dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_2437 | Paranasal sinus opening in middle meatus-a) Maxillaryb) Anterior ethmoidc) Posterior ethmoidd) Frontale) Sphenoid | [
"abd",
"bcd",
"abc",
"ab"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28928 | Hara-kiri is death by | [
"Stab in the neck",
"Stab in the thorax",
"Stab in the abdomen",
"Stab in wrist"
] | Hara- kiri(seppuku) means cutting the belly. This is a ritual suicide formerly practiced in Japan and nearby counties by samurais(warrior class) when disgraced. Stabbing is done as a ceremony. In this type of suicide, in front of an audience, the person stabs himself on the abdomen and produces a large wound to make the intestines come out. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY DR PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 132 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18802 | Kayser flescher ring is seen in ? | [
"Siderosis",
"Chalcosis",
"Open angle glaucoma",
"Chemical injuries"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chalcosis Chalcosis It refers to the specific changes produced by the alloy of copper in the eye. Mechanism. Copper ions from the alloy are dissociated electrolytically and deposited under the membranous structures of the eye. Unlike iron ions these do not enter into a chemical combination with the proteins of the cells and thus produce no degenerative changes. Clinical manifestations Kayser-Fleischer ring : It is a golden brown ring which occurs due to deposition of copper under peripheral pas of the Descemet's membrane of the cornea. Sunflower cataract : It is produced by deposition of copper under the posterior capsule of the lens. It is brilliant golden green in colour and arranged like the petals of a sun flower. Retina : It may show deposition of golden plaques at the posterior pole which reflect the light with a metallic sheen. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48634 | Age under which child is considered incapable of committing an offence is - | [
"3 years",
"7 years",
"14 years",
"18 years"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 7 yearsCriminal responsibility and relevant sections under IPCSection of IPCRelated with82A child under the age ofseven is incapable of committing an offence. This is so because action alobe doesnot amount to guilt unless if is accompanied by a guilty mind. And, a child of that tender age cannot have a guilty mind or criminal intention with which the act is done. This presumption, however, is only confined to offenses under the IPC but not to other Acts, e.g., the Railway Act.83A child above seven and under twelve years of age is presumed to be capable of committing an offence it he has obtained sufficient maturity to understand and judge the nature and conse- quences of his conduct on that occasion. The lawr presumes such maturity in a child of that age unless the contrary is proved by the defence.89A child under 12 years of age cannot give valid consent to suffer any harm which can occur from an act done in good faith and for its benefit, e.g., a consent for an operation. Only, a guardian can give such consent.87A person under 12 years of age cannot give valid consent, whether express or implied, to suffer any harm which may result from an act no intended or not known to cause death or grievous hurt e.g. consent for a wrestling contest.84Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is uncapable of knowing the nature of act (i.e. it is wrong or contrary' to law).85,86Drunkness and criminal responsibility | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14586 | Which among the following is the longest diameter of the fetal skull? | [
"Biparietal",
"Bitemporal",
"Occipitomental",
"Occipitofrontal"
] | The occipitomental (12.5 cm), which extends from the chin to the most prominent poion of the occiput. The biparietal (9.5 cm), the greatest transverse diameter of the head, which extends from one parietal boss to the other. The bitemporal (8.0 cm), which is the greatest distance between the two temporal sutures. The occipitofrontal (11.5 cm), which follows a line extending from a point just above the root of the nose to the most prominent poion of the occipital bone. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 4. Fetal Growth and Development. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31551 | The advantage of silver point as obturating material is
that it | [
"Can be used in fine tortuous canals",
"Is easier to retrieve if retreatment becomes necessary",
"Gives a perfect seal at the apical 1/3rd of the root canal",
"Provides better adaptation to canal walls compared to GuttaPercha"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7423 | All of the following may be associated with Beta 2 agonist treatment, EXCEPT: | [
"Hyperkalemia",
"Hyperglycemia",
"Detrusor relaxation",
"Relaxation of gut and bronchial muscles"
] | Beta 2 agonists stimulate the uptake of potassium into the cells which results in hypokalemia and not hyperkalemia as mentioned above. Beta 2 agonists administered in the parenteral form or as nebulisation can be used in the management of hyperkalemia by promoting cellular intake. Ref: Harrison's Textbook of Internal Medicine 16th Edition, Pages 263; Goodman and Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 11th Edition, Pages 143-44, 247; K D Tripathi Textbook of Pharmacology, 5th Edition, Pages 109-111 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23517 | Severe mental retardation is: NEET 13 | [
"50-70",
"35-50",
"20-35",
"< 20"
] | Ans. 20-35 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46245 | Auto antibody specific for SLE - | [
"ds DNA",
"Anti RO",
"Anti-topoisomerase",
"Antihistone"
] | (A) (ds DNA) (127-Robbin's 9th)Selected autoantibodies associated with presumed autoimmune diseaseAutoantibiody (Specificity)Major Disease Association (s)Likely Role(s) in DiseaseAnti-ds DNA (Double-stranded DNASLE*Formation of immune complexesAnti-Sm (ribonuclear core protein, Sm antigen)SLE* Formation of immune complexesAnti-RNP UI (ribonuclear protine )SLE, mixed connective tissue diseaseFormation of immune complexesAnti-SS-A (Ro), anti-SS-B (LA) (ribunucleoproteins)Sjorgen syndrome, SLERole in Sjogren syndrome not knownAnti-Sci-70 (DNA topoisomerase 1)Systemic sclerosisUnknownAnti-histones (histone proteins)SLE (Drug Induced)Formation of immune complexesAnti-centromere (centromere proteins)Limited scieroderma, systemic sclerosisUnknownAntiphospholipid (phospholipid- protien complexes involved in blood coagulation)Antiphospholipid syndrome, SLEThrombotic episodesAnti-Jol (Histidyl tRNA ligase)Inflammatory myopathiesUnknownAnti-mitochondrialPrimary biliary cirrhosisUnknownAnti-eTg (transglutaminase)Dermatitis herpetiformisUnknownAnti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) (proteins in neutrophil cytoplasm)Various vasculitidesFormation of immune complexNeutrophil degranulationAnti-smooth muscleChronic autoimmune hepatitisUnknownEach antibody specificity is detected in 30% to 90% of patients with a particular disease. Asterisks indicate high correlation between the antibody the antibody specificity and the disease.* SLE is characterized by bewildering array of autoantibodies, particularly antinuclear antibody.* Best screening test for SLE is demonstration of antinuclear antibody.* ANCA antibody with peripheral rim distribution is seen in - Anti double stranded DNA.* Libman-sach-endocarditis is seen in SLE.* c-ANCA is typical of Wegner's granulomatosis.* p-ANCA is found in most cases of microscopic polyangitis and Chrug-Strauss syndrome.* Perinuclear localization (P-ANCA) where in most of the autoantibodies are specific for myelo-peroxidase (MPO).According to the WHO six patterns of mutually merging renal lesions are seen in lupus nephritis1. Minimal lesion2. Mesengial lupus nephritis3. Focal segmental LN4. Diffuse proliferative LN5. Membranous LN6. Sclerosing LN"Shrinking Lung Syndrome" seen in SLE. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43732 | Pars flaccida of the tympanic membrane is also called | [
"Reissner's membrane",
"Shrapnell's membrane",
"Basilar membrane",
"Secondary tympanic membrane"
] | Situated above the lateral process of malleus between the notch of Rivinus and the anterior and posterior malleal folds.Reissner's membrane - Separates scala media from scala vestibuli in the inner earBasilar membrane - Seen in scala media and suppos the organ of coiSecondary Tympanic Membrane - Closes the scala tympani at the site of round window | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44351 | All except one are tests for macular functions – | [
"Laser interferometry",
"Two point discrimination",
"Maddox rod test",
"Retinal ERG Electroretinogram"
] | Macular function tests
While evaluating the retinal function, some tests are used s
These tests are :
Simple macular function tests
Two-point discrimination test (Cardboard test)
Maddox rod test
Coloured light test
Modified photostress test
Entoptic view test
Amsler grid test
Other tests
Blue field entoptoscopy
Laser interferometry
Potential acuity meter
Flying corpuscle test | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15850 | Sclera, the protective covering of the eye, is thinnest at the following site: | [
"Apex",
"Limbus",
"In front of inseion of rectus muscle",
"Behind inseion of rectus muscle"
