dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_34965 | Which anticoagulant is used when blood is sent for blood culture ? | [
"Sodium citrate",
"EDTA",
"Oxalate",
"SPS"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., SPS Many different types of bacteria and fungi have been identified as causative agents of septicemia. For this reason, many diverse culture media formulations are available in prepared blood culture bottles. Majority of these media contain 0.03% SPS (Sodium polyanethal sulfonate), a polyanionic anticoagulant, which additionally inhibits complement and lysozyme activity, interferes with phagocytosis and inactivates aminoglycosides. Following impoant blood culture bottles are there :- i) Brain hea infusion (BHI) with PABA (para-aminobenzoic acid) ii) Brucella broth with 6% sorbitol iii) Brucella broth with 10% sucrose iv) Columbia broth v) Thioglycolate medium vi) Tryptic soy broth | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20307 | Van Gogh Syndrome is seen in | [
"Mania",
"Depression",
"Schizophrenia",
"OCD"
] | C i.e. Schizophrenia | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40927 | Which of the following is the most sensitive investigation for the condition shown in the following X-ray? | [
"MRI",
"CT",
"DEXA",
"PET"
] | Ans. A. MRIThe X-ray shows flattening of the femoral head and degenerative changes associated with the Avascular necrosis of femoral head. The most sensitive and specific investigation for avascular necrosis is MRI. MRI allows accurate assessment of the extent of involvement and can also identify associated bone marrow changes. X-ray may be normal in the early stages of the disease.Avascular necrosis or osteonecrosis of the femoral head occurs because of an interruption in the blood supply to femoral head which causes bone death. This leads to collapse of the femoral head causing secondary osteoarthritis subsequently. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36494 | All are related to difficult intubation EXCEPT: | [
"Miller's sign",
"TMJ ankyloses",
"Increased thyromental distance",
"Micrognathia"
] | ANSWTER: (C) Increased thyromental distanceREF: Morgan 4th ed p. 924Indirect repeat from December 2009Signs of difficult intubation:Thyromental distance < 7cmsMallampatti grade III or IVMicrognathiaMacroglossiaHigh arched palate with narrow dental archTMJ limitationLimited cervical vertebrae extensionMiller signGrowth in oral cavity | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53700 | ATT causing orange coloured urine is: | [
"Rifampicin",
"Isoniazid",
"Streptomycin",
"Pyrazinamide"
] | R ifampin (Rifampicin, R): It is a semisynthetic derivative of rifamycin B Adverse effects :The incidence of adverse effects is similar to INH. Hepatitis, a major adverse effect, generally occurs in patients with preexisting liver disease and is dose-related: development of jaundice requires discontinuation of the drug-then it is reversible. Other serious but rare reactions are: * &;Respiratory syndrome&;: breathlessness which may be associated with shock and collapse. * Purpura, haemolysis, shock and renal failure. Minor reactions usually not requiring drug withdrawal and more common with intermittent regimens are: * &;Cutaneous syndrome&;: flushing, pruritus + rash (especially on face and scalp), redness and watering of eyes. * &;Flu syndrome&;: with chills, fever, headache, malaise and bone pain. * &;Abdominal syndrome&;: nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps with or without diarrhoea. Urine and secretions may become orange-red but this is harmless. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:741,742 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32495 | Stages of anaesthesia were established by – | [
"Ether",
"N2O",
"Halothane",
"Chloroform"
] | Stages of anaesthesia were described by Guedel for ether. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46648 | In adults seeking orthodontic treatment with esthetic appliances, the following may be choices EXCEPT: | [
"Lingual orthodontics",
"Ceramic brackets",
"Clear aligner therapy",
"Titanium brackets"
] | For 15- to 17-year-olds, clear aligners or esthetic brackets with a clear wire are considered most attractive. For this group, clear aligners can make sense because the permanent teeth are fully erupted and rapid growth is completed. Adults prefer lingual appliances, clear aligners, or esthetic brackets, especially when combined with a clear wire. The spectrum changes from unique and colorful for children to esthetic appliances with older adolescents and adults. With this combination of acceptable alternatives, it is possible to meet esthetic demands and accomplish the biomechanics for almost every patient. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51283 | Most reliable method of identification is: | [
"Gustafson method",
"Galton method",
"Anthropometry",
"Scars"
] | Ans. (B). Galton methodFingerprinting is the most specificQ method of identification.Gabon's system describes about fingerprinting. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4497 | High inguinal orchidectomy specimen showed Teratoma testis with involvement of epididymis; stage is: | [
"T1",
"T2",
"T3",
"T4b"
] | 8th AJCC (2017) TNM STAGING FOR TESTICULAR TUMORS T: Primary Tumor N: Regional Lymph nodes p Tis: Intratubular germ cell neoplasia (carcinoma in situ) N1: LN mass <= cm or multiple LN masses, none > 2 cm pT1: Limited to the testis & epididymis and no vascular/ lymphatic invasion; Tumor may invade tunica albuginea but not tunica vaginalis N2: LN mass, > 2 cm but < 5 cm or multiple LN masses, any one mass > 2 cm but not < 5 cm pT2: Limited to the testis & epididymis with vascular/ lymphatic invasion or extending through tunica albuginea with involvement of tunica vaginalis. N3: LN mass > 5 cm pT3: Invades the spermatic cord with or without vascular/ Lymphatic invasion M: Distant metastases pT4: Invades the scrotum with or without vascular/ lymphatic invasion M1: Non-regional nodal or pulmonary metastases M2: Non-pulmonary visceral masses | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14402 | Tetralogy of Fallot's present with one of the following? | [
"Cenral cyanosis with clubbing",
"Cardiomegaly",
"Left ventricular hyperophy",
"Normal ECG and Chest x-ray"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Central cyanosis with clubbing Clinical features of TOF : o Dysnea on exeion and exercise intolerance Most common. o Cyanosis usually presents after neonatal period o Hypoxemic or cyanotic spells (Tet spells) o Commonest congenital lesion with which squatting is used o Clubbing o Ausculatory findings : S1 --> Normal S2 --> Single predominantly Aoic Murmur --> Ejection systolic o TOF patients are RARELY CYANOTIC AT BIH* Chest x-ray Normal hea size Oligaemic lung fields Right aoic arch present in 25% case o ECG --> Right axis detion, Inveed Twave, `P' pulmonale About option 'b' o Pulmonary stenosis causes pressure oveload --> Concentric right ventricular hyperophy without cardiac enlargement. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15394 | First lumbrical canal communicates with | [
"Adductor space",
"Midpalmar space",
"Thenar space",
"Hypothenar space"
] | Thenar space communicates with first web space through first lumbrical canal.The midpalmar space communicates with medial 3 web spaces through medial 3 lumbrical canals.Reference: Textbook of anatomy upper limb and thorax, Vishram Singh, second edition, page no 154, 153 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35342 | During a routine physical examination, a 42-year-old female is found to have an elevated blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg. Workup reveals a small left kidney and a normal-sized right kidney. Laboratory examination reveals elevated serum renin levels. Fuher workup reveals that renal vein renin levels are increased on the left but decreased on the right. This patient's hypeension is most likely the result of | [
"Atherosclerotic narrowing of the left renal aery",
"Atherosclerotic narrowing of the right renal aery",
"Fibromuscular hyperplasia of the left renal aery",
