dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_10542 | Not a Radiological feature of ileal atresia | [
"Obstruction on Barium meal",
"Microcolon on Barium enema",
"Double bubble sign",
"Apple - Peel appearance"
] | Multiple bubble sign in seen in ileal atresia. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30239 | Necrotizing fascitis is caused by - | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Beta hemolytic streptococci",
"Clostridium perfringens",
"Pneumococcus"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Beta hemolytic streptococci The spectrum of infections of the deep soft tissues ranges from localized bacterial, viral and parasitic lesions to rapidly spreading, tissue destructive infections such as necrotizing fascitis and myonecrosis. A) Pyomyositis :- It is common in tropics, therefore also called tropical pyomyositis. It is a localized infection of skeletal muscles. It is caused most commonly by staphylococcus aureus. B) Necrotizing fascitis Necrotizing fascitis is an infection of the deeper layers of skin and subcutaneous tissues, easily spreading across the fascial plane within the subcutaneous tissues. There are two types of necrotizing fascitis :? i) Type 1:- It is a polymicrobial infection, i.e. mixed aerobic and anaerobic infection. It occurs most commonly after surgical procedures in diabetic patients or in those who have peripheral vascular disease. ii) Type 2 :- It is caused most commonly by streptococcus pyogenes (Group A beta hemolytic streptococci). C) Clostridial myonecrosis (Gas gangrene) :- It is characterized by rapid and extensive necrosis of muscle accompanied by gas formation and systemic toxicity. It is caused by C. perfringens (most common), C. novyi, C. septicum and C. histolyticum. It is also called type III necrotizing fascitis. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3709 | Which of the following is not true about medullary carcinoma of thyroid - | [
"Origin is from `C' cells of thyroid",
"Component of MEN-1",
"Multicentric in origin",
"Amyloid deposition"
] | Medullary thyroid carcinoma is associated with MEN 2 (2A & 2B), and not with MEN-1.
When medullary thyroid carcinoma occurs as a part of MEN syndrome, it may be multicentric. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27411 | Good prognostic factor in schizophrenia: | [
"Insidious onset",
"Positive symptoms",
"Disorganized subtype",
"Absence of depression"
] | Ans: B (Positive symptoms) Ref: A Short Textbook of Psychiatry by Niraj Ahuja, 7th edition. 201L Jay pee, Page 62 Explanation: (See table below) Prognostic Factors in Schizophrenia Sl no Good prognostic factors Poor prognostic factors 1 Acute or abrupt onset Insidious onset 2 Onset >35 years (Late Onset) Onset < 20 years ( Early Onset) 3 Presence of precipitating stressor 4 Good premorbid adjustment Poor premorbid adjustment 5 Catatonic Subtype Disorganised, simple, undifferentiated, chronic catatonic subtypes 6 Short dura! bn ( < 6 months) Chronic course ( > 2 years) 7 Presence of Depression Absence of Depression 8 A predominance of Positive symptoms Predominance of Negative symptoms 9 Family history of mood disorder Family history of Schizophrenia 10 First episode Past history of Schizophrenia 11 Pyknic (Fat) Physic Asthenic (Thin) physique 12 Female sex Male sex 13 Good social support Poor social support or unmarried 14 Presence of confusion, perplexity, or disorientation n the acute phase Fiat or blunted affect 15 Proper treatment, good treatment, concordance Absence of proper treatment 16 Good response to treatment Poor response to treatment 17 Outpatient treatment Long-term hospitalization 18 Normal cranial CT scan Evidence of 'ventricular enlargement on CT scan | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8616 | All of the following are usual features of left atrial Myxoma, except - | [
"Raised ESR",
"Pyrexia",
"Markedly enlarged left atrium",
"Systemic Embolism"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32731 | All of the following are included in pathogenesis of edema except? | [
"Decreased hydrostatic pressure of capillaries",
"Decreased plasma osmotic pressure of capillaries",
"lymphatic obstruction",
"Increased vascular permeability"
] | Answer- A. Decreased hydrostatic pressure of capillaries | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7153 | Earliest lesion in atherosclerosis is | [
"Atheroma",
"Fatty streak",
"Fibrous plaque",
"None of the above"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1873 | Thornwaldt's abscess is seen in - | [
"Ludwig angina",
"Pharyngeal bursitis",
"Lateral sinus thrombosis",
"Hydrocephalus"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pharyngeal bursitis Thornwald's disease (Pharyngeal bursitis)o A thomwaldt cyst is a benign midline nasopharyngeal mucosal cyst.o It is a developmental anomaly which is usually asymptomatic and is found incidentally on imaging of nasopharynxo This is a notochord remnant.o Sometimes cyst may become infected leading to an abscess and can cause halitosis or foul tasting periodic discharge into the mouth.o Asymptomatic lesions require no treatment. If treatment is required then de-roofing the cyst (marsupialization) isusually sufficient, and can be performed via a transpalatal approach,o Antibiotics are given to treat infection | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31474 | A 26 year old female patient complains of discoloration with her upper front teeth. Intra-oral examination reveals Intrinsic staining with maxillary incisors. Dentist prepares the tooth to receive veneers. Which of the following cutting mechanisms will be seen in this situation? | [
"Brittle fracture",
"Ductile fracture",
"Plastic deformation",
"None of the above"
] | High-speed cutting, especially of enamel, proceeds by brittle fracture.
Tooth structure, similar to other materials, undergoes brittle and ductile fracture. Brittle fracture is associated with crack production usually by tensile forces. Ductile fracture involves plastic deformation of material usually proceeding by shear forces. Extensive plastic deformation also may produce local work hardening and encourage brittle fracture. Low-speed cutting tends to proceed by plastic deformation before tooth structure fracture.
