dataset string | id string | question string | choices list | rationale string | answer string | subject string |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
medmcqa | medmcqa_20793 | Grevious injury included which of the following : | [
"Incised wound of scalp",
"Lacerated wound of scalp",
"Fracture radius",
"Injury which kept patient away from work for 10 days"
] | C i.e. Fracture radius | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37493 | Ridley-Jopling classification includes all except: | [
"Lepromaious leprosy",
"Borderline borderline",
"Tuberculoid",
"Neuritic"
] | Ans: D (Neuritic) Ref: Thappa, Essentials in Dermatology. 1st ed. Pg 236Explanation:Ridley and Jopling classified leprosy taking into account the immunological and histopathological basis in addition to clinical and bacteriological findings.ClassificationTuberculoid Tuberculoid (TT)Borderline T uberculoid (BT)Borderline Borderline/ Mid Borderline/ Dimorphous leprosy t (BB)Border] i ne Lepromatou s (BL)Lepromatous Lepromatous (LL)Note: Two other types of leprosy wrhich are not classified under Ridley-Jopling classification (but included in Indian Leprologist Association classification) are:Indeterminate leprosyPolyneuritic leprosy | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40218 | A 39-year-old woman complains of an inability to reach the top of her head to brush her hair. History reveals that she had undergone a bilateral mastectomy procedure 2 months earlier. Physical examination demonstrates winging of both of her scapulae. Which nerves were most likely damaged during surgery? | [
"Axillary",
"Spinal accessory",
"Long thoracic",
"Dorsal scapular"
] | The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior, which is responsible for elevation and abduction of the scapula beyond the horizontal level while maintaining its position against the thoracic wall. Along with the thoracodorsal nerve, the long thoracic nerve runs superficially along the thoracic wall and is commonly subject to injury during mastectomy procedures. The axillary nerve, the spinal accessory nerve, and the thoracodorsal nerve supply the deltoid muscle, trapezius muscle, and latissimus dorsi muscles, respectively. The dorsal scapular nerve is responsible for innervation of the rhomboids and levator scapulae. Aside from the long thoracic and thoracodorsal nerves, the remaining nerves do not course along the lateral thoracic wall. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27156 | Ispilateral optic atrophy with contralateral papilloedema is a feature of- | [
"Fischer syndrome",
"Foster kennedy syndrome",
"Vogt- kayanagi- Harada syndrome",
"WAGR syndrome"
] | Suggests a tumour of the ipsilateral olfactory groove or orbital surface of the frontal lobe or of the pituitary body. This syndrome is due to optic nerve compression (optic atrophy) by the tumor and increased intra cranial pressure secondary to a mass ( tumor) causing contralateral papilloedema. Ref: Parson's 22 nd edition page no. 353 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52640 | Unilateral edentulous area with natural teeth both anterior and posterior to it represent Kennedy's arch. | [
"Class I",
"Class II",
"Class III",
"Class IV"
] | null | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49038 | A 64-year-old man has had recurring nasal hemorrhages following surgery to remove nasal polyps. To control the bleeding, the surgeon is considering ligating the primary aerial supply to the nasal mucosa. This aery is a direct branch of which of the following aeries? | [
"Facial aery",
"Maxillary aery",
"Superficial temporal aery",
"Superior labial aery"
] | The major source of blood supply to the nasal mucosa is the sphenopalatine aery, which is the terminal branch of the maxillary aery. The sphenopalatine aery enters the nasal cavity from the pterygopalatine fossa by passing through the sphenopalatine foramen in the lateral wall of the nasal cavity. The facial aery is a direct branch of the external carotid aery. It provides most of the blood supply to the superficial face. The superficial temporal aery is a terminal branch of the external carotid aery. The other terminal branch is the maxillary aery. The superficial temporal aery provides blood supply to the temporal region and the lateral poion of the scalp. The superior labial aery is a branch of the facial aery. The superior labial aery provides blood supply to the upper lip. It has a septal branch that provides some of the blood supply to the anterior poion of the septal mucosa of the nasal cavity. However, this is not the major blood supply to the nasal cavity. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2440 | In isometric exercise all are increased except: | [
"Hea rate",
"Cardiac output",
"Mean aerial pressure",
"Systemic vascular resistance"
] | D i.e. Systemic vascular resistance | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21944 | During exploration, a patient is found to have a tumor in the thymus that is invading the pericardium and surrounding the left and right phrenic nerves. The pathologist says that appears on frozen section to be a benign thymoma. The surgeon now should: | [
"Repeat frozen section",
"Attempt as complete a resection as possible",
"Close the chest and plan irradiation therapy",
"Close the chest and await permanent sections"
] | Since the tumor is invading the pericardium and surrounding the left and right phrenic nerve maximum amount of tumor must be resected There is no advantage of frozen section | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8601 | Lipofuscin containing macrophages are a feature of? | [
"Wear and tear",
"Fat deposit",
"Iron deficiency",
"Calcification"
] | Ans is 'a' i.e., Wear and tear Lipofuscin* It is an insoluble pigment, also known as lipochrome and wear or tear or aging pigment. Lipofuscin is not injurious to the cell or its functions.* Its importance lies in being the tell-tale sign of free radical injury and lipid peroxidation.* It is seen in cells undergoing slow, regressive changes and is particularly prominent in the liver and heart of aging patients or patients with severe malnutrition and cancer cachexia.* On electron microscopy, the granules are highly electron dense, often have membranous structure in their midst and are usually in perinuclear location. In tissue section it appears as yellow brown pigment.* Deposition of lipofuscin in the heart is referred as brown atrophy. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45923 | Chalcosis is seen with - | [
"Pb",
"Cu",
"Fe",
"Hg"
] | Chalcosis refers to the specific changes produced by the alloy of copper in the eye. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20440 | Neoplasm associated with Waldenstorm's macro- globulinemia also called as: | [
"Smoldering myeloma",
"Primary CNS lymphoma",
"Lympho plasmacytic lymphoma",
"MGUS (Mono gammopathy of undetermined significance)"
] | Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edition, pg 942, 943, 940, 3387Explanation:Waldenstorms macroglohulinemia is a malignancy of lymphoplamsmacytoid cells that secrete IgMAssociated with lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, hy perv i scos styNo bony lesions/renal disease like IgM myelomaElderly agePeripheral neuropathy. anti-MAG( Myelin associated glycoprotein) antibody positiveCryoglobulins positive in some. CD 138+Treatment- Plasmapheresis for hyperviscosity, fludarabine, cladrihine. rituximab. lenalidomide. bortezomib. bendamustineSmoldering myeloma:Serum M protein> 30g/L & bone marrow plasma cells >10%No myeloma related organ damageNo treatment neededMay progress to multiple myelomMGUS:M protein <30g/LBone marrow plasma cells < 10%No bony lesions or target tissue damage (CRAB- Hypercalcemia, renal failure, anemia, bony lesions)25% may transform into multiple myeloma (1% per yr)Primary CNS lymphoma:Type of non -Hodgkin's lymphoma (large B- cell)Seen commonly in HIV patients; CD4 < 50Associated w ith EBVDiffuse enhancing lesion on contrast CTT real men t-met ho trxate .Chemotherapy. radiotherapy, rituximab, HAART | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18633 | Which of the following is true about Reidel's thyroiditis | [
"Fibrosis involves the thyroid and surrounding neck structures",
"Patient presents with hard fixed thyroid mass",
"It may be associated with retroperitoneal fibrosis",
"All the above"
] | Answer- D. All the aboveA rare disorder characterized by extensive fibrosis involving the thyroid and contiguous neck structures.The presence of a hard and fixed thyroid mass clinically simulates a thyroid carcinoma.It may be associated with fibrosis in other sites in the bodn such as the retroperitoneum, and appears to be another manifestation of a systemic autoimmune IgG4-related disease, which is associated with fibrosis and tissue infiltration by plasma cells producing IgG4. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1560 | Which of the following is an example of a non venereal disease - | [
"Endemic syphilis",
"Gonorrhoea",
"Chancroid",
"LGV"
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13394 | True statement about burn resuscitation ? | [
"Colloid preferred in initial 24 hrs",
"Colloid preferred if burnt area is > 15 % of total BSA",
"Half of the calculated fluid given in initial 8 hrs.",
"Urine output should be maintained at 50-60 mL/hr."