"Fibromuscular hyperplasia of the right renal aery"
] | A rare cause of hypeension is renal aery stenosis, which may occur secondary to either an atheromatous plaque at the orifice of the renal aery or fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal aery. The former is more common in elderly men, while the latter is more common in young women. The decrease in blood flow to the kidney with the renal aery obstruction (Goldblatt's kidney) causes hyperplasia of the juxtaglomerular apparatus and increased renin production. This produces increased secretion of angiotensin and aldosterone, which leads to retention of sodium and water and produces hypeension. Increased levels of aldosterone also produce a hyperkalemic alkalosis. The kidney with stenosis of the renal aery becomes small and shrunken due to the effects of chronic ischemia, but the stenosis protects this kidney from the effects of the increased blood pressure. The other kidney, however, is not protected and may develop microscopic changes of benign nephrosclerosis (hyaline aeriolosclerosis). Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41940 | Longer rigor mois occurs with - | [
"Vegetables poisons",
"Strychnine",
"Opium",
"Septicemia"
] | The onset of rigor mois is early and persists for longer duration in strychnine poisoning. Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27 th edition pg. 80. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_76 | All among the following are characteristics of postmoem abrasions except | [
"Exudation is more and scab is slightly raised",
"Yellowish, translucent, Parchment like color",
"Usually over bony prominences",
"No intra-vital reaction is seen"
] | Source Ante moem wounds Post-moem wounds Site Anywhere on the body Usually over bony prominences Colour Bright reddish brown Yellowish, translucent, Parchment like Exudation More; scab slightly raised Less; scab often lies slightly below the level of skin Microscopic Intravital reaction and congestion seen No intravital reaction No congestion | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30594 | Dysphoria is mediated by which opioid receptor: | [
"Mu",
"Kappa",
"Delta",
"None"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23915 | Ultrasound frequency used for diagnostic purposes in obstetrics - | [
"1–20 MHz",
"20–40 MHz",
"40–60 MHz",
"60–80 MHz"
] | The US machine emits high frequency sound waves, ranging from 2-15 MHz, whose frequencies are considerably above the upper limit of human ear's audible range, i.e. greater than 20,000 Hz. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2628 | A 55-yrs-old woman complains of stiff, aching hands, especially in the morning. Radiographs of the hands reveal expansion at the base of the terminal phalanges & tapering of the proximal phalanges. This patient most likely has: | [
"SLE",
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Psoriatic arthritis",
"Gouty arthritis"
] | There are three main varieties of psoriatic arthritis (an inflammatory arthritis affecting 5 to 42% of patients with psoriasis): asymmetric inflammatory arthritis, symmetric arthritis , and psoriatic spondylitis. The pathology is similar to that seen in RA (early neutrophil and later monocytic synovial infiltration). There are no characteristic laboratory abnormalities in patients with psoriatic arthritis, but radiographs, if they reveal features unique to this disease relative to RA, may be diagnostically helpful. Such special features include the pencil-in-cup appearance of the distal terminal phalanx due to cuplike erosions. and bony proliferation with tapering of the proximal phalanx; proliferation of the bone near osseous erosions, terminal phalyngeal osteolyis, bone proliferation and periostitis, and telescoping of one bone into another (opera-glass deformity). Inflammation of the tendons and ligaments (ethesopathy) is also characteristic. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents are the therapeutic mainstays; sulfasalazine or methotrexate is often required in difficult cases. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9443 | In an uncomplicated dislocation of the glenohumeral joint, the humeral head usually dislocates primarily in which of the following directions? | [
"Anteriorly",
"Superiorly",
"Posteriorly",
"Laterally"
] | The glenohumeral joint is bounded posteriorly by the teres minor and infraspinatus muscles and partially by the long head of the triceps. It is bounded laterally by the powerful deltoid muscle; superiorly, the acromion process precludes upward dislocation. However, anteriorly and inferiorly the pectoralis major and the long head of the biceps do not completely stabilize the glenohumeral joint; in this region the articular ligaments and joint capsule provide the major structural support. Thus, the joint is not strongly supported in its anteroinferior aspect, and consequently anterior (or anteroinferior) dislocations are the most common glenohumeral dislocations. The humeral head is driven anteriorly, which tears the shoulder capsule, detaches the labrum from the glenoid, and produces a compression fracture of the humeral head. Most glenohumeral dislocations result from a posteriorly directed force on an arm that is partially abducted. Posterior dislocation is much rarer and should raise the possibility of a seizure as the precipitating cause. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31727 | Dopamine in dose concentration at <2mcg/kg/min acts predominantly on? | [
"Beta-1",
"D-1",
"Alpha-1",
"None"
] | Ans. B. D-1At low doses (<=2mg/kg/minute)stimulates dopaminergic receptors on renal blood vessels leading to vasodilation. DA infusion at this rate may increase renal blood flow and promote diuresis.At intermediate infusion rates (2-5mg/kg/min), (used in CHF, cardiogenic shock)Stimulates b1 receptors on heart increasing cardiac contractility. Also stimulates D1 receptorsAt higher infusion rates (5-15mg/kg/min), (used for shock with oliguria)Acts on a1, leading to vasoconstriction and rise in BP. Also stimulates D1 & b1 receptors | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35248 | The elastomer having the longest curing time is | [
"Polysulfide",
"Poly ether",
"Addition silicone",
"Condensation silicone"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21326 | The most common cause of heterosexual development in a female at the expected age of pubey is- | [
"Congenital Adrenal hyperplasia",
"Pure gonadal dysgenesis",
"Polycystic ovarian syndrome",
"Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome"
] | Heterosexual pubey is characterized by a pattern of development that is typical of the opposite sex occurring at the expected age of normal pubey. The most common cause of heterosexual development at the expected age of pubey is polycystic ovary syndrome The most common cause of precocious pubey is constitutional (idiopathic), but more serious causes must be ruled out and therapy geared toward optimizing adult height... | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24561 | A 57 year old female presented with sho distance claudication. Peripheral aneurysm was suspected. Which of the following is the MOST common site of peripheral aneurysm? | [
"Femoral aery",
"Radial aery",
"Popliteal aery",
"Brachial aery"
] | Popliteal aery aneurysms account for 70% of peripheral aerial aneurysms. Popliteal aneurysms may embolize repetitively over time and occlude distal aeries. They are often undetected. The symptoms range from sudden onset pain and paralysis to sho distance claudication that slowly lessens as collateral circulation develops. Ref: Rapp J.H., Owens C.D., Johnson M.D. (2013). Chapter 12. Blood Vessel & Lymphatic Disorders. In M.A. Papadakis, S.J. McPhee, M.W. Rabow (Eds), CURRENT Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2013. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30890 | Which of the following has the maximum half life ? | [
"Adenosine",
"Amiodarone",
"Esmolol",
"Lidocaine"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39822 | In blood culture the ratio of blood to reagent is | [
"1:05",
"1:20",
"1:10",
