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With reference to Cartosat-2, consider the following statements: It is a communication satellite. It is placed in Geosynchronous orbit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Cartosat-2 is an earth observing satelite placed in a sun synchronus orbit. Hence both statements are wrong.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Cartosat-2, consider the following statements: It is a communication satellite. It is placed in Geosynchronous orbit. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Cartosat-2 is an earth observing satelite placed in a sun synchronus orbit. Hence both statements are wrong.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental Duties? They can be used by the courts to determine the constitutionality of a law. They can be enforced by the Parliament through legislation. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Supreme Court in 1992 stated that Fundamental duties can be used in determining the constitutionality of any law. Statement 2 is correct. Parliament is free to enforce Fundamental duties through suitable legislation. Many legislations like the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 make insult to national symbols a punishable act.
|
c
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the Fundamental Duties? They can be used by the courts to determine the constitutionality of a law. They can be enforced by the Parliament through legislation. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Supreme Court in 1992 stated that Fundamental duties can be used in determining the constitutionality of any law. Statement 2 is correct. Parliament is free to enforce Fundamental duties through suitable legislation. Many legislations like the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971 make insult to national symbols a punishable act.##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider an economic situation where there is a need to attain fiscal consolidation while ensuring sufficient public investment funds, in the face of low tax to GDP ratio. The best course of action to follow in the given situation is:
|
Incentivizing exports by decreasing customs duty.
|
Improving the quality of expenditure.
|
Reducing the Non-Performing Assets.
|
Incentivizing exports by decreasing customs duty.
|
According to the Economic Survey 2016-17, it is a challenge to attain fiscal consolidation while ensuring that sufficient funds are allocated for public investment, in the face of low tax to GDP ratio. Therefore, improving the quality of expenditure becomes central to achieving sustained fiscal consolidation. It also includes better targeting of subsidies which would mean ensuring sufficient public investment funds without compromising fiscal consolidation. Option (a) - decreasing customs duty will not help in fiscal consolidation. Option (c) - reducing NPAs though important for economy is not directly related to fiscal consolidation. It is more related to corporate activity and economic environment. Option (d) - Here again rationalizing Public Private Partnerships is more related to balancing risks and is not directly to fiscal consolidation.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider an economic situation where there is a need to attain fiscal consolidation while ensuring sufficient public investment funds, in the face of low tax to GDP ratio. The best course of action to follow in the given situation is:##Option_A: Incentivizing exports by decreasing customs duty.###Option_B: Improving the quality of expenditure.##Option_C: Reducing the Non-Performing Assets.##Option_D: Incentivizing exports by decreasing customs duty.##Answer:b##Explaination:According to the Economic Survey 2016-17, it is a challenge to attain fiscal consolidation while ensuring that sufficient funds are allocated for public investment, in the face of low tax to GDP ratio. Therefore, improving the quality of expenditure becomes central to achieving sustained fiscal consolidation. It also includes better targeting of subsidies which would mean ensuring sufficient public investment funds without compromising fiscal consolidation. Option (a) - decreasing customs duty will not help in fiscal consolidation. Option (c) - reducing NPAs though important for economy is not directly related to fiscal consolidation. It is more related to corporate activity and economic environment. Option (d) - Here again rationalizing Public Private Partnerships is more related to balancing risks and is not directly to fiscal consolidation.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following Constitutional bodies is/are vested with quasi-judicial powers? Election Commission National Commission for SC Finance Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Constitutional bodies are the institutions which are specifically mentioned in the constitution with functions and powers. Election commission is a quasi-judicial body as it has powers to act as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition of political parties and allotment of election symbols to them. National Commission for SCs also is quasi-judicial in nature as it has powers of a civil court in cases related to investigation of matters pertaining to complaints of deprivation of rights of SCs. Finance commission is a quasi-judicial body. It has all the powers of the Civil Court as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It can call any witness, or can ask for the production of any public record or document from any court or office. It can ask any person to give information or document on matters as it may feel to be useful or relevant. It can function as a civil court in discharging its duties.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Constitutional bodies is/are vested with quasi-judicial powers? Election Commission National Commission for SC Finance Commission Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Constitutional bodies are the institutions which are specifically mentioned in the constitution with functions and powers. Election commission is a quasi-judicial body as it has powers to act as a court for settling disputes related to granting of recognition of political parties and allotment of election symbols to them. National Commission for SCs also is quasi-judicial in nature as it has powers of a civil court in cases related to investigation of matters pertaining to complaints of deprivation of rights of SCs. Finance commission is a quasi-judicial body. It has all the powers of the Civil Court as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. It can call any witness, or can ask for the production of any public record or document from any court or office. It can ask any person to give information or document on matters as it may feel to be useful or relevant. It can function as a civil court in discharging its duties.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following provisions can be amended by Special Majority of both the house of Parliament only? Fundamental Rights Directive Principles of State Policy Conferment of more jurisdiction on the supreme court Power of Parliament to amend the constitution Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Options 1 and 2 are required to be amended by special majority of parliament only. Options 3 and 5 are required to be amended by simple majority of parliament and these amendments are outside the scope of Article 368. Option 4 is required to be amended by a special majority of parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by simple majority.