] | The sclera is the fibrous outer coating of the eye, consisting almost entirely of collagen. It is 1 mm thick posteriorly, 0.66 mm at the inseions of the rectus muscles, 0.33 mm beneath the rectus muscles and is thinnest just behind their inseions. Ref: Parsons' Diseases of the Eye By Ramanjit Sihota & Radhika Tandon, 21st edition, Page 218. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43898 | A large baby is born with which complication in pregnancy: | [
"Gestational diabetes",
"Gestational hypertension",
"Cardiac disease",
"Anaemia"
] | Ans. is a, i.e. Gestational diabetesRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 284: Williams Obs. 23/e, p 854Large baby is called as macrosomia which is defined as fetal (neonatal) weight exceeding two standard deviations or above 90th centile for the appropriate normal population.According to ACOG: birth weight of >= 4500 gm is called as macrosomia.In Indian context birth weight of >= 4000 gm is called as macrosomia.Macrosomia is seen in:Maternal diabetesMaternal obesityMultiparityProlonged gestationIncreased maternal age | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4385 | Gleason's grading system is for - | [
"Carcinoma testis",
"Carcinoma colon",
"Carcinoma thyroid",
"Carcinoma prostate"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e,, Carcinoma prostateo The Gleason Grading system is used to help evaluate the prognosis of men with prostate cancer. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42690 | Chandler's Index is for which of the following? | [
"Round worm",
"Hook worm",
"Pin worm",
"Guinea worm"
] | Ans. b (Hookworm) (Ref. Park Textbook of PSM 22nd/pg.222)CHANDLER INDEX# It is based on average number of hookworm eggs per gram of faeces for entire community.# Average number of eggs per gram of stools.No. of Eggs per Gram of FaecesImportanceBelow 200Hookworm infection is not of much significance200-250May be regarded as potential danger250-300Minor public health problemAbove 300Important public health problem | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37840 | A woman in second trimester was found to have over distended uterus. Common causes include: | [
"Wrong date",
"Hydramnios",
"Distended bladder and Twins both",
"All"
] | Ans. is a, b, c and d i.e. Wrong date; Hydramnios; Distended bladder; Twins; and Fibromyoma In women with a uterus that appears large for gestational age, the following possiblities are considered: Multiple fetuses Elevation of the uterus by a distended bladder Inaccurate menstrual history Hydramnios Hydatidiform mole Uterine myomas A closely attached adnexal mass Fetal macrosomia (late in pregnancy). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_514 | "Wind-swept deformity" is seen in: | [
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"Scurvy",
"Rheumatoid ahritis",
"Rickets"
] | Rickets >Rheumatoid Ahritis Wind swept deformity is classically used for knee deformity of rickets Windswept deformity. 1. Knee: A valgus deformity of one knee in association of varus deformity of other knee is known as windswept deformity. It is seen in: rickets, hereditary dysplasia (epiphyseal dysplasia) of bone and rheumatoid ahritis. 2. Foot: Detion of all--toes in one direction (usually laterally) is known as windswept deformity. It is seen in rheumatoid ahritis. 3. Hand: Detion of all fingers (usually medially) is known as windswept deformity. It is seen in rheumatoid ahritis. Coming to the question here we have to choose one and this terminology is classically for rickets knee deformity. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15417 | All of the following conditions show hypehermia, EXCEPT: | [
"Neuroleptic malignant syndrome",
"Phencyclidine use",
"Aspirin toxicity",
"None of the above"
] | Causes of Hypehermia Syndromes: Heat Stroke Exeional: Exercise in higher than normal heat and/or humidity Nonexeional: Anticholinergics, including antihistamines; antiparkinsonian drugs; diuretics; phenothiazines Drug-Induced Hypehermia Amphetamines, cocaine, phencyclidine (PCP), methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA; "ecstasy"), lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), salicylates, lithium, anticholinergics, sympathomimetics Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome Phenothiazines; butyrophenones, including haloperidol and bromperidol; fluoxetine; loxapine; tricyclic dibenzodiazepines; metoclopramide; domperidone; thiothixene; molindone; withdrawal of dopaminergic agents Serotonin Syndrome Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), tricyclic antidepressants Malignant Hypehermia Inhalational anesthetics, succinylcholine Endocrinopathy Thyrotoxicosis, pheochromocytoma Central Nervous System Damage Cerebral hemorrhage, status epilepticus, hypothalamic injury Ref: Kruidering-Hall M., Campbell L. (2012). Chapter 27. Skeletal Muscle Relaxants. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds), Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28620 | Special visceral efferent doesn’t involve | [
"Nucleus ambiguous",
"Motor nucleus of fifth cranial nerve",
"Dorsal nucleus of tenth cranial nerve",
"Motor nucleus of seventh cranial nerve"
] | Ref. Gray’s anatomy. 41st edition. Page. 982
All of the spinal nerves contain both sensory and motor functions and can be organized on the basis of the functional components of each nerve.
General Somatic Afferent (GSA) fibers are related to receptors for pain temperture and mechanical receptors in the skin, muscles and joints
General Visceral Afferent (GVA) fibers are related to receptors in visceral structures
General Visceral Efferent (GVE) fibers are preganglionic autonomic fibers
General Somatic Efferent (GSE) fibers innervate skeletal muscle (these are axons of alpha and gamma motor neurons) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24923 | Not a radiosensitizing drug ? | [
"5-Fu",
"BUDR",
"Cyclophosphamide",
"Hydroxyrea"
] | Ans. is'c'i.e., Cyclophosphamide lRef. Cancer nursing: Principles & practice p. 256Clsplatin and 5-FU - Most common radiosensitive drugs. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30779 | In a given population, total births in a year are 4050. There are 50 still births. 50 neonates die within first 7 days of life whereas the number of deaths within 8-28 days of life is 150. What is the Neonatal mortality rate in the population? | [
"12.5",
"50",
"49.4",
"62.5"
] | In the given question,
Total neonatal deaths = Total early neonatal deaths + Total late neonatal deaths = 50 + 150 = 200
Total live births = Total births – Total stillbirths = 4050 – 50 = 4000
Thus, Neonatal mortality rate,
NNMR = 200/4000 × 1000 = 50 per 1000 live births. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35452 | Grievous hurt include the following except | [
"Emasculation",
"Permanent privation of hearing",
"Privation of any member/joint",
"Disability to follow one's ordinary1 pursuits for a period of a week"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Disability to follow' one's ordinary pursuits for a period of a w eek o Grievous injuries areEmasculation (cutting of the penis, castration; or causing loss of power of erection due to spinal injury ).Permanent privation of the sight of either eye.Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear.Privation of any member (part, organ, limb) or joint.Destruction or permanent impairing of powers of any member or joint.Permanent disfiguration of head or face.Fracture or dislocation of a bone or a tooth.Any hurt which endangerous life or which causes the sufferer to be, during the space of twenty days in severe bodily pain, or unable to follow his daily routine. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8520 | The Renal function is best assessed by: | [
"Tc 99m DMSA",
"Tc 99m DTPA",
"Tc 99m MAG3",
"Tc 99m pertechnetate"
] | Ans. C. Tc 99m MAG3* The Renal function is best assessed by Tc-99m MAG3 (mercaptoacetyltriglycine). It is eliminated through kidney as via both glomeruli filtration and tubular excretion.* Tc-99m DMSA (dimercaptosuccinic acid) is used to evaluate renal structure and morphology, particularly in pediatric imaging for detection of scarring and pyelonephritis.* DMSA is an ideal agent for the assessment of renal cortex as it binds to the sulfhydryl groups in proximal tubules at the renal cortex with longer retention than other agents. Also, it allows better assessment of differential renal function* Tc-99m DTPA (diethylene-triamine-Penta acetate) is cleared only via glomeruli with no tubular excretion. Hence used for direct measurement of GFR.* The screening investigation used in reno-vascular hypertension is Captopril DTPA and the gold standard investigation is renal angiography. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17778 | In a case of glottic carcinoma with fully mobile cords, the treatment of choice is - | [
"Total laryngectomy",
"Radiotherapy",
"Hemilaryngectomy",
"Chemotherapy"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24071 | DMF index does not show? | [
"Number of decay tooth",
"Number of restoration",
"Severity of decay",
"Missing tooth due to decay"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48182 | In which of the following pervasive developmental disorder only one modality is impaired, others are normal - | [
"Autism",
"Asperger syndrome",
"Rett syndrome",