"0.111111111"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1:10 Blood specimens of 5 or 10 ml generally are added to bottles containing, 50 or 100 ml of reagent (medium) to achieve a 1:10 blood medium ratio. All bottles should be transpoed to the laboratory as soon as possible and immediately incubeted at 35 +- 2degC in an upright position (Note - Lower incubation temperature may be preferred for isolation of some specific bacteria, e.g. Listeria grows well at 20-25degC). A total incubation period of 7 days is generally sufficient for routine isolation procedure, which can be extended up to 14 days before discarding those that do not show evidence of growth. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2761 | a pateint with ACUTE KIDNEY INJURY having a creatinine of >4 , is being treated in icu for dialysis since 15days ,developed DVT due immobilisation , now what is the best anticoagulant to be given | [
"desirudin",
"argatroban",
"lepirudin",
"asprin"
] | lepirudin ,desirudin,argatraban are direct thrombin inhibitors which are used for prophylaxis of DVT . all are excreated by kidney except argatroban which is excreated by liver . so from the options given its the best drug to be given ref : kd tripathi 8th ed | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6937 | Antidote of digoxin: | [
"Potassium",
"Lignocaine",
"Fab fragment",
"Propranalol"
] | Ans: c (Fab) Ref: Katzung, 10th ed, p. 205In severe digitalis intoxication patients are best treated with prompt insertion of a temporary cardiac pacemaker catheter and administration of digitalis antibodies (digoxin immune fab).These antibodies recognize digitoxin and cardiac glycosides from many other plants in addition to digoxin. They are extremely useful in reversing severe intoxication with most glycosides. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30173 | True about prostatic urethra are all except: | [
"Trapezoid in cross-section",
"Presence of verumontanum",
"Opening of prostatic ducts",
"Contains urethral crest"
] | Trapezoid in cross sectionProstatic urethra is semilunar (transversely arched) in cross-sectionIn transverse section- Preprostatic pa --> Stellate (star shaped)- Prostatic pa -->Transversely arched (semilunar)- Membranous pa --> Stellate- Bulbar & penile -->Transverse- External orifice -->Sagittal | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23499 | True about hyperplastic type of tuberculosis | [
"Swallowed infected sputum is the cause",
"Highly virulent compared to ulcerative type",
"Serosa studded with tubercles",
"Pulled up Caecum"
] | Ulcerative type: When a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis swallows infected sputum, the organism colonises the lymphatics of the terminal ileum, causing transverse ulcers with typical undermined edges. The serosa is usually studded with tubercles. Denotes a severe form of the disease in which the virulence of the organism overwhelms host resistance.Hyperplastic type: This occurs when host resistance has the upper hand over the virulence of the organism. It is caused by drinking infected unpasteurised milk. There is a marked inflammatory reaction causing hyperplasia and thickening of the terminal ileum because of its abundance of lymphoid follicles, thus resulting in narrowing of the lumen and obstruction. The small intestine shows areas of stricture and fibrosis, most pronounced at the terminal ileum. As a result, there is shoening of the bowel with the caecum being pulled up into a subhepatic position.Ref: Bailey and Love 27e pg: 79 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39577 | Drugs that should be avoided in G-6-PD deficiency are | [
"Nalidixic acid",
"Dapsone",
"Sulfamethoxazole",
"All of the above"
] | G-6-PD deficiency is responsible for hemolysis with primaquine and other oxidizing drugs like sulfonamides, dapsone, quinine, nalidixic acid, nitrofurantoin, and menadione, etc. Ref ;KD Tripathi Pharmacology 7th edition (page no; 65) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38405 | Branchial cyst arises due to- | [
"Failure of obliteration of second branchial cleft",
"Persistance of urachus",
"Thymus",
"Thyroglossal tract"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Failure of obliteration of second branchial cleft Brachial Cyst* A branchial cleft cyst is a congenital epithelial cyst that arises on the lateral part of the neck usually due to failure of obliteration of the second branchial cleft in embryonic development. Less commonly, the cysts can develop from the first, third, or fourth clefts.* The cyst, usually presents as a smooth, slowly enlarging lateral neck mass that may increase in size after an upper respiratory tract infection.* Treatment is generally conservative. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8783 | CNS involvement in DLBCL is not seen with which of the following organ involvement: | [
"Ovary",
"Testis",
"Kidney",
"Adrenal"
] | Ans: (a) OvaryWHO, CNS 2017, Page 272CNS Diffuse Large B Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL)Primary CNS lymphomas (PCNSLs) account for 2.4-3% of all brain tumours and 4-6% of all extranodal lymphomas.Most common location - Supratentorial region.PCNSL can affect patients of any age, with a peak incidence during the fifth to seventh decade of life.CNS lymphoma are at increase risk when DLBCL involves kidney and adrenals, and testicular DLBCL is closely linked with CNS DLBCL.MRI is the most sensitive technique to detect PCNSL, which is hypointense on T1-weighted images, isointense to hyperintense on T2-weighted images.Stereotactic biopsy* is the gold standard for establishing the diagnosis and classification of CNS lymphoma.PCNSLs are highly cellular, diffusely growing, patternless tumours. Centrally, large areas of geographical necrosis are common, and may harbour viable perivascular lymphoma islands.IHC - The tumour cells are mature B cells with a PAX5-positive, CD19-positive, CD20- positive, CD22- positive, CD79a-positive phenotype. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23503 | All of the following is true about basal cell carcinoma except | [
"most common site is upper eyelid",
"locally invasive",
"rarely metastasizes",
"associated with exposure to sun"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45934 | Progenitor hematopoietic stem cells originate in which of the following? | [
"Bone marrow",
"Thymus",
"Lymph node",
"Spleen"
] | Key Concept:
By birth, marrow throughout the skeleton is hematopoietically active and hepatic hematopoiesis dwindles to a trickle, persisting only in widely scattered foci that become inactive soon after birth.
Haematopoietic Organs
In the human embryo, the yolk sac is the main site of haematopoiesis in the first few weeks of gestation. By about 3rd month, however, the liver and spleen are the main sites of blood cells formation and continue to do so until about 2 weeks after birth. Haematopoiesis commences in the bone marrow by 4th and 5th month and becomes fully active by 7th and 8th month, so that at birth practically all the bones contain active marrow. During normal childhood and adult life, therefore, the marrow is the only source of new blood cells. However, during childhood, there is progressive fatty replacement throughout the long bones, so that by adult life the hematopoietic marrow is confined to the central skeleton (vertebrae, sternum, ribs, skull, sacrum and pelvis) and proximal ends of femur, tibia and humerus. Even in these hematopoietic areas, about 50% of the marrow consists of fat. Non-hematopoietic marrow in the adult is, however, capable of reverting to active hematopoiesis in certain pathologic conditions. The spleen and liver can also resume their fetal hematopoietic role in certain pathologic conditions and is called extramedullary hematopoiesis. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8551 | An obese female having hirsutism on laboratory investigation has a high level of LH and androgens. Likely cause is | [
"PCOS",
"Exogenous steroid ingestion",
"Turner syndrome",
"Kleinfelter syndrome"
] | The clinical and laboratory features of the patient described in the question match with those of PCOS as depicted in the table.