|
a
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions can be amended by Special Majority of both the house of Parliament only? Fundamental Rights Directive Principles of State Policy Conferment of more jurisdiction on the supreme court Power of Parliament to amend the constitution Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Options 1 and 2 are required to be amended by special majority of parliament only. Options 3 and 5 are required to be amended by simple majority of parliament and these amendments are outside the scope of Article 368. Option 4 is required to be amended by a special majority of parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by simple majority.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with reference to amendment of the constitution: Formation of new states requires amendment in constitution under article 368. Special majority required for amendment is the majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of 2/3rd of the members present and voting. Amendment of the provisions related to federal features of the constitution requires special majority and consent of the half of the states" legislatures. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. Formation of new state requires amendment in constitution under article 3 by simple majority and it is not considered as amendment under the article 368. Both Statement 2 and 3 are correct. Special majority under article 368 required for amendment by parliament is the majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of two-thirds of the members present and voting. Amendment of the provisions related to federal features of the constitution requires consent of the half of the states along with the special majority.
|
c
|
Amendment of Constitution
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to amendment of the constitution: Formation of new states requires amendment in constitution under article 368. Special majority required for amendment is the majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of 2/3rd of the members present and voting. Amendment of the provisions related to federal features of the constitution requires special majority and consent of the half of the states" legislatures. Which of the statement given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. Formation of new state requires amendment in constitution under article 3 by simple majority and it is not considered as amendment under the article 368. Both Statement 2 and 3 are correct. Special majority under article 368 required for amendment by parliament is the majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of two-thirds of the members present and voting. Amendment of the provisions related to federal features of the constitution requires consent of the half of the states along with the special majority.##Topic:Amendment of Constitution ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following countries specifically contain a list of fundamental duties in their respective constitutions? Japan India USA France USSR Australia Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 5 only
|
4 and 6 only
|
2, 3 and 5 only
|
Japan India and USSR have incorporated a list of duties in its constitution.
|
b
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following countries specifically contain a list of fundamental duties in their respective constitutions? Japan India USA France USSR Australia Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 2, 3 and 5 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 5 only##Option_C: 4 and 6 only##Option_D: 2, 3 and 5 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Japan India and USSR have incorporated a list of duties in its constitution. ##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Swaran Singh committee recommendations, consider the following statements : Duty to pay taxes shall not be fundamental duty. Punishment to pay for the violation of fundamental duties. The law imposing penalty for non-compliance of any of the duties shall be questioned in the court on the ground of infringement of any of Fundamental rights. Which of the above is/are not recommended by the Swaran Singh committee?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Fundamental duties were added on the recommendation of Swaran Singh committee. The committee suggested that duty to pay taxes to be included in the fundamental duties. Hence, statement 1 is not recommended by the committee. The committee also recommended that the legislatures should prescribe law for imposing penalty for violation of the duties. Statement 2 is recommended by the committee. But paying taxes and penalty for violation duties are not incorporated in the constitution. Statement 3 is also not recommended by the committee because as per the recommendation the law made by legislatures to impose penalty shall not be questioned in the court on the ground of infringement of any of fundamental rights. So the correct code is a.
