 3-DPG is synthesized within RBCs from 3 phosphoglyceraldehyde, which is a product of glycolysis the Embden-Meyerhof pathway.It is a highly charged anion that binds to the P chains of deoxy-hemoglobin. One mole of deoxyhemoglobin binds 1 mol of 2,3-DPG.HbO2 + 2,3-DPG = Hb - 2,3-DPG + O2In this equilibrium, an increase in the concentration of 2,3-DPGshifts the reaction to the right, causing more O2 to be liberated.Factors affecting 2,3-DPG concentration and affinity for hemoglobinIncreasing 2,3-DPGDecreasing 2,3-DPGChronic hypoxia egObstructive pulmonary emphysemaHigh altitudeCyanotic congenital hea diseaseAnaemiaeg.sickle cell HbAcidosisExerciseHormonesThyroid hormoneGrowth hormoneAndrogensPregnancyInosineDihydroxyacetonePyruvatePhosphateStored bloodFetal hemoglobinAlkalosis(Refer: Ganong&;s Review of Medical physiology 24th edition, pg no: 643-644) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46023 | Ranitidine differs from cimetidine because of? | [
"Ranitidine does not have anti androgenic side effect",
"Shoer half life",
"More side effects",
"Less potent"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ranitidine does not have antiandrogenic side effect | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34415 | Glands of littre are homologous to | [
"Baholin gland",
"Cowper's gland",
"Skene glands",
"Glands on labia"
] | Glands of littre are the urethral glands of males Skene glands are the paraurethral glands Glands of littre are homologous to skene glands Ref: Internet sources,Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 2. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21253 | Health assistant should make repos of bihs and deaths occurring in their area every: September 2011 | [
"Day",
"Week",
"Month",
"Year"
] | Ans. B: Week Common job functions for the health assistants (male and female) include collecting and compiling the weekly repos of bihs and deaths occurring in their areas and submitting them to the MO PHC. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17027 | Not a feature of atrial septal defect: | [
"Fixed S2 split",
"Mid diastolic murmur",
"Ejection systolic murmur",
"Paradoxical pulse"
] | Ans. d (Paradoxical pulse). (Ref OP Ghai 6th ed. 402; Nelson Paediatrics, 18th/1883)ATRIAL SEPTAL DEFECT (ASD):# This is a common cardiac anomaly that may be first encountered in the adult and occurs more frequently in females.# Can be divided into 3 types:- Ostium primum atrial septal defect (ASD)- Ostium secundum ASD, the more common type.- Sinus venosus defect (less common).- Coronary sinus atrial septal defect# Its most common form is osteum secundum defect.# The most common ostium secundum type atrial septal defect involves the fossa ovalis and is midseptal in location. This type of defect should not be confused with a patent foramen ovale. True atrial septal defects, that is, defects within the confines of the fossa ovalis.# Child is usually asymptomatic.# Physical signs include- Mild left precordial bulge,- Loud S1,- Wide and fixed S2 split, - Systolic ejection murmur due to increasing flow across RV outflow into pulmonary artery.- Short rumbling mid diastolic murmur proved increasing volume of blood across tricuspid V.# Left atrial enlargement does not occur early in the disease.# Right bundle branch block is common# CXR:- The heart in ASD is sometimes displaced to left (Bedford sign).- Ascending aorta and arch tend to appear smaller than normal, probably due to rotation of ascending aorta by enlarged RA-RV, causing saggital alignment of arch (Small knuckle).- The central pulmonary arteries are enlarged and there is a variable degree of pulmonary plethora, depending on the size of shunt.- Septal lines (Kerley B lines) in a patient of ASD should always suggest an associated mitral valve abnormality (ECD or Lutembacher syndrome).# The "great hilar dance" sign characterizes ASD on fluoroscopy.# The "Goose-neck" deformity is seen in ASD on cardioangiography."Hilar dance sign" is seen on fluroscopyTreatment of Atrial septal defect:# Most ostium secundum defects should be closed.# Optimal time for closure is a debated issue, however 2-5 yrs age is considered ideal for surgery.# A large percentage of isolated secundum defects are now closed using transluminal percutaneous devices especially in children who have attained 10 kg or more weight.# For the child in whom device closure is not an option, repair can easily be done on cardiopulmonary bypass using a patch of pericardium, polytetrafluoroethylene (Gore-Tex), or Dacron if primary closure is not feasible.Indications for surgery in ASD:# For secundum atrial ventricular defects (which contributes to approximately 70% of ASDs) that fail to spontaneously close and primum AV defects (which contributes to approximately 20% of ASDs), treatment is aimed at closing the defect if a LR shunt of 1.5:2 or more is present.# Closure is performed during the first decade, even in absence of symptoms to avoid late-onset RVF, endocarditis, and paradoxical emboli.# Without surgery, 50-60% of infants with complete AV canal defect die from CCF secondary to large L=> R shunting and/or AV valve incompetency by 1 year of age. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6458 | As per WHO protocol ATT drug C/l in pregnancy: | [