"All of the above"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Asperger syndromeo Pervasive development disorders include several clinically similar conditions which are characterized by three symptom clustors:-i) Impairment of social interaction:- e.g., Lack of social smile or eye contact.ii) Impairment of communication (language and non-verbal):- Language problems, delayed or absent speech.iii) Restricted repititive and styerotyped behavior, interests and activities:- e.g., Sterotypy.iv) Another associated feature is mental retardation.o In Autism and Rett syndrome all three features are found. Where as:o In asperger syndrome -a) Only Social ineractiion is impaired, where asb) Intelligence is normal (The only pervasive development disorder in which intelligence is normal.)c) No language impairments. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17295 | Maximum duration of time spent is in NREM stage | [
"I",
"II",
"III",
"IV"
] | Young adulthood, the distribution of sleep is as follows- NREM 75% stage 1 5% stage 2 45% stage 3 12% stage 4 13% REM 25% Ref- Synopsis of psychiatry, 11e, pg 535. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29013 | Which of the following is/are feature of streptococcus agalactiae rather than staphylococcus aureus? | [
"Catalase positive",
"Bacitracin resistant",
"Coagulase negative",
"a hemolysis"
] | C. Coagulase negativeb hemolysis and bacitracin resistance occur in bothStaphylococcus AureusCoagulase Positive: Ananthanarayan Whf2l0Beta type of hemolyisis on blood agar-Microbiology by Baveja 5th/175"Streptococci- coagulase negative" Ananthanarayan lQ7h/218 "Lancefield group B consists of a single species, S. agalactiae, which is definitively identified with specific antiserum to the group B cell wall-associated carbohydrate antigen. A streptococcal isolate can be classified presumptively as GBS on the basis of biochemical tests, including hydrolysis of sodium hippurate (in which 99% of isolates are positive), hydrolysis of bile esculin (in which 99-100% are negative), bacitracin susceptibility (in which 92% are resistant), and production of CAMP factor (in which 98-100% are positive). CAMP factor is a phospholipase produced by GBS that causes synergistic hemolysis with p lysin produced by certain strains ofS. aureus'-Harrison 19th/969Staphylococci produce catalase, which converts hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen. The catalase test differentiates the staphylococci, which are positive, from the streptococci, which are negative- Jawetz 27th/205Ananthanarayan 10th/210Species or common nameLancefield groupHemolysisLaboratory testS. pyogenesABetaBacitracin-sensitive, PYR test-positive; Ribose not fermntedS. agalactiaeBBetaCAMP test, Hippurate hydrolysisBacitracin Test microbeonline.com Positive: Streptococcus pyogenes Negative: Streptococcus agalactiaeThe bacitracin test is useful for differentiating b-hemolytic Group A streptococci from b-hemolytic non-Group A streptococci. This is important because most streptococcal diseases are caused by Group A streptococci. The bacitracin test can also be used to differentiate the bacitracin-resistant Staphylococcus from the bacitracin-susceptible Micrococcuswww.austincc.edu | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26244 | An adult whose both lower limbs are charred along with genitalia has ……burns | [
"18%",
"19%",
"36%",
"37%"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47439 | What function do vitamin B12 and folic acid perform that is critical to hematopoiesis? | [
"Suppo porphyrin production",
"Serve as cofactors for iron uptake",
"Suppo terminal differentiation of erythroid and myeloid cells",
"Suppo production of thymidine triphosphate"
] | Cell proliferation requires DNA replication, which requires an adequate supply of thymidine triphosphate. Both vitamin B12 and folate are needed to make thymidine triphosphate. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20453 | Byssinosis is most commonly seen in? | [
"Spinners",
"Sugarcane industry",
"Dyers",
"Weavers"
] | - byssinosis is due to inhalation of cotton fibre dust over long periods of time. - the symptoms are chronic cough and progressive dyspnoea ending in chronic bronchitis and emphysema. - India has a large textile industry employing 35 percent of factory workers and incidence of this disease is repoed to be 7-8 percent. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:806 <\p> | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24106 | Which of the following is the most common cause of transfusion associated hepatitis? | [
"Hepatitis A",
"Hepatitis B",
"Hepatitis C",
"Hepatitis D"
] | Hepatitis B- is the most common cause of transfusion associated hepatitis | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9704 | Regarding appendicitis in children, all are true except: | [
"Localised pain is the single most important reliable sign",
"Vomiting precedes abdominal pain",
"60 % cases perforation occurs in children less than 5 yrs",
"60% perforation in 48 hrs"
] | Ref: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th edition. Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition & Bailey and Love's Short Practice of Surgery 25th Edition Explanation: localized abdominal tenderness is the single most i: hie finding in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis. In Children, if the diagnosis is delayed beyond 36-48 hr, the perforation rate exceeds 65%. Perforation is most common in young children, with rates as high as 82% for children <5 yr and approaching 100% in infants. Nausea and vomiting occur in more than half the patients and usually follow the onset of abdominal pain by several hours. " (Ref: Nelson) Acute appendicitis The \IC surgical procedure performed on an emergency basis is an appendectomy. Most common in the first 2 decades Pathophysiology Appendiceal obstruction is the most common initiating event of appendicitis. Hyperplasia of the submucosal lymphoid follicles of the appendix accounts for approximately 60% of obstructions (most common in teens), In older adults and children the fecalith is the most common etiology (35% ). Obstruction of the appendiceal lumen is followed by increased intraluminal pressure secondary to continued mucosal secretion and bacterial overgrowth. The appendiceal wall becomes thinned and lymphatic and venous obstruction occurs. Necrosis and perforation develop when the arterial flow is compromised. Diagnosis. The diagnosis of acute appendicitis is made by clinical evaluation. Although laboratory tests and imaging procedures can be helpful, they are of secondary importance. Clinical presentation Symptoms Progressive, persistent midabdominal discomfort caused by obstruction and distention of the appendix, which stimulates the visceral afferent autonomic nerves (T8-10 distribution). Anorexia (90%) and a low-grade fever (<38.5degC). Nausea and vomiting (70%) and 10% have diarrhea. Once the inflammation extends transmurally to the parietal peritoneum, the somatic pain fibers are stimulated, and the pain localizes to the RLQ. Peritoneal irritation is associated with pain on movement, mild fever, and tachycardia. One-fourth of patients present initially with localized pain and no prior visceral symptoms. The onset of symptoms to the time of presentation is usually less than 24 hours for acute appendicitis and averages several hours. In Children, if the diagnosis is delayed beyond 36-48 hr. the perforation rate exceeds 65%. Perforation is most common in young children, with rates as high as 82% for children <5 vr and approaching 100% in infants. Nausea and vomiting occur in more than half the patients and usually follow the onset of abdominal pain by several hours. Physical examination McBurney's point tenderness two-thirds of the distance from the umbilicus to the anterosuperior iliac spine). Localized abdominal tenderness is the single most reliable finding in the diagnosis of acute appendicitis. The presence of pain in the RLQ during gentle finger percussion in the LL.Q (Rovsing's sign) indicates peritoneal irritation. The degree of direct tenderness is appreciated. The degree of muscular resistance to palpation parallels the severity of the inflammatory process. Cutaneous hyperesthesia is often present overlying the region of maximal tenderness. Exacerbation of pain with passive stretching of the iliopsoas muscle (positive psoas sign) implies the presence of local inflammation in the area of the muscle (e.g.. retrocecal appendicitis). A pelvic appendix may produce hypogastric pain with passive internal rotation, a positive Obturator sign. A palpable mass in the RLQ suggests a peri-appendiceal abscess or phlegmon. Laboratory evaluation. Complete blood cell count, serum electrolytes, and urinalysis should be obtained preoperatively for patients with suspected appendicitis. A serum pregnancy test also must be performed for all ovulating women. Complete blood cell count A leukocyte count of greater than 10,000 cells/ mL with polymorphonuclear cell predominance (>75%) is common in the child and young adult with appendicitis. The total number of WBCs and the proportion of immature forms increase if there is an appendiceal perforation. Urinalysis It is abnormal in 25-40% of patients with appendicitis. Pyuria, albuminuria, and hematuria are common. Radiologic evaluation USG is most useful Findings associated with acute appendicitis include The appendiceal diameter of greater than 6 mm. Lack of luminal compressibility Presence of an appendicolith. Abdominal CT scan is generally performed only in complex cases or in patients with atypical presentations. Barium enema (BE* Diagnostic laparoscopy