Ref: Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry. 4th edition page 340. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42676 | Which of the following is not a complication of TPN? | [
"Hepatic steaosis",
"Renal failure",
"Decreased bone density",
"Septic venous thrombosis"
] | .Complications of TPN includes Technical 1. Air embolism. 2. Pneumothorax. 3. Bleeding. 4. Catheter displacement, sepsis, blockage. 5. Infection, thrombosis. Biochemical- 1. Electrolyte imbalance: Hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, hypophosphataemia. 2. Hyperosmolarity. 3. Hyperglycaemia. - common. 4. Dehydration. 5. Altered immunological and reticuloendothelial function. 6. Azotaemia. Others- 1. Dermatitis. 2. Anaemia and increased capillary permeability. 3. Cholestatic jaundice: It is common. 4. Severe hepatic steatosis. 5. Metabolic acidosis. 6. Candida infection (candidiasis), staphylococcal infection. (10-15%). ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 89 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14113 | b-agonists in asthma act by all except - | [
"Cause Bronchodilatation",
"Abort an acute attack",
"Decrease inflammation",
"All of the above"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Decrease inflammation b-agonistso b2-receptors cause bronchodilatation, hence selective b2 agonists are used in bronchial asthma.o b2 agonists have no antiinflammatory action.o b2 agonists may be short acting (salbutamol, levalbuterol pirbuterol, terbutaline, Isoetharine, bitolterol, fenoterol, procaterol); or long acting (salmeterol, formoterol, arformoterol, carmoterol, indacterol).o Bambuterol is a long acting agent which is a prodrug of terbutaline. Bitolterol is also a prodrug and is activated to form calterol, by esterase in lung.o Inhaled b2-agonists are the most effective bronchodilators in asthma and hence are the agents of choice for treatment of acute attack of asthma.o Short acting b2-agonists produce bronchodilatation within 5 min and action lasts for 2-6 hrs - are used to abort and terminate acute asthma, but are not suitable for prophylaxis.o Salmeterol is delayed acting, can be used for prophylaxis only, while formoterol is fast acting and long acting can be used for both prophylaxis and acute attack. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37401 | Post transplant lymphoma occurs due to proliferation of which of the following cells - | [
"T cell",
"B cell",
"NK cell",
"Monocyte"
] | Diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL) is the diffuse counterpa of follicular large cleaved cell lymphoma. Epstein Barr virus infectin has been etiologically implicated in DLBCL in immunosuppresed patients of AIDS and organ transplant cases Reference : Harsh Mohan textbook of pathology, 7th edition.Pg no.357 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38174 | History of excessive thirst, hunger, micturition during nights and recent loosening of teeth usually indicate that the patient is suffering from: | [
"Hypertension",
"Hyperthyroidism",
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Glomerulonephritis"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51479 | Graveyard of ENT surgeon | [
"Pyriform Fossa",
"Bucco Labial sulcus",
"Tonsilolingual sulcus",
"Peritonsillar space"
] | Tonsilolingual sulcus is seat of carcinoma usually missed by ENT doctor in OPD to check. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12764 | Which of the following enzymes require NAD as cofactor? | [
"Citrate Synthase",
"Isocitrate Dehydrogenase",
"a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase",
"Succinate Thiokinase"
] | a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase REF: Harper 27th ed p. 496 NAD is cofactor in: Lactate dehydrogenase Pyruvate dehydrogenase Alpha ketoglutrate dehydrogenase | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42439 | Physiologic responses to all types of shock include the following except | [
"Activation of the inflammatory system.",
"Activation of the coagulation system.",
"Hypoperfusion of tissues.",
"Vasoconstriction."
] | Vasodilation and not vasoconstriction occurs because of the body’s immune response.
Option A: Activation of the inflammatory system occurs as a response to the invasion of microorganisms.
Option B: Activation of the coagulation system occurs because proinflammatory and anti-inflammatory cytokines are released during the inflammatory response.
Option C: Hypoperfusion occurs because of vasodilation. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51061 | HRT in post-menopausal women is given for all except:(AIIMS May 2013, Nov 2011) | [
"Vaginal dry ness",
"Hot flushes",
"Prevention of coronary artery disease",
"Prevention of osteoporosis"
] | Ans. c. Prevention of coronary artery disease (Ref: Novak's Gynae 14/e p1330-1333)HRT in post-menopausal women is effective treatment available for relief of the menopausal symptoms hot flashes, vaginal dryness, urinary symptoms, emotional lability, and osteoporosis. Coronary artery disease is an absolute contraindication for HRT."Estrogen is the most effective treatment available for relief of the menopausal symptoms that many women experience, including hot flashes, vaginal dryness, urinary symptoms, and emotional lability. However, data from the Women's Health Initiative showed no cardiovascular benefit with unopposed estrogen and a small increase in risk with combined therapy. Estrogen is an option for the prevention of osteoporosis in perimenopausal women, estrogen-progesterone therapy reduces fracture risk at a cost of increase in the incidence of breast cancer, coronary heart disease, stroke and venous thromboembolism, or in the case unopposed estrogen, an increase in stroke and thromboembolism. At this time, post-menopausal hormone therapy, either unopposed estrogen or combined estrogen-progestin therapy should not he initiated for prevention of CHD."Absolute Contraindications to HRT* Undiagnosed vaginal bleedingQ* Severe liver diseaseQ* PregnancyQ* Coronary artery disease (CAD)Q* Venous thrombosisQ* Well-differentiated and early endometrial cancerQ (once treatment for the malignancy is complete, is no longer an absolute contraindication)Hormone Replacement TherapyEstrogen is the most effective treatment available for relief of the menopausal symptoms that many women experience, including hot flashes, vaginal dryness, urinary symptoms, and emotional lability.However, data from the Women's Health Initiative showed no cardiovascular benefit with unopposed estrogen and a small increase in risk with combined therapyQ.Estrogen is an option for the prevention of osteoporosis in perimenopausal women, estrogen- progesterone therapy reduces fracture risk at a cost of increase in the incidence of breast cancer, coronary heart disease, stroke and venous thromboembolism, or in the case unopposed estrogen, an increase in stroke and thromboembolism.At this time, post-menopausal hormone therapy, either unopposed estrogen or combined estrogen-progestin therapy should not be initiated for prevention of CHDQ.In addition, postmenopausal hormone therapy is no longer considered to be first line drug for prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.Bisphosphonates or raloxifene are recommended as first line drugs for prevention and bisphosphonates for treatment of established osteoporosisQ. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34394 | Degree of freedom for 2/2 contingency table is? | [
"1",
"Zero",
"2",
"4"
] | Ref: Parks 23rd edition Degree of freedom = (r-1)(c-1) =(2-1)(2-1)= 1 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12994 | Which of the following is False regarding H.Pylori infection : | [
"With chronic infection urease breath test become negative",
"H.Pylori infection remain lifelong if untreated",
"Endoscopy is diagnostic",
"Toxigenic strains usually causes ulcer"
] | Answer is A (With chronic infection urease breath test becomes negative) Urease breath test detects H. pylon infection by 'bacterial urease activity' and remains positive till the bacteria has not been eradicated with treatment. Thus urease breath test becomes negative only after eradication of organism following treatment and not with chronic Mfection. Despite a substantial humoral antibody response infection persists indefinitely (persists life long if untreated) Invasive diagnostic test are based on Endoscopic, endoscopy is a diagnostic application. H. pylori produces several virulence factors that have been implicated in the damage of mucosa. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22982 | A 70-year-old man presents with right flank pain that radiates to his groin. He has a long history of heavy smoking and alcohol use and reports passing a kidney stone approximately 20 years prior to this event. His past medical history is also remarkable for diabetes mellitus, high cholesterol, and obesity. A computed tomography scan reveals a right 7-mm ureteral stone. In addition, coronal imaging was obtained, and is shown. Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for the development of this patient's additional findings on the imaging study shown? | [
"Age",
"History of smoking",
"History ofurolithiasis",
"Metabolic syndrome"
] | Ans. (b) History of smoking.In this patient, smoking is the greatest risk factor for the development of aortic aneurysm. Studies have shown that it increases the risk approximately eight times that of non smoking adults. Other tobacco use also increases the risk. Other risk factors include the patient's age, atherosclerotic disease, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers-Danlos or Marfan syndrome.Image source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16122 | While analysing a data, allocation into similar groups is done to ensure - | [
"Comparability",
"Accuracy",
"Validity",
"Sensitivity"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Comparability o Both groups (study and control) should be comparable in respect of all the possible varibles, which may influence the outcome. o So that, except for the factor under study will not influence the outcome confoundation and bias can be minimized. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51462 | Which of the following is the best predictor of attempting suicide in the future? | [