"Rifampicin",
"Pyrazinamide",
"Ethambutol",
"Streptomycin"
] | Ans: D (Streptomycin) T.B Treatment during pregnancy Park 21st/175"During pregnancy, streptomycin can cause permanent deafness in the baby, so ethambutol should be used instead of streptomycin. Isonsazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide & ethambutol are safe to use. Second-line drugs such as fluoroquinolones, ethionamide PS protionamide are teratogenic & should not he used"T.B Treament during pregnancy1 KDT6th/ 748-49"The WHO & British Thoracic Society consider H, R & Z to be safe to the foetus & recommended the standard 6 month (2HRZ+4HR) regimen for pregnant women with T.B. Ethambutol can be added during late but not early pregnancy Streptomycin is contraindicated" | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7676 | Pain due to pelvic congestion syndrome is relieved by: | [
"OC pills.",
"Tamoxifen",
"Mefenamic Acid.",
"Mifepristone."
] | PELVIC CONGESTION SYNDROME There is congestion or dilatation of uterine or ovarian plexuses. Symptoms: Patient has a congestive type of dysmenorrhea without any demonstrable pelvic pathology. other symptoms include: bilateral lower abdominal pain, dyspareunia, abnormal uterine bleeding, chronic fatigue and irritable bowel symptoms Diagnosis: clinical, Tranuterine venography, MRI are for primary diagnosis. Pelvic USG and laparoscopy may disclose varicosities Management: Pain relief: Oral Contraceptive Pills (containing low estrogen and high Progesterone), GnRH analogues Hormonal suppression: medroxyprogesterone acetate (30 mg daily), Goserelin (GnRH analogue) Non responsive: Percutaneous transcatheter embolisation | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28696 | Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by an increase of ? | [
"Urea",
"Glutamate",
"Ammonia",
"Fattyacid"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., AmmoniaHepatic encephalopathy is characterized by altered level of consciousness, caused by liver disorder.Liver disorder is characterized by elevation of ammonia. As liver is considered with detoxification of ammonia to form urea, in liver failure ammonia level is elevated.Hepatic encephalopathy basically presents with manifestations of CNS depression | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8195 | Alveoli will not collapse during expiration in normal individuals. The stability of alveoli is maintained by the following factor: | [
"Compliance of the lungs",
"Residual air in alveoli",
"Negative intrapleural pressure",
"Reduced surface tension by surfactant"
] | The low surface tension when the alveoli are small is due to the presence of surfactant in the fluid lining the alveoli. Surfactant is a mixture of dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (DPPC), other lipids, and proteins. If the surface tension is not kept low when the alveoli become smaller during expiration, they collapse in accordance with the law of Laplace. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 34. Introduction to Pulmonary Structure and Mechanics. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34703 | For a class V cavity for amalgam: | [
"Mesio-distal walls are parallel and occluso-gingival walls converging",
"Mesio-distal walls diverging, occlusogingival walls converging",
"MD walls diverging, OG walls diverging",
"MD walls and OG walls parallel"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2417 | Final centre for horizontal movements of eye is- | [
"Abducent nucleus",
"Trochlear nucleus",
"Oculomotor nucleus",
"Vestibular nucleus"
] | Horizontal movements of the eye are bought about by the action of Lateral rectus muscle. Lateral rectus muscle causes Abduction of the eye. It is supplied by the Sixth nerve (Abducent) Third cranial nerve (Occulomotor) supplies the superior, medial and inferior recti and inferior oblique muscle. Fouh cranial nerve(trochlear) supplies the superior oblique muscle. Mnemonic for nerve supply : SO - 4 LR - 6 (SO- superior oblique; 4 - 4th cranial nerve ; LR - Lateral rectus; 6 - 6 th cranial nerve) Ref;A.K.Khurana;6th Edition;Page no: 339 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1150 | All of the following are neuronal tumors, except- | [
"Gangliocytoma",
"Ganglioglioma",
"Neurocytoma",
"Ependymoma"
] | Conventional classification of CNS tumors
Conventionally, CNS tumors are classified into following three groups:-
Glial tumors :- Primary tumors of the CNS that arise from the three glial cells present in the CNS, i.e., astrocytes, oligodendrocytes and ependymal cells. Examples are astrocytomas, oligodendrogliomas, ependymomas, mixed gliomas.