Differential diagnosis Gastrointestinal diseases Gastroenteritis Mesenteric lymphadenitis Meckel's diverticulitis Perforated peptic ulcer disease Diverticulitis Cholecystitis Typhlitis Urologic diseases Pyelonephritis Ureteral colic Gynecologic diseases PID Ectopic pregnancy Ovarian cysts Ovarian torsion. Treatment Preoperative preparation Intravenous isotonic fluid replacement Nasogastric suction in patients with peritonitis. Preoperative antibiotic coverage Antibiotic therapy Broad-spectrum antibiotic coverage is initiated preoperatively Appendectomy The treatment of appendicitis is an appendectomy. Drainage of appendiceal abscess Management remains controversial. Systemic antibiotics and considered for Percutaneous US- or CT-guided catheter drainage Elective appendectomy 6-12 weeks later The appendix must be removed because the patient has a 60% risk of developing appendicitis again within 2 years. Complications Perforation It is accompanied by severe pain and fever. It is unusual within the first 12 hours of appendicitis but It is present in 50% cases < 10 years and > 50 years. Fever, tachycardia, generalized peritonitis, and abscess formation. Treatment is an appendectomy, peritoneal irrigation, and broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics for several days. Postoperative wound infection The risk is decreased by IV antibiotics administered before skin incision. The incidence increases from nonperforated appendicitis (3%) to a perforated or gangrenous appendix (4.7%). Wound infections are managed by opening, draining, and packing the wound to allow healing by secondary intention. Intravenous antibiotics are indicated for associated cellulitis or systemic sepsis. Intraabdominal and pelvic abscesses Occur most frequently with perforation of the appendix. Best treated hv percutaneous CT- or US-guided aspiration. If the abscess is inaccessible or resistant to percutaneous drainage, operative drainage is indicated. .Antibiotic therapy can mask but does not treat # >i prevent a significant abscess. Pylephlebitis It is septic portal vein thrombosis, usually is caused by Escherichia cob Presents with high fevers, jaundice, and eventually hepatic abscesses. CT scan demonstrates thrombus and gas in the portal vein. Prompt treatment (operative or percutaneous) of the primary infection followed by IV antibiotics. Enterocutaneous fistulas from a: Leak at the appendiceal stump closure May require surgical closure but most close spontaneously. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21578 | All are causes of pulmonary hypeension except | [
"Hyperventilation",
"Morbid obesity",
"High altitude",
"Fenfluramine"
] | Category 1. Pulmonary aerial hypeension (PAH) Key feature: elevation in pulmonary aerial pressure (PAP) with normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (pcwp) Includes: Idiopathic (IPAH) * Sporadic * Familial * Exposure to drugs or toxins * Persistent pulmonary hypeension of the newborn * Pulmonary capillary hemangiomatosis (PCH) Associated with other active conditions * Collagen vascular disease * Congenital systemic-to-pulmonary shunts * Poal hypeension * HIV infection Category 2. Pulmonary venous hypeension Key feature: elevation in PAP with elevation in pcwp Includes: * Left-sided atrial or ventricular hea disease * Left-sided valvular hea disease * Pulmonary venous obstruction * Pulmonary venoocclusive disease (PVOD) Category 3. Pulmonary hypeension associated with hypoxemic lung disease Key feature: chronic hypoxia with mild elevation of PAP Includes: * Chronic obstructive lung disease * Interstitial lung disease * Sleep-disordered breathing * Alveolar hypoventilation disorders * Chronic exposure to high altitude * Developmental abnormalities Category 4. Pulmonary hypeension due to chronic thromboembolic disease Key feature: elevation of PA pressure with documentation of pulmonary aerial obstruction for >3 monthsIncludes: * Chronic pulmonary thromboembolism * Nonthrombotic pulmonary embolism (tumor, foreign material) Category 5. Miscellaneous Key feature: elevation in PAP in association with a systemic diseasewhere a causal relationship is not clearly understood. Includes: * Sarcoidosis * Chronic anemias * Histiocytosis X * Lymphangiomatosis * Schistosomiasis ref:Harrison&;s principles of internal medicine,ed 18,pg no2078 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3152 | Unnatural Sexual offences are defined by section ? | [
"375 IPC",
"320 IPC",
"377 IPC",
"302 IPC"
] | Ans is 'c' i.e., 377 IPC IPC retated to sexual offences]228 IPC : Prohibits disclosure of identity of rape victim.375 IPC : Defining rape.376 IPC : Punishment for rape (7 years to life imprisonment +- fine).376-A IPC : Punishment for marital rape (2 years imprisonment +- fine).377 IPC : Unnatural sexual offences (10 years to life imprisonment +- fine).354 IPC : Assault or criminal force to woman with intent to outrage her modesty.366-A IPC : Procuration of minor girl for illicit intercourse.351 IPC : Defines assault.352-358 IPC : Punishment for causing assault.509 IPC : Word, gesture or act intended to insult the modesty of a women. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11751 | Which one of the following is the most significant risk factor for development of gastric carcinoma ? | [
"Paneth cell metaplasia",
"Pyloric metaplasia",
"Intestinal metaplasia",
"Ciliated metaplasia"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Intestinal metaplasia"The risk of tumor development is greatly increased in patients in whom mucosal inflammation progresses to multifocal mucosal atrophy and intestinal metaplasia"- Robbins`Serial endoscopic examinations of the stomach in patients with atrophic gastritis have documented replacement of the usual gastric mucosa by intestinal type cells. This process of intestinal metaplasia may lead to cellular atypia and eventual neoplasia. - HarrisonFactors Associated with Increased incidence of Gastric CarcinomaEnvironmental Factors1. Infection by FL Pylorio Present in most cases of intestinal-type carcinomaDieto Nitrites derived from nitrates (water, preserved food)o Smoked and salted foods, pickled vegetables, chili peppers o Lack of fresh fruit and vegetablesLow socioeconomic statusCigarette smokingGenetic FactorsSlightly increased risk with blood group AFamily history of gastric cancer3. Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer syndromeFamilial gastric carcinoma syndrome (E-cadherin mutation)Decreased risk of stomch cancer is seen witho Vitamine C & E o Diet high in green leafy vegetables and citrus fruitso Aspirin o Beta - Carotene | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4675 | Sorghum contains excess of | [
"Lycine",
"Arginine",
"Leucine",
"Histidine"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Leucine o Jowar (Sorghum) contains excess of leucine which can cause niacine deficiency and pellagra. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1757 | A 59-year-old woman complains of skin lesion shown below catches on her clothing. It has been present for several years and is not associated with any other symptoms. What is the single most likely diagnosis? | [
"Dermatofibroma",
"Fibroepithelial polyp",
"Keratoacanthoma",
"Nodular basal cell carcinoma"
] | Fibroepithelial polyp (Skin tag; Papilloma; Acrochordon) Seen at sites of chafing such as the groin, axilla or neck. Benign and typically have a narrow stalk Most cases are idiopathic but occasionally associated with insulin resistance. Hanging or protruding polyps Dermatofibromas are seen on legs or arms and are within the skin. Keratoacanthomas have central plug of keratin. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30296 | A patient presented to emergency ward with massive upper gastrointestinal bleed. On examination, he has mild splenomegaly. In the absence of any other information available, which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic modality ? | [
"Intravenous propranolol",
"Intravenous vasopressin",
"Intravenous pantoprazole",
"Intravenous somatostatin"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Intravenous pantoprozole Maingot states "Because all sources of upper G.I. bleeding involves a disruption of mucosa, pharmacological inhibition of gastric acid secretion is provided empirically? So if the diagnosis of the patient with acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding cannot be confirmed endoscopically the patient should be given any gastric acid inhibitor (either H2 blocker or P.P.I.). This is also justified as 80% of bleeding is from non-variceal source (peptic ulcers, gastritis, esophagitis) In the question the clinical features of the patient indicates upper gastrointestinal bleeding due to peptic ulcer. Variceal bleeding due to poal hypeension is very unlikely in the absence of moderate or massive splenomegaly (presence of mild splenomegaly is not enough evidence for variceal bleeding). So the most appropriate therapy in this case is pantoprozole whether you give it empirically or as a therapy for most likely clinical diagnosis Also know, In case of variceal bleeding somatostatin is more effective than vasopressin in control of bleeding. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9906 | Enterocele formation is a common complication of: | [
"Suburethral sling surgery",
"TVT",
"Bursch colposuspension",
"TOT"
] | Enterocele formation occurs with Bursch colposuspension. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51719 | Which of the following anticancer drugs act on M phase | [