So the most appropriate answer is PCO | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_54073 | Of the following the most significant risk factor for developing breast cancer is- | [
"The presence of sclerosing adenosis",
"Nullipartiy",
"Atypical lobular hyperplasia",
"Atypical ductal hyperplasia"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10119 | The following ADR is seen with which of the following drug | [
"Chloramphenicol",
"Demeclocycline",
"Erythromycin",
"Daptomycin"
] | The picture shows yellowish staining of teeth which is a common adverse effect of tetracyclines. Demeclocycline is a tetracyclineRef: KD Tripathi 6th ed.pg 714 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23267 | All are true about Lesch-Nyhan syndrome except: | [
"Hyperurecaemia",
"Mental retardation",
"Stone production",
"Occur equally in both sexes"
] | Answer- D. Occur equally in both sexesA complete deficiency of HP, the Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, is characterized by hyperuricemia, self-mutilative behavior, choreoathetosis, spasticity, and mental retardation.This is a rare X-linked disorder of purine metabolism that results from HP deficiency.The hyperuricemia results from urate overproduction and can cause uric acid crystalluria, nephrolithiasis, obstructive uropathy, and gouty ahritis.Affects Males only.Etiology- hereditaryTreatment-Allopurinol | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47130 | Serum C3 is persistently low in the following except- | [
"Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis",
"Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis",
") Lupus nephritis",
"Glomerulonephritis related to bacterial endocarditis"
] | Lupus nephritis: the significance of serological tests at the time of biopsy. ... As compared with a group of lupus patients without nephritis, patients with nephritis had lower serum complement C3 (p less than 0.05) and C4 (p less than 0.005) levels and higher serum DNA binding activity (p less than 0.001) Ref Harrison20th edition pg 277 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24804 | What is false about GIST ? | [
"Associated with NF 1",
"Most common site is stomach",
"Associated with CD 117",
"Least common mesenchymal neoplasm of gastrointestinal tract"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Least common mesenchymal neoplasm of gastrointestinal tract Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) GISTs are the most common mesenchymal neoplasm of gastrointestinal tumor. GIST represents a distinct group of gastrointestinal tumors that originate from the interstial cells of cajal which control gastrointestinal peristalsis. GISTs can occur anywhere in the gastroinstestinal tract; the most common site being the stomach followed by small intestine. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32093 | Which of the following Mullerian duct anomaly is associated with the presence of two cervixes? | [
"Uterus didelphys",
"Uterus bicornis unicollis",
"Uterus subseptus",
"Uterus unicornis with a rudimentary horn"
] | When the the Mullerian ducts fail to fuse along their entire length, develop completely and separately the result is uterus didelphys. In this case there will be two uterus and hence two cervixes. It is also associated with two vaginas. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 12th Edition, Page 62. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33778 | All of the following can cause pancreatitis except- | [
"Hyperlipidemia",
"Abdominal trauma",
"Genetic defect in trypsinogen",
"Islet cell hyperplasia"
] | <p>Davidson&;s principles and practice of medicine 22nd edition. Causes: #gall stones ,alcohol,idiopathic,post ERCP. #rare causes:post surgical,trauma,hypercalcemia,hyperiglyceridaemia,pancreas disum,infection,heriditory,renal failure,organ transplantation.</p> | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50803 | The “Shoe Leather Survey” was given by | [
"Trendley H. Dean",
"Frederick McKay",
"Greene Black",
"J. M. Eager"
] | Fluoride was established as the causative factor for mottling of enamel through the historical studies conducted by Trendley H. Dean, known as the "Shoe Leather Survey". | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3393 | Tumor invades muscularis propria and 2 lymph nodes involved. TNM staging is | [
"T2 N1",
"T2 N2",
"T3 N1",
"T3 N2"
] | T1 Invades submucosaT2Invades muscularis propriaT3Invades through the muscularis propria into pericolrectal tissuesT4aInvades through the visceral peritoneumT4bDirectly invades to adjacent organs or structuresN1aOne node positiveN1b2-3 nodes positiveN1cNo regional lymph nodes positive, but there are tumour deposits in the subserosa, Mesentry or non peritonealized pericolic/ perirectal/ mesorectal tissues N2a4-6 lymph nodes positiveN2b7 or more lymph nodes positiveM1aMetastasis to one site or organ, without peritoneal metastasisM1bMetastasis to 2 or more sites or organs without peritoneal metastasisM1c Metastasis to the peritoneal surface (alone or along with other site/organ)Ref: AJCC 8e | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10210 | Cause of alpha thalasemia - | [
"Deletion of alpha genes",
"Deletion of beta genes",
"Excess of alpha genes",
"Single amino acid substitution in alpha chain"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Deletion of alpha genes a thalassemiasAlpha thalassemias are hemoglobin disorders in which the a chain of the hemoglobin is not/partly synthesized. a chains are required for all types of hemoglobin synthesis of all types of hemoglobin i.e.HbA (a2 b2)HbF (a2 g2)* HbA2 (a2d2) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2432 | True about pre-renal azotemia | [
"\"Muddy brown\" granular casts",
"Urine creatinine / plasma creatinine > 20",
"FeNa <1",
"Urine osmolality >500 mOsm/kg"
] | In pre-renal azotemiaBUN/creatinine ratio above 20, FeNa<1%, hyaline casts in urine sediment,urine specific gravity >1.018, urine osmolality >500 mOsm/kgPigmented "muddy brown" granular casts and tubular epithelial cell casts are seen in acute tubular necrosis.Ref: Harrison's 19e pg: 1805 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34802 | Abscess related to sternocleidomastoid is | [
"Bezold abscess",
"Citelli's abscess",
"Luc abscess",
"Parapharyngeal abscess"
] | Bezold abscess It can occur following acute coalescent mastoiditis when pus breaks through the thin medial side of the tip of the mastoid and presents as a swelling in the upper pa of neck. The abscess may (i) lie deep to sternocleidomastoid, pushing the muscle outwards, (ii) follow the posterior belly of digastric and present as a swelling between the tip of mastoid and angle of jaw, (iii) be present in upper pa of posterior triangle, (iv) reach the parapharyngeal space or (v) track down along the carotid vessels Ref: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bezold%27s_abscess | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42339 | Secondary syphilis is manifested by – a) Painless lymphadenopathyb) Pruritic rashc) Mucosal erosiond) Asymptomatic rashe) Mostly asymptomatic | [
"bce",
"bde",
"acde",
"abde"
] | Most common manifestation of syphilis is rash. Rash is usually bilaterally symmetrical macule which is non-pruritic and asymptomatic. The rash may also be papule, papulosquamous or papulopustular.
There may be associated non-tender (non-painful) lymphadenopathy.