] | Ans is 'c' i.e. Half of the calculated fluid given in initial 8 hrs Proper fluid management is critical to survival in a burn patient. The hypovolemic shock in burn patient is special in the sense that the total body water remains unchanged in a burn patient. The thermal injury leads to a massive fluid shift from intravascular compament to the extravascular compament (interstitial + intracellular) leading to edema formation (in both burned pas and non burned pas of body) This fluid shift is maximum in the first 24 hrs. Fluid resuscitation begins with an isotonic crystalloid solution - Ringer's lactate solution (RL) is the preferred solution (Normal saline should be avoided as the volumes required for resuscitation may lead to hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis). The concept behind the continuous fluid resuscitation is that the burn (and/or inhalation injury) drives an inflammatory response that leads to capillary leak; as the plasma leaks into the extravascular space, crystalloid administration would maintain the intravascular volume. - The quantity of crystalloid needed for adequate resuscitation is determined by Parkland formula i.e. 4 mL/kg per % of TBSA burn. (Note that a number of formulas exist for calculating fluid needs during burn resuscitation, suggesting that no one formula benefits all patients. Parkland is one of the most commonly used formulas) - half of the calculated fluid is given in first 8 hrs and half in next 16 hrs. Colloids are given in the next 24 hrs. The reason behind it being the observation that in the initial period, the vascular permeability is so large that even larger protein molecules leak from the capillaries. (But some workers, prefer to use colloids after 8 to 12 hrs, while there are some who use it from the very beginning) A number of parameters are widely used to assess burn resuscitation, but the most common remain the simple outcomes of blood pressure and urine output. As in any critically ill patient, the target MAP is 60 mmHg to ensure optimal end-organ perfusion. Goals for urine output should be 30 mL/h in adults and 1 to 1.5 mL/kg per hour in pediatric patients. * There is no use of diuretics in burn resuscitation. Children under 20 kg have the additional requirement that they do not have sufficient glycogen stores to maintain an adequate glucose level in response to the inflammatory response. Specific pediatric formulas have been described, but the simplest approach is to add maintenance IV fluid with glucose supplementation in addition to the calculated resuscitation fluid with lactated Ringer's. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27849 | Mucous lesions are seen in : | [
"Sec. syphilis",
"Dermatitis herpetiformis",
"Psoriasis",
"Pemphigus"
] | D i.e. PemphigusMucosa involvement is seen in Behcet's syndrome, reactive ahritis (Reiter's syndrome), Peutz Jegher syndromeQ, erythema multiforme major, Steven Johnson syndrome, TEN, lichen planusQ, lupus erythematousus, leprosy, measles (Koplik spots) Q, Fordyce spot & disease, syphilis (congenital and secondary), inflammatory bowel disease, acute HIV infection and pemphigus vulgarisQ.Pemphigus folicaeus and bullous pemphigoid do not involve mucous membraneQ. However, * ocular/oral/scarring/cicatrical/benign mucosal/or mucous membrane - pemphigoid or bursting perry pemphigoid involve mucosa. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1438 | A four-year old child presents with mild fever, malaise, prupura, arithritis, abdominal pain and microscopic hematuria. What would be the most likely diagnosis - | [
"Thrombobasthenia",
"Idiopathic thrombocytopenic",
"Systemic lupus erythematosus",
"Henoch-Schonlein purpura"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Henoch-schonlein purpura | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50272 | Number of primodial follicles in ovary at bih are | [
"2 million",
"6 million",
"5 million",
"10 million"
] | At bih the number of login is(primordial follicles) in an ovary is about one millionSo for two ovaries, it is about 2 millionInderbir Singh&;s Human Histology Seventh edition Pg 346 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12367 | In case of pelvic fracture with urethral injury, the most impoant first step in management is? | [
"Repair in injured urethra",
"Fixation of pelvic fracture",
"Treatment of shock and haemorrhage",
"Splinting urethra with catheters"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Treatment of shock and haemorrhage | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10008 | Choose the appropriate lettered structure in this MRI scan showing a sagittal section through the head and neck. Tears drain through the nasolacrimal duct into the space below which structure? | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | (b) The inferior nasal meatus below the inferior concha receives the nasolacrimal duct. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6635 | Malignant cells characteristically | [
"Have a shoer cell cycle than the normal cells in their parent tissue",
"Have the same DNA content as the normal cells in their parent tissue",
"Are contact inhibited in tissue culture",
"Take at least 30 doubling times before they become clinically detectable"
] | Malignant cells characteristically take at least 30 doubling times before they become clinically detectable. They commonly have a longer cell cycle than the normal cells in their parent tissue. Neoplasia is a problem due to an accumulation of cells over a period of time. Malignant cells have a greater DNA content than the normal cells in their parent tissue. This can be quantitated by flow cytometry for prognosis purposes, Diploid cells (multiples of 23 chromosomes) have a better prognosis than aneuploid cells (uneven multiples). Malignant cells are not contact inhibited in tissue culture, and often pile up on top of each other. Malignant cells also have simple biochemical systems, with a predominantly anaerobic metabolism. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52291 | Menke's kinky (Steely) hair disease occurs due to: | [
"Low copper levels",
"Low zinc levels",
"Low iron levels",
"Low fluoride levels"
] | Menke's kinky hair disease- X-linked defect in intestinal absorption of copper. Mutation in ATP7A gene. Low levels of copper and ceruloplasmin. C/F- Progressive cerebral degeneration, growth retardation Sparse brittle hair Scurvy-like bone changes Anemia and neutropenia Failure to thrive Pili toi, trichorrhexis and monilethrix may occur. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11503 | ULTRASOUND PROBE FREQUENCY 1. Linear a. 20 2. Endoscopic b. 10-12 3. Curvilinear c. 7-10 4. Endocavitatory d. 3-5 | [
"1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B",
"1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D",
"1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C",
"1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A"
] | Different types of Probes / transducers Curvilinear probe Linear probe Endocavitary probe - 3-5 MHz (Low frequency) - Greater wavelength - Greater penetration - Poor resolution -Used for imaging deep structures e.g. kidney, ovary, fetal pas etc. - 10-12 MHz (high frequency) -Low wavelength - Poor penetration - Good resolution - Used for superficial structures e.g. thyroid, breast, scrotum etc. - 7- 10 MHz (Good frequency) - TVS (Transvaginalsonography) - TRUS (Transrectalultrasound) - TEE (Trans esophagealechocardiography) TVS (Trans vaginal sonography) IOC for Ectopic pregnancy Bladder must be empty before doing TVS - Endoscopic Ultrasound (EUS) Uses frequency of 20 MHZ Very good resolution Divides gut wall into 5 layers EUS is the IOC for local invasion or T staging of early esophageal cancer (IOC for Advanced esophageal Carcinoma - CECT) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16259 | A 6-week pregnant lady is diagnosed with sputum positive TB. Best management is: | [
"Wait for 2nd trimester to sta ATT",
"Sta Category I ATT in first trimester",
"Sta Category II ATT in first trimester",
"Sta Category III ATT in second trimester"
] | TB in Pregnancy Category 1 ATT can be safely given during pregnancy. Only first line drug contraindicated in pregnancy is streptomycin Pregnancy does not worsen the course of the disease although there is a higher risk of relapse during the puerperium. Pregnancy may worsen the maternal outcome in drug resistant patients. Consider MTP (induced aboion) in selected cases not responding to therapy, or cases of MDR TB, since most second line anti tubercular drugs are not safe in pregnancy | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43946 | Commonest site of epistaxis is: | [
"Bony septum",
"Little's area",
"Superior turbinate",
"Lateral wall of nose"
] | Ans: b (Little's area)Ref: Dhingra E.N.T. 3rd/e p. 217 & 2nd/e p. 176 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4664 | Which structure lies midway between the Anterior superior iliac spine & pubic symphysis- | [
"Femoral artery",
"Deep inguinal ring",
"Superior epigastric artery",
"Inguinal ligament"
] | External iliac artery continues as femoral artery at mid-inguinal point. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_20541 | All are symptoms of hypocalcemia except | [
"Chvostek sign",
"Trousseau sign",
"Peaked p waves",
"laryngospasm"
] | Following are symptoms seen in hypocalcemia Neuromuscular irritability circumoral and peripheral paresthesia chvostek sign (facial twitching induced by tapping on the facial nerve ) trousseau sign (forearm muscular spasm induced by inflating a pressure cuff) muscle cramps laryngospasm tetany seizures cardiac * impaired inotropy prolonged QT ventricular fibrillation hea block | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47385 | A Postmenopausal woman presents with pruritic white lesions on the vulva. Punch biopsy of a representative area is obtained. Which of the following histologic findings is consistent with the diagnosis of Lichen sclerosis? | [
"Blunting or loss of Rete pegs",
"Excessive hyalinisation",
"Acute inflammatory infiltration",
"Increase in the number of cellular layers in the epidermis"