"Paclitaxel",
"Etoposide",
"Irinotecan",
"Bleomycin"
] | Paclitaxel belongs to taxane group of compounds which act by stabilizing mitotic spindle and thus acts on M-phase. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52453 | A pregnant mother at 32 weeks gestation presents in preterm labour. Therapy with antenatal steroids to induce lung maturity in the fetus may be given in all of the following condition except : | [
"Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hours",
"Pregnancy induced hypeension",
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Chorioamnionitis"
] | The condition in which steroid are given to the patient is :- Premature rupture of membrane Polyhydramnios Hypeension Diabetes Severe anemia Indicated preterm delivery due to medical or obstetric complication We dont give steroids in Chorioamnionitis as it is an Infective condition and the risk of flare up of infection increases with steroids | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10205 | The suppoing cells of the testes are the following? | [
"Spermatogonia",
"Leydig cells of testes",
"Cells of Seoli",
"Spermatids"
] | All cells of the spermatogenic lineage are closely associated with the extended surfaces of Seoli cells and depend on them for metabolic and physical suppo. Each Seoli cell suppos 30 to 50 developing germ cells. Impoant in Seoli cell function are elaborate tight occluding junctions between their basolateral membranes that form a blood-testis barrier within the seminiferous epithelium. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40991 | Which of the following interacts with Digitalis maximally- | [
"Furosemide",
"Triamterene",
"Amiloride",
"Spironolactone"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Furosemide o Two classes of diuretics are given in the options Loop Diuretics -----> Furosemide (cause hypokalemia) Potassium sparing diuretics ----> Spironolactone, Trimetrene, Amiloride (cause Hyperkalemia) We know that digitalis toxicity is potentiated by hypokalemia. So the drug interacting with digitalis will be Furosemide as it causes Hypokalemia. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37416 | All of the following statements about hairy cell leukemia are true except: | [
"Splenomegaly is conspicuous",
"Results from an expansion of neoplastic T-lymphocytes",
"Cells are positive for Taarate Resistant Acid phosphatase",
"The cells express CD25 consistently"
] | Hairy cell leukemia is a type of B-cell leukemia. Clinical feature: Massive splenomegaly Increase chances of infections DIAGNOSIS 1. BLOOD Pancytopenia Phase contrast microscopy- Hairy projections Staining- TRAP 2. Immunophenotyping CD11 + CD25+ CD103 + Annexin A1 + ( Best marker) 3.BM examination BM aspiration - Dry tap BM biopsy- Honey comb appearance - Fried egg appearance | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51621 | The following are consistent with pheochromocytoma except- | [
"Episodic diarrhea",
"Episodic flushing of skin",
"Episodes of hypeension",
"Paroxysm, palpitation and sweating"
] | there is constipation not diarrhea Ref- ( Harrison 17 pg 2270) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_728 | Fluoride content is least in | [
"Enflurane",
"Isoflurane",
"Sevoflurane",
"Desflurane"
] | (Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no.170-171) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25995 | Sectoral sign is positive in ? | [
"Avascular necrosis of femur head",
"Osteoahritis of hip",
"Protrusio acetabuli",
"Slipped capital femoral epiphyses"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Avascular necrosis of femur head Clinical features of AVN In the earlier stages of AVN, the patient is asymptomatic, and by the time patient presents, the lesion is well advanced. Common histories patient gives (Any of the following) : - i) Dislocation of Hip ii) Alcoholism iii) Steroid intake for any disorder iv) Nephrotic syndrome Pain is a common complaint. Pain is felt in the grain and may radiate to knee. Decreased range of motion especially internal rotation followed by abduction. Sectoral sign or Differential rotation : - Internal rotation is possible in extended position of hip, but as seen as the hip is flexed to 90deg no internal rotation is possible. This is the characteristic sign of AVN. o Limp with antalgic gait. Trendelenberg's test positive. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46081 | Which among the following is commonly used as a preservative for gut sutures: | [
"Isopropyl alcohol.",
"Saline.",
"Formocresol.",
"Ethyl alcohol."
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16503 | Type I muscle fibers rich in myosin heavy chain are | [
"Fast contracting, susceptible to fatigue",
"Slow contracting, susceptible to fatigue",
"Fast contracting, resistant to fatigue",
"Slow contracting, resistant to fatigue"
] | Ans. d (Slow contracting, resistant to fatigue)Two Major Fiber Types: type I and type II fibers Type IType II Slow TwitchFast TwitchMyosin ATPaseLowHighEnergy utilizationLowHighMitochondriaManyFewColorRedWhiteMyoglobinYesNoContraction rateSlowFastDurationProlongedShortResistance to fatigueincreased /morelessEducational points:ProteinLocationComment orjunctionTitinReaches from the Z line to the M lineLargest protein in body. Role in relaxation of muscle.NebulinFrom Z line along length of actin filamentsMay regulate assembly and length of actin filaments.ctr Act in inAnchors actin to Z linesStabilizes actin filaments.DesminLies alongside actin filamentsAttaches to plasma membrane (plasmalemma).DystrophinAttached to plasmalemmaDeficient in Duchenne muscular dystrophy.Mutations of its gene can also cause dilated cardiomyopathy.CalcineurinCytosolA calmodulin-regulated protein phosphatase.May play important roles in cardiac hypertrophy and in regulating amounts of slow and fast twitch muscles.Myosin-binding protein CArranged transversely in sarcomere A-bandsBinds myosin and titin. Plays a role in maintaining the structural integrity of the sarcomere. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46974 | A 2 year old boy presented with congested cardiac failure, with right to left shunt. What is the diagnosis? | [
"Dandy Walker malformation",
"Vein of Gallen malformation",
"Mega cisterna magna",
"Crouzon syndrome"
] | (B) Vein of Gallen malformation[?]Communicating Hydrocephalus:There is free flow throughout the ventricular system.Impaired CSF resorption by the arachnoid granulation accounts for majority of casesSAHInfectious meningitisMalignant meningitisGranulomatous meningitis: TB, sarcoidosisAltered venous Dynamics: Vein of Galen malformation, venous obstructionVein of Galen Aneurysmal Malformation:Direct AV fistula b/w deep choroidal arteries & persistent embryonic precursor of VOGLarge midline venous pouch behind the 3rd ventricle.Aetiology:Obstructive - Congenital or Acquired:Congenital Causes:-Aqueductal stenosis or forking-Dandy Walker syndrome (Atresia of foramina of Magendie & Luschka)-Arnold Chiari malformation (Type 2-progressive hydrocephalus + myelomeningocele)-Vein of Galen aneurysm Clinical Features:>30% of symptomatic VM in childrenRare in adultsNeonates - high output CCF with cranial bruitOld infants - Macrocrania + hydrocephalus +/-CCFOlder Children - Developmental delay and seizuresYoung adults - HeadacheLarge VGAMS - Cerebral ischemia and dystrophic changes.Left untreated - Die of progressive brain damage and in- tracatable CCF.Dandy-Walker Malformation: Triad of Abnormalities:1. Incomplete development of vermis; Retro-vermian cyst continuous to 4th ventricle; 3. Hydrocephalus Crouzon syndrome:Crouzon syndrome is a genetic disorder characterized by the premature fusion of certain skull bones (craniosynostosis). This early fusion prevents the skull from growing normally and affects the shape of the head and face. Many features of Crouzon syndrome result from the premature fusion of the skull bones. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14598 | All are transmitted by blood except- | [
"Parvovirus B-19",
"Hepatitis B",
"Epstein Bar virus",
"Cytomegalovirus"
] | Epstein-Barr virus is acquired saliva,either by droplet infection or environmental contamination in childhood or by kissing among among adolescents & adults.Infections transmitted by blood include hepatitis (HBV,HCV), CMV infection,syphilis,malaria,toxoplasmosis,HIV infection.Reference :Davidson's principles & practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no 320. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39053 | Commonest fungal infection of the female genitalia in diabets – | [
"Cryptococcal",
"Madura mycosis",
"Candidial",
"Aspergellosis"
] | In a diabetic patient, commonest fimgal infection of genitalia in both female (vulvoginitis) as well as in male (Balanitis) is candida albicans. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33603 | A 55 year old diabetic man is brought to the emergency room in an unresponsive state. The following laboratory values are obtained: PCO2 19 mm Hg, HCO3 11 mEq/L, and pH 6.9. The most appropriate immediate treatment of this patient is ? | [
"Administration of an oral hypoglycemic agent",
"Administration of bicarbonate",
"Administration of insulin",
"Close observation only"