|
a
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Swaran Singh committee recommendations, consider the following statements : Duty to pay taxes shall not be fundamental duty. Punishment to pay for the violation of fundamental duties. The law imposing penalty for non-compliance of any of the duties shall be questioned in the court on the ground of infringement of any of Fundamental rights. Which of the above is/are not recommended by the Swaran Singh committee?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Fundamental duties were added on the recommendation of Swaran Singh committee. The committee suggested that duty to pay taxes to be included in the fundamental duties. Hence, statement 1 is not recommended by the committee. The committee also recommended that the legislatures should prescribe law for imposing penalty for violation of the duties. Statement 2 is recommended by the committee. But paying taxes and penalty for violation duties are not incorporated in the constitution. Statement 3 is also not recommended by the committee because as per the recommendation the law made by legislatures to impose penalty shall not be questioned in the court on the ground of infringement of any of fundamental rights. So the correct code is a.##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with regard to Fundamental Duties: The framers of the Indian constitution incorporated Fundamental duties with a purpose to create a feeling of nationalism among the citizens. The parliament by passing a bill with simple majority can change the provisions in Fundamental duties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. The original constitution did not have fundamental duties. These duties are incorporated in 1976 after the 42 nd amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect. Any changes in the Fundamental duties require amendment of the constitution. The 86 th amendment act, 2002 added the 11 th fundamental duty.
|
d
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to Fundamental Duties: The framers of the Indian constitution incorporated Fundamental duties with a purpose to create a feeling of nationalism among the citizens. The parliament by passing a bill with simple majority can change the provisions in Fundamental duties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. The original constitution did not have fundamental duties. These duties are incorporated in 1976 after the 42 nd amendment. Statement 2 is incorrect. Any changes in the Fundamental duties require amendment of the constitution. The 86 th amendment act, 2002 added the 11 th fundamental duty. ##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is/are the Fundamental Duties under part IVA of the Constitution of India? To develop scientific temper and humanism To encourage the participation of workers in the management of industries To pay taxes To cast vote Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2, 3, and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Option1 is one of the fundamental duties mentioned in Part IV-A of the Indian constitution. Option 2 is a part of Directive Principles of State Policy. Swaran Singh Committee recommended duty to pay taxes should be included in the fundamental duties but it was not accepted. Hence, option 3 is not a fundamental duty. Casting vote is also not included in the fundamental duties so option 4 is also not correct. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
|
a
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the Fundamental Duties under part IVA of the Constitution of India? To develop scientific temper and humanism To encourage the participation of workers in the management of industries To pay taxes To cast vote Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2, 3, and 4 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Option1 is one of the fundamental duties mentioned in Part IV-A of the Indian constitution. Option 2 is a part of Directive Principles of State Policy. Swaran Singh Committee recommended duty to pay taxes should be included in the fundamental duties but it was not accepted. Hence, option 3 is not a fundamental duty. Casting vote is also not included in the fundamental duties so option 4 is also not correct. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with reference to Fundamental Duties: Central Government followed all the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee to enact fundamental duties. Fundamental duties are enforceable and the constitution has provisions for the penal actions. Fundamental duties are non-justiciable. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Fundamental duties were added to the constitution on the basis of the recommendations of the Swaran Singh committee. But the committee recommended many other things which were not added like penalty for violations, paying taxes etc. Hence, statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is also wrong as though fundamental duties are enforceable but the constitution does not impose penal action for their violations. The legislatures have the power to enforce them. Statement 3 is correct. Unlike Fundamental rights which are justiciable, Fundamental duties are non-justiciable.
|
c
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to Fundamental Duties: Central Government followed all the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee to enact fundamental duties. Fundamental duties are enforceable and the constitution has provisions for the penal actions. Fundamental duties are non-justiciable. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Fundamental duties were added to the constitution on the basis of the recommendations of the Swaran Singh committee. But the committee recommended many other things which were not added like penalty for violations, paying taxes etc. Hence, statement 1 is wrong. Statement 2 is also wrong as though fundamental duties are enforceable but the constitution does not impose penal action for their violations. The legislatures have the power to enforce them. Statement 3 is correct. Unlike Fundamental rights which are justiciable, Fundamental duties are non-justiciable.##Topic:Fundamental Duties##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement, regarding Lok Sabha: Lok Sabha has a normal term of 5 years, after which it automatically dissolves. Dissolution of Lok Sabha by the president is subject to judicial review. During National emergency the term of Lok Sabha can be extended for one year at a time for any number of times. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Lok Sabha has normal term of five years after which it dissolves automatically. Statement 2 is incorrect: The decision to dissolve Lok sabha by the president cannot be challenged in a court of law. Statement 3 is correct: During National emergency the term of Lok Sabha can be extended for one year at a time for any length of time.However the extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statement, regarding Lok Sabha: Lok Sabha has a normal term of 5 years, after which it automatically dissolves. Dissolution of Lok Sabha by the president is subject to judicial review. During National emergency the term of Lok Sabha can be extended for one year at a time for any number of times. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Lok Sabha has normal term of five years after which it dissolves automatically. Statement 2 is incorrect: The decision to dissolve Lok sabha by the president cannot be challenged in a court of law. Statement 3 is correct: During National emergency the term of Lok Sabha can be extended for one year at a time for any length of time.However the extension cannot continue beyond a period of six months after the emergency has ceased to operate.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Electronic Voting Machine (EVMs) can cater to a maximum of 16 candidates.