"Alcohol abuse",
"Unemployment",
"Prior suicide attempt",
"Divorce"
] | Ans. C. Prior suicide attemptThe strongest indicator of the likelihood of attempting suicide is a history of previous suicide attempts. It has been shown that women make more suicidal gestures, but men are more likely to choose lethal methods and thus are more likely to successfully commit suicide. Therefore, male gender is considered more a risk factor for suicide completion. Alcohol or substance abuse, unemployment, and recent divorce are all additional risk factors but are less significant than a history of previous suicide attempts. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28585 | Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary
complete denture with severe bilateral tuberosity undercuts is | [
"Remove both tuberosity undercuts",
"Remove the tissue on only one side if possible",
"Maintain the undercuts as they help in retention",
"Use an mucostatic impression material"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39758 | True about Kartagener's syndrome is all except- | [
"Dextrocardia",
"Infertility'",
"Brochieactasis",
"Mental retardation"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Mental retardation o Kartagener's syndrome is a subgroup of primary ciliary dyskinesia. Primary ciliary dyskinesia - o It is an antosomal recessive syndrome. o It is characterized by poorly functioning cilia. There is absence or shortening of Dynein arms that are responsible for the coordinated bending of cilia. o Approximately half of the patients with primary' ciliary' dyskinesia have kartagener's syndrome. Kartagener's syndrome Bronchiectasis - Poor functioning of cilia contribute to retention of secretions and recurrent infections Sinusitis - Lack of ciliary activity interferes with bacterial clearance, predisposing sinuses to infection Situs in versus - Due to ineffective cell motility during embryogenesis Infertility - Due to ineffective mobility of sperm | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5888 | True about propranalol is ? | [
"Metabolism of propranolol is not dependent on the hepatic blood flow",
"Undergoes extensive first pass metabolism",
"Hydroxylated product of propranolol has alpha blocking propey",
"Propranolol is lipophobic"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Undergoes extensive first pass metabolism Propranolol metabolism It is well absorbed after oral administration. It has low bioavailability due to high first pass metabolism in liver. It is lipophilic and easily penetrates into brain. Metabolism of propranolol is dependent on the hepatic blood flow. Bioavailability of propranolol is increased when it is taken with food. o Hydroxylated product of propranolol has beta blocking activity. Metabolites are excreted in urine mostly as glucuronides. More than 90% of propranolol is bound to plasma proteins. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21249 | The sigma (s) subunit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase | [
"Binds the antibiotic rifampicin",
"Is inhibited by a-amanitin",
"Specifically recognizes the promoter site",
"Is pa of the core enzyme"
] | prokaryotic RNA polymers contain 2 alpha subunit, 2 beta subunit, 1 omega subunit, 1 sigma subunit and 2 zinc molecules Beta subunit fixes at the initiation siteThe sigma factor recognizes the promoter site and the affinity of the holoenzyme to the promoter siteRef: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 589 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48597 | Treatment of choice for Eale's disease - | [
"Antibiotics",
"Corticosteroids",
"Antihistaminics",
"Surgery"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Corticosteroids Eale's diseaseo Eale's disese is an idiopathic inflammatory venous occlusion (Phelbitis) that primarily affects the peripheral retina of young adult (20-30 yrs) male.o It is characterized by recurrent bilateral vitreous hemorrhage; therefore, also referred to as primary vitreous hemorrhage.o Disease is bilateral and patients commonly present with sudden onset of floaters (black spots) in front of the eye or sudden painless loss of vision due to vitreous hemorrhage,o The hemorrhage clears up spontareously, but recurrences are very common.o On examination, retinal changes include perivascular phlebitis, perivascular exudates, superficial (flame shaped) hemorrhages, peripheral nonperfusion ischemia and neovascularizationo Medical treatment in the form of oral corticosteroid is the treatment of choice.o A course of ATT has also been recommended for selected cases as many workers consider Eale's disease to be a hypersensitivity reaction to tubercular protein,o Laser photocoagulation is indicated for retinal neovascularization.o Vitroretinal surgery is required for non - resolving vitreous hemorrhage and retinal detachment,o Complications of Eales disease include proliferative vitreoretinopathy, tractional retinal detachment, rubeosis iridis and neovascular glaucoma. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7186 | Pasteurization by Holder method is heating milk at | [
"60° C for 45 minutes",
"100° C for 15 minutes",
"65° C for 30 minutes",
"136° C for 15 minutes"
] | Methods of Pasteurization: | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48760 | Endocervicat curettage shows malignant cells in a 40 year old lady. Next line of management is : | [
"Cone biopsy",
"Pap smear",
"Colposcopy",
"Repeat procedure and if positive hysterectomy is done"
] | Cone biopsy | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17710 | Isovolumetric relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle ends with | [
"Peak of C waves",
"Opening of AV valve",
"Closure of semilunar valve",
"Beginning of T waves"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47441 | Prostaglandin used to control bleeding in Post partum hemorrhage is: | [
"Carboprost",
"Alprostadil",
"PGE2",
"PGI2"
] | Ref: Dutta textbook of obstetrics Pg.4I6Explanation:Postpartum hemorrhageCarboprost (15 methyl PGF2 alpha) 0.25 mg to be given i.m every I5min upto maximum 2 mgMisoprostol (PGEI) 1000 microgm per rectum AlprostadilSynthetic Prostaglandin El (PGEI) analogIt is a drug used in the treatment of erectile dysfunctionUsed in treatment of Patent ductus arteriosus in NewbornAlso used in 'Critical limb ischemia' due to its vasodilatory properties. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9902 | Hung up reflex is seen in- | [
"Chorea",
"Cerebral palsy",
"Athetosis",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e. ChoreaHung up knee ierko When patellor tendon is tapped while the foot is hanging free, the leg may be held in extension for few seconds before relaxing owing to prolonged contraction of quadriceps.o This is seen in "chorea".Other neurological signs associated with chorea -o Milkmaids gripo Piano signo HandwritingMilkmaid's gripo Inability to maintain sustained voluntary contraction of muscle group at a constant level.o Inability to apply steady pressure during handshake leading to a characteristic squeeze and release of grip.o Patients have difficulty1 maintaining sustained eyelid closure and sustained tongue protrusion. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52278 | A newborn baby presented with a failure to pass meconium in the immediate postnatal period. The pediatrician also notices visible yet ineffective peristalsis, and abdominal distention. A radiological contrast enema demonstrated a narrow conical segment and a dilated proximal bowel. A diagnosis of Hirschsprung disease was made. Which of the following is a cause of the condition in the patient? | [
"Failure of migration of neural crest cells",
"Excessive peristalsis of the affected pa of gut",
"Failure of involution of vitelline duct",
"Obstruction secondary to an infectious agent"
] | Hirschsprung disease: Also known as congenital aganglionic megacolon Premature arrest of normal migration of neural crest cells from the cecum to the rectum producing aganglionosis of distal intestinal segment Functional obstruction of the affected bowel and proximal dilation Diagnosis: Documenting the absence of ganglion cells within the affected segment using immunohistochemical stains for acetylcholinesterase. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12918 | Most common causative organism for bacterial meningitis beyond 3 years of age is - | [
"Pneumococcus",
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Meningococcus",
"H. influenzae Type b"
] | Most common causative organism for bacterial meningitis beyond 3 years of age is - Pneumococcus | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3562 | The term 'disease control' employs all of the following except- | [
"Reducing the complications",
"Reducing the risk of fuher transmission",
"Reducing the incidence of disease",
"Reducing the prevalence of the disease"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Reducing the prevalence of the disease o The term disease control describes, reducing the i) The incidence of disease ii) The duration of disease and consequently the risk of transmission iii) The effects of infection, including its complications iv) Financial burden to the community | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8943 | Which of the following drugs is used to control tachycardia and palpitations in persons with acute symptoms of hyperthyroidism ? | [
"Liothyronine",
"Propranolol",
"Methimazole",
"Potassium iodide solution"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49685 | Virus causing oropharyngeal carcinoma ? | [
"EBV",
"HPV",
"HHV-8",
"HTLV"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., HPV | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32274 | Peak stage in height growth corresponds to stage of pubic hair – | [
"I",
"II",
"III",
"IV"
] | For Girls (Nelson 62 fig 12-4)
Peak stage in height growth —> Breast stage III and pubic hair stage III.