] | This patient is in a diabetic ketoacidotic coma. The goals in treating such a patient are to increase the rate of glucose utilization by insulin-dependent tissues, to reverse ketonemia and acidosis, and to replenish fluid imbalances. Oral hypoglycemic agents are commonly prescribed for the maintenance of NIDDM patients and would not be appropriate in an acute setting. Treatment with bicarbonate would result in only a transient elevation of pH. Since this is a life-threatening condition, monitoring the patient without treatment is unacceptable. Ref: D'Alessio D. (2011). Chapter 43. Endocrine Pancreas and Pharmacotherapy of Diabetes Mellitus and Hypoglycemia. In B.C. Knollmann (Ed), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52323 | The following are lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium except? | [
"Nasal cavity",
"Paranasal air sinuses",
"Vocal cords",
"Trachea"
] | Vocal cords, due to constant friction, are lined with stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium in the upper respiratory tract and trachea Non-ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelia are located in the membranous pa of vas deferens Reference: Chaurasia; 6th edition. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45696 | Cesarean delivery is must in which of the following types of placenta pre | [
"Type 1",
"Type 2",
"Type 3",
"All of the above"
] | Cesarean section is done for all women with sonographic evidence of placenta pre where placental edge is within 2cm from internal os. It is indicated if it is posterior or thick Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 235. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40203 | True about Hybrid PET/CT scans: | [
"Functional-anatomical mapping",
"Provide images that help to pinpoint the abnormal metabolic activity to respective anatomical structures",
"Can differentiate benign from malignant lesions as small as 1 cm.",
"All of the above"
] | Hybrid imaging allows the superimposition of PET and CT images, a technique known as functional-anatomical mapping. Hybrid PET/CT scans provide images that help pinpoint the abnormal metabolic activity to anatomical structures seen on CT and provide more accurate diagnoses than the two scans performed separately. FDG-PET : It can differentiate benign from malignant lesions as small as 1 cm. However, false-negative findings can occur in lesions with low metabolic activity such as carcinoid tumors and bronchioloalveolar cell carcinomas, or in lesions <1 cm in which the required threshold of metabolically active malignant cells is not present for PET diagnosis. False-positive results can be seen due to FDG uptake in inflammatory conditions such as pneumonia and granulomatous diseases. Areas of normal physiological uptake in PET CT:- - Brown fat - Thymus - Brain tissue - Myocardium - GI Tract | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37119 | Mechanism of action of thalidomide is: March 2013 | [
"Antimicrobial",
"Antiemetic",
"Anti-allergic",
"Immunomodulation"
] | Ans. D i.e. Immunomodulation Thalidomide It is a synthetic derivative of glutamic acid (alpha-phthalimido-glutarimide) with teratogenic, immunomodulatory, anti-inflammatory and anti-angiogenic propeies. Thalidomide acts primarily by inhibiting both the production of tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-alpha) in stimulated peripheral monocytes and the activities of interleukins and interferons. This agent also inhibits polymorphonuclear chemotaxis and monocyte phagocytosis. In addition, thalidomide inhibits pro-angiogenic factors such as vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF), thereby inhibiting angiogenesis. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22902 | In iceberg phenomenon, the submerged part represents | [
"Undiagnosed cases in community",
"Diagnosed cases in community",
"Clinial cases that physician sees",
"Clinical cases that investigator sees"
] | Ans. (a) Undiagnosed cases in communityRef : K. Park 23rd ed. /39, 135; K. Park 21s,ed. /37 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53123 | One of the criteria of an ideal occlusion in natural
dentition is: | [
"Maximum contacts on the tips of the cusps only",
"Disocclusion of anterior teeth during mandibular protrusion",
"Disocclusion of posterior teeth on the non working side in lateral excursion",
"Occlusion of posterior teeth during mandibular protrusion"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27073 | Most common fungal infection in febrile neutropenia is: | [
"Aspergillus niger",
"Candida",
"Mucormycosis",
"Aspergillus fumigates"
] | Ans. is 'b'* Gram staining, KOH mount.* Oval or spherical gram positive yeast cells with pseudohyphae (buds continues to grow but fails to detach, elongated cells are constricted at septations). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31734 | In a 3 month fetus, characteristic feature seen is: NEET 13 | [
"Nails are visible",
"Limbs well formed",
"Anus is seen as dark spot",
"Meconium is found in duodenum"
] | Ans. Nails are visible | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16373 | An obstetrician sees a pregnant patient who was exposed to rubella virus in the eighteenth week of pregnancy. She does not remember getting a rubella vaccination. The best immediate course of action is to | [
"Terminate the pregnancy",
"Order a rubella antibody titer to determine immune status",
"Reassure the patient because rubella is not a problem until after the thiieth week",
"Administer rubella immune globulin"
] | The highest risk of fetal infection with rubella occurs during the first trimester. In seronegative patients, the risk of infection exceeds 90%. However, before other measures (such as termination of pregnancy) are considered, a rubella immune status must be performed. A rubella titer of 1:10 is protective. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38566 | All the following factors affect APGAR score except- | [
"Prematurity",
"Maternal retardation",
"Neurological condition of the new born",
"Mode of delivery"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Mode of delivery | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52665 | Terminal branches of internal carotid aery are all except | [
"Anterior cerebral aery",
"Middle cerebral aery",
"Posterior communicating sery",
"Cavernous aery"
] | The internal carotid aery begins in the neck as one of the terminal branches of the common carotid aery at the level of the upper border of the thyroid cailage. course and branches of internal carotid aery - Its course is divided into the following four pas. 1) Cervical pa: In the neck it lies within the carotid sheath. This pa gives no branches. 2) Petrous pa: Within the petrous pa of the temporal bone, in the carotid canal. 3)Cavernous pa: Within the cavernous sinus. This pa of the aery gives off: Cavernous branches to the trigeminal ganglion; and (b) the superior and inferior hypophyseal branches to the hypophysis cerebri. 4)cerebral pa : This pa lies at the base of the brain after emerging from the cavernous sinus. It gives off the following aeries: (a) Ophthalmic; (b) anterior cerebral; (c) middle cerebral; (d) posterior communicating; and (e) anterior choroidal. this pa is considered to be terminal pa of internal carotid aery. Ref : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition, volume 3 , pg. no., 209 ( fig. no. 12.16 ) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19001 | All of the following are true about coronary aery, EXCEPT? | [
"Right coronary aery lies in right anterior coronary sulcus",
"Left anterior descending aery is a branch of left coronary aery",
"Usually 3 obtuse marginal aeries arise from left coronary aery",
"In 85% cases posterior descending interventricular aery arises from right coronary aery"
] | Only one obtuse marginal aery(OM1) arise from circumflex branch of left coronary aery. This obtuse marginal branch serve as a boundary between the proximal and distal poion of left circumflex aery(LCx). Poion of left circumflex aery proximal to obtuse marginal aery is called proximal LCx, whereas the segment below OM1 is the distal LCx. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3959 | Alcohol withdrawal is not associated with? | [
"Seizure",
"Amnesia",
"Tremers",
"Delirium"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Amnesia * Amnesia occurs during acute intoxication (not during withdrawal).Alcohol withdrawal symptoms* The most common symptom is hangover on the next morning.* Other common symptoms are fine tremer, nausea, vomiting, weakness, insomnia, anxiety, restlessness, irritability.* Three severe withdrawal syndrome are delerium tremens, Alcoholic hallucinosis, and alcoholic seizure (rum fits). They require special mention.1. Delirium tremens# Delirium tremens is the most severe alcohol withdrawal syndrome. It occurs usually within 2-4 days of complete or significant alcohol abstinence. This is an acute organic brain syndrome (delirium) with characteristic features of delirium. It is characterized by:-a) Clouding of consciousness with disorientation in time and place.b) Poor attention span and distractability.c) Visual (and also auditory) hallucination, and illusion. Tactile hallucination of insect crawling under the skin (formication) may also occur.d) Marked autonomic disturbances with tachycardia, sweating, hypertension, mydriasis, coarse tremers.e) Insomnia, psychomotor agitation, ataxia, anxiety.# Benzodiazepines are the drugs of choice for delirium tremens. Chlordiazepoxide is the agent of choice with diazepam as an alternative.2. Alcoholic seizures (rum fits)# Generalized tonic clonic seizures occur, usually 12-48 hours after a heavy bouts of drinking. Benzodiazepines are the drugs of choice for alcoholic seizures.3. Alcoholic hallucinosis# Alcoholic hallucinosis is characterized by the presence of hallucinations (usually auditory) classically in the presence of clear consciousness alcoholic hallucinosis develops within 12-24 hours after drinking stops | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51942 | A 20-year-old male presented with pain in the right shoulder region which aggravated with activity. On examination, a mass was felt in the right shoulder region which was warm and tender, had increased surface vascularity and a bruit was discernable over the mass. There was decreased range of motion of the right shoulder joint. X-ray of the concerned area was done. Radionuclide scan was also carried out. The tumour was resected and sent for HPE examination. Which is the most likely diagnosis in the above scenario: - | [