2. In case number of candidates exceeds maximum capacity of EVMs, conventional method of voting by means of ballot box and ballot paper is adopted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Explanation EVMs can cater to a maximum of 64 candidates. There is provision for 16 candidates in a Balloting Unit. If the total number of candidates exceeds 16, a second Balloting Unit can be linked parallel to the first Balloting Unit. Similarly, if the total number of candidates exceeds 32, a third Balloting Unit can be attached and if the total number of candidates exceeds 48, a fourth Balloting Unit can be attached to cater to a maximum of 64 candidates. In case the number of contesting candidates goes beyond 64 in any constituency, EVMs cannot be used in such a constituency. The conventional method of voting by means of ballot box and ballot paper will have to be adopted in such a constituency.
|
b
|
Problems and processes
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. Electronic Voting Machine (EVMs) can cater to a maximum of 16 candidates.
2. In case number of candidates exceeds maximum capacity of EVMs, conventional method of voting by means of ballot box and ballot paper is adopted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Explanation EVMs can cater to a maximum of 64 candidates. There is provision for 16 candidates in a Balloting Unit. If the total number of candidates exceeds 16, a second Balloting Unit can be linked parallel to the first Balloting Unit. Similarly, if the total number of candidates exceeds 32, a third Balloting Unit can be attached and if the total number of candidates exceeds 48, a fourth Balloting Unit can be attached to cater to a maximum of 64 candidates. In case the number of contesting candidates goes beyond 64 in any constituency, EVMs cannot be used in such a constituency. The conventional method of voting by means of ballot box and ballot paper will have to be adopted in such a constituency.
##Topic:Problems and processes##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are the features of the Parliamentary System? 1. Executive is independent of the legislature in respect of its term of office. 2. Water tight separation of powers. 3. Principle of Collective responsibility 4. Concept of Nominal and Real Executives Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect about the Presidential form of government and not Parliamentary as Council of Ministers tenure overlaps with that of Parliament. Statement 2 is also incorrect as in Parliamentary form of government executive and legislature overlap with Minister being head of executive departments and also responsible for legislation. Statement 3 is correct and is the fundamental tenet of Parliamentary form of government (Article 74 of Indian Constitution) Statement 4 is also correct as President is the Nominal Executive and Prime Minister is the real executive in Parliamentary form of Government
|
d
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the features of the Parliamentary System? 1. Executive is independent of the legislature in respect of its term of office. 2. Water tight separation of powers. 3. Principle of Collective responsibility 4. Concept of Nominal and Real Executives Select the correct answer using the codes given below. ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 2 and 4 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect about the Presidential form of government and not Parliamentary as Council of Ministers tenure overlaps with that of Parliament. Statement 2 is also incorrect as in Parliamentary form of government executive and legislature overlap with Minister being head of executive departments and also responsible for legislation. Statement 3 is correct and is the fundamental tenet of Parliamentary form of government (Article 74 of Indian Constitution) Statement 4 is also correct as President is the Nominal Executive and Prime Minister is the real executive in Parliamentary form of Government##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following differentiates Indian Parliamentary model from that of Westminster Model? 1. Prime Minster can be from either house of the Parliament 2. Non supremacy of the Parliament 3. No legal responsibility of the ministers Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
All of the above statements are the differences between Indian Parliamentary model from that of Westminster Model. Statement 1: In Britain Prime Minister is from the lower house (House of Commons) while in India it can be from either house. (For example ex-PM Manmohan Singh was from Rajya Sabha). Statement 2: Because of written constitution and judicial review Parliament supremacy does not exist in India while in Britain Parliament is a supreme body. Statement 3: In Britain Ministers are legally responsible but not in India. Here Ministers do not countersign on official acts of the head of the state.
|
a
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following differentiates Indian Parliamentary model from that of Westminster Model? 1. Prime Minster can be from either house of the Parliament 2. Non supremacy of the Parliament 3. No legal responsibility of the ministers Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 ##Answer:a##Explaination:All of the above statements are the differences between Indian Parliamentary model from that of Westminster Model. Statement 1: In Britain Prime Minister is from the lower house (House of Commons) while in India it can be from either house. (For example ex-PM Manmohan Singh was from Rajya Sabha). Statement 2: Because of written constitution and judicial review Parliament supremacy does not exist in India while in Britain Parliament is a supreme body. Statement 3: In Britain Ministers are legally responsible but not in India. Here Ministers do not countersign on official acts of the head of the state.##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are important reasons for adopting Parliamentary System in India?