Neuronal tumors :- Primary tumors of the CNS that contain mature appearing neurons or show neuronal lineage. Examples are neurocytomas, gangliocytomas and gangliogliomas.
Embroyonal tumors (poorly differentiated tumors) :- Primary tumors of the CNS which thought of neuroectodermal origin express few if any phenotype features of mature cells of the nervous system. Examples are medulloblastomas, neuroblastomas and ependymoblastomas. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51883 | Phagocytosis was discovered by? | [
"Elie Metchinkoff",
"Aulus Cornelius Celsus.",
"RudolfVirchow",
"Emil Adolf von Behring"
] | “The discovery ofphagocytosis by Elie Metchinkoff marks the birth of immunology”. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53281 | Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ? | [
"Liver",
"Spleen",
"Bone marrow",
"Thymus"
] | Generative (Central) Lymphoid Organs Thymus: Site of development of T cells Bone marrow: Site of maturation of B lymphocytes Secondary (Peripheral) Lymphoid Organs (in which adaptive immune responses to microbes are initiated) Lymph nodes Spleen Mucosal & Cutaneous lymphoid tissues | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53755 | True for tetanus are all, except: | [
"Due to exotoxin",
"Due to endotoxin",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | Due to exotoxin | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38306 | Which of the following fungal infection causes most commonly corneal ulcer: | [
"Trichophyton",
"Aspergillus",
"Mucor",
"Sprothrix"
] | Ans. (b) AspergillusRef: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker 8th ed. /613, 659-60* Fungal infections of the cornea are secondary to injury, bacterial infection and treatment with antibacterial agents and steroids.* Occur most often in hot climates.* It can also caused by common saprophytic moulds- Aspergillus and Fusarium | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40665 | A 25-year-old woman presented with primary amenorrhea, short stature, webbed neck, broad chest and widely spaced pages. Examination showed weak pulses in lower extremity and streak ovaries. Which of the following karyotype is most likely to be present? | [
"45,X/46,XX",
"47XXY",
"47 XXX",
"47 XXY/48 XXXY"
] | Ans-ANote-The diagnosis is Turner syndrome | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25459 | Brown-Sequard's syndrome is characterized by | [
"Loss of temperature & pain on opposite side",
"Loss of touch on opposite side",
"Loss of motor power on opposite side",
"ALL"
] | Ans. a (Loss of temperature & pain on opposite side). (Ref. Harrison 18th/Ch. 377)BROWN-SEQUARD HEMICORD SYNDROME consists of -# Ipsilateral weakness (corticospinal tract) and# Loss of joint position and vibratory sense (posterior column), with# Contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense (spinothalamic tract) one or two levels below the lesion. Brown-Sequard Hemlcord SyndromeThis consists of ipsilateral weakness (corticospinal tract) and loss of joint position and vibratory sense (posterior column), with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense (spinothalamic tract) one or two levels below the lesion. Segmental signs, such as radicular pain, muscle atrophy, or loss of a deep tendon reflex, are unilateral. Partial forms are more common than the fully developed syndrome.Central Cord SyndromeThis syndrome results from selective damage to the grey matter nerve cells and crossing spinothalamic tracts surrounding the central canal. In the cervical cord, the central cord syndrome produces arm weakness out of proportion to leg weakness and a "dissociated" sensory loss, meaning loss of pain and temperature sensations over the shoulders, lower neck, and upper trunk (cape distribution), in contrast to preservation of light touch, joint position, and vibration sense in these regions. Spinal trauma, syringomyelia, and intrinsic cord tumors are the main causes.Anterior Spinal Artery SyndromeInfarction of the cord is generally the result of occlusion or diminished flow in this artery. The result is extensive bilateral tissue destruction that spares the posterior columns. All spinal cord functions motor, sensory, and autonomic are lost below the level of the lesion, with the striking exception of retained vibration and position sensation.Foramen Magnum SyndromeLesions in this area interrupt decussating pyramidal tract fibers destined for the legs, which cross caudal to those of the arms, resulting in weakness of the legs (crural paresis). Compressive lesions near the foramen magnum may produce weakness of the ipsilateral shoulder and arm followed by weakness of the ipsilateral leg, then the contralateral leg, and finally the contralateral arm, an "around-the-clock" pattern that may begin in any of the four limbs. There is typically suboccipital pain spreading to the neck and shoulders.Intramedullary and Extramedullary SyndromesIt is useful to differentiate intramedullary processes, arising