"Osteosarcoma",
"GCT",
"Osteoid osteoma",
"Osteoblastoma"
] | This is a case of osteosarcoma. 1ST image shows impressive swelling throughout the deltoid region, as well as the disuse atrophy of the pectoral musculature. Radiographic appearance of a proximal humeral osteosarcoma with the radiodense matrix of the intramedullary poion of the lesion, as well as the soft-tissue extension and aggressive periosteal reaction. Intense radionuclide uptake of the proximal humerus is noted on a bone scan. The tumor cells vary in size and shape and frequently have large hyperchromatic nuclei. Bizarre tumor giant cells are common, as are mitoses, some of them abnormal (e.g. tripolar). Vascular invasion is usually conspicuous, and some tumors also exhibit extensive necrosis. The formation of bone by the tumor cells is diagnostic. X-RAY FEATURES: - Medullary and coical bone destruction Wide zone of transition, permeative or moth-eaten appearance Aggressive periosteal reaction Sunburst type Codman triangle Lamellated (onion skin) reaction: less frequently seen Soft-tissue mass | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28891 | Not used for intravascular volume maintainence is | [
"Hydroxy ethyl starch",
"Dextran",
"Erythropoetin",
"Gelatin"
] | Answer- C. ErythropoetinErytheropoetin InjectionsErythropoietins available for use as therapeutic agents are produced by recombinant DNA technology in cell culture, They are used in treating anemia resulting from chronic kidney disease, chemotherapy induced anemia in patients with cancer, inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis). | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23627 | Enzyme common to cholesterol synthesis and ketone body synthesis: | [
"HMG CoA Reductase",
"HMG CoA Synthase",
"Beta hydroxy butyrate Dehydrogenase",
"Thiophorase"
] | Enzymes common to cholesterol synthesis & ketone body synthesis are HMG CoA Synthase & Thiolase. HMG CoA Synthase (Option 2) is rate limiting step in Ketone Body synthesis. HMG CoA Reductase (Option 1) is rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis. Beta hydroxy butyrate Dehydrogenase (Option 3) is only used in ketone body synthesis. Thiophorase (Option 4) is the first enzyme in ketone body utilization. First two steps of Cholesterol Synthesis are same as Ketone Body Synthesis but Cholesterol Synthesis occurs in Cytoplasm whereas Ketone Body Synthesis occurs in Mitochondria. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36924 | Endodontically treated posterior teeth are more susceptible to fracture than untreated posterior teeth. The best explanation for this is: | [
"Moisture loss",
"Loss of root vitality",
"Plastic deformation of dentin",
"Destruction of the coronal architecture"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31581 | All of the following hormones accelerate the release of FFA from adipose tissue, EXCEPT: | [
"Epinephrine",
"Insulin",
"Norepinephrine",
"Vasopressin"
] | Principal action of insulin in adipose tissue is to inhibit the activity of hormone-sensitive lipase, reducing the release not only of FFA but also of glycerol. Hormones that accelerate the release of FFA from adipose tissue include, Epinephrine Norepinephrine Glucagon Adrenocoicotropic hormone (ACTH)- and -melanocyte-stimulating hormones (MSH) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Growth hormone (GH) Vasopressin For an optimal effect, most of these lipolytic processes require the presence of glucocoicoids and thyroid hormones. These hormones act in a facilitatory or permissive capacity with respect to other lipolytic endocrine factors. Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 25. Lipid Transpo & Storage. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4042 | All of the following are example of definite airways,except – | [
"Nasotracheal tube",
"Orotracheal tube",
"Laryngeal Mask airway",
"Cricothyroidotomy"
] | Definite airways (that protect from aspiration) are :- Endotracheal intubation (oro-tracheal or naso-tracheal) and Surgical airways (tracheostomy, cricothyroidotomy).
Airways that are not definite (do not adequately protect from aspiration) are :- Nasopharyngeal airway, oropharyngeal airway, LMA. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19047 | An 70-year-old male patient complains of headache and dizziness. His ambulatory BP was 154/76 mm Hg on multiple occasions. He is likely to be diagnosed as ? | [
"Grade 1 hypeension",
"White coat hypeension",
"Secondary hypeension",
"Isolated systolic hypeension"
] | Isolated systolic hypeension - When SBP >=140 and DBP <90 . Classification of Blood Pressure for Adults - European Society of Cardiology guidelines - 2018 Blood pressure classification SBP(mmHg) DBP(mmHg) Optimal <120 <80 Normal 120-129 80-84 High Normal 130-139 85-89 Grade 1 hypeension 140-159 90-99 Grade 2 Hypeension 160-179 100-109 Grade 3 Hypeension >=180 >=110 Isolated systolic hypeension >=140 <90 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33578 | Which of the following is gram positive bacillus- | [
"Staphylococcus",
"Streptococcus",
"Listeria",
"Meningococci"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Listeria Gram positive bacteriao There are 6 classic gram positive bacteria that cause human disease,o Of these 2 are cocci1. Staphylococci2 Streptococci (including anaerobic peptostreptococci)o Other 4 are bacilli1. Corynebacterium3. Clostridium2 Bacillus4. Listeria | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37956 | Which is not a pyrogen - | [
"lFN-a",
"TNF-cx",
"IL-4",
"IL -18"
] | Pyrogenic cytokines, such as interleukin (IL)-1b, IL-6, and tumor necrosis factor-a, which result from stimulated mononuclear phagocytes, interact directly with the anterior hypothalamus, which coordinates thermoregulation through a hierarchy of neural structures. Prostaglandin E2 is a proximal mediator in the preoptic-anterior hypothalamic area. Direct neural pathways from the periphery to the brain also may be involved.2 Exogenous pyrogens including bacterial cell wall products may act on Toll-like receptors in the hypothalamus and elevate the thermoregulatory setpoint Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1301 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29920 | Following is true about furosemide - | [
"It is given only by IV route",
"It causes mild diuresis",
"It is used in pulmonary edema",
"Acts on PCT"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., It is used in pulmonary edema o Intravenous administration of furosemide produces prompt relief in acute pulmonary edema and acute hea failure (Acute LVF). o It is due to vasodilators (venous dilatation) action and not due to diuretic action (in contrast with chronic hea failure, where the symptomatic relieve is due to diuretic action). o IV furosemide causes prompt increase in systemic venous capictance and decreases left ventricular filling pressure (preload) even before the diuretic action becomes apperent. About other options Furosemide can be given i.m. also. It has maximum diuretic action (more than other classes of diuretic). It acts on thick ascending limb of loop of Henle. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44726 | The only neurons in retina showing action potentials are | [
"Rods and cones",
"Bipolar cells",
"Amacrine cells",
"Ganglion cells"
] | Ganglion cells are the only neurons in retina, that show action potential. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19638 | Which of the following has antiemetic action? | [
"Propofol",
"Thiopentone",
"Ether",
"Nitrous oxide"
] | ANSWER: (A) PropofolREF: Miller's Anaesthesiology 7th Ed Ch 25"A unique action of propofol is its antiemetic effect, which remains present at concentrations less than those producing sedation/'Propofol's antiemetic action may be explained by the decrease in serotonin levels it produces in the area postrema, probably through its action on GABA receptors. Two notable side effects of propofol are its antiemetic effect and a sense of well-being in patients. The antiemetic effect gives a special advantage in day care anaesthesia. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52839 | In heart disease, prophylactic forceps is applied at head station of: | [
"-1",
"1",
"0",
"2"
] | In heart disease forceps are applied prophylactically to cut down the second stage of labour and usually low or outlet forceps applied.
Low forceps: Applied when leading point of fetal scalp is at station + 2 and not on pelvic floor.