Mucous patches (superficial mucosal erosions) may be seen on oral or genital mucosa.
the important feature is condyloma lata. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40399 | Mechanism of action of levosimenden is ? | [
"Inoconstrictor",
"Potassium channel opener",
"Sodium channel opener",
"Beta blocker"
] | Ans. is b i.e., Potassium channel opener Levosimendon A new ionodilator is Levosimendon It has inodilator effect by: i) Inotropic effect : Levosimendon is calcium sensitiser, i.e. it increases the sensitivity of the hea to calcium that results in increased cardiac contractility without a rise in intracellular calcium. ii) Vasodilatory effect : by opening ATP-sensitive potassium channels in vascular smooth muscles it causes smooth muscle relaxation. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26754 | Current mode of analgesia best for intrapaum pain relief? | [
"Epidural analgesia",
"Spinal anaesthesia",
"Inhalational",
"Local analgesia"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Epidural Analgesia Continuous lumbar epidural analgesia is the procedure of choice for pain relief during normal labour and vaginal delivery (Intrapaum pain). | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22224 | A 56-year-old woman presents with word-finding difficulty and hand weakness for 1 hour. ECG was done to find cause of TIA. ECG shows? | [
"Atrial fibrillation",
"Atrial flutter",
"Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia",
"Multi-focal atrial tachycardia"
] | Ans. (a) Atrial fibrillation.The rhythm is irregularly irregular at a rate of approximately 90 beats/ min. There is no clear atrial activity; thus, the diagnosis is atrial fibrillation. Other findings include a normal axis, normal intervals, no evidence of chamber enlargement or hypertrophy, and non-specific ST-T wave abnormalities (inversions and flattening) in leads V1 and V2. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12051 | Filters of which metal that is used to remove long wave
length X-rays from the primary beam is: | [
"Platinum",
"Aluminium",
"Copper",
"Lead"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_14431 | Theory of web of causation was given by ? | [
"Mc Mohan and Pugh",
"Pettenkoffee",
"John snow",
"Louis Pasteru"
] | Contemporary Mainstream Epidemiology 151 1960 Emergence of the epidemiologic Web of causation although nothing about the idea of multiple causes inherently required adhering to a biomedical and lifestyle orientation to analyzing disesecausation and distribution this nontheless occured precisely becausen of the overrall dominance of biomedicine and methodological individualism congently capturing its influence is thepowerful metaphor and model of the web of causation introdusec in 1960 in the formal and highly influential epidemiologic textbook ever published in the united state epidemiologic methods by Brain McMohan and Thomas F. Pugh and Johannes ipsen | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18385 | Which of the following has least chance to become oral cancerous lesion? | [
"Erythroplakia",
"OSMF",
"Leukoplakia",
"Candidiasis"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28455 | A prosthetic valve patient switch to heparin at which time of pregnancy: | [
"28 weeks",
"32 weeks",
"36 weeks",
"Postpartum"
] | Pregnancy following valve replacement:
Mechanical valve replacement is not preferred these days as anticoagulation is required throughout pregnancy.
Problem of anticoagulation: During pregnancy, the main problem is of anticoagulation. Warfarin is safe for the mother but can result in warfarin embryopathy of the fetus, miscarriage, IUGR and stillbirths. Heparin is safe for the fetus as it does not cross the placenta, but is less effective than warfarin in preventing thromboembolic events. Low molecular weight heparin is inadequate and ACOG does not recommend its use in pregnant women with prosthetic heart valves. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51418 | Ergot alkaloids are used in all except - | [
"Migraine",
"Acromegaly",
"Hypertension",
"Parkinsonism"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypertension Uses of ergot alkaloids1. Migraineo In migraine, throbbing headache is due to dilatation of pain sensitive arteries outside the brain, i.e. extracerebral vessels.o Ergot alkaloids are vasoconstrictor (due to a agonistic action) and oppose these effects,o Ergot alkaloids used in migraine -Prophylaxis-MethysergideAcute attack-Ergotamine & dihydroergotamine2. Parkinsonismo In parkinsonism, there is degeneration of dopaminergic neurons.o Bromocriptine; an ergot alkaloid, is dopamine agonist at D2 receptor - can be used in parkinsonism.3. Hyperprolactinemiao Prolactin is under predominant inhibitory control of hypothalamus through dopamine that act on receptor of pituitary lactotroph.o Bromocriptine by D2 agonistic activity, decreases prolactin secretion.4. Acromegalyo Dopamine increases GH release in normal subjects but decreases it in acromegalics,o Bromocriptine also acts in same way due to its dopamine agonistic action.5. Dementiao Dihydroergotoxin increases cerebral blood flow and act by protecting altered brain metabolism. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9780 | Which of the following statement about ascitis is true: | [
"Hemorrhagic ascitis is diagnosed when RBC count > 1,000/mm3",
"SBP is diagnosed when Neutrophil count > 500/mm3",
"Large volume paracentesis is indicated in SBP",
"USG can detect as little as 100 ml of peritoneal fluid"
] | Answer is D (USG can detect as little as 100 ml of peritoneal fluid): Abdominal ultrasound may detect as little as 100 ml of ascitic fluid ultrasound is thus a useful investigation for the diagnosis of minimal ascitis -CCDT 3rd/717 Hemorrhagic Ascitis is diagnosed NI hen RBC count >10, 000 / mm3 (Not >1000/mm3) An RBC count of 10,000 / nun3 is the thresholdfior pink appearance and hemorrhagic ascitis is thus diagnosed when ascitic RBC count is > 10,000 / mm3 - Schiff 's diseases of the Liver 101h/ 996 Spontaneous Bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is diagnosed when Neutrophil count > 250/mm3 The diagnosis of SBP is made when the absolute neutrophil count > 250 / nun3 - Harrisons 17th/1979 The drug of choice for treatment of SBP are cephalosporins & not Norfloxacin Celbtaxime is considered the drug of choice Pr emperic therapy of SBP Large volume Therapeutic Paracentesis is not recommended for SBP Diagnostic paracentesis is indicated in SBP Pr establishing the diagnosis but large volume paracentesis should be avoided - Schiff's Diseases of the Liver 10'"/561 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31509 | Drug that is not used in renal failure is: ( | [
"Ethambutol",
"Rifampicin",
"Isoniazid",
"Streptomycin"
] | STREPTOMYCIN It is the oldest aminoglycoside antibiotic obtained from Streptomyces griseus; used extensively in the past, but now practically restricted to treatment of tuberculosis. Streptomycin has the lowest nephrotoxicity among aminoglycosides; probably because it is not concentrated in the renal coex. Hypersensitivity reactions are rare; rashes, eosinophilia.Popularity of S in the treatment of tubercu: osis had declined due to need for i.m. injections .md lower margin of safety, because of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity, especially in the elderly and in those with impaired renal function. Patient acceptability of E is very good and side effects are few. Loss of visual acuity I colour vision. field defects due to optic neuritis is the most impoant dose and duration of therapy dependent toxicity. Because young children ma,be unable to repo early visual impairment, it should not be used below 6 years of age. With early recognition and stoppage of therapy, visual toxicity is largely reversible. Adverse effects INH is well tolerated by most patients. Peripheral neuritis and a variety of neurological manifestations (paresthesias, numbness, mental disturbances, rarely convulsions) are the most impoant dose-dependent toxic effects. These are due to interference with utilization of pyridoxine and its increased excretion in urine.Hepatitis, a major adverse effect of iNH, is rare in children, but more common in older people and in alcoholics. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:741,743 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_9925 | Which of the following tests are used in the evaluation of a suspected CSF leak? | [
"Beta 2 microglobulin",
"Beta 2 transferrin",
"Tyroglobulin",
"Transthyretin"