For boys (Nelson 61 fig 12-3)
Peak stage in height growth -p Genitalia (Testis, penis) stage IV and pubic hair stage IV. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2973 | Risk of amniotic fluid embolism is greatest in : | [
"First trimester of pregnancy",
"Second trimester of pregnancy",
"During labour",
"In puerperal period"
] | During labour | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13974 | Earliest event in ischemic cardiac myocytes is: | [
"Microvascular injury",
"Irreversible cell injury",
"Loss of contractility",
"ATP reduction to 50% normal."
] | Loss of contractility Features Time Onset of A TP depletion Seconds Loss of contractility <2 min A TP reduced to 50% of normal to 10% of normal 10 min 40 min Irreversible cell injury 20-40 min Microvascular injury > 1 hour | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45565 | Bleeding ear discharge is mostly due - | [
"Glomus tumour",
"Otosclerosis",
"Otitis media with effusion",
"Acoustic neuroma"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glomus tumour Differential diagnosis of blood stained ear discharge :* ASOM* Acute mastoiditis* CSOM* Aural polyp* Granulations* Glomus tumor | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13713 | Preservative added in DPT vaccine is - | [
"Zinc phosphate",
"Aluminium phosphate",
"MgSO4",
"ZnSO4"
] | Page 162 Park&;s textbook of Preventive and social medicine 23rd edition DPT vaccine provides immunity against diphtheria peussis and tetanus Peusis component in the DPT vaccine enhance the potency of diphtheria toxoid There are two types of DPT vaccine -plain and adsorbed Adsorption is usually carried out on a mineral carrier like aluminium phosphate or hydroxide Studies have shown that adsorption increases the immunological effectiveness of the vaccine The WHO recommend that only advent DPT preparation be utilised in immunization programmes | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8413 | Analysis of routine measurement aimed at detecting changes in the environment? | [
"Surveillance",
"Isolation",
"Monitoring",
"RCT"
] | Monitoring is the performance and analysis of routine measurements aimed at detecting changes in the environment or health status of population. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16929 | The diffusion capacity of the lung is decreased in all of the following conditions except: | [
"Interstitial lung disease",
"Goodpasture's syndrome",
"Pneumocystis jirovecii",
"Primary pulmonary hypeension"
] | DLCO is increased in Goodpasture's since the basement membrane is damaged, thereby increasing the chances of diffusion of CO across lesser number of anatomical layers. DLCO is decreased in pulmonary aery hypeension since the fibrosis in pulmonary vessels will reduce the diffusion of CO across the anatomical layers. DLCO is decreased in patients with: Interstitial lung disease Emphysema (COPD usually have normal DLCO) Bronchiolitis obliterans Lymphangioleiomyomatosis Pulmonary hypeension Thromboembolic disease DLCO is increased in patients with: Alveolar hemorrhage Congestive hea failure Asthma | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24293 | HCG level seen in : | [
"Down syndrome",
"DM",
"Multiple pregnancy",
"Ectopic pregnancy"
] | Ans. is d i.e. Ectopic pregnancy Caught you, I know some of you must have instantly answered "Down's Syndrome". But my dear friends read the question very carefully. It says decreased hCG levels and not decreased AFP levels. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12933 | STEP wise approach to surveillance for Non - Communicable diseases step 2 is | [
"Behavioural measurement",
"Physical measurement",
"Biochemical Measurement",
"Emotional Assessment"
] | STEPS Compriser or 3steps
Step 1 = Behavioural measurements
Step 2 = Physical measurements
Step 3 = Biochemical measurements | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13315 | Which of the following is the insertion of the shown muscle? | [
"Radial tuberosity",
"Olecranon process",
"Radial head",
"Medial malleolus"
] | Ans. A Radial tuberosityRef: Gray's Anatomy 41st ed. P 824* The shown muscle in the image is biceps brachii.* It has two proximal heads (hence the name). Their attachments are:# Short head: Tip of coracoid process# Long head: Supraglenoid tubercle of scapula* Insertion:# Radial tuberosity and fascia of forearm via bicipital aponeurosis* Innervation: Musculocutaneous nerve (C5, C6)* Action: Supination of forearm and flexion of shoulder joint | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6417 | Ligament with vessels includes | [
"Renocolic",
"Gastro splenic",
"Linorenal",
"Phrenicocolic"
] | (B) Gastro splenic # Gastrosplenic ligament (ligamentum gastrosplenicum or gastrolienal ligament) is part of the greater omentum.> Embryonically the gastrosplenic ligament is derived from the dorsal mesogastrium.> Gastrosplenic ligament is made of peritoneum that connects the greater curvature of stomach with the hilum of the spleen.> Contains: Short gastric vessels & left gastro-epiploic vessels. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53869 | Drug of choice for treatment of chronic myeloid leukemia is | [
"Imatinib",
"Cisplatin",
"Methotrexate",
"Tamoxifen"
] | Imatinib - first line drug for chronic phase CML,in blast crisis and second line therapy for chronic phase CML that has progressed on prior IFN-a therapy Imatinib is also first line drug for metastatic c-kit positive GIST. Nilotinib, Bosutinib, Dasatinib - used in treatment of resistant CML Dasatinib is also used for treatment of Philadelphia chromosome positive ALL. Sunitinib-approved for the treatment of Advanced RCC and for the treatment of GIST after disease progression on or with intolerance to Imatinib. Methotrexate- DOC of choriocarcinoma Cisplatin - DOC- esophageal or gastric cancer Tamoxifen - DOC for ER positive breast cancer | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_294 | Hyperbaric oxygen is useful in | [
"Tetanus",
"Frostbite",
"Vincent's angina",
"Gas gangrene"
] | Hyperbaric oxygen is currently considered a primary treatment modality for carbon monoxide poisoning, cerebral aerial gas embolism, osteoradionecrosis, decompression sickness, and clostridial gas gangrene. It is also considered an adjunctive therapy for acute exceptional blood loss anemia, acute thermal burns, compromised skin grafts or skin flaps, crush injury, compament syndrome, necrotizing soft-tissue infections, non-clostridial gas gangrene, radiation tissue damage, refractory osteomyelitis, selected problem wounds, and intracranial abscesses. Treatment of frostbite injuries with HBO is considered experimental. The treatment protocol for frostbite includes rapid rewarming, close observation, elevation and splinting daily hydrotherapy, and serial debridements.- Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e p39, (24/e p124) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7219 | Sex determination in early pregnancy Is done by: | [
"X-rays",
"Amniocentesis",
"Ultrasound",
"Hysteroscopy"
] | Ultrasound | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29586 | Hypersegmented neutrophils are a feature of:September 2011, March 2013 | [
"Hemosiderosis",
"Sideroblastic anemia",
"Megaloblastic anemia",
"Thalassemia"