within the substance of the cord, from extramedullary ones that compress the spinal cord or its vascular supply. The differentiating features are only relative and serve as clinical guides. With extramedullary lesions, radicular pain is often prominent, and there is early sacral sensory loss (lateral spinothalamic tract) and spastic weakness in the legs (corticospinal tract) due to the superficial location of leg fibers in the corticospinal tract. Intramedullary lesions tend to produce poorly localized burning pain rather than radicular pain and to spare sensation in the perineal and sacral areas ("sacral sparing"), reflecting the laminated configuration of the spinothalamic tract with sacral fibers outermost; corticospinal tract signs appear later. Regarding extramedullary lesions, a further distinction is made between extradural and intradural masses, as the former are generally malignant and the latter benign (neurofibroma being a common cause). Consequently, a long duration of symptoms favors an intradural origin. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34758 | Which is not a variable of MDRD (Modification of Diet in Renal Disease) formula? | [
"Age",
"Gender",
"Race",
"Weight"
] | TEST : 1. CKD - EPI - cystatin C method (BEST) ; Cystatin - C is produced by nucleated cells 2. Modification of diet in renal disease formula GFR= 186.3 x (serum creatinine level ( mg/dl))-1.154 x age-0.203 x ( 0.742 if female ) x (1.21 if black) 3. Cockroft Gault formula 4. Creatinine clearance 5. Inulin clearance | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17015 | Changes in the respiratory system in pregnancy; | [
"Vital capacity is increased",
"Subcostal angle remains unchanged",
"Tidal volume remains unaltered",
"Residual volume Is decreased"
] | Anatomical changes:The lower ribs flare out,the subcoastal angles increases from 68 to 103 degree,transverse diameter of chest increases by 2 cm and the diaphragm rises about 4cm in pregnancy. Functional changes:Increase in ventilation in pregnancy is achieved by an increase in tidal volume by 40%.Minute ventilatory volume also increases.There is no change in vital capacity.The functional residual capacity and residual volume are decreased due to elevated diaphragm. TEXT BOOK OF OBSTETRICS,Sheila Balakrishnan,2nd edition,page no.80 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2412 | All of the following are true about Temporal Aeritis except. | [
"Polymyalgia Rheumatica",
"Anemia",
"Low ESR",
"Sudden blindness"
] | Answer is C (Low ESR): Temporal aeritis is characterised by an increased ESR. TEMPORAL AERITIS / GIANT CELL AERITIS / CRANIAL AERITIS : Inflammation (vasculitis) of MediumQ and Large sizedQ aeries Most common aery involved - Carotid aery (temporal branch of carotid aeryQ) Classical Clinical complex - Fever - Anemias - Headache High ESRe (Elderly patient: almost exclusively in individuals older than 55 years) The diagnosis is confirmed by biopsy of the temporal aeryQ. Temporal aeritis is treated by glucocoicoid therapye. Other manifestations Polymyalgia rheumatica syndromes Thickened and nodular temporal aery Scalp pain, claudication of jaw and tongue (due to temporal aery involvement). Ocular involvements/Sudden blindnessQ (due to Ischemic optic neuritis) Claudication of extremities, Stroke, Myocardial infarction, Aoic aneurysm, Aoic dissection, Infarction of visceral organs (due to systemic vasculitis of multiple medium and large sized aeries) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20414 | Terrible triad of O'Douoghue include: | [
"ACL + LCL + PLC",
"ACL + PLC + PCL",
"ACL + MCL + PLC",
"ACL + MCL + medial meniscus tear"
] | Ans. dOption aFalseNot correctOption bFalseNot correctOption cFalseNot correctOption dTrueYes correctOption eFalseNot correctThe unhappy triad of O'Donoghue described the injuries as:1. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear2. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) tear/sprain3. Medial meniscal tear (lateral compartment bone bruise)Usually associated with sports injury as lateral force applied on a fixed foot. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49763 | The first hea sound is loud in which of the following conditions? 1. Mitral regurgitation 2. Pregnancy 3. Anemia 4. Mitral stenosis | [
"1 and 4",
"1, 2 and 4",
"3 and 4",
"2, 3 and 4"
] | Loud S1-Tachycardia Sho PR interval CHF Anemia Pheochromocytoma Thyrotoxicosis Physiological: Children /pregnancy In Mitral stenosis-Physical obstruction- | Left atrial pressure S1 becomes softer in - Later stages of MS when the leaflets are rigid and calcified After exposure to beta adrenergic receptor blockers - Long PR intervals - left ventricular contractile dysfunction | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43972 | IVRA is contraindicated in - | [
"Cancer of hematogenous system",
"Sickle cell disease",
"Coagulopathy",
"Hypeension"