] | Lichen Sclerosis Small bluish-white papules that coalesce into white papules Pruritus('Itch-scratch' cycle), dyspareunia, dysuria Histology-Moderate hyperkeratosis with epithelial thinning, acanthosis, basement membrane thickening. Loss of rete hyalinization in dermis Ca vulva of Keratinizing types which is Unifocal and seen in older patients, is found in areas adjacent to lichen sclerosis and squamous hyperplasia. Biopsy for Diagnosis Rx- Testosterone cream | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8833 | According to Sigmund Freud, which of the following best describes primary processes? | [
"Typically conscious",
"Absent during dreaming",
"Nonlogical and primitive",
"Characteristic of the neuroses"
] | Primary process thinking is primitive, nonlogical, and timeless. Primary processes characterize the operational style of the id and are manifested in dreams. According to Freud's theory; condensation, displacement, and symbolic representation are forms of primary processes. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51485 | True regarding pseudomembranous colitis are all except - | [
"It is caused by clostridium difficile",
"The organism is a normal commensal of gut",
"It is due to production of phospholipase A",
"It is treated by vancomycin"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., It is due to production of phospholipase A | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18854 | Finkelstein's test is positive in: | [
"Perilunate dislocation",
"Scaphoid fracture",
"Dislocation of shoulder",
"Dequervain's tenosynovitis"
] | Ans. D. Dequervain's tenosynovitisDequervain's disease which is stenosing tenosynovitis of the first extensor compartment of the forearm at the level of the wrist. The physician grasps the patient's thumb and fingers holding the forearm with the other hand then quickly deviates the wrist to the ulnar side, this causes severe pain over the styloid process of the Radius. This is Finkelstein's test. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_3007 | All can predisposes to non cirrhotic poal fibrosis, EXCEPT: | [
"Xenobiotics exposure",
"Arsenic contaminated water",
"Repeated intestinal exposure",
"Radiation exposure"
] | Noncirrhotic poal hypeension is a group of disorder characterized by increase in poal pressure,due to intrahepatic or pre hepatic lesions, and absence of cirrhosis of the liver. Etiopathogenesis of NCPF xenobiotics exposure and various Immunologic abnormalities(Abnormalities of T-lymphocytes and adhesion molecules) Repeated intestinal infection Drinking of arsenic contaminated water Ref: Medicine Update 2012 Vol. 22. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_32188 | Which of the following factors in bile juice is responsible for preventing the precipitation of cholesterol and formation of gallstones | [
"High alkaline condition",
"High concentration of bicarbonates",
"Bile salts",
"Bile pigments"
] | Bile salts (salts of cholic & chenodeoxycholic acids)form micelle which makes cholesterol soluble and prevents formation of gallstones | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_38463 | A baby is born at 27 weeks of gestation required mechanical ventilation for next 4 weeks & 02 for next 1 week. He maintained at room temperature subsequently. As per new Bronchopulmonary dysplasia definition, he has which of the following ? | [
"Mild BPD",
"Moderate BPD",
"Severe BPD",
"No BPD"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Severe BPD | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_11008 | Anticholinergics cause all except? | [
"Tachycardia",
"Mydriasis",
"Bronchoconstriction",
"Constipation"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bronchoconstriction. Anticholinergic agents cause bronchodilatation. ACTIONS: CNS: In toxic/high doses: Maximal excitatory effect. Eye: Mydriasis - Paralysis of sphincter pupillae. Cycloplegia - Paralysis of accommodation. Increased intraocular pressure in people with shallow anterior chamber. It gives comfo & rest to eye by relieving spasm of iris sphincter & ciliary muscle. Prevents synechiae formation & demolishes already formed synechiae. Increases blood supply to anterior uvea. By relieving pressure on anterior ciliary aeries. CVS: Increased A-V conduction. GIT: Cause relaxation of LES. Renal: Urinary retention in older males with prostatic hyperophy. Secretions: Reduces salivary, lacrimal and gastric secretions. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_46810 | All of the following statements about Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome are true except : | [
"Patients have an XY genotype",
"Pubic hair are abundant",
"Sho vagina may be present",
"Ovaries are absent"
] | Ans. is b i.e. Pubic hair are abundant Breasts are well developed whearas pubic hair and axillary hair are scanty in case of testicular feminising syndrome (Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome). | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19195 | Claviceps fusiformis is active ingredient in which of the following toxins? | [
"Aflatoxin",
"Sanguinarine",
"Pyrazolidone",
"Ergot alkaloid"
] | Ans. d (Ergot alkaloid) (Ref. Text book of PSM by Park 22nd/ 610)Ergot is not a storage fungus, but a field fungus, e.g., Claviceps fusiformis. Symptoms are acute but rarely fatal and include nausea, repeated vomiting, giddiness and drowsiness extending peripheral gangrene due to vasoconstriction of capillaries. Ergot-infested grains can be easily removed by floating them in 20% salt water. | |||||AflatoxinMixing of mustard oil with argemione oilKhesari dal[Lathyrus sativas)Millet panicum mili are with seeds of crotalariaErgot alkaloid|||||Aspergillus flavusSanguinarineBOAAPyrazolidaneClaviceps fusiformis||||(Ergot fungus)|||||HepatotoxicityEpidemic dropsyLathyrismHepatotoxic & endemic ascites.Ergotism | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24959 | Anemia of chronic disease is differentiated from iron deficiency anemia by the presence of- | [
"| TIBC",
"|TIBC",
"| Serum ferritin",
"| Bone marrow iron store"
] | <p>In anemia of chronic diorder, a defect in transfer of iron from macrophages to developing erythroid cells in the marrow leads to reduced availability of iron for haem synthesis despite adequate iron stores ,elevating serum ferritin levels.Thus total iron binding capacity is low to normal in contrast to iron deficiency where there is reduction in aerum iron but high TIBC.</p><p>Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 302</p> | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37946 | Which of the following has more anti-thyroid action | [
"I131",
"Sodium Iodide",
"Carbimazole",
"Neomercazole"
] | Radioactive Iodine (I131) Therapy I131 is an effective agent for delivering high radiation doses to thyroid tissue It emits mainly beta radiation (90%), which penetrates only 0.5mm of the tissues & allow therapeutic effects on thyroid without any damage to the surrounding structures, paicularly parathyroid Mechanism of action I131 emits beta paicles and g-rays Beta rays are utilized for their destructive effects on thyroid cells X-rays are useful for tracer studies Indications in carcinoma thyroid Contraindications of I131 Therapy Distant metastasis at diagnosis Incomplete tumor resection Patients at high risk for Moality or recurrence Childhood Pregnancy Lactation Ref : schwaz's principle of surgery 10th edition Pgno : 897 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53244 | 62-year-old female has kidney stone and treated with PCNL. After 2 days she again comes to OPD with chills and fever. What is the complication? | [
"Bacterial sepsis",
"Acute pancreatitis",
"Splenic injury",
"Ureteric stricture"
] | Bacterial sepsis Complications relating to PCNL include: Injury to the spleen, pleura and colon. Haemorrhage (MC) Sepsis. Extravasation due to rupture of the collecting system. Retained stone fragments. Open surgery to the kidney is sometimes more complicated after PCNL. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36957 | A woman who has developed chickenpox 2 days ago is admitted in labor.What is the best method to prevent infection in the neonate? | [
"Administer varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) to the neonate soon after birth",
"Administer varicella zoster vaccine to the neonate",
"Perform a cesarean section immediately",
"Prevent breastfeeding"
] | Ans. is a, i.e. Administer varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) to the neonate soon after birthSince the mother developed the infection two days before the delivery, there is no time for the mother to develop antibodies. Therefore, the neonate will be non-immune and is at risk of developing chickenpox. Neonatal infection is prevented by giving VZIG to the neonate soon after birth. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_48069 | All the following supply blood to Palatine tonsil except | [
"Lingual aery",
"Facial aery",
"Ascending Pharyngeal aery",
"Sphenopalatine aery"
] | Palatine Tonsil (The Tonsil)Blood supply:1.Main source: The Tonsillar branch of the facial aery.2.Additional sources: (a) Ascending palatine branch of facial aery; (b) Dorsal lingual branches of the lingual aery; (c) Ascending pharyngeal branch of the external carotid aery; and (d) The greater palatine branch of the maxillary aeryReference: Chaurasia Head and Neck; 6th edition | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42244 | All of the following are vitamin K dependent coagulation factors except: | [
"Factor X",
"Factor VII",
"Factor II",
"Factor VIII"
] | Clotting factors II, VII, IX and X are vitamin K dependent factors.
Six of the proteins involved in clotting require conversion of a number of glutamic acid residues to γ-carboxyglutamic acid residues before being released into the circulation, and hence all six are vitamin K-dependent. These proteins are factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX, and X, protein C and protein S.
Coumarin derivatives such as dicumarol and warfarin are also effective anticoagulants. They inhibit the action of vitamin K, which is a necessary cofactor for the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of glutamic acid residues to γ-carboxyglutamic acid residues.