] | Ans. C: Megaloblastic anemiaThe diagnosis of vitamin B12 deficiency anemia is based on leucopenia with hypersegmented granulocytes, a moderate to severe Megaloblastic anemia, elevated levels of homocysteine and methylmalonic acid in the serum and low serum vitamin B12.Hypersegmented neutrophilNormally, the number of segments in the nucleus of a neutrophil increases as it matures and ages, after being released into the blood from the bone marrow.Whereas normal neutrophils only contain three or four nuclear lobes (the "segments"), hypersegmented neutrophils contain five or more lobes.Hypersegmented neutrophils have classically been thought to be pathognomonic of the megaloblastic anemias (anemias caused by failure of bone marrow blood-forming cells to make DNA, often caused by vitamin B12 or folate deficiencies, or DNA-replication poisons).One of the earliest, notable changes in the peripheral blood in megaloblastic processes is the appearance of hypersegmented neutrophils.Because of the sho life-span of neutrophils, these abnormal hypersegmented neutrophils characteristically appear even before the onset of anemia in megaloblastic processes.Such neutrophils are less often seen in the other classes of anemia, which together are far more common than megaloblastic types of anemia.Note that pernicious anemia is a type of megaloblastic anemia, and as such, is expected to show hypersegmented neutrophils. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51047 | Number of teeth at 7 years: | [
"20",
"24",
"26",
"28"
] | Ans. 24 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28047 | L-form is seen in ? | [
"Ricketsia",
"Chlamydia",
"Mycoplasma",
"H. pylori"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mycoplasma L-forms are seen in several species of bacteria, developing either spontaneouly or in presence of penicillin or other agents that interfere with cell wall synthesis. L-forms may be unstable in that the morphological abnormality is maintained only in the presence of penicillin, or stable, when the aberrant font) becomes the permanent feature of the strain and is retained in serial subcultures. L-form resemble mycoplasma and it is possible that mycoplasma represent stable L-forms of as yet unidentified parent bacteria. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44851 | Which of these is NOT a sign of increased intracranial tension (ICT)? | [
"Erosion of dorsum sella",
"Sutural diastasis",
"Ballooning of sella",
"Copper-beaten appearance"
] | X-ray findings of increased intracranial tension: Sutural diastasis Sellar demineralization Erosion of posterior clinoids Silver beaten appearance Must know: Cushing's triad: It is the classic presentation of ICH: hypeension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations. Ref: Diagnostic Neuroradiology edited by Valery N.Kornienko, 2009, Page 562. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29614 | Blood of 45 yrs old male shows -HVA. This patient is most likely to show - | [
"PCC",
"Schizophrenia",
"Depression",
"Parkinson's ds"
] | Some guides have given Schizophrenia as the answers. But they are wrong. Read below : -
Homovanillic acid (HVA) is the major metabolite of dopamine.
Schizophrenia is characterized by hyperactivity of dopaminergic system. However, HVA is not raised in Schizophrenia → Which questioned the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia.
Dopamine is decreased in parkinsonism →HVA level is decreased.
Though dopamine is decreased in depression, dopamine and HVA are raised in psychotic depression: -"Elevated levels of HVA have been reported in psychotic depression, suggesting increased dopamine activity in this subtype of depression"
Imidazole acetic acid | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41282 | 45-year-old female complains of lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. On examination, there is cervicitis along with a mucopurulent cervical discharge. The Gram smear of the discharge shows presence of abundant pus cells, but no bacteria. The best approach to isolate the possible causative agent would be: | [
"Culture on chocholate agar supplemented with hemin",
"Culture on McCoy cells",
"Culture on a bilayer human blood agar",
"Culture on Vero cell lines"
] | Patient is complaining of abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. On examination, cervicitis and mucopurulent discharge is seen—which indicates she is having PID. The presence of pus cells in absence of organism indicates chlamydial infection (most common STD today). It is an intracellular organism that grows only on McCoy or HeLa cell cultures. It cannot be grown on other media and hence, often goes unnoticed, later leading to infertility.
Culture in Mc Coy cells is 100% specific for chlamydia but is inexpensive, technically difficult and takes 3-7 days to obtain the result. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24001 | Allergic hypersensitivity is mediated by ? | [
"IgM",
"IgG",
"IgD",
"IgE"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., IgE | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21749 | Sclerotic lesion in the bone is seen in all except - | [
"Osteitis fibrosa",
"Osteopetrosis",
"Melorheostosis",
"Caffey's disease"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17917 | A patient presents to you with the features of biliary obstruction. He gives history of the consumption of fish while on the trip. Which of the following is most probable etiology | [
"Clonorchis sinensis",
"Ancylostoma",
"Strongyloides",
"Enterobius"
] | Ans. a. Clonorchis sinensis | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_622 | Bonds in cellulose that make it resistant to digestion is: | [
"b1-4",
"a1-6",
"b1-6",
"a1-6"
] | Cellulose is the chief constituent of plant cell walls. It is insoluble and consists of b-D -glucopyranose units linked by b,1-4 bonds to form long, straight chains strengthened by cross-linking hydrogen bonds. Mammals lack any enzyme that hydrolyzes the b1 -4 bonds, and so cannot digest cellulose. Ref: Harper 28th edition, chapter 14. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43760 | Pathognomic features of Maxillary sinusitis is: | [
"Mucopus in the middle meatus",
"Inferior turbinate hypertrophy",
"Purulent nasal discharge",
"Atrophic sinusitis"
] | (Mucopus in middle meatus) (182, Dhingra 4th) (209-Maqbool 11th)* In maxillary sinusitis - pus is seen in the middle meatus particularly when the head is kept is down with infected sinus uppermost (maqbool)* Presence of mucopus in the nose is suggestive of sinus infection and its position determines the sinus involved* Most common pathological changes are the result of increased vascular permeability causing hypertrophy of the mucosa which may eventually become polypoidal.* Purulent nasal discharge is the commonest complaint* Occipitomental view (Water's view) is helpful. CT sinus is diagnostic | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53400 | Autoimmunity can be caused due to all of the following except- | [
"The pressure of forbidden clones",
"Expression of cryptic antigens",
"Negative selection of T-cells in the thymus",
"Inappropriate expression of the MHC proteins"
] | Autoimmunity is the system of immune responses of an organism against its own healthy cells and tissues. Any disease that results from such an aberrant immune response is termed an autoimmune disease. Prominent examples include celiac disease, diabetes mellitus type 1, sarcoidosis, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), Sjogren's syndrome, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Graves' disease, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, Addison's disease, rheumatoid ahritis (RA), ankylosing spondylitis, polymyositis (PM), and dermatomyositis (DM). Autoimmune diseases are very often treated with steroids. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18025 | Most common part of spine affected by Rheumatoid arthritis is? | [
"Lumbar spine",
"Thoracic spine",
"Cervical spine",
"Sacrum"
] | Ans. (c) Cervical spineRef.'.MR Imaging of the Spine and Spinal Cord by DetlevUhlenbrock p-375, Orthopedic surgery essentials- Spine by Christopher M. Bono, Steven R. Garfin p-188 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1084 | Secondary osteosarcoma are associated with | [
"Paget's disease",
"Osteogenesis imperfecta",
"Melhoreostosis",
"Ankylosing spondilitis"