] | Intravenous regional anaesthesia (IRVA) was first described by Augustus Bier in 1908; his technique was repopularised by Holmes in 1963. The administration of intravenous local anaesthetic in an isolated limb by means of an ischaemic cuff is a simple and effective technique, with a low incidence of failure and high degree of safety Contraindications to IVRA Severe Raynaud's Disease (intermittent aeriolar vasospasm of the distal limbs after cold or emotional stimuli). Sickle Cell Disease (IVRA is relatively contraindicated, unless meticulous exsanguination of the limb takes place prior to cuff inflation). Crush injury to the limb, IVRA may provoke fuher tissue damage secondary to hypoxia. Age - young children are generally not amenable to IVRA alone, however in combination with sedation and additional analgesia it can be used successfully. Patients should be starved, as there may be a possibility of conversion to a general anaesthetic, alternatively the patient may require sedation in addition to IVRA to improve co-operation. Ref -pubmed.com , journal on Bier's block | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28639 | Hepatitis B can transmitted through all of the following routes EXCEPT: | [
"Milk",
"Semen",
"Stool",
"Blood"
] | However universal precaution is not needed for breast milk (no occupational hazard), Human breast milk has been implicated in perinatal transmission of HIV, and HBsAg has been found in the milk of mothers infected with HBV (REF: JAMA 1988; 259:1353-6. Lifson AR, Bond WW, Petersen NJ, Gravelle CR, Favero MS. Hepatitis B virus in peritoneal dialysis fluid: A potential hazard. Dialysis and Transplantation 1982; 11:592-600.) Harrison says that serum, semen and saliva are most infectious for hepatitis B transmission. Robbin's 7th ed says that hepatitis B antigen is present in all body secretions except stools CDC GUIDELINES: (REF: style="font-size: 12px; font-family: Verdana; background-color: transparent; veical-align: baseline; white-space: pre-wrap;">) Extension of blood and body fluid precautions to all patients is referred to as "Universal Blood and Body Fluid Precautions" or "Universal Precautions." Under universal precautions, blood and ceain body fluids of all patients are considered potentially infectious for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), hepatitis B virus (HBV), and other bloodborne pathogens. BODY FLUIDS TO WHICH UNIVERSAL PRECAUTIONS APPLY: *Universal precautions apply to blood and to other body fluids containing visible blood. *Blood is the single most impoant source of HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne pathogens in the occupational setting *Universal precautions also apply to tissues and to the following fluids: semen and vaginal secretions, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), synol fluid, pleural fluid, peritoneal fluid, pericardial fluid, and amniotic fluid. BODY FLUIDS TO WHICH UNIVERSAL PRECAUTIONS DO NOT APPLY: *Universal precautions do not apply to feces, nasal secretions, sputum, sweat, tears, urine, and vomitus unless they contain visible blood *The risk of transmission of HIV and HBV from these fluids and materials is extremely low or nonexistent. *Human breast milk has been implicated in perinatal transmission of HIV, and HBsAg has been found in the milk of mothers infected with HBV (10, 13). However, occupational exposure to human breast milk has not been implicated in the transmission of HIV nor HBV infection to health-care workers. *Whereas universal precautions do not apply to human breast milk, gloves may be worn by health-care workers in situations where exposures to breast milk might be frequent, for example, in breast milk banking. * Universal precautions do not apply to saliva. Saliva of some persons infected with HBV has been shown to contain HBV-DNA at concentrations 1/1,000 to 1/10,000 of that found in the infected person's serum. HBsAg-positive saliva has been shown to be infectious when injected into experimental animals and in human bite exposures | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24524 | Contraindications to intrauterine contraceptive device are all except | [
"Wilson disease",
"Uterine abnormality with distorted uterine cavity",
"Menorrhagia due to coagulation disorder",
"High risk for PID"
] | Menorrhagia due to coagulation disorder is not a contraindication to IUD use. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52981 | A male 30 years of age complaints of poor vision in day light which improves in dim light. Which of the following is the most common cause? | [
"Cortical cataract",
"Morgagnian cataract",
"Nuclear cataract",
"Steroid induced cataract"
] | Ans. (d) Steroid induced cataractRef: Ducker's ophthalmology 2/e, p. 412; Parson's 20/e, p. 251Steroid induced cataract is posterior subcapsular which causes the said complaints due to its central position. Age favours PSC than nuclear cataract. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46146 | Post mortem staining gets fixed after - | [
"2-3 hrs.",
"3-4 hrs.",
"5-6 hrs.",
"6-7 hrs."