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology TWENTY - FIFTH EDITION page no 566,567 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16225 | Most common site for fibroids in uterus is: | [
"Subserous",
"Intramural",
"Submucous",
"Cervical"
] | Ans: (b) Intramural Ref: Shaw s Textbook of Gynaecology 15th Edition Pg 352.Explanation:Uterine FibroidsFibroids are the most common benign solid tumours in femalesMost common tumour of uterus.Fibroids are estrogen dependent for growthProgesterone inhibits their growth.GnRH shrinks size of fibroidIncreases in size during pregnancy and OCP intakeDecreases in size after menopauseThe presence of myoma causes hyperplasia of the myometrial wall.The cavity of the uterus is often distorted and enlarged.The endometrium tends to be thicker due to endometrial hyperplasia.The ovaries at times are enlarged, cystic and hyperaemic with evidence of salpingo- oophoritis in about 15% cases.Distribution of fibroid in the body of uterus:Intramural 75%Submucus 15%Subserous 10%Most common site is body of uterusA typical myoma is a w ell-circumscribed tumour with a pseudocapsuleThe vessels which supply blood to the tumour lie in the capsule and send radial branches into the tumour. Because of this arrangement of blood supply, the central portion of the tumour receives the least blood supply, and degeneration is noticeable early and most often in this part of the tumour. On the other hand, calcification begins at the periphery and spreads inwards along the vessels.Microscopically, the tumour consists of bundles of plain muscle cells, separated by varying amount of fibrous strands. Areas of embryonic muscle tissue may be present in a myoma.The endometrium tends to be thicker due to endometrial hyperplasia. The ovaries at times are enlarged, cystic and hyperaemic with evidence of salpingo-oophoritis in about 15% cases.Points to be Remembered in FibroidMost common complication of fibroid during pregnancy- Red degenerationIncidence of sarcomatous change in fibroid - 0.5 %Most common presenting symptom is menorrhagiaMetrorrhagia is caused by - sub mucus fibroidMost common degeneration - Hyaline degeneration.Recurrent pregnancy loss is associated with submucous fibroidPolycythemia in myoma is due to extramedullary erythropoisis within the substance of myomaDanazole. GnRH and RU 486 reduces the size of fibroids | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_16529 | Which of the following statements about Lambe Eaten Myaesthenic syndrome is true: | [
"Tensilon test is positive",
"Extraocular muscles are most commonly involved",
"Incremental response to repeated electrical stimulation",
"Associated with adenocarcinoma of lung"
] | Answer is C (Incremental response to repeated electrical stimulation ): Lambe Eaten Myaesthenic syndrome presents with an incremental response to repeated electrical stimulation. Lambe Eaten Myasthenia Syndrome What it is & Associations Paraneoplastic syndrome Associated with - Small cell carcinoma lung - Ceain autoimmune diseases Defect Presynaptic disorder Antibodies to calcium channels (P/Q type) Decrease in presynaptic release of Acetylcholine at Neuromuscular junction is the fundamental defect Presentation Onset usually after 40 years Men > Women (5: 1) Proximal limb muscles and muscles of trunk are the most commonly involved muscles Proximal limb muscles >> extraocular & lid muscles No fatiguability / Incremental response Repeated stimulation causes increased muscle strength Reflexes : Hyporeflexia or absent reflexes Autonomic changes such as dry mouth and impotence are associated Diagnosis Repeated nerve stimulation : incremental response Radioimmune assay : Antibodies against P/Q Ca2+ channels Tensilon test : Negative ( mildly positive in some) Myasthenia Gravis What it is & Associations Autoimmune disorder Associated with - Thymomas - Ceain autoimmune diseases Defect Postsynaptic disorder Antibodies against ACH Receptors Decrease in number of ACH Receptors at post synaptic muscle membrane is the fundamental defect Presentation Onset Often < 40 years Women > Men (4: 3) Craniofascial muscles paicularly lids and extraocular muscles are the most commonly involved. Extraocular & lid muscles > proximal limb muscles Fatiguability / Decremental response Repeated stimulation causes decreased muscle strength Reflexes : Intact No associated autonomic changes Diagnosis Repeated nerve stimulation : Decremental Radioimmune assay : - Anti ACHR antibody response - Anti-Musk antibodies Tensilon test : Characteristically Positive | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42036 | A contrast study of the pulmonary vessels reveals several pulmonary veins entering the left atrium. How many pulmonary veins entering the left atrium is most likely be seen? | [
"Two",
"Three",
"Four",
"Six"
] | At the wall of the left atrium four pulmonary veins deliver oxygenated blood into the left atrium. Commonly, there are four pulmonary veins with separate ostia into the left atrium. Knowledge of aberrant pulmonary veins such as accessory or conjoined veins and incidental left atrial diveicula can help guide procedures to ensure isolation of the electrical potentials arising from all the pulmonary veins and avoid potential complications from attempts to enter atrial diveiculum. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21503 | What is the color coding of the bag used in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body pas: | [
"Yellow",
"Black",
"Red",
"Blue"
] | Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive medicine | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_181 | True about methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is | [
"Isoxazolyl penicillin is highly effective",
"All MRSA are multidrug resistance",
"Vancomycin is effective",
"MRSA are more virulent than sensitive strains"
] | Penicillin resistance may also be due to alterations in penicillin-binding protein PBP2a and changes in bacterial surface receptors, reducing binding of beta-lactam antibiotics to cells. This resistance also extend to cover beta lactamase resistant penicillin such as methicillin and cloxacillin(MRSA)
Some of these strains may show resistance to other antibiotics like erythromycin, tetracyclines, aminoglycosides and heavy metals. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23194 | Pontine valentine toxin produced by Staphylococcus is an example for | [
"Simple antigen",
"Super antigen",
"Hapten",
"Immunoglobulin"
] | Pontine valentine toxin of Staphylococcus superantigen which produces lot of stimulation producing massive release of antibodies Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 112 | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_39049 | With respect to repair of cleft palate, the soft palate is first repaired, ideal time for which is? | [
"12 months",
"9 months",
"6 months",
"3 months"
] | Timing of primary cleft lip and palate procedures Cleft lip alone Cleft palate alone Cleft lip and palate Unilateral: one operation at 5-6 months Bilateral: One operation at 4-5 months Soft palate only: One operation at 6 months Soft and hard palate: Two operations Soft palate at 6 months Hard palate at 15-18 months Unilateral: Two operations Cleft lip and soft palate at 5-6 months Hard palate and gum pad with or without lip revision at 15-18 months Bilateral: two operations Cleft lip and soft palate at 4-5 months Hard palate and gum pad with or without lip revision at 15-18 months | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_13991 | IQ of 98 is classed at which level of intelligence? | [
"Idiot",
"Normal",
"Superior",
"Near genius"
] | Explanation: Level of intelligence IQ range Idiot 0-24 Imbecile 25-49 Moron 50-69 Borderline 70-79 Low normal 80-89 Normal 90-109 Superior 110-119 Very superior 120-139 Near genius 140 and above Ref: Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21stedition, page-629. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_22943 | Cause to effect progression is seen in all EXCEPT: | [
"Case control study",
"Ecological study",
"Cohort study",
"Randomized control trial"
] | ANSWER: (A) Case control studyREF: Park 20th edition page 67 Repeat in December 2011Cause to effect (disease) = prospective study (cohort study)Effect (disease) to cause = retrospective study (case control study)RCT and ecological studies are also prospective studies | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_23346 | Which s not seen in MEN I | [
"Parathyroid adenoma",
"Pancreatic cancer",
"Prolactinoma",
"Medullary carcinoma thyroid"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Medullary Ca o MEN (Multiple endocrine neoplasia) or MEA (Multiple endocrine adenomatosis) syndrome are characterized by familial occurances of multiple endocrine neoplasms,o 3 types of MEN Syndrome are recognized.MEN I (or Wermer's Syndrome) consists of -o Pituitary adenoma (or hyperplasia)o Parathyroid adenoma (or hyperplasia)o Pancreatic islet cell hyperplasia, adenoma or carcinoma o Other less common manifestations:Foregut carcinoidsPheochromocytomaSubcutaneous or visceral lipomasMEN IIA (or Sipple Syndrome)o Medullary carcinoma of thyroid (MCT)o Pheochromocytomao Parathyroid adenoma (or hyperplasia)o Hirschsprung diseaseo Cutaneous lichen amyloidosisb) MEN1IBo Medullary carcinoma of thyroid (MCT)o Pheochromocytomao Marfanoid featureso Mucocutaneous and gastrointestinal neuromaso Thus this pt. is suffering from MEN IIA or II B syndrome (pituitary tumour in this pt. is still confusing the question, but still; answer is definitely MCT). | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_36709 | Ultrasound is not useful in: | [
"CBD stones at distal end",
"Breast cyst",
"Ascites",
"Full bladder"
] | a) CBD stones at distal end of CBD . | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34948 | Drug resistance transmitting factor present in bacteria is: | [
"Plasmid",
"Chromosome",
"Intros",
"Centromere"