Outlet forceps: Applied when fetal skull has reached pelvic floor and scalp is visible at the introitus even without separating the labia, i.e. station ≥ + 3 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4454 | Boerhave's syndorme, true is :a) Iatrogenicb) Silent manifestationc) Present with acute chest paind) Treatment is surgical | [
"ab",
"bc",
"cd",
"ac"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48749 | "3-0" means in hospital waste management is ? | [
"Disinfection, Disposal, Drainage",
"Discard, Disinfection, Drainage",
"Destruction, Deep burial, Drainage",
"Destruction. Deep burial, Disposal"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Disinfection, Disposal, Drainage | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51743 | False about Listeria is | [
"Shows tumbling motility",
"Catalase positive",
"PLET medium is selective medium",
"Anton test +ve"
] | PALCAM medium - Selective medium. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10968 | Smallpox vaccine was introduced by: | [
"Paul Ehrlich",
"Robert Koch",
"Louis Pasteur",
"Edward Jenner"
] | Ans. (d) Edward Jenner* Edward Jenner discovered Smallpox vaccine in 1796- Smallpox vaccine was the 'First Vaccine' to be dis- covered- Smallpox is the 'First and Only' disease to be eradicated - Term 'Vaccination' was coined by Edward JennerALSO REMEMBER* Paul Ehrlich coined terms 'Chemotherapy' and 'Auto-immunity' and giving 'Magic Bullet for Syphilis- Salvarsan' | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42925 | Blood supply to middle third of vagina is | [
"Middle rectal aery",
"Inferior vesicle aery",
"Internal pudendal aery",
"Central vaginal aery"
] | Blood is supplied to the vagina by the uterine and vaginal aeries, both branches of the internal iliac aery. Venous return is achieved by the vaginal venous plexus, which drains into the internal iliac veins, the uterine vein. Lymphatic drainage is the iliac and superficial inguinal lymph nodes. <img src=" /> ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg394 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31100 | Post traumatic stress disorder is due to? | [
"Head injury",
"CVD",
"Minor stress",
"Major life threatening events"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Major life treatening events Stressors for stress disorders* Stress disorders occur after an extreme traumatic events involving the threat of personal death or injury. They can arise from experiences in war, torture, natural catastroph (earthquake, volcano, floods), assault, rape, and serious accidents (e.g., in car) in burning building.* Symptoms of PTSD develop within 6 months of stressor, However 10% patients have delayed onset.Risk factors for Stress disorders1) Vulnerability factors: - Low education, Lower social class, female gender, low self esteem/neurotic traits, previous traumatic events (including childhood trauma), previous self or family history of psychiatric problems (mood/ anxiety disorders).2) Protective factors: - High IQ, higher social class, male gender, psychopathic traits, chance to view body of dead relative / friend.3) Biological factors: - Following systems are hyperactive in PTSD : -a) Noradrenergic systemb) Opioid systemc) Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HDA) axis* Recently, the role of Hippocampus in PTSD has received increased attention. Animal studies have shown that stress is associated with structural changes in the hippocampus, and studies of combat veterans with PTSD have revealed a lower average volume in the hippocampal region of the brain. Structural changes in the amygadala, an area of the brain associated with fear, have also been demonstrated. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5273 | Inanimate objects of transmission is regarded as | [
"Vector",
"Fomites",
"Vehicle",
"Droplet"
] | Ans) b (Fomite) Ref park 20th ed pg 94Fomites are inanimate articles or substances other than water or food contaminated by the infectious discharges from a patient and capable of harbouring and transferring the infectious agent to ahealthy person.Fomites include linen, handkerchiefs, towels etc.. The fomites play an important role in indirect infection.Diseases transmitted by fomites include diphtheria, typhoid fever, bacillary dysentery, Hepatitis A, eye and skin infections.Vector is defined as an arthropod or any living carrier that transports an infectious agent to a susceptible individual.Vehicle borne transmission implies transmission of the infectious agent through the agency of water, food, ice, blood, serum, plasma, or other biological products such as tissue and organs. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9316 | Which of these chromosomal anomalies was the earliest to be described? | [
"Trisomy 21",
"Trisomy 18",
"Trisomy 13",
"Turner syndrome"
] | Ans. C. Trisomy 13Trisomy 13 was first described by Thomas Bartholin in 1657; trisomy 18 was first described by John Hilton Edwards in 1960; trisomy 21 was first described by John Langdon Down in 1866; and Turner syndrome was first described by Henry Turner in 1938. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1285 | Ischaemia is characterized by all except | [
"Brittle nails",
"Thickening of skin",
"Muscle wasting",
"Loss of subcutaneous fat"
] | Ischaemia results in thinning of skin. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22103 | A 25-year-old woman complains of intense depressed mood for 6 months with inability to enjoy previously pleasurable activities. This symptom is known as: | [
"Anhedonia",
"Avolition",
"Apathy",
"Amotivation"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anhedonia Anhedonia - inability to experience pleasure in previously pleasurable activities. It is often associated with depression.Avolition - lack of initiativeAmotivation - reduced drive and lack of ambition.Apathy - is the absence or lack of feeling, emotion, interest, concern, or motivation | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42466 | In a normal individual, filtration fraction varies from: | [
"0.16 - 0.20",
"2.0 - 4.0",
"0.5 - 0.7",
"0.9 - 1.1"
] | The ratio of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to the renal plasma flow (RPF), the filtration fraction, is normally 0.16-0.20. The GFR varies less than the RPF. When there is a fall in systemic blood pressure, the GFR falls less than the RPF because of efferent aeriolar constriction, and consequently the filtration fraction rises. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 37. Renal Function & Micturition. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32666 | What is Ranula - | [
"Retention cyst of sublingual gland",
"Retention cyst of submandibular gland",
"Extravasation cyst of sublingual glands",
"Extravasation cyst of submandibular glands"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Retention cyst of sublingual gland | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21837 | Anal canal is NOT supplied by | [
"Superior rectal aery",
"Inferior rectal aery",
"Median sacral aery",
"Middle rectal aery"
] | Middle rectal aery supplies the rectum, but 'not' the anal canal. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54349 | All of the following are true of thalassemia major, EXCEPT: | [
"Splenomegaly",
"Target cells on peripheral smear",
"Microcytic hypochromic anemia",
"Increased osmotic fragility"
] | - In thalassemia- decreased osmotic fragility is seen - Increased osmotic fragility is a feature of hereditary spherocytosis - Remaining all features given in the options are seen in thalassemia | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5180 | NACO launched national pediatric initiative on | [
"2nd October 2005",
"30th November 2006",
"30th October 2008",
"2nd November 2010"
] | NACO pediatric HIV/AIDS initiative The National Paediatric HIV/AIDS Initiative launched on November 30, 2006 by Hon'ble Chairperson UPA Smt. ... Mr William J Clinton, former President of the United States of America, was a landmark initiative, for now children living with HIV/AIDS would be able to access generic drugs, A and suppo services Launch Highlights * Phase I of the programme aims to put 10,000 children on A treatment for life. * Initially 36 A centres to provide free A to children. * Seven Regional Paediatric Centres being established across the country. * Free CD4 monitoring for children till 15 years, free DNA PCR test for children upto 18 months, liquid formulations for babies, diagnosis and treatment of oppounistic infections and micro nutrient supplementation will be provided. * The National Paediatric Anti- retroviral Therapy (A), Treatment and Dosing Guidelines developed by IAP with suppo from WHO, UNICEF and Clinton Foundation released. Ref : naco.gov.in | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49887 | Both intramembranous and endochondral type of ossification occurs in all except: | [
"Parietal bone",
"Occipital bone",
"Temporal bone",
"Sphenoid bone"
] | Both intramembranous and endochondrial ossification is seen in – occipital, temporal, sphenoid bones. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34824 | Which of the following is not used in diagonosis of insulinoma | [
"72 hows fasting blood glucose levels",
"C peptide levels",
"Insulin/glucose ratio",
"D-xylose test"
] | These blood tests are needed to diagnose insulinoma: glucose insulin C-peptide If available, a proinsulin level might be useful, as well. Other blood tests may help rule out other conditions which can cause hypoglycemia Ref Davidson edition23rd pg837 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_25936 | Most common site for carcinoma stomach is: | [
"Antrum",
"Fundus",
"Lesser curvature",
"Greater curvature"
] | Answer is A (Antrum): The most common site of gastric adenocarcinoma is antrum '40% tumors are in the antrum, predominantly on the lesser curvature, 30% arise in the body and fimdus, 25% at the cardia and 5% involve the whole organ'- CSDT | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38831 | A 50-year-old male with a positive family history of prostate cancer has come to you for a screening test. The most sensitive screening test to pickup prostate cancer is: | [
"DRE",
"PSA",
"DRE + PSA",
"Endorectal Coil MRI with T1W and T2W images"
] | Smith's Urology writes - "At the present time the data suggest that if screening is done, the combination of DRE & Serum PSA is best."
The diagnosis of Ca Prostate is established by TRUS-guided transrectal biopsy. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28216 | The lymph node not to be involved first in maxillary carcinoma:- | [
"Superior deep cervical nodes",
"Jugulodigastric nodes",
"Submandibular nodes",
"Subdigastric nodes"
] | Submandibular lymph nodes are not to be involved first in maxillary carcinoma. CARCINOMA OF MAXILLARY SINUS Common in 40-60 years of age, more common in malesQ Systemic metastasis are rare, may be seen in lungs (MC)Qand occasionally in bone. CLINICAL FEATURES Early features of maxillary sinus malignancy are nasal stuffiness, blood stained discharge, facial paraesthesia, or pain and epiphoraQ. Nodal metastasis is uncommon and occurs only in the late stage of disease. Maxillary tumors mainly spread to mandibular nodesQ. DIAGNOSIS: CT scan: Best non-invasive method to find the extent of disease. TREATMENT For SCC, combination of radiotherapy and surgeryQgives better results than either alone. Radiotherapy can be given before or after surgery. | C | null |
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