] | Detection of beta-2 transferrin is considered pa of standard evaluation when CSF leak is suspected. Nasal and ear fluids are tested for detection of the beta-2 transferrin band by immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE) or Western blot analysis as a diagnostic tool for the presence of CSF or perilymph. This test is helpful in the differential diagnosis for CSF otorrhoea or CSF rhinorrhoea. The beta-2 transferrin band has not been detected in multiple fluids including serum, ear fluid, nasal secretions, saliva, tears or endolymph, indicating the specificity of the slower beta-2 transferrin isoform for CSF. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6782 | The most common primary immunodeficiency is: | [
"Common variable immunodeficiency",
"Isolated IgA immunodeficiency",
"Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome",
"AIDS"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Isolated IgA immunodeficiency(Ref: Harrison, 18th/e, p. 2704 and 17th/e, p. 2058)Selective IgA deficiency is the most common primary immunodeficiency, familial (more common), naive B cells are not able to differentiate into IgA producing cells. Along with IgA, IgG2 and IgG4 may also be reduced. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_413 | Meniere's disease is: | [
"Perilymphatic hydrops",
"Endolymphatic hydrops",
"Otospongiosis",
"Coalescent mastoiditis"
] | (b) Endolymphatic hydrops(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2331)Meniere's is also known as endolymphatic hydrops.There is no condition called Perilymphatic hydrops.Otospongiosis also known as otosclerosis is fixation of foot plate of stapes.Coalescent mastoiditis is infection of the mastoid air cells and is a complication following ASOM/ unsafe CSOM. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27878 | Normal respiratory minute volume is | [
"Tidal volume X respiratory Rate",
"Tidal volume/ Respiratory Rate",
"TLC/ Respiratory Rate",
"FRC/ Respiratory Rate"
] | Tidal volume X respiratory Rate | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50704 | Stigmata of chronic Liver disease include all of the following, except | [
"Parmar Erythema",
"Spinder naevi",
"Testicular Atrophy",
"Subcutaneous nodules"
] | Answer is D (Subcutaneous nodules) Subcutaneous nodules are generally not seen as a stigmata of chronic liver disease. Chronic Liver Disease manifests with loss of subcutaneous fatty tissue resulting in paper thin skin with markedfiilds (paper-money skin). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6269 | Best treatment of refractory peri-anal fistula in crohn's disease:- | [
"Fistulectomy",
"Infliximab",
"Olasalizine",
"Mesalamine"
] | Infliximab is effective in CD patients with refractory perianal and enterocutaneous fistulas, with 68% response rate (50% reduction in fistula drainage) and a 50% complete remission rate. Reinfusion, typically every 8 weeks, is necessary to continue therapeutic benefits in many patients. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44430 | TESPAL done in - | [
"Severe epistaxis",
"Rhinophyma",
"CA Maxillary Sinus",
"Multiple Antrochoanal polyps"
] | Ans. is'a' i.e., Severe epistaxisManagement of intractable spontaneous epistaxis.TESPAL - transnasal endoscopic sphenopalatine aery ligationIndication:Epistaxis not responding to conventional conservative management.Posterior epistaxis | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52249 | A child on β2 agonists for treatment of bronchial asthma may exhibit all of the following features EXCEPT: | [
"Tremors",
"Hypoglycemia",
"Hypokalemia",
"Bronchodilation"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_29364 | One of the most important advantages of truly elastic impression material would be its capacity for: | [
"Close adaptation to soft tissues",
"With drawl without permanent distortion",
"Reproduction of surface details",
"Compatibility with gypsum products"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_35414 | Most common uterine anomaly is | [
"Uterus didelphys",
"Uterus pseudodidelphys",
"Arcuate uterus",
"Bicornuate uterus"
] | Incidence of uterine anomalies: Bicornuate uterus - 35-40% Arcuate uterus - 15% Uterus didelphys - 10% Uterine septum - 5-10% Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 72. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47040 | Strain used for Melanin is | [
"Oil red",
"Gomori methamine silver strain",
"Masson Fontana stain",
"PAS stain"
] | Ref histopathology p150 Other stains for Melanin are schmorl's method and enzyme histochemical method called DOPA oxidase | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_30183 | Which of the following is true of cellular cementum? | [
"Forms during root formation",
"Forms after the eruption of the tooth",
"Seen at the coronal portion of the tooth",
"Formation is a slow process"
] | null | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_41580 | Laser used in LASIK ? | [
"Yag",
"Diode",
"Excimer",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Excimer 3 PRK, PTK, LASIK and LASEK use excimer (argon fluoride) laser. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24439 | Charcot's triad includes all the following except | [
"Pain",
"Vomiting",
"Jaundice",
"Fever"
] | Charcot's triad of jaundice, abdominal pain, and fever is present in about 70% of patients with ascending cholangitis and biliary sepsis. Reynold's pentad = Charcot's triad + shock and confusion. Courvoisier's law: In obstruction of the common bile duct due to a stone, distension of the gallbladder seldom occurs; the organ is usually already shriveled. In obstruction from other causes, distension of the gallbladder is common by comparison Ref: Bailey and Love's 27th edn. Pg 1125. Harrison's, 19th edn. Pg 1843. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6511 | Bisfiriens pulse is seen in all Except: | [
"AS + AR",
"AR",
"Hyperophic cardiomyopathy",
"TOF"
] | Answer is D (TOF) Aoic Regurgitation alone or with Aoic stenosis and Hyperophic cardiomyopathy are all associated with pulsus bisferiens | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7901 | Liver biopsy is done through 8th ICS midaxillary line to avoid - | [
"Lung",
"Pleural cavity",
"Subdiaphragmatic space",
"Gall bladder"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lung The lower border of the pleura crosses the mid-axillary line at the level of 10th rib. The lower border of the lung crosses the mid-axillary line at the level of 8th rib. Thus a liver biopsy through the 8th Intercostal space would avoid the lung, but not the pleural cavity. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53531 | Non specific esterase in present in - | [
"Megakaryocytic leukaemia",
"Lymphocytic leukaemia",
"Erythroleukaemia",
"AML"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., AML Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) o AML is a cancer of myeloid line of WBCs, characterized by the rapid proliferation of abnormal cells which accumulate in the bone marrow and interfere with the production of normal blood cells. o AML is the most common acute leukemia affecting adults. o The diagnosis of AML is based on finding that myeloid blasts make up more than 20% of the cells in the marrow. o Myeloblasts are mveloperoxidase (peroxidase positive) o Auer rods (represent abnormal azurophilic granule) are also present in myeloblasts and their presence is taken to be definitive evidence of myeloid differentiation. o In some AMLs, blast cells exhibit differentiation of other myeloid stem cell line (other than myeloblast), e.g., (i) Monoblast -3 Lack auer rods, peroxidase negative, but nonspecific esterase positive. (ii) Megakaryocytic differentiation (iii) Erythroblast | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13340 | The severity of mitral regurgitation is decided by all of the following clinical findings except: | [
"Presence of mid- diastolic murmur across mitral valve.",
"Wide split second heart sound.",
"Presence of left ventricular S3 gallop.",
"Intensity of systolic murmur across mitral valve"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e. intensity of systolic murmur across mitral valve "There is little correlation between intensity of systolic murmur and severity of MR." - BraunwaldFollowing features suggest severe mitral regurgitation.Following features suggest severe mitral regurgitationWide splitting of S2A low pitched S3Soft SIMid-diastolic murmur across mitral valve.Presence of pulmonary arterial hypertension.For option 'a'Braunwald states "A short low pitched diastolic murmur following S3 may be audible in patients with severe MR, even without an accompanying MS."Let's see the pathophysiology of Mitral Regurgitation | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42859 | Acrosome cap of sperm is derived from ? | [