] | Drug resistance: It refers to unresponsiveness of a microorganism to an AMA, and is akin to the phenomenon of tolerance seen in higher organisms. Resistance may be developed by mutation or gene transfer: Gene transfer (infectious resistance) from one organism to another can occur by: 1.Conjugation: Sexual contact through the formation of a bridge or sex pilus is common among gram-negative bacilli of the same or another species. This may involve chromosomal or extrachromosomal (plasmid) DNA. The gene carrying the &;resistance&; or &;R&; factor is transferred onlv if another &;resistance transfer factor&; (F) is also present. Conjugation frequently occurs in the colon where large variety of gram-negative bacilli come in close contact. Even nonpathogenic organisms may transfer R factor to pathogenic organisms, which may become widespread by contamination of food or water. 2.Transduction: It is the transfer of gene carrying resistance through the agency of a bacteriophage. The R factor is taken up by the phage and delivered to another bacterium which it infects. 3.Transformation :A resistant bacterium may release the resistance carrying DNA into the medium and this may be imbibed by another sensitive organism-becoming unresponsive to the drug. This mechanism is probably not clinically significant except isolated instances of pneumococcal resistance to penicillin G due to altered penicillin binding protein, and some other cases. Resistance once acquired by any of theabove mechanisms becomes prevalent due to the selection pressure of a widely used AMA, i.e. presence of che AMA provides oppounity for the resistant subpopulation to thrive in preference to the sensitive population ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:670,671 | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26432 | The process by which leukocytes are arranged along the endothelium is called: | [
"Margination",
"Rolling",
"Diapedesis",
"Chemotaxis"
] | Ans: a (Margination) Ref: Robbins, 7th ed, p.The sequence of events of leukocyte journey from vessel lumen to interstitial tissue is divided into the following steps.a) Margination: leukocyte accumulation along endothelial surface.b) Rolling: Tumbling of leukocyte along the endothelium with transient adherence.c) Adhesion: Attachment with the help of selectins & integrins.d) Diapedesis: Transmigration across the endotheliume) Migration: To a chemotactic stimulusEndothelial/Leukocyte adhesion moleculesEndotheliumLeucocyteMajor functionP. selectinSialyl Lewis XRollingE. selectinSialyl Lewis XRolling, adhesionICAM 1LFA1, MAC1AdhesionVC AM 1VLA4, LPAM1AdhesionCD31 (PECAM)CD31LeucocytetransmigrationGLYCAM 1, CD 34L selectinLymphocyte homing | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_18374 | A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic will be appropriate except: | [
"Vancomycin",
"Imipenem",
"Tecichoplanin",
"Linezoiid"
] | Vancomycin, Teicoplanin and Linezolid are all active against most Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Although some strains of MRSA are susceptible to Imipenem, most strains are not susceptible. Ref: British Society Guidelines for Antimicrobial Chemotherapy; Neonatal and Pediatric Pharmacology: Therapeutic Principles in Practice By Sumner J. Yaffe, Jacob V. Aranda, 2010, Page 436; Goodman and Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 9th Edition, Page 710. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_12873 | Contraindications for breast feeding are all except | [
"Hepatitis - B infection of mother",
"Tetracycline treatment of mother",
"Acute bacterial mastitis",
"All"
] | Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Hepatitis B infection of the mother; acute bacterial mastitis; and Tetracycline Breast feeding is not contraindicated in case of maternal hepatitis B infection as explained in previous question. Option '13' Lithium is contraindicated during pregnancy (see Answer 6) Option 'c' i.e. Acute bacterial mastitis. "In case of acute bacterial mastitis breast feeding should be continued as it is helpful in avoiding abscess formation. If the infected breast is too tender to allow suckling, gentle pumping until nursing can be resumed is recommended." Option `d' Tetracycline : according to KDT "Tetracycline is secreted in breast milk and can cause teeth discoloration and impaired growth in infants and children therefore is contraindicated during lactation." But all other books and extensive internet search (see Drug.com/Rxlist.com) says that tetracycline is not contraindicated during lactation but should be used cautiously in nursing mothers. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50618 | Anti tobacco day is: September 2009 | [
"1May",
"15-May",
"25-May",
"31-May"
] | Ans. D: 31st May World No Tobacco Day is observed around the world every year on May 31. It is meant to encourage a 24-hour period of abstinence from all forms of tobacco consumption across the globe. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_40024 | A 45-year-old woman is seen by her primary care physician complaining of intermittent colicky pain in the right upper quadrant (RUQ), staing sholy after eating a meal, and lasting about 30 min. During these episodes, she feels bloated and nauseated. The patient also states that over the past 2 days, her stools have become very light in color, like the color of sand, and her skin has become yellow. What is the anatomical basis for the clinical condition? | [
"<img style=\"max-width: 100%\" src=\" />",
"<img style=\"max-width: 100%\" src=\" />",
"<img style=\"max-width: 100%\" src=\" />",
"Inflammation of hepatic Glisson's capsule"
] | A- Gallstones in gallbladder B- Bile duct obstruction due to gall stones C- Premature activation and leakage of pancreatic enzymes This middle-aged woman has the typical symptoms of biliary colic, which is intermittent crampy abdominal pain in the epigastric region of the RUQ, sometimes radiating to the right shoulder. These symptoms typically appear after meals, paicularly fatty meals. The more concerning signs are the light-colored stools (acholic) and jaundice (icterus). Gallstones (cholelithiasis) are precipitated bile salts in the gallbladder, which may produce inflammation of the gallbladder (cholecystitis). Stones can pass into the cystic duct and into the common bile duct. Since the common bile duct is formed by the union of the cystic and common hepatic ducts, obstruction of the common bile duct prevents bilirubin produced in the liver from reaching the small intestines. The stools thus lack this pigment. As a secondary result of the obstruction, serum bilirubin is elevated, and precipitates in the skin, resulting in the yellow tint. Ultrasound (DOUBLE BARREL/DUCT SIGN) can often make the initial diagnosis. Removal of a common bile duct stone can be performed by upper GI endoscopy through the ampulla of Vater or surgically. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31746 | The Iron requirement in pregnant and non-pregnant women respectively: | [
"40-50mg; 20-25mg",
"20-25mg; 15-20mg",
"15-20mg; 40-50mg",
"10-15mg; 15-20mg"
] | The total content of iron in an adult body is 3-5 g.
About 70% of this occurs in the erythrocytes of blood as a constituent of hemoglobin.
At least 5% of body iron is present in myoglobin of muscle.
Heme is the most predominant iron-containing substance.
lt is a constituent of several proteins/enzymes (hemoproteins, hemoglobin, myoglobin, cytochromes, xanthine oxidase, catalase, tryptophan pyrrolase, peroxidase).
Certain other proteins contain non-heme iron e.g. transferrin, ferritin, hemosiderin.
Dietary requirements:
Adult man - 10 mg/day
Menstruating woman - 18 mg/day
Pregnant and lactating woman - 40 mg/day
Key Concept:
Iron requirement for pregnant woman is around 40mg/day and in menstruating woman is around 18mg/day
Ref : Textbook of Biochemistry, Satyanarayana | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1682 | A 50 year old lady presented with history of pain upper abdomen, nausea, and decreased appetite for 5 days. She had undergone cholecystectomy 2 years back. Her bilirubin was 10 mg/d1, SGPT 900 1U/L SGOT 700 IU/L and serum alkaline phosphatase was 280 IU/L. What is the most likely diagnosis ? | [
"Acute pancreatitis",
"Acute cholangitis",
"Acute viral hepatitis",
"Posterior penetration of peptic ulcer"
] | Answer is C (Acute viral Hepatitis) Prodromal symptoms of nausea and anorexia, presence of pain in upper abdomen together with characteristic laboratory features (elevated bilirubin, elevated SCOT and SGPT>500 with SGPT > SGOT, and elevated alkaline phosphates to < 3 times normal) suggest the diagnosis of viral hepatitis. Diagnosis of Acute viral Hepatitis Prodromal Symptoms Anorexia, Nausea, Vomiting Fatigue, malaise, ahralgic, tuvalgia, Fever Clinical Jaundice and associated Signs Clinical Jaundice (Also dark urine, clay coloured stool) Tender Hepatomegaly (Right upper abdomen pain/discomfo) Characteristic Laboratory Parameters Bilirubin AST/ALT Alkaline Phosphate Albumin + Prothrombin time Elevated Elevated Normal to < 3 times normal Usually normal (Both fractions may be Elevated usually >500 IU/L (N=30 to 120 1U/L) elevated) ALT>AST (N=3 to 13 KAU) Note: ALT is synonymous with SGPIQ AST is synonymous with SGOT2 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_37108 | Cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea | [
"One horn of malformed uterus",
"Endometriosis with unilateral distribution",
"Small fibroid at the utero tubal junction",
"All of the above"
] | Causes of unilateral dysmenorrhea : One horn of malformed uterus Endometriosis with unilateral distribution Small fibroid at the utero - tubal junction. Ovarian dysmenorrhea Right ovarian vein syndrome Colonic or caecal spasm. REF : gynecology book of shaw 17th | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10005 | Recurrent chalazion is predisposed to develop which of the following type of malignancy? | [
"Squamous cell carcinoma",
"Basal cell carcinoma",
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Epidermoid Carcinoma"
] | Recurrent chalazion can predispose to the development of adenocarcinoma. Chalazion is a sterile, focal, chronic inflammation of the eyelid that results from obstruction of a meibomian or Zeis gland. It is commonly associated with rosacea and posterior blepharitis. They point towards the conjunctival surface and if its large it may press on the globe and cause astigmatism. Histologic examination shows proliferation of the endothelium of the acinus and a granulomatous inflammatory response that includes Langerhans type giant cells. Treatment includes surgical excision. For small lesions intralesional steroid injection may be sufficient, and in difficult cases it can be used in combination with surgery. Ref: Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology, 18e chapter 4. Textbook of Ophthalmology By H. V. Nema, page 577. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8006 | Botulism is a disease of - | [
"Neural transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium Clostridium botulinum",
"Muscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium Clostridium botulinum",
"Neuromuscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium Clostridium botulinum",
"Non neuromuscular transmission caused by the toxin of ... | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neuromuscular transmission caused by the toxin of the bacterium Clostridium botulinumBotulinum Toxino CL botulinum produces a powerful exotoxin that is responsible for its pathogenicity.o The toxin differs from other exotoxins in that it is not released during the life of organism. It is produced intracellularly and appears in the medium only on the death and autolysis of the cell.o It is the most toxic substance known,o Toxin is heat labile, but spores are highly heat resistant.o It acts by blocking the release of acetylcholine at synapses and neuromuscular junction. It acts presynaptically.o Toxin of all types (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) are neurotoxin except C, which is a cytotoxin (enterotoxin). | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_52600 | Spongiosis is seen in : | [
"Acute eczema",
"Lichen Planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Pemphigus"
] | A i.e. Acute eczema | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_5470 | All are present in dense granules of platelets EXCEPT: | [
"ADP",
"vWF",
"Calcium",
"Serotonin"
] | Vwf REF: Ganong 22"' ed chapter 27 Platelet has (a) Dense granules: contain the non-protein substances that are secreted in response to platelet activation, including serotonin, ADP, and other adenine nucleotides (b)Alpha granules: contain secreted proteins other than the hydrolases in lysosomes. These proteins include clotting factors and platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF). (c) Platelet membranes contain receptors for collagen, ADP, vessel wall von Willebrand factor , and fibrinogen | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_43927 | DNA replication and transcription occurs in which direction: | [
"5'- 3'",
"5'- 5'",
"3'- 5'",
"3'- 3"
] | Function Direction Synthesis of DNA 5'- 3' DNA replication of both leading & lagging strand 5'- 3' Transcription 5' - 3' Template strand is read in 3' - 5' | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_27164 | A 60 year old female is suffereing from renal failure and is on hemodialysis since last 8 years. She developed carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following will be associated? | [
"AL",
"AA",
"ATTR",
"Beta 2 microglobulin"
] | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Beta2 microglobulino Patient on long-term hemodialysis for renal failure develop amyloidosis as a result of deposition of beta2 microglobulin. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19557 | Which of the following is most likely to produce a junctional scotoma | [
"Meningioma",
"Craniopharyngioma",
"Pituitary gland enlargement",
"All the above"
] | Junctional scotoma is due to lesion at junction of Optic nerve and chiasma. Which is m/c due to meningioma. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53780 | The following liver specimen shows? | [
"Postnecrotic cirrhosis",
"Dubin-Johnson syndrome",
"Miliary tuberculosis (TB)",
"Nutmeg liver"
] | Ref: Harsh Mohan, 7th ed. pg. 92* The specimen shows presence of mottled appearance of liver where dark congestion is noted. This is diagnostic of nutmeg liver.* Dubin-Johnson has a black liver texture and is therefore ruled out.* Postnecrotic cirrhosis has visible scarring on surface and is therefore ruled out* Miliary tuberculosis (TB) will show studded appearance. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34809 | A patient came with abduction limitation of right eye and horizontal diplopia. Which nerve can possibly be paralyzed | [
"2nd Nerve",
"3rd Nerve",
"4th Nerve",
"6th Nerve"
] | Lateral rectus Palsy 1. Lesion of Abducens nerve 2. Abduction limitation due to paralysis of lateral rectus 3. Convergent squint and diplopia (horizontal) on long standing palsy. 4. Patient present with turn towards the side of affected muscle Associations Millard Gubler syndrome: Ipsilateral 6th nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia Mobius Syndrome O Expressionless face O Facial palsy O 6th and 7th cranial Nerve involved O Lateral rectus paralyzed O Missing fingers & Bone abnormalities O The muscle weakness also causes problems with feeding that become apparent in early infancy. O Hypotonia O Intelligence is normal O Cleft palate O Missing and misaligned teeth | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_28353 | The following is an X-linked mucopolysaccharidoses: | [
"Hurler's syndrome",
"Hunter's syndrome",
"Scheie's syndrome",
"Sanfilippo's syndrome"
] | b. Hunter's syndrome(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 737-743, Ghai 8/e p 661)All mucopolysaccharidoses are autosomal recessive except Hunter's disease which is inherited as X-linked recessive. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44170 | Long-term tamoxifen therapy may cause: | [
"Endometrium Ca",
"Ovary Ca",
"Cervix Ca",
"Vagina Ca"
] | Long-term tamoxifen therapy is a predisposing factor for endometrial hyperplasia and cancers.
Malignancies caused by Long-term tamoxifen therapy:
Carcinoma endometrium-it is the most common carcinoma associated with it.
Uterine sarcoma.
Rarely liver cancer with a long-term high dose.
Non-malignant effects of tamoxifen on uterus:
Endometrial hyperplasia
Endometriosis
Fibroid uterus
Ovarian cysts
Menstrual irregularities or amenorrhea. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_34926 | A 67-year-old man has severe cirrhosis of the liver. He most likely has enlarged anastomoses between which of the following pairs of veins? | [
"Inferior phrenic and superior phrenic",
"Left colic and middle colic",
"Left gastric and esophageal",
"Lumbar and renal"
] | Cirrhosis of the liver would lead to inability of the portal system to accommodate blood flow. Blood backs up toward systemic circulation, draining to the inferior vena cava, with pooling at areas of portal-caval anastomoses. The left gastric vein (portal) meets the esophageal vein (caval) and enlarges or expands in instances of cirrhosis. The left colic and middle colic veins are both simply tributaries to the portal system, excluding this as the correct answer. The inferior phrenic and superior phrenic veins are both systemic veins and would not be affected by portal hypertension. The same can be said for the renal and lumbar veins, both components of the caval-systemic venous system. The sigmoidal and superior rectal veins are both components of the portal venous system and would not engorge due to the portal-caval bottleneck experienced in cirrhosis. (The anastomoses between the superior rectal veins and middle or inferior rectal veins can expand in portal hypertension as hemorrhoids.) | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53283 | A 50 year old male had fever for 1 week, abdominal distention and loss of appetite. It is not responding to antibiotics and antimalarials. Widal test is negative but RK39 dipstick test was positive. Which drug can be used? | [
"Bedaquiline",
"Linezolide",
"Fluconazole",
"Amphotericin B"
] | rk-39 dipstick test is used for diagnosis of Leishmaniasis. DOC of Kala-Azar/ Visceral leishmaniasis - Single dose of Liposomal-Amphotericin B Alternative- Sodium Stibogluconate Miltefosine (Oral) | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_6344 | All of the following are true about herd immunity, EXCEPT: | [
"It can be achieved by immunizing a population with a vaccine that interrupts transmission",
"The live virus in the vaccine can replicate in the immunized person and spread to other members of the population",
"Herd immunity can be achieved only by vaccines.",
"The vaccine must prevent transmission of the vir... | Herd immunity can be achieved by immunizing a population with a vaccine that interrupts transmission, such as the live, attenuated polio vaccine, but not with a vaccine that does not interrupt transmission, such as the killed polio vaccine (even though it protects the immunized individual against disease). In addition, the live virus in the vaccine can replicate in the immunized person and spread to other members of the population, thereby increasing the number of people protected. Herd immunity can be achieved by natural infection as well as vaccines (e.g., measles). For herd immunity to occur, the vaccine must prevent transmission of the virus as well as prevent disease. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 33. Host Defenses. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21612 | Ideal media to transport the avulsed tooth is: | [
"Socket.",
"Milk",
"Water.",
"Saline."
] | IDEAL media to transport avulsed tooth is → in SOCKET
NATURAL media → MILK (low fat) is the best media for storage of avulsed tooth. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_19180 | A 24 years old primigravida wt = 57 kg, Hb 11,0 gm% visits an antenatal clinic during 2nd trimester of pregnancy seeking advice on dietary intake. She should be advised - | [
"Additional intake of 300 K.cal",
"Additional intake of 500 K.cal",
"Additional intake of 650 K.cal",
"None"
] | Ans. is 'None' o Females have increased energy requirments during vulnerable periods such as lactation & pregnancy. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_45695 | False about alcoholic anonymous is: | [
"It is a self help group",
"It follows 12 steps to quite alcohol",
"It includes recovered patients and volunteers",
"It provides incentives for quitting alcohol"
] | No incentives are given in alcoholic anonymous Alcoholic anonymous : One of the most popular forms of alcohol addiction management and recovery suppo is Alcoholics Anonymous(AA), a spiritual12-Step program. It is a peer recovery and self-help program. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_47818 | Non Hodgkin's lymphoma ------ diffuse,large cell type-------- belongs to - | [
"Low grade",
"Intermediate grade",
"High grade",
"None of the above"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Intermediate grade | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_21824 | Which of the following is not true in relation to glycoproteins - | [
"The carbohydrate units of glycoprotein have several repeats",
"Carbohydrate content is same but proteins are different",
"Carbohydrate chain is often linear",
"All of these"
] | Glycoproteins are proteins to which oligosaccharides are covalently attached.