1. Nature of the Indian society
2. Preference for more responsibility compared to more stability
3. Familiarity with the system
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Reasons for Adopting Parliamentary System:
1. Familiarity with the System: The Constitution-makers were somewhat familiar with the parliamentary system as it had been in operation in India during the British rule.
2. Preference to More Responsibility: Dr B R Ambedkar pointed out in the Constituent Assembly that ‘a democratic executive must satisfy two conditions: stability and responsibility.
3. Need to Avoid Legislative—Executive Conflicts: The framers of the Constitution wanted to avoid the conflicts between the legislature and the executive which are bound to occur in the presidential system prevalent in USA. They thought that an infant democracy could not afford to take the risk of a perpetual cleavage, feud or conflict or threatened conflict between these two organs of the government. They wanted a form of government that would be conductive to the manifold development of the country.
4. Nature of Indian Society: India is one of the most heterogeneous States and most complex plural societies in the world. Hence, the Constitution-makers adopted the parliamentary system as it offers greater scope for giving representation to various section, interests and regions in the government. This promotes a national spirit among the people and builds a united India.
|
d
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are important reasons for adopting Parliamentary System in India?
1. Nature of the Indian society
2. Preference for more responsibility compared to more stability
3. Familiarity with the system
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Reasons for Adopting Parliamentary System:
1. Familiarity with the System: The Constitution-makers were somewhat familiar with the parliamentary system as it had been in operation in India during the British rule.
2. Preference to More Responsibility: Dr B R Ambedkar pointed out in the Constituent Assembly that ‘a democratic executive must satisfy two conditions: stability and responsibility.
3. Need to Avoid Legislative—Executive Conflicts: The framers of the Constitution wanted to avoid the conflicts between the legislature and the executive which are bound to occur in the presidential system prevalent in USA. They thought that an infant democracy could not afford to take the risk of a perpetual cleavage, feud or conflict or threatened conflict between these two organs of the government. They wanted a form of government that would be conductive to the manifold development of the country.
4. Nature of Indian Society: India is one of the most heterogeneous States and most complex plural societies in the world. Hence, the Constitution-makers adopted the parliamentary system as it offers greater scope for giving representation to various section, interests and regions in the government. This promotes a national spirit among the people and builds a united India.
##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following are the merits of the Parliamentary form of Government? Separation of powers Responsible government Harmony Between Legislature and Executive Wide representation to all sections of society. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
The parliamentary system of government has the following merits: Harmony Between Legislature and Executive: The executive is a part of the legislature and both are interdependent at work. As a result, there is less scope for disputes and conflicts between the two organs. Responsible Government: By its very nature, the parliamentary system establishes a responsible government. The ministers are responsible to the Parliament for all their acts of omission and commission. Prevents Despotism: Under this system, the executive authority is vested in a group of individuals (council of ministers) and not in a single person. Ready Alternative Government: In case the ruling party loses its majority, the Head of the State can invite the opposition party to form the government. This means an alternative government can be formed without fresh elections. Wide Representation: In a parliamentary system, the executive consists of a group of individuals (i.e., ministers who are representatives of the people). Hence, it is possible to provide representation to all sections and regions in the government. In spite of the above merits, the parliamentary system suffers from the following demerits: Unstable Government: The parliamentary system does not provide a stable government. There is no guarantee that a government can survive its tenure. The ministers depend on the mercy of the majority legislators for their continuity and survival in office. No Continuity of Policies: The parliamentary system is not conductive for the formulation and implementation of long-term policies. This is due to the uncertainty of the tenure of the government. Dictatorship of the Cabinet: When the ruling party enjoys absolute majority in the Parliament, the cabinet becomes autocratic and exercises nearly unlimited powers. Against Separation of Powers: In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable. The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive. Government by Amateurs: The parliamentary system is not conductive to administrative efficiency as the ministers are not experts in their fields. The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of ministers; his choice is restricted to the members of Parliament alone and does not extend to external talent.