"Golgi body",
"Mitochondria",
"Nucleus",
"Centromere"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Golgi body Formation of acrosome stas with the coalescence of a series of granules from the Golgi complex, which migrates to come into contact with nuclear membrane, where it covers like a cap-like structure ove 30% to 50% of nuclear surface. The acrosome covers the nucleus and contains the hydrolytic enzymes necessary for feilization. `The head also contains the acrosome, which is a cap-like structure represented by golgi complex and covers about two thirds of anterior head area' Clinical reproductive medicine. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44604 | Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about NSAIDs ? | [
"Acetyl salicylic acid is an irreversible inhibitor of COX enzyme.",
"Acetylsalicylic acid reduces in vivo synthesis of prostaglandins.",
"Its clearance is independent of plasma concentration",
"Antiplatelet effect of low dose aspirin is related to pre-systemic COX inhibition"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13292 | Which of the following "oncogenic virues" is so far not shown to be (oncogenic) in man - | [
"Hepatitis B virus",
"Epstein - Barr virus",
"Herpes simplex Type 2",
"Adenovirus"
] | adeno virus(12,19,21) may produce sarcoma in newborn rodents after experimental inoculation.they domot appear yo have ant association with human cancer<\p> MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE565 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21971 | A 25-year-old is admitted with loss of consciousness after cocaine over-dosage. On examination BP= 200/100 with GCS of 7/15. The right-sided pupil is dilated and shows a sluggish reaction to light. Which is not recommended for this patient? | [
"Administer mannitol at 1g/kg body weight",
"Administer hypeonic fluids to maintain sodium of 145mEq/dl",
"Initiate sodium nitroprusside to achieve MAP below 130 mmHg",
"Neuromuscular paralysis"
] | CNS bleed due to a cocaine overdose. The dilated right side pupil indicates evidence of uncal herniation. Sodium nitroprusside is not recommended to manage a hypeensive crisis in CNS event. The metabolism of sodium nitroprusside, which occurs in the red blood cell, liberates cyanide that can accumulate in those receiving high doses or prolonged infusions. The current guidelines recommend the use of nicardipine or labetalol. Mannitol or 3% saline can be used to lower raised ICP. Neuromuscular paralysis is useful to reduce ICP.Airway compromise is always present in GCS less than 8. Hence NM paralysis and intubation is to be done. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28991 | Parasites penetrating through skin for entry into the body are - | [
"Ankylostoma duodenale",
"Strongyloides",
"Round worm",
"Trichuris trichura"
] | Ankylostoma dermatitis or ground itch occurs at the site of entry When filariform larvae enters the skin they may lead to dermatitis It is more common with N. americanus and with Ankylostoma duodanale (refer pgno:144 baveja 3 rd edition) | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38471 | What is the grade of given varicocele? | [
"Subclinical",
"Grade I",
"Grade II",
"Grade III"
] | Varicocele Classification Subclinical Not palpable or visible at rest or during Valsalva maneuver, but demonstrable by special testsQ (reflux found on doppler examination) Grade 1 Palpable during ValsalvaQ maneuver, but not otherwise Grade 2 Palpable at restQ, but not visible Grade 3 VisibleQ and palpable at rest | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51369 | Which is the most impoant prognostic marker in ALL? | [
"Leucocyte count >50000",
"Hyperploidy",
"Response to treatment",
"Organomegaly"
] | Response to treatment is the most impoant prognostic marker in ALL. Leucocyte count> 50000/ul Poor prognosis Hyperploidy Favorable prognostic factor Response to treatment Remission status at 14 days of chemotherapy is best guide to prognosis. Organomegaly Poor prognosis. Lymph node, liver, spleen and testis enlargement indicate spread of cancer Unorable prognostic factors for ALL: Extreme age group: <1 year or >10 years Black males TLC>1 lac/cu.mm Organomegaly CNS Leukemia L2 ALL, pre B cell and mature B cell ALL Hypoploidy t(9:22) and t(4:11) Remission> 14 days | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2855 | Psoralan 'A' is used in the treatment of ? | [
"Pemphigus",
"Vitiligo",
"Pityasis alba",
"Ichtyosis"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vitiligo o Psoralen and UV-A have synergistic action, therefore they are used in combination as PUVA therapy. o PUVA is used in 1. Psoriasis (most impoant and most common use) 3. Vitiligo 2. Eczema 4. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39895 | All of the following statements are true regarding poliovirus except: | [
"It is transmitted by feco-oral route",
"Asymptomatic infections are common in children",
"There is only a single serotype which cause infection",
"Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity"
] | There are three serotypes of poliovirus. They are type 1, 2 and 3. Serotype 1 is the most common type, it is the most common serotype causing polio epidemic. Mutated Type 3 is the most common cause of vaccine induced paralysis. Poliovirus belong to enterovirus group. It is a single stranded RNA virus. It has a naked protein capsid and a dense central core of RNA. It is spread through feco-oral route. Infection with poliovirus gives lifelong immunity to the homologous virus type, but does not confer immunity to other two viral types. Ref: Oski's Essential Pediatrics By Michael Crocetti, 2nd Edition, Page 322 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45030 | An elderly female presents to the emergency depament with history of fever, headache and double vision. Biopsy of temporal aery revealed panaeritis. The most likely diagnosis is | [
"Nonspecific Aeritis",
"Polyaeritis Nodosa",
"Wegener's Granulomatosis",
"Temporal Aeritis"
] | Answer is D i.e. (Temporal Aeritis): The clinical complex of fever, headache and diplopia together with panaeritis on biopsy of temporal aery suggests the diagnosis of temporal aeritis. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36681 | Oral hairy leukoplakia is a feature of | [
"White sponge nevus",
"Hairy cell Leukemia",
"Speckled leukoplakia",
"None of the above"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_7324 | Calculate BMI of a person of height 1.72m and 89 kgs weight | [
"25",
"27",
"33.5",
"30"
] | Body Mass Index (Quetlet's Index) : In the given question, weight = 89 kgs and Height=1.72 m. This, Wt/Ht2= 89/1.72x2 = 30 Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 418 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22582 | False regarding Austin-Flint murmur is: March 2009 | [
"Systolic murmur",
"Severe aoic regurgitation",
"Originates at anterior mitral valve leaflet",
"May be confused with Murmur of mitral stenosis"
] | Ans. A: Systolic murmur Austin-flint murmur is a mid-diastolic/presystolic murmur heard in chronic severe AR. The diastolic murmur mimics mitral stenosis and is attributed to mitral valve leaflet vibration or mild obstruction caused by rapid regurgitant flow both from the aoic root and the left atrium. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47174 | The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is - | [
"Ipsilateral pupillary' dilatation",
"Contralateral pupillary dilation",
"Altered mental status",
"Hemiparesis"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Altered mental status o Early signs of elevated ICP include drowsiness and a diminished level of consciousness.o Coma and unilateral pupillary changes are late signs and require immediate intervention. - Harrison | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45970 | The sensation of creeping bugs over the body is a features of poisoning with | [
"Cocaine",
"Diazepam",
"Barbiturates",
"Brown sugar"
] | The sensations of bugs crawling under skin are tactile hallucinations, called formication. These are seen in cocain abuse. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21879 | Lip thickness reaches maximum at what age in males? | [
"16 years",
"18 years",
"25 years",
"13 years"
] | Lip thickness reaches its maximum during adolescence, then decreases to the point that in their 20s and 30s, some women consider loss of lip thickness a problem and seek treatment to increase it.