The oligosaccharide chains of glycoproteins lack a serial repeating unit; this is in contrast to the carbohydrate chains in proteoglycans that consists of repeating disaccharide units (amino sugar and acid sugar).
The carbohydrate unit of glycoproteins is different and the heterogeneity among glycoproteins is due to the difference in sugar component.
Carbohydrate chain is often branched in glycoproteins. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_4299 | Most common indication for liver transplant in children is - | [
"Viral hepatitis with fulminant hepatic failure",
"Biliary atresia",
"Metabolic disease",
"Hepatic tumor"
] | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Biliary atresia Pediatric liver transplantationo Biliary atresia is commonest indication for liver transplantation in pediatric age group.o Other causes are : -Progressive primary liver diseaseStable liver disease with significant morbidityMetabolic liver diseaseFulminant hepatic failure | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_2653 | Cholera patient having stool output 1000-1500 mL/day is known as: | [
"Cholera mitis",
"Cholera dumdum",
"Cholera magna",
"Cholera gravis"
] | Ans. D. Cholera gravisExplanationVibrio choleraThey are curve (comma-shaped) gram negative, bacilli that are actively motile (single polar flagellum).Classification:Based on salt requirementHalophilic vibrios: They can't grow in the absence of salt. They can tolerate salt at 7-10%. examples are V. parahaemolyticus, V. alginolyticus, V. vulnificus.Non-halophilic vibrios: They can grow without salt but 1% salt is needed. Examples are V. cholerae, V. mimicus.Heiberg classification (1934)EIGHT GROUPS based on fermentation of mannose, arabinose and sucrose. V. cholerae placed in GROUP I.Gardner and Venkatraman classification.Based on serogrouping, biotyping, serotyping and phage typing.Pathogenesis of cholera: Toxin mediatedMode of transmission: Ingestion of contaminated water and food.Infective dose: extremely acid labile, hence high infective dose is needed to bypass gastric >> barrier (108 bacilli).Factors promoting transmission: Hypochlorhydria, use of antacids.The bacilli penetrates mucous layer - Adheres to the epithelium - Cholera toxin is produced - Toxin has fragment B and fragment A - Fragment B is binding fragment, that binds to GM1Ganglioside receptors - Fragment A, causes ADP-ribosylation of G protein - Upregulates the activity of adenylate cyclase - Intracellular accumulation of camp - water moves out due to osmolality, which leads to watery diarrhea - Loss of fluids and electrolytes leads to shock.Clinical features of cholera:Asymptomatic infection (75% cases)Mild diarrhea or cholera (20% cases)Sudden onset of explosive and life threatening diarrhea (Cholera gravis, in 5% of cases).Watery diarrhea, rice water stools, vomiting, fever usually absent, muscle cramps due to electrolyte imbalance.Complications of cholera:Loss of body weight bySymptoms<5%Increased thirst5-10%*. Postural hypotension*. Weakness*. Tachycardia*. Decreased skin turgor>10%Renal failure (acute tubular necrosis) and fluid loss results in:*. Oliguria*. Weak or absent pulse*. Sunken eyes*. Sunken fontanelles in infants*. Wrinkled skin*. Somnolence*. ComaEpidemiologyHistory of pandemics:Home land is DELTA REGION of Ganges and Brahmaputra in West Bengal. And Bangladesh.First 6 pandemics caused by classical biotype of V.cholerae, had spread from Bengal to all over world.Seventh pandemic-only pandemic originated outside india(in Indonesia),caused by El Tor biotype.0139 (Bengal strain) -- first isolated in Chennai in 1992It was not agglutinated by antisera (01 to 0138), hence designated as 0139.It is capsulated, invasive causes bacteremia and extraintestinal manifestations.Cholera is a notifiable disease.National reference center for cholera is located at national institute of cholera and enteric diseases (NICED), Kolkata.Reservoir: Humans.Source: Asymptomatic cases or carriers.Carriers: (1) Incubatory carriers (1-2 days), (2) Convalescent carriers (2-3 weeks), (3) Contact or healthy carriers (<10 days), (4) Chronic carriers.Factors determining severity: People with O blood group, malnutrition, lack of preexisting immunity.Habitat: Natural habitat of coastal sea salt water and brackish estuaries, associated with crustaceans, copepods, crabs, plankton.Lab diagnosisSpecimens: Watery stool or rectal swab for carriers.Transport media: Venkataramana Ramakrishna media, Cary-Blair medium.Direct microscopy:Gram-negative rods, short curved, comma shaped (fish in stream appearance)Hanging drop demonstrates darting motility.Culture:Enrichment broth: Alkaline peptone water, Monsur's taurocholate tellurite peptone water.Selective media: Bile salt agar, Monsur's GTTT agar, TCBS agar (yellow colonies)MacConkey agar-translucent non-lactose fermenting colonies.Culture smear and motility testing to be done.Biochemical identification:Catalase and oxidase positive.ICUT: Indole (+), Citrate (+/-), Urease (-), TSI: A/A, gas (-), H2S (-)Cholera red reaction is positiveString test is positiveSalt tolerance test is positiveFerments glucose and sucrose Biotyping: To differentiate Classical and El Tor Serogrouping: To differentiate 01 and 0139.Serotyping: To differentiate Ogawa, Inaba, Hikojima serotypes of serogroup 01TreatmentFluid replacement: ORS solution, ringer's lactateAntibiotics has minor role, WHO recommends antibiotic use only in severely dehydrated cases.Adults: doxycycline or tetracycline Children/pregnancy erythromycin/azithromycin.Prevention:General measures: Safe water, improved sanitary disposal of feces, notification, health education.Chemoprophylaxis: TetracyclineVaccine:Injectable killed vaccines: No longer in useOral cholera vaccines (OCV)Killed whole-cell vaccineOral live-attenuated vaccine.Killed whole-cell vaccineOral live-attenuated vaccine1. Whole-Cell (WC) vaccine: Composed of killed whole cells of V. cholerae 01 (Classical and El Tor Inaba and Ogawa)They use mutant strains that lack gene encoding for cholera toxin.2. Whole-cell recombinant B subunit cholera vaccine (WC/RBS) (Dukoral): Same composition as above plus recombinant cholera toxin B subunits.*.CVD103-hgr, (Orochol-contains live attenuated strain derived from reference strain 569B< classical, 01, inaba > Schedule-single dose)*. Peru-15*. V. cholerae 638 for classical and/or El Tor for biotypes of V. cholerae 1.Schedule 2 oral dose, at 7 days gap*. 3 doses for 3-5 years children*. Not given for <2 years.CVD-112 and Bengal-15 vaccine trials for V. cholerae 0139 | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_51314 | Proteins seen in chromosomes are called | [
"Nucleotides",
"Histones",
"Apoproteins",
"Glycoproteins"
] | Histones are the most abundant histone proteins. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_33677 | Would closure for clean wounds within 6 hours of injury without risk of contamination | [
"Primary closure",
"Delayed primary closure",
"Secondary closure",
"Tertiary closure"
] | Primary Closure
Also known as healing by primary intention Have a small, clean defect that minimizes the risk of infection Requires new blood vessels and keratinocytes to migrate only a small distance Surgical incisions, paper cuts and small cutaneous wounds usually heal by primary closure.
Fastest type of closure by simple suturing, skin grafting or flap closure Secondary Closure Also known as healing by secondary intention Healing of a wound in which the wound edges cannot be approximated Requires a granulation tissue matrix to be built to fill the wound defect Requires more time and energy than primary wound closure Creates more scar tissue The majority of wounds close by secondary wound closure.
Delayed Primary Closure Also known as healing by tertiary intention. Combination of healing by primary and secondary intention
The wound is first cleaned and observed for a few days to ensure no infection is apparent, before it is surgically closed.
E.g. traumatic injuries such as dog bites or lacerations involving foreign bodies. | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_8541 | Sicca complex is used for: | [
"Primary Sjogren syndrome.",
"Secondary Sjogren syndrome.",
"Benign lymphoepithelial lesion.",
"All of the above."