] | Answer- A. Paget's diseaseCauses of secondary osteosarcomaPagets DiseaseFibrous dysplasiaEnchondromatosisHereditary multiple exostosisRadiationChronicosteomyelitisBone infarction | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_17090 | Theophyline levels in blood are increased by: | [
"Barbiturates",
"Methotrexate",
"Cimetidine",
"All of the above"
] | Cimetidine | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2784 | Malignant pustule occurs in ? | [
"Melanoma",
"Gas gangrene",
"Ovarian tumour",
"Anthrax"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Anthrax | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36777 | The following set of words can be used synonymously in epidemiology - | [
"Source and Reservoir",
"Index and primary case",
"Latent infection and subclinical infection",
"Serial interval and incubation period"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Latent infection and subclinical infection Though none of the given pairs can be used as synonymously, the best answer is 'c'. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30140 | Dragon or serpent worm is: | [
"Enterobius",
"Trichuris",
"Dracunculus",
"T. Solium"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dracunculus(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1422-1423; Chatterjee, 12th/e, p. 203)* Dracunculus medinensis is also known as Guinea worm, Serpent worm, Dragon worm, Medina worm. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50427 | Tuberculate spores are diagnostic in: | [
"Cryptococcosis",
"Chromomycosis",
"Sporotrichosis",
"Histoplasmosis"
] | Histoplasma capsulatum is a dimorphic fungus. As a yeast, it exists intracellularly in macrophages as a 2-4 micron budding spherical form. When grown in culture medium, hyaline septate hyphae with small microconidia tuberculate macroconidia are seen in H. capsulatum. These macro conidia are having finger like projection on their surface. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47478 | Enlarged pulsatile liver is seen in - | [
"Tricuspid regurgitation",
"Aortic regurgitation",
"Mitral regurgitation",
"Pulmonary regurgitation"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5850 | Which of the following species of Brucllea tends to produce more acute and aggressive presentation? | [
"B.melitensis",
"B.suis",
"B.abous",
"B.canis"
] | The three major species of brucella are B.melitensis, B.abous, and B.suis B.melitensis tends to produce a more acute and aggressive presentation of all other Brucella species Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg: 346 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51655 | A child plays a simple ball game at - | [
"52 weeks",
"36 weeks",
"12 weeks",
"48 weeks"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 52 weeks o A child plays a simple ball game at 1 year (52 weeks). | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4408 | Radiologically, earliest sign of osteomyelitis is - | [
"Loss of muscle and fat planes",
"Periosteal reaction",
"Callus formation",
"Presence of sequestrum"
] | Osteomyelitis is the infection of bone by microorganisms.It can be acute or chronic. Acute osteomyelitis: This can be primary (haematogenous)or secondary(following open fracture or bone opeaion). Staphylococcus aureus is the commonest causative organism. C/f: Child presents with an acute onset of pain and swelling at end of a bone,associated with systemic features of infection like fever. Investigations: Blood- polymorphonuclear leucocytosis and an elevated ESR. X-rays - The earliest sign to appear in X ray is a periosteal new bone deposition at metaphysis.This is called periosteal reaction.It takes about 7-10 days to appear. Bone scan- bone scan using Tc 99 may show increased uptake by bone in the metaphysis. REF:Essential Ohopaedics.Maheswari &Mhaskar.Edition 9.Pg no:169 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49506 | Muscle most commonly affected by congenital absence is? | [
"Pectoralis major",
"Semi membranosus",
"Teres minor",
"Gluteus maximus"
] | Pectoralis major and minor muscles are the most common congenitally absent muscles in humans. Ref: Ultrasound of the Musculoskeletal System, 2007, Pages 51, 285; Principles of Neurology By Allan H. Ropper, Raymond Delacy Adams, Maurice Victor, Robe H. Brown, Page 1245; Clinical Pediatric Urology By A. Barry Belman, Lowell R. King, Stephen Alan Kramer, Page 947 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32745 | In Community Needs Assessment approach as pa of the Reproductive & Child Health programme, the targets for various health activities are set at the level of- | [
"Community",
"Sub-centre",
"Primary health-centre",
"District"
] | Ans. is d i.e., District o The various activities of Reproductive and child Health Programme (RCH) arc targeted at the district level. "The RCH programme is based on a di iThrential approach. Inputs in all the districts have not been kept uniform. While the care component are the same for all districts, the weaker districts will get more suppo and sophisticated facilities are proposed for relatively advaced districts. On the basis of cude bih rate and female literacy rate - all the districts have been divided into three categories 'A, B, & C' All the districts will be covered in a phased manner over a period of three years." | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40727 | The hypoglossal nerve is the motor nerve to all of the muscles of the tongue except, the: | [
"Genioglossus",
"Palatoglossus",
"Superior longitudinal muscle",
"Inferior longitudinal muscle"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52653 | which of the following mumurs will increase with valsalva ? | [
"MR",
"VSD",
"AS",
"HOCM"
] | HOCM REF: harrisons 21st ed | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31112 | Which of the following is true about cholesterol? | [
"Made up of 25 carbons",
"There is a hydroxyl group at 5th carbon",
"Contain the cyclic tetra-perhydrophenanthrene ring",
"Amphipathic in nature"
] | Cholesterol : Made up of 27 carbons Ring in cholesterol is cyclo-penta-perhydrophenanthrene (CPP) One of the major constituent of the plasma membrane and of plasma lipoproteins. A hydroxyl group is present at position 3. Due to one -OH group, it has a weak polar character among the mostly non-polar pa. Hence it an amphipathic molecule. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12334 | Cardiac anomaly associted with TOF False is - | [
"Cyanotic heart disease",
"RVH",
"ASD",
"VSD"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., ASD Tetralogy of falloto Cyanotic heart disease (MC).o Defect in infundibular septum leads to :Pulmonary stenosisVSD (Not ASD)Dextroposition and overriding of aorta.Right ventricular hypertrophy (NOT LVH).o Pink TOF (Acyanotic TOF) when PS is mild to moderate balanced shunt tnt across the VSD, pt not have cyanosis. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51874 | All are true about popliteal fossa except | [
"The popliteal fossa is bounded above by tendons of the hamstring muscles and below by two heads of the gastronemius muscle",
"The deepest structure in the popliteal fossa is the popliteal aery",
"The popliteal and femoral vessels are continuous through the adductor hiatus",
"The common peroneal nerve passes ... | POPLITEAL FOSSA:- Diamond shaped depression lying behind the knee joint. Boundaries:-1. Superolaterally- biceps femoris2. Superomedially- semitendinosus,semimembranosus, gracilis, adductor magnus, saorius.3. Inferomedially-medial head of gastrocnemius 4. Inferolaterally-lateral head of gastrocnemius.5. Roof -popliteal fascia.6. Floor- popliteal surface of femur, capsule of knee joint, oblique popliteal ligament and strong popliteal fascia covering the popliteus muscle. Contents:-1. Popliteal aery and its branches.2. Popliteal vein and its tributaries.3. Tibial nerve and its branches.4. Common peroneal nerve and its branches.5. Posterior cutaneous nerve if thigh 6. Genicular branch of obturator nerve.7. Popliteal lymph nodes.8. Fat. Popliteal vessels and tibial nerve crosses the fossa veically.Tibial nerve- most superficial.Popliteal vein- anterior to tibial nerve.Popliteal aery- deepest structure. In upper pa- from medial to lateral-AVN middle- behind forwards-NVA Lower-medial to lateral- NVA Popliteal vessels become continuous through the adductor hiatus. Common peroneal nerve extends from superior angle of fossa to lateral angle. <img src=" /> {Reference: BDC 6E. Pg no. 76 chapter-6} | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8764 | Aldosterone is secreted by- | [