] | Postmortem staining get fixed in 6-12 hours. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16188 | One of the following is not a requirement of an ideal denture cleanser: | [
"Should be difficult to separate from denture fit surface",
"Should dissolve all denture deposits",
"Exhibit bactericidal effect",
"Non-toxic"
] | Ideal requirements of denture cleanser:
Non-toxic
Easy to remove and should be harmless to patient.
Harmless to the denture base materials and denture teeth.
Able to dissolve all denture deposits such as calculus.
Exhibit bactericidal and fungicidal activity. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32419 | Motile spermatozoa found in wet mount of vaginal secretions are indicative of intercourse within the past:Karnataka 09; LIP 09; MAHE 11 | [
"6 h",
"12 h",
"24 h",
"48 h"
] | Ans. 12 h | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52144 | Invert sugar, is | [
"equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose",
"equimolar mixture of Sucrose and glucose",
"equimolar mixture of Glucose and lactose",
"equimolar mixture of Glucose and lactose"
] | Hydrolysis of sucrose (optical rotation +66.5°) will produce one molecule of glucose (+52.5°) and one molecule of fructose (–92°).
Therefore, the products will change the dextrorotation to levorotation, or the plane of rotation is inverted. Equimolecular mixture of glucose and fructose thus formed is called invert sugar. The enzyme producing hydrolysis of sucrose is called sucrase or invertase.
Honey contains invert sugar. Invert sugar is sweeter than sucrose.
Reference: Vasudevan 7th ed, pg 77 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14161 | Father has a blood group B : Mother has AB : Children are not likely to have the following blood group - | [
"0",
"A",
"B",
"AB"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Blood group 0'A' antigen, 'B' allel gives Type 'EV antigen, and 0 allel gives type '0' antigen.o Both A and B are dominant over '0'.o So, person with AA antigen & AO antigen will have 'A' blood group, person with BB antigen & BO antigen will have`Er blood group, and only 00 people have type '0' blood.o When both A and B antigen are present then the case is different -o A and B antigen show codominance when present together. So, an individual with AB allel will have phenotype of both A and B --> AB blood group. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40123 | Maximum amount of flouride is absorbed by: | [
"Enamel",
"Dentin",
"Cementum",
"Pulp"
] | Enamel 2200 – 3300 ppm
Dentin 200 – 300 ppm
Cementum 4400 ppm
Pulp is 100 – 650 ppm | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29649 | Which of the following drug is a 5HT2c agonist approved for treatment of obesity and causes Serotonin Syndrome as an adverse effect? | [
"Lorcaserin",
"Sibutramine",
"Modafinil",
"Rimonabant"
] | Lorcaserin: 5HT2c agonist Causes weight loss S/E: Serotonin syndrome Sibutramine: Serotonin and nor-adrenaline reuptake inhibitor Discontinued due to increased risk of stroke Modafinil: used in treatment of Narcolepsy Rimonabant: Inverse agonist of cannabinoid receptor - 1 Causes weight loss Prevents craving of alcohol S/E: psychological problems (withdrawn) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32177 | Road - to health cha was given by? | [
"John Snow",
"David Morley",
"Koch",
"Henrey Ducant"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., David morley Growth cha Also known as "road-to-health" cha. It was first designed by David morley. It is a visible display of the child's physical growth and development. It is designed primarily for the longitudinal follow-up (growth monitoring) of child. Mostly weight for age is taken into consideration (height is not taken into consideration). This is because weight is the most sensitive measure of growth and any detion from normal can be detected easily by comparison with reference curves. A child can lose weight but not height. The growth cha offers a simple and inexpensive way of monitoring weight gain and infact child health oveime. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48292 | Ochronosis is seen in poisoning with | [
"Boric acid",
"Carbolic acid",
"Oxalic acid",
"HCl"
] | CARBOLIC ACID (phenol; OH) In the body, phenol is paly oxidised to hydroquinone and pyrocatechol. CHRONIC POISONING (PHENOL MARASMUS) It is characterised by anorexia, weight loss, headache, veigo, dark urine and pigmentation of skin and sclera. The hydroquinone and pyrocatechol may cause pigmentation in the cornea and various cailages, a condition called oochronosis. Oochronosis is commonly associated with alkaptonuria (an inborn error of metabolism), in which homegentisic acid gets deposited in cailages, ligaments and fibrous tissues. Ref:- k s narayan reddy; pg num:-535 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15372 | Crescent fracture is | [