|
c
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the merits of the Parliamentary form of Government? Separation of powers Responsible government Harmony Between Legislature and Executive Wide representation to all sections of society. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B:3 and 4 only##Option_C:2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The parliamentary system of government has the following merits: Harmony Between Legislature and Executive: The executive is a part of the legislature and both are interdependent at work. As a result, there is less scope for disputes and conflicts between the two organs. Responsible Government: By its very nature, the parliamentary system establishes a responsible government. The ministers are responsible to the Parliament for all their acts of omission and commission. Prevents Despotism: Under this system, the executive authority is vested in a group of individuals (council of ministers) and not in a single person. Ready Alternative Government: In case the ruling party loses its majority, the Head of the State can invite the opposition party to form the government. This means an alternative government can be formed without fresh elections. Wide Representation: In a parliamentary system, the executive consists of a group of individuals (i.e., ministers who are representatives of the people). Hence, it is possible to provide representation to all sections and regions in the government. In spite of the above merits, the parliamentary system suffers from the following demerits: Unstable Government: The parliamentary system does not provide a stable government. There is no guarantee that a government can survive its tenure. The ministers depend on the mercy of the majority legislators for their continuity and survival in office. No Continuity of Policies: The parliamentary system is not conductive for the formulation and implementation of long-term policies. This is due to the uncertainty of the tenure of the government. Dictatorship of the Cabinet: When the ruling party enjoys absolute majority in the Parliament, the cabinet becomes autocratic and exercises nearly unlimited powers. Against Separation of Powers: In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable. The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive. Government by Amateurs: The parliamentary system is not conductive to administrative efficiency as the ministers are not experts in their fields. The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of ministers; his choice is restricted to the members of Parliament alone and does not extend to external talent.##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Why the Parliamentary system is often called Government by Amateurs?
1. Administrative efficiency is hampered as Ministers are not experts in their fields
2. Prime Minister has limited choice in selection of Ministers
3. Ministers devote most of their time to Parliamentary work and party activities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Straight forward (see the reference)
|
a
|
Parliamentary & Presidential
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Why the Parliamentary system is often called Government by Amateurs?
1. Administrative efficiency is hampered as Ministers are not experts in their fields
2. Prime Minister has limited choice in selection of Ministers
3. Ministers devote most of their time to Parliamentary work and party activities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Straight forward (see the reference)
##Topic:Parliamentary & Presidential##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is necessarily a feature of a federal government?
|
nbsp; Supremacy of the Constitution
|
nbsp; Bicameral Legislature
|
nbsp; Dual Government
|
nbsp; Supremacy of the Constitution
|
Compare it with some known constitution to know the answer
See the reference (table in Laxmikant on the first page of the chapter)
Dual Government is the only necessary feature while other options may or may not exist. For eg Britain has bicameral legislature but is still unitary in nature
|
c
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is necessarily a feature of a federal government?
##Option_A:nbsp; Supremacy of the Constitution
###Option_B:nbsp; Bicameral Legislature
##Option_C:nbsp; Dual Government
##Option_D:nbsp; Supremacy of the Constitution
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Compare it with some known constitution to know the answer
See the reference (table in Laxmikant on the first page of the chapter)
Dual Government is the only necessary feature while other options may or may not exist. For eg Britain has bicameral legislature but is still unitary in nature
##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following represents federal features of the Indian Constitution? Written Constitution Integrated Judiciary Indestructible states of Union Existence of union and state governments Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
The federal features of the Constitution of India are: 1. Dual Polity: The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting the Union at the Centre and the states at the periphery. Each is endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution. 2. Written Constitution: It specifies the structure, orga-nisation, powers and functions of both the Central and state governments and prescribes the limits within which they must operate. 3. Division of Powers: The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule. 4. Supremacy of the Constitution: The Constitution is the supreme (or the highest) law of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must confirm to its provisions. Thus, the organs of the government (legislative, executive and judicial) at both the levels must operate within the jurisdiction prescribed by the Constitution. 5. Independent Judiciary: The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court for two purposes: one, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states. 6. Bicameralism: The Rajya Sabha (even though a less powerful chamber) is required to maintain the federal equilibrium by protecting the interests of the states against the undue interference of the Centre. Integrated Judiciary is a unitary feature of the Constitution of India. States in India are not indestructible. Unlike in other federations, the states in India have no right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries or name of any state. Moreover, it requires only a simple majority and not a special majority.