Mammandras evaluated the records of 32 untreated patients who represented a cross-sectional sample of ages 8 to 18 years and measured such variables as lip length, lip thickness, and soft-tissue chin thickness. Mammandras found that in women, the upper lip reached its maximum thickness by age 14 and remained the same until 16 years of age, with the lip thinning afterward. In men, maximum lip thickness was attained around age 16 but also began to thin thereafter. The horizontal thickness of the lower lip slowed dramatically but was close to its maximum in both men and women by age 15. Similar results were attained in a study by Nanda et al with mild differences but essentially similar trends.
Ref: Mamandras AH. Linear changes of the maxillary and mandibular lips. Am J Orthod Dentofacial Orthop. 1988;94(5):405-410. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11292 | Epidemiological features for japanese encephalitis include all of the following except - | [
"The virus infects extra-human hosts",
"Man is an incident host",
"Infected pigs manifestation",
"Epidemics have been repoed in Karnataka"
] | <p> Infected pigs do not manifest any ove symptoms of illness but circulate the virus so that mosquitoes get infected and can transmit the virus to man. The pigs are thus considered as &;amplifiers &;of the virus. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:285. <\p> | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21929 | What is true about sinus venosus? | [
"Forms rough wall of right atrium",
"Forms smooth wall of right atrium",
"Forms right coronary sinus",
"Forms left leaflet of coronary sinus"
] | Sinus venosus forms smooth posterior pa or sinus venarum of right atrium. BD CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY VOLUME1. 6TH EDITION.Page no 255 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4328 | Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the primary visual coex in: | [
"Layer 1",
"Layer 2 & 3",
"Layer 4",
"Layer 5 & 6"
] | LGB has 6 layers - (i) Layers 1 & 2: They are called magnocellular (contain large cells). The M ganglion cells project to magnocellular poion of LGB, (ii) Layers 3-6: They are called parvocellular (contain small cells). P ganglion cells project to the parvocellular poion of LGB The visual coex has 6 layers. The magnocellular and parvocellular neurons project to layer 4 and 4C of the visual coex. The axons from the interlaminar region end in layers 2 and 3. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53482 | Hea block is seen in - | [
"Hypermagensemia",
"Hypomagnesemia",
"Hypernatremia",
"Hypocalcemia"
] | Answer- A. HypermagensemiaHypermagnesemia slows the hea and leads to hea block. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10995 | A gall stone gets impacted most commonly in which part of common bile duct - | [
"Supraduodenal",
"Retroduodenal",
"Ampulla of vater",
"Common hepatic duct"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40644 | SSRIs are useful in treatment of: | [
"Erectile dysfunction",
"Premature ejaculation",
"Retrograde ejaculation",
"Infeility"
] | SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) are frequently used in premature ejaculation as they can delay the ejaculation( side effect of SSRI ). Alternatively , Clomipramine and Tramadol can also be used | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19182 | Primary intentional healing which is true - | [
"Neovascularization is maximum by day 5",
"Neovascularization is maximum by day 3",
"Neutrophils appear at wound margins on day 3",
"The epidermis recovers its maximum thickness by day 7"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Neovascularization is maximum by day 5 Skin wound healingo Skin wounds are classically described to heal by primary or secondary intention.Healing by primary intentionIt occurs in wounds with opposed edges, e.g., surgical incision.The healing process follows a series of sequential steps : -o Immediate after incisionIncisional space filled with blood containing fibrin and blood cells.Dehydration of the surface clot forms a scab that covers the wound,o Within 24 hoursNeutrophils appear at the margins of the wound.o In; 24-48 hoursy Epithelial cells move from the wound edges along the cut margin of the dermis, depositing basement membrane components as they move.y They' fuse in the midline beneath the surface scab, producing a continuous but thin epithelium layer that closes the wound,o By day 3Neutrophils are largely replaced by macrophages.Granulation tissue progressively invades the incision space.Collegen fibers now present in the margin but do not bridge the incision,o By day 5Incisional space is largely filled with granulation tissue.Neovascularization is maximum.Collagen fibrils become more abundant and begin to bridge the incision.The epidermis recovers its normal thickness,o During the second weekLeukocytes and edema have disappeared.There is continued accumulation of collagen and proliferation of fibroblast,o By the end of the first monthThe scar is made up of a cellular connective tissue devoid of inflammatory infiltrate covered now by the intact epidermis.Healing by secondary intentionIt occurs in wounds with separated edges in which there is a more extensive loss of cells and tissue.Regeneration of parenchymal cells cannot completely restore the original architecture, and hence abundant granulation tissue grows.Healing by secondary intention differ from primary intention in several respects : -The inflammatory /7 reaction is more intense.Much larger amounts of granulation tissue are formed.Wound contraction occurs - Feature that most clearly differentiate secondary from primary healing.o Permanent wound contraction requires the action of myofibroblasts - Fibroblasts that have the ultrastructural characteristic of smooth muscle cells. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37766 | Maximum fetal skull diameter is: | [
"Biparietal diameter",
"Mentovertical",
"Occipitobregmatic",
"Occipitofrontal"
] | Ans, B. MentoverticalRef: DC Dutta. Chapter fetal skull and maternal pelvis, p85ExplanationAll diameters are as follows:A. Suboccipito-bregmatic 9.5 cmB. Suboccipito-frontal 10 cmC. Occipitofrontal 11.5 cmD. Mentovertical 14 cmE. Submentovertical 11.5 cmF. Submentobregmatic 9.5 cm | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20698 | Which of the treatment modalities is associated with the lowest recurrence of peptic ulcer? | [
"Gastric resection",
"Vagotomy + drainage",
"Vagotomy + Antrectomy",
"Highly selective vagotomy"
] | Vagotomy and antrectomy is the surgical treatment of peptic ulcer associated with extremely low ulcer recurrence rate. It is also indicated in many patients with complicated peptic ulcer disease such as bleeding duodenal and gastric ulcer, obstructing peptic ulcer, non-healing gastric ulcer, and recurrent ulcer. Ref: Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9th Edition, Chapter 26 ; Essentials of Family Medicine By Philip D. Sloane, 5th Edition, Page 360 | C | null |
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