"Fracture of iliac crest",
"Fracture of coccyx",
"Fracture of calcaneum",
"Fracture of Atlas"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5700 | Winging of the scapula is due to injury to: | [
"Nerve supplying serratus anterior",
"Pectoral nerve",
"Subscapular nerve",
"Ulnar nerve"
] | Nerve supplying serratus anterior | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19179 | Activated protein C is used therapeutically in: | [
"Abnormal PT\\/PTT",
"Ml",
"Fungal infection",
"Sepsis"
] | Answer is option4, sepsis Human recombinant activated protein C for severe sepsis. Mai-Carvajal AJ1, Sola I, Lathyris D, Cardona AF. Author information Update in Human recombinant protein C for severe sepsis and septic shock in adult and paediatric patients. Abstract BACKGROUND: Sepsis is a common and frequently fatal condition. Human recombinant activated protein C (APC) has been used to reduce the high rate of death by severe sepsis or septic shock. This is an update of a Cochrane review (originally published in 2007 and updated in 2008). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10261 | A 68-year-old female patient is seen on the ward. She complains of severe pain in her right eye. There is blurring of vision and she feels nauseated and has vomited several times. Earlier in the day she has undergone colonoscopy for evaluation of her long-standing Crohn's disease. The endoscopist has made a comment that the examination was difficult. What is the likely cause of her painful red eye? | [
"Anterior uveitis",
"Acute conjunctivitis",
"Episcleritis",
"Acute angle closure glaucoma"
] | Ans. (d) Acute angle closure glaucomaAnticholinergic agents are sometimes used during endoscopy to cause smooth muscle relaxation to aid examination when difficulty is encountered. These agents cause pupillary dilatation, thus, precipitating acute angle closure glaucoma in susceptible patients. In patients with a history of glaucoma, glucagon is used instead of anticholinergics. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1505 | An 18 year old boy presents with digital gangrene In third and fouh fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm of Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Wegener's granulomatosis",
"Polyaeritis nodosa",
"Takayasu's aeritis",
"Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)"
] | Polyaeritis nodosa was described in 1866 by Kussmaul and Maier.It is a multisystem, necrotizing vasculitis of small- and medium-sizedmuscular aeries in which involvement of the renal and visceral aeries is characteristic. Polyaeritis nodosa does not involve pulmonaryaeries, although bronchial vessels may be involved; granulomas, significant eosinophilia, and an allergic diathesis are not observed . Clinical features Nonspecific signs and symptoms are the hallmarks of polyaeritis nodosa. Fever, weight loss, and malaise are present in over one-halfof cases. Patients usually present with vague symptoms such as weakness, malaise, headache, abdominal pain, and myalgias that can rapidlyprogress to a fulminant illness. Specific complaints related to the vascular involvement within a paicular organ system may also dominatethe presenting clinical picture as well as the entire course of the illness. In polyaeritis nodosa, renal involvement most commonly manifests as hypeension, renal insufficiency, or hemorrhagedue to microaneurysms. There are no diagnostic serologic tests for polyaeritis nodosa. In>75% of patients, the leukocyte count is elevated with a predominanceof neutrophils. Eosinophilia is seen only rarely and, when present athigh levels, suggests the diagnosis of eosinophilic granulomatosis withpolyangiitis (Churg-Strauss). The anemia of chronic disease may beseen, and an elevated ESR is almost always present. Other commonlaboratory findings reflect the paicular organ involved. Hypergammaglobulinemia may be present, and all patients should be screened forhepatitis B and C. Antibodies against myeloperoxidase or proteinase-3(ANCA) are rarely found in patients with polyaeritis nodosa. Ref harrisons 20e p2583 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24408 | The pathogenesis of periapical cyst is? | [
"Increased pressure within the cyst",
"Immune mediated bone destruction",
"Proliferation of epithelium",
"None"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38110 | Mugging is: | [
"When the neck of the victim is held in the bend of the elbow.",
"Compression of neck by human hands.",
"When the neck is compressed by using 2 bamboo sticks.",
"When the external respiratory orifice are closed by the hand or other means."