|
d
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following represents federal features of the Indian Constitution? Written Constitution Integrated Judiciary Indestructible states of Union Existence of union and state governments Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The federal features of the Constitution of India are: 1. Dual Polity: The Constitution establishes a dual polity consisting the Union at the Centre and the states at the periphery. Each is endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution. 2. Written Constitution: It specifies the structure, orga-nisation, powers and functions of both the Central and state governments and prescribes the limits within which they must operate. 3. Division of Powers: The Constitution divided the powers between the Centre and the states in terms of the Union List, State List and Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule. 4. Supremacy of the Constitution: The Constitution is the supreme (or the highest) law of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must confirm to its provisions. Thus, the organs of the government (legislative, executive and judicial) at both the levels must operate within the jurisdiction prescribed by the Constitution. 5. Independent Judiciary: The Constitution establishes an independent judiciary headed by the Supreme Court for two purposes: one, to protect the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising the power of judicial review; and two, to settle the disputes between the Centre and the states or between the states. 6. Bicameralism: The Rajya Sabha (even though a less powerful chamber) is required to maintain the federal equilibrium by protecting the interests of the states against the undue interference of the Centre. Integrated Judiciary is a unitary feature of the Constitution of India. States in India are not indestructible. Unlike in other federations, the states in India have no right to territorial integrity. The Parliament can by unilateral action change the area, boundaries or name of any state. Moreover, it requires only a simple majority and not a special majority. ##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. There is single citizenship in India. 2. President enjoys absolute veto over state bills. 3. The Union can change the name, area and boundary of a state without its content. 4. Constitution is the supreme law of the land. Which of the above, if absent, would make the Indian constitution more federal in nature?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are the unitary features of Indian constitution and hence removing them would make Indian constitution more federal. Supremacy of the constitution is a federal feature. The Constitution is the supreme (or the highest) law of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must confirm to its provisions. Thus, the organs of the government (legislative, executive and judicial) at both the levels must operate within the jurisdiction prescribed by the Constitution.
|
c
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. There is single citizenship in India. 2. President enjoys absolute veto over state bills. 3. The Union can change the name, area and boundary of a state without its content. 4. Constitution is the supreme law of the land. Which of the above, if absent, would make the Indian constitution more federal in nature?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statements 1, 2 and 3 are the unitary features of Indian constitution and hence removing them would make Indian constitution more federal. Supremacy of the constitution is a federal feature. The Constitution is the supreme (or the highest) law of the land. The laws enacted by the Centre and the states must confirm to its provisions. Thus, the organs of the government (legislative, executive and judicial) at both the levels must operate within the jurisdiction prescribed by the Constitution.##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following are examples of unitary features in Indian Constitution?
1. Appointment of Governor by the Union Government
2. Integrated audit and election machinery
3. Inequality of state representation in Rajya Sabha
4. All India services
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
Appointment of Governor by the Union Government, Integrated audit and election machinery, inequality of state representation in Rajya Sabha and existence of All India services are the unitary features of the constituion.
Appointment of Governor: The governor, who is the head of the state, is appointed by the President. He holds office during the pleasure of the President. He also acts as an agent of the Centre. Through him, the Centre exercises
control over the states. The American Constitution, on the contrary, provided for an elected head in the states. In this respect, India adopted the Canadian system.
Integrated Audit Machinery: The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India audits the accounts of not only the Central government but also those of the states. But, his appointment and removal is done by the president without consulting the states. Hence, this office restricts the financial autonomy of the states.
Integrated Election Machinery The Election Commission conducts elections not only to the Central legislature but also to the state legislatures. But, this body is constituted by the President and the states have no say in this matter. The position is same with regard to the removal of its members as well.
All-India Services: In US, the Federal government and the state governments have their separate public services. In India also, the Centre and the states have their separate public services. But, in addition, there are all-India services (IAS, IPS, and IFS) which are common to both the Centre and the states. The members of these services are recruited and trained by the Centre which also possess ultimate control over them. Thus, these services violate the principle of federalism under the Constitution.
No Equality of State Representation: The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31. In US, on the other hand, the principle of equality of representation of states in the Upper House is fully recognised. Thus, the American Senate has 100 members, two from each state. This principle is regarded as a safeguard for smaller states.
|
d
|
Unitary & Federal
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following are examples of unitary features in Indian Constitution?
1. Appointment of Governor by the Union Government
2. Integrated audit and election machinery
3. Inequality of state representation in Rajya Sabha
4. All India services
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Appointment of Governor by the Union Government, Integrated audit and election machinery, inequality of state representation in Rajya Sabha and existence of All India services are the unitary features of the constituion.