] | null | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_742 | Which is not an 'Assisted Reproductive Technique' :- | [
"GIFT",
"ZIFT",
"IVF",
"Intra-Uterine Insemination"
] | Assisted Reproductive Technology (A) comprises of a group of procedures done for treatment of infeility that have in common the handling of male and female gametes outside the body. All these procedures involve surgical removal of eggs known as egg retrieval. Assisted Reproductive Techniques A. GIFT - Gametes Intra Fallopian Transfer. This involves egg retrieval and laparoscopic transfer of ova and sperms into each fallopian tube B. ZIFT - Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer (ZIFT). This involves transfer of day 1 feilised eggs (zygotes) into the fallopian tube C. IVF - In Vitro Feilisation. This involves egg retrieval, in vitro feilisation of oocyte and sperm followed by transfer of selected feilised oocytes transcervically into uterine cavity. D. ICSI --> Involves direct injection of sperm into mature egg followed by intra uterine transfer of feilised egg NOTE: Intrauterine Insemination (IUI) does not involve oocyte retrieval, only intrauterine insemination of washed semen is done and is hence not an assisted reproductive technique. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_44058 | After postmoem exam body has to be handed over to investigation : | [
"Investing police officer",
"Relative of victim",
"Magistrate",
"The civil authorities"
] | A i.e. Investigating officer | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10705 | All of the following hormones have receptors on the plasma membrane of target tissue except | [
"Vasopressin",
"Thyroxine",
"Growth hormone",
"NO"
] | The locations for the different types of hormone receptors are generally the following:1. In or on the surface of the cell membrane. The membrane receptors are specific mostly for the protein, peptide, and catecholamine hormones.2. In the cell cytoplasm. The primary receptors for the different steroid hormones are found mainly in the cytoplasm.3. In the cell nucleus. The receptors for the thyroid hormones are found in the nucleus and are believed to be located in direct association with one or more of the chromosomes. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15630 | Potency of inhalational anesthetic agent is measured by- | [
"Minimum alveolar concentration",
"Diffusion coefficient",
"Dead space concentration",
"Alveolar blood concentration"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Minimum alveolar concentration o Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) & Oil: gas partition cofficient (lipid solubility) - Measure of Potencyo Blood : gas partition coefficient - measure blood solubility and speed of induction & recovery.Minimal alveolar concentration (MAC)o Most important measure of potency is minimal alveolar concentration (MAC). MAC is the lowest concentration of the anaesthetic in pulmonary alveoli needed to produce immobility in response to a painful stimulus (surgical incision) in 50% individuals. Higher the MAC, less potent the anaesthetic agent.o Methoxyflurane has minimum MAC (0.16%). The most potent inhalational agent.o N2O has maximum MAC (105). The least potent inhalational agent.o Order of potency in decreasing order (MAC in increasing order):Methoxyflurane (MAC = 0.16 %) > Trilene (MAC = 0.2%) > Halothane (MAC = 0.74%) > Chloroform (MAC = 0.8 %)> Isoflurane (MAC = 1.15 %) > Enflurane (MAC = 1.68%) > Ether (MAC = 1.92 %) > Sevoflurane (MAC = 2.0 %) > Desflurane (MAC = 6.0%) > Cyclopropane (MAC = 9.2%) > N2O (MAC 104%). | A | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_49646 | 67-year-old woman, sona has a 3 month history of increasing right shoulder pain. She is now unable to lift her arm to brush her hair or to take vessels off a shelf in the kitchen. She denies any numbness or tingling or radiation of the pain down her arm. On physical examination, she exhibits weakness in abduction and external rotation on her right arm. Her shoulder shows a normal passive range of motion. When asked to hold her arms abducted to 90 degrees, she is unable to do so on the right. There is no motor weakness in her forearm or hand. Her right upper extremity has normal pulse and normal sensation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Brachial plexus injury",
"Glenohumeral osteoahritis",
"Proximal humerus fracture",
"Rotator cuff tear"
] | The above history describes a rotator cuff tear. Patients classically have difficulty doing overhead activities. On physical examination, she has weakness with abduction and external rotation of her shoulder. The supraspinatus is responsible for abduction and the infraspinatus is responsible for external rotation of the shoulder. These muscles, along with the teres minor and subscapularis, make up the rotator cuff. Brachial plexus injuries commonly present with some type of numbness or tingling in the upper extremity. Glenohumeral ahritis is unlikely because she has a full passive range of motion, and shoulder ahritis is commonly associated with a decreased range of motion. Also this history is relatively sho term. Proximal humerus fracture and shoulder dislocation are unlikely because this process has been present for 3 months. These injuries need more acute treatment. Also she has a full passive range of motion, which is not common with fractures or dislocations. | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_50506 | Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by: | [
"FISH",
"FRAP",
"Confocal microscopy",
"DNA microscopy"
] | Ans. B. FRAPFRA Pisa technique used to study Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane, movement of proteins etc.FRAP is fluorescence recovery after photobleachingThe techniqueFlourescent dyes emit coloured light when it is illuminated, but if a very high intensity light is used then the sedyes are unable to fluorescence. Otherwise called photo bleached. Later it recover fluorescenceThis recovery after photobleaching is used to study movement of proteins lipids carbohydrates, etc. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_15625 | Which of the following is best type of inquest at the international level ? | [
"Coroner's inquest",
"Police inquest",
"Medical examiner's inquest",
"Magistrates inquest"
] | Medical examiner's system type of inquest is the best type of inquest.
In this system, the medical expert carries out the inquiry into the death.
He visits the scene of the crime and examines the dead body.
He then conducts a postmortem examination on the dead body.
Thus, he is in a better situation to correlate the findings of postmortem examination with the scene of the crime and thus give a better opinion into the cause of death.
This system is not practised in India and is held in the United States, Japan, and some other European countries. | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_26495 | Kaloo, 40 year old adult man on medication for psychiatric illness for the last 2 weeks, suddenly develops marked rigidity, immobility, fever, fluetuating BP and hea rate. Most likely diagnosis ? | [
"Akathisia",
"Parkinsonism",
"Malignant neuroleptic syndrome",
"Catatonic schizophrenia"
] | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neuroleptic malignant syndrome | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_31827 | Trauma and Injury Severity score (TRISS) includes | [
"GCS + BP+RR",
"S+ISS+Age",
"S+ISS+GCS",
"S+GCS+BP"
] | TRISS methadology is impoant because it attempts to combine the Revised trauma score (S),physiologic component of injuryand the Injury severity score (ISS), anatomic component of injury. It also incorporates patient&;s age. Reference: Greenfield&;s Surgery - Scientific Principles & Practices, 5th edition, Page no :390-391. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_42228 | Which of the following conditions cannot be detected by bone scintigraphy? | [
"Avascular necrosis",
"Fractures",
"Osteomyelitis",
"None"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_53021 | Which one of the following is the most common location of hypeensive intracranial hemorrhage occurring in the brain? | [
"Pons",
"Medulla oblongata",
"Putamen/external capsule",
"Cerebral coex"
] | Hypeensive intraparenchymal hemorrhage usually results from spontaneous rupture of a small penetrating aery deep in the brain. The most common sites are the basal ganglia (especially the putamen), thalamus, cerebellum, and pons. The two most common sites of hypeensive hemorrhage are the putamen and the thalamus, which are separated by the posterior limb of the internal capsule. Most hypeensive intraparenchymal hemorrhages develop over 30-90 minutes, whereas those associated with anticoagulant therapy evolve in 24-48 hours. Within 48 hours macrophages begins to phagocytize the hemorrhage and after 1-6 months, the hemorrhage resolves into a slit like orange cavity lined with glial scar and hemosiderin-laden macrophages. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 370 | C | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_24422 | A child has a 2-week history of spiking fevers, which have been as high as 40degC (104degF). She has spindle-shaped swelling of finger joints and complains of upper sternal pain. When she has fever, the parents note a faint salmon-colored rash that resolves with the resolution of the fever. She has had no conjunctivitis or mucositis, but her heart sounds are muffled and she has increased pulsus paradoxus. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Rheumatic fever",
"Juvenile idiopathic arthritis",
"Toxic synovitis",
"Septic arthritis"
] | Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA, formerly known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis) frequently causes spindle-shaped swelling of finger joints and can involve unusual joints such as the sternoclavicular joint. Presentation of JIA occurs as either polyarthritis (five or more joints, systemic symptoms not so severe or persistent), pauciarticular (four or fewer joints, lower-extremity joints, extra-articular disease unusual), or systemic disease (severe constitutional disease, systemic symptoms prior to arthritis, rheumatoid rash, high spiking fevers, variable joint involvement, also known as Still's disease). This disorder can be associated with spiking high fevers and diffuse rash, which are not a feature of rheumatic fever, toxic synovitis, or osteoarthritis. Although septic arthritis can affect any joint, it would not be likely to affect finger joints by causing spindle-shaped swellings. Toxic synovitis usually involves larger joints, such as the hip, and osteoarthritis is not a disease of childhood. | B | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_1494 | Non-specific esterase is present in - | [
"Megakaryocytic leukaemia",
"Lymphocytic leukaemia",
"Erythroleukemia",
"AML"
] | null | D | null |
medmcqa | medmcqa_10557 | Lucid interval is seen in ? | [
"Extradural hemorrhage",
"Subdural hemorrhage",
"Intracranial hemorrhage",
"Ans. is 'a' i.e., Extradural hemorrhage"
] | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Extradural hemorrhage | A | null |
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