] | Ans: a (When the neck......elbow) Ref: Reddy, 27th ed,p. 312Mugging is described as strangulation caused by holding the neck of the victim in the bend of the elbow.Throttling - Asphyxia produced by compression of the neck by human hands.Bansdola - One bamboo stick is placed across the back of the neck and another across the front. Both the ends are tied with a rope due to which the victim is squeezed to death.Garroting - The throat is grasped from behind or a ligature is thrown over the neck and quickly tightened by twisting it with a lever which results in sudden loss of consciousness and collapse.Smothering - Asphyxia is caused by closing the external respiratory orifices either by the hand or by other means.Gagging - This is a form of asphyxia which results from pushing a cloth or soft object into the mouth or the closure of mouth and nose by a cloth or similar material which is tied around the head.Burking - It is a method of homicidal smothering and traumatic asphyxia. In this the victim is thrown to the ground and a person sits on the chest and closes the nose and mouth with his hands and another person pulls the victim round the room by the feet.Lynching is a homicidal hanging of a suspect or accused by the mob. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2896 | Not an indication for percutaneous aspiration in amoebic liver abscess | [
"Radiographically unresolved lesion after 6 months after 6 months",
"Suspected diagnosis",
"Left lobe liver abscess",
"Compression or outflow obstruction of hepatic or poal vein"
] | Amoebic liver abscess Although clinical improvement after adequate treatment with antiamoebic agents is the rule, radiologic resolution of the abscess cavity is usually delayed The average time to radiologic resolution is 3 to 9 months and can take as long as years in some patients Studies have shown that more than 90% of the visible lesions disappear radiologically, but a small percentage of patients are left with a clinically irrelevant residual lesion Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1452 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45088 | Group of 4-8 expes talking in front of a large group of audience is known as: | [
"Panel discussion",
"Symposium",
"Workshop",
"Seminar"
] | In a panel discussion, 4-8 persons who are qualified to talk about the topic sit and discuss a given problem, or the topic, in front of a large group of audience Panel Discussion A panel consists of a small group of four or eight persons, who carry on a guided and informal discussion before an audience as if the panel were meeting alone. The proceedings of the panel should be the same as those described for informal discussion: volunteering of facts, asking questions, stating opinions-all expressed with geniality, with respect for the contributions of other is taken. Ref: Park 24th edition | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19901 | Most common type of non scarring alopecia is: | [
"Androgenic",
"Areata",
"Tinea capitis",
"Traction"
] | Androgenic | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50568 | Which of the following brain tumors does not spread CSF? | [
"Germ cell tumors",
"Medulloblastoma",
"CNS Lymphoma",
"Craniopharyngoma"
] | Answer is D (Craniopharyngioma): 'Ceain brain tumors such as medulloblastomas, primitive neurectodermal tumors, anaplastic ependymomas, choroid plexus carcinoma, pineoblastomas germ cell tumors and lymphomas may involve the CSF, leptomeningis of the brain or spinal cord'. Thus all tumors except craniophatyngiomas mentioned as options may involve CSF. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7335 | Lesion in female child born to a mother treated with stilbesterol is : | [
"Vaginal adenosis",
"Sarcoma Botyroides",
"Cervical erosion",
"Carcinoma endometrium"
] | Vaginal adenosis | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38145 | Which foot bone does not have any muscle attachment? | [
"Talus",
"Calcaneum",
"Navicular",
"1st metatarsal"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Talus * Talus is the only bone in the foot having no muscle attachments. It has only ligamentous attachments. | A | null |
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