"Zona glomerulosa",
"Zona fasiculata",
"Zona reticularis",
"Adrenal medulla"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Zona glomerulosa * The adrenal gland consists of an outer cortex and inner medulla. The hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex are called corticosteroid, which are classified into glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids and androgens. The hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla are epinephrine and some norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex is essential for life; the adrenal medulla is not.* Adrenal cortex has three layers zona glomerulosa, zonafasciculata, and zona reticularis. The zona glomerulosa is the outermost layer and is the site of mineralocorticoid synthesis. The middle layer (zona fasciculata) and the innermost layer (zona reticularis) synthesize and secrete glucocorticoids and androgens. Though both layers (zona fasciculata & reticularis) secrete both hormones, zona fasciculata mainly secretes glucocorticoids and zona reticularis mainly secretes androgens.* Corticosteroids are classified as : i) Glucocorticoids; ii) Mineralocorticoids; and iii) Androgens.* Cortisol and cortisosterone are the chief natural glucocorticoids. They are so called because of their widespread effect on glucose (and protein) metabolism.* Aldosterone is the chief mineralocorticoid. It regulates K+ ions, sodium balance and ECF volume in the body.* Dehydroepindrosterone is the androgenic hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex.* All corticosteroid hormones act on intracellular cytoplasmic receptors. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43595 | Quarantinable disease | [
"Diphteria",
"Yellow fever",
"Infectious TB",
"All of the above"
] | Quarantinable diseases
SARS
Yellow fever
Diphtheria
Plague
Infectious TB
Small pox
Viral hemorrhagic fever | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47059 | Muirs and Barclays formula is for: AFMC 11 | [
"Colloid resuscitation in burns",
"Polytrauma fluid resuscitation",
"Crystalloid in trauma",
"Dextran in burns"
] | Ans. Colloid resuscitation in burns | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49831 | Abnormality to check if lithium is given to a pregnant female - | [
"Cardiac anomaly",
"Neural tube defect",
"Facial defect",
"Urogenital defect"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cardiac anomaly Lithium is a weak teratogen in human.The main effects attributable to lithium are increased cardiac malformation in the fetus especially "Ebsteins anomaly".Lithium may increase the incidence of Ebstein9s anomaly in fetus but it is not contraindicated during pregnancy.Lithium is not considered a major human teratogen and the risk for Ebstein's anomaly is only .5% for babies whose mother takes lithium during pregnancy.Therefore lithium is not contraindicated during pregnancy. It is however advisable to perform a "fetal echocardiography" to exclude the possibilities of cardiac anomaly.Evaluation of studies on lithium in pregnancy shows that lithium therapy throughout pregnancy does not seem to increase the general rate of major anomalies and apparently add only a small risk for cardiovascular defects notably Ebstein's anomaly.It can be concluded that whenever lithium is the drug of choice in women with bipolar disorder, it may be continued even in pregnancy.Moreover it is advised not to discontinue lithium as it may subsequently lead to relapse of the disorder.In addition, pregnancy of lithium treated women should be considered high risk and therefore monitoring during pregnancy has to include "fetal echocardiography".Pregnancy interruption in lithium treated mothers can probably be considered only if severe cardiac anomaly is diagnosed.According to K.D.T.Lithium is contraindicated during pregnancy.But all other books states that lithium can be administered is during pregnancy. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38514 | The given x-ray is suggestive of | [
"TGA",
"TAPVC",
"Coarctation of aorta",
"Patent ductus arteriosus"
] | Figure of 3 sign or double bulge sign - COA. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50355 | Functional residual capacity represents the volume of air remaining in lungs:- | [
"After normal inspiration",
"After normal expiration",
"After forceful expiration",
"After forceful inspiration"
] | Functional residual capacity: - It equals the EXPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME + RESIDUAL VOLUME - This capacity is amount of air that remains in lungs at end of normal expiration (about 2300 ML) Pulmonary capacities: Inspiratory capacity: - Tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume - This capacity is amount of air a person can breathe in, beginning at normal expiratory level & distending the lungs to maximum amount. Vital capacity: - Inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume + expiratory reserve volume. - This capacity is max amount of air a person can expel from lungs after first filling the lungs to their maximum extent & then expiring to maximum extent (about 4600ml) Total lung capacity: - Max vol to which lungs can be expanded with greatest possible effo - Vital capacity + residual volume | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21214 | Disinfection of water is not required if the source is from – | [
"Tube well",
"Step well",
"Draw well",
"River"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_319 | All the following are true regarding Vibrio cholerae except - | [
"Transported in acidic medium",
"Gram-negative",
"Aerobic organism",
"Ferments glucose"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33934 | Basic need programme includes all, except - | [
"Education of adult & child",
"Doctor & nurse ratio",
"Water supply",
"Sanitation"
] | Ans. is `b' i.e., Doctor & nurse ratio | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9549 | Polyuria with low fixed specific gravity urine is seen in ? | [
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Diabetes insipidus",
"Chronic glomerulonephritis",
"Potomania"
] | Answer- C. Chronic glomerulonephritisPolyuria with fixed low specific gravity is a feature of chronic glomerulonephritis. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46937 | Keratomalacia is: | [
"Occurs due to Vit-A deficiency",
"Relatively benign condition",
"First feature of Vit-A deficiency",
"Also seen in retinitis pigmentosa"
] | A i.e. Occurs due to vit-A deficiency Keratomalacia occurs due to vitamin A deficiency Q but is not the earliest symptom. Earliest symptom is nightblindness Q Xeropthalmia Ocular manifestations of vitamin A deficiency ranging from night blindness to corneal melting are termed as xeropthalmia. It is largely limited to the first 6 years of life. WHO Classification 1 year age except women 1-6 year children 2 lac IU orally every 6 months of reproductive IM on 1st day 2nd day Lactating 20,000 IU mother orally once at delivery or age & 4 weeks later during the Children < 1 Half of the next two months to year age or < 8 kg weight above dose protect breastfed Women of reproductive pregnant or not: age infant Upto X 1B 10,000 IU Infants < 6 months not being 50,000 IU orally stage orally daily for 2 weeks breastfed - Corneal xerospthalmia Dose of > 1 year age (2, 3A, 3B) " v:shapes="_x0000_s1026">Stage Feature Earliest symptom Q X N Night blindness Q X 1 A Conjunctival xerosis Patches of dry, lusterless, nonwettable conjunctiva described as emerging like sand banks at receding tide X 1 B Bitots spot Q Usually B/L temporal raised, silvery white foamy triangular patch of keratinized epithelium situated on bulbar conjunctiva X 2 Corneal xerosis Punctate keratopathy f/b dry, hazy & lustureless cornea X 3 A Corneal ulceration / keratomalacia affecting < 1/3 corneal surface X 3 B Corneal ulceration / keratomalacia affecting > 1/3 corneal surface X S Corneal scar X F Xeropthalmic fundus Management of Xeropthalmia Prophylaxis (Vitamin A) Treatment 11111 Infant 6-12 1 lac IU orally * Local ocular therapy e.g. months old every 3-6 aificial tears etc. or any children < months * Vitamin A therapy 20,000 IU orally or 10,000 IU 8 kg All patients of > 1 year age except women 1-6 year children 2 lac IU orally every 6 months of reproductive IM on 1st day 2nd day Lactating 20,000 IU mother orally once at delivery or age & 4 weeks later during the Children < 1 Half of the next two months to year age or < 8 kg weight above dose protect breastfed Women of reproductive pregnant or not: age infant Upto X 1B 10,000 IU Infants < 6 months not being 50,000 IU orally stage orally daily for 2 weeks breastfed - Corneal xerospthalmia Dose of > 1 year age (2, 3A, 3B) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53167 | Tensile strength in the wound scar is | [
"Similar to normal skin",
"More than normal skin",
"80% of normal skin",
"50% of normal skin"
] | This maturation of collagen leads to increased tensile strength in the wound which is maximal at the 12th-week post-injury and represents approximately 80% of the uninjured skin strength. Bailey and love 27e pg: 25 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19737 | Subnormal Ferritin is seen in all, except: | [
"Iron deficinecy anemia",
"Anaemia of chronic disease",
"Liver disease",
"Hypothyroidism"
] | (B) Anaemia of chronic disease > Patients with chronic inflammatory or neoplastic disease often develop anemia of chronic disease.> Cytokines produced by inflammation cause a block in the normal recirculation of iron from reticuloendothelial cells (which pick up the iron from senescent red blood cells) to the red cell precursors (normoblasts).> In addition, IL-1 and interferon y decrease the production of and the response to erythropoietin. This causes a drop in the serum iron concentration and a normocytic or mild microcytic anemia.> The inflammatory reaction, however, also decreases the iron-binding capacity (as opposed to iron-deficiency anemia, where the iron-binding capacity is elevated), so the saturation is usually between 10 and 20%. The anemia is rarely severe (Hb rarely less than 8.5 g/dL). The hemoglobin and hematocrit will improve if the underlying process is treated.> Diseases not associated with inflammation or neoplasia (i.e., congestive heart failure, diabetes, hypertension, etc.) do not cause anemia of chronic disease.> Blood loss would generally cause a lower serum iron level, an elevated iron-binding capacity, and a lower iron saturation. The serum ferritin (low in iron deficiency normal or high in anemia of chronic disease) will usually clarify this situation.> Vitamin B12 or folate deficiency are associated with a macrocytic anemia.> Sideroblastic anemia can be either microcytic or macrocytic (occasionally with a dimorphic population of cells: some small and some large), but is not associated with a low iron level. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44916 | All of the following are advantages of using Raloxifen over estrogen in post menopausal women except ? | [
"Reduces fracture rates",
"Avoids Endometrial hyperplasia",
"Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis",
"No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21008 | Major contribution to cachexia with advanced cancer? | [
"Clathrin",
"Histamine",
"Interferon",
"Tumor-necrosis-factor (TNT)"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Turnor-necrosis factor (TNT) Patients with cancer commonly suffer progressive loss of body fat which is accompnied by profound weakness anorexia, and anemia. This wasting syndrome is referred to as cachexia. o TNF produced by macrophages or some tumor cells is the most impoant mediator of cachexia. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10966 | What is PAIR technique for treatment of hydatid disease of liver - | [
"Punchure albendazole irigation regimen",
"Puncture aspiration injection reaspiration technique",
"Praziquantel Albendazole injection reaspiration technique",
"Partial resection of affected organ (liver)"
] | Ans. is 'b1 i.e., Puncture aspiration injection reaspirition (PAIR) technique (www.emedicine.medscape.com/article/178648-treatmentM; WHO/CDSCSR/APH/2001.6)o PAIR technique was proposed in 1986 by a Tunisian team.o In this, US guided needle aspiration of cyst is done followed by injection of scolicidal agent and reaspiration after 5 minutes.o Scolicidal agent used is 15% hypertonic saline or 95% alcohol.Indications-Non echoic lesion > 5 cmCysts with daughter cysts and/or detachment of membranesMultiple cystsInfected cystsPregnent women, children > 3 yearsFailure to respond to chemotherapy alonePatients refusing for surgery or relapsing after surgeryContraindications -Non co operative patient'inaccesible or risky location of cystCyst in spine, brain and.;or heartInactive/calcified lesion.Cysts communicating with biliary treeCysts opening into abdominal cavity, bronchi and urinary tract. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21024 | Radiographically 'Sequestrum' formed in osteomyelitis is: | [
"More opaque than healthy bone",
"Same opaque than healthy bone",
"Less opaque than healthy bone",
"None of the above"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44633 | Amoebic liver abscess most commonly affects - | [
"Right lobe of liver",
"Left lobe of liver",
"Portal vein",
"Right pleural cavity"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Right lobe of liver Amoebic Liver abscesso Caused by Entamoeba histolytica whose cysts are acquired through the feco-oral route and their trophozoites reach the liver through portal venous systemo Like pyogenic abscess they are also common in rt. lobe of livero Clinical Picture# the typical clinical picture is of a patient 20-40 yrs of age who has travelled to an endemic area, presents with fever, chills, anorexia, rt. upper quadrant pain.# although liver abscess results from an obligatory colonic infection, a recent history of diarrhoea is uncommon.# jaundice is rare. (c.f. in pyogenic abscess jaundice is seen in -25% of pts.)o Liver function tests may show mild abnormalities, hyperbilirubinemia is uncommono CT > U/S are the mainstay of investigation.o Diagnosis is confirmed by serological tests (enzyme immuno assay) for antiamoebic antibodieso Cultures of amoebic abscess are usually negativeo Treatment# Metronidazole is the mainstay of t/t and is curative in over 90% of patients.(other nitroimidazoles i.e. secnidazole, tinidazole, are also effective)#Therapeutic needle aspiration is avoided. Done only wheno pt. fails to respond to metronidazoleo high risk of ruptureo abscess secondarily infected with pyogenic organismo Complications may occur uncommonly; these are# rupture into the peritoneum, pleural cavity or pericardium. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22714 | What is a Rhinolith: | [
"Foreign body in nose",
"Stone in nose",
"Deposition of calcium around foreign body in nose",
"Misnomer"
] | Rhinoliths are calcareous masses which result due to deposition of salts-like calcium and magnesium carbonates and phosphates around the nucleus of a foreign body. Ref Dhingra 6/e,p 161. | C | null |
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