Appointment of Governor: The governor, who is the head of the state, is appointed by the President. He holds office during the pleasure of the President. He also acts as an agent of the Centre. Through him, the Centre exercises
control over the states. The American Constitution, on the contrary, provided for an elected head in the states. In this respect, India adopted the Canadian system.
Integrated Audit Machinery: The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India audits the accounts of not only the Central government but also those of the states. But, his appointment and removal is done by the president without consulting the states. Hence, this office restricts the financial autonomy of the states.
Integrated Election Machinery The Election Commission conducts elections not only to the Central legislature but also to the state legislatures. But, this body is constituted by the President and the states have no say in this matter. The position is same with regard to the removal of its members as well.
All-India Services: In US, the Federal government and the state governments have their separate public services. In India also, the Centre and the states have their separate public services. But, in addition, there are all-India services (IAS, IPS, and IFS) which are common to both the Centre and the states. The members of these services are recruited and trained by the Centre which also possess ultimate control over them. Thus, these services violate the principle of federalism under the Constitution.
No Equality of State Representation: The states are given representation in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the membership varies from 1 to 31. In US, on the other hand, the principle of equality of representation of states in the Upper House is fully recognised. Thus, the American Senate has 100 members, two from each state. This principle is regarded as a safeguard for smaller states.
##Topic:Unitary & Federal##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Gulmarg and Sonamarg are important hill statons of Kashmir. In this context which of the following best describes "Margs"?
|
Alpine Meadows
|
Longitudnal Valleys
|
Lacusterine deposits
|
Alpine Meadows
|
In the state of Jammu and Kashmir the vegetation, especially grasses belonging to the higher regions of the mountain system is known as Margs or alpine pastures. The alpine pastures lie between 3600 m to 4000 m above sea level.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Gulmarg and Sonamarg are important hill statons of Kashmir. In this context which of the following best describes "Margs"?##Option_A: Alpine Meadows###Option_B: Longitudnal Valleys##Option_C: Lacusterine deposits##Option_D: Alpine Meadows##Answer:a##Explaination:In the state of Jammu and Kashmir the vegetation, especially grasses belonging to the higher regions of the mountain system is known as Margs or alpine pastures. The alpine pastures lie between 3600 m to 4000 m above sea level.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are examples of Human parasite? Liver Fluke Plasmodium Lice Mosquitos Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
In nature populations of different species in a habitat do not live in isolation but interact in many ways. Depending on the outcome, these interactions between two species are classified as competition (both species suffer), predation and parasitism (one benefits and the other suffers), commensalism (one benefits and the other is unaffected), amensalism (one is harmed, other unaffected) and mutualism (both species benefit). The human liver fluke (a trematode parasite) depends on two intermediate hosts (a snail and a fish) to complete its life cycle. The malarial parasite (Plasmodium) needs a vector (mosquito) to spread to other hosts. Majority of the parasites harm the host. ·Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called ectoparasites. The most familiar examples of this group are the lice on humans and ticks on dogs. The mosquito does not need blood to reproduce, they lay their eggs in water. Female mosquitos only feed on blood. A parasite is a creature that cannot live/breed without completely depending on another being. Mosquitos are not considered parasites just as lions and other predatory animals are not parasites.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are examples of Human parasite? Liver Fluke Plasmodium Lice Mosquitos Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:In nature populations of different species in a habitat do not live in isolation but interact in many ways. Depending on the outcome, these interactions between two species are classified as competition (both species suffer), predation and parasitism (one benefits and the other suffers), commensalism (one benefits and the other is unaffected), amensalism (one is harmed, other unaffected) and mutualism (both species benefit). The human liver fluke (a trematode parasite) depends on two intermediate hosts (a snail and a fish) to complete its life cycle. The malarial parasite (Plasmodium) needs a vector (mosquito) to spread to other hosts. Majority of the parasites harm the host. ·Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called ectoparasites. The most familiar examples of this group are the lice on humans and ticks on dogs. The mosquito does not need blood to reproduce, they lay their eggs in water. Female mosquitos only feed on blood. A parasite is a creature that cannot live/breed without completely depending on another being. Mosquitos are not considered parasites just as lions and other predatory animals are not parasites.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
We often see "sulphur free sugar" printed on sugar packets. Sulphur is added to the sugar as it:
|
acts as dust absorbant in sugar.
|
acts as sugar whitener.
|
makes the sugar crystals soft.
|
acts as dust absorbant in sugar.
|
Sulphur free sugar are currently in huge deamand as sugar containing the sulphur is harmful for the body according to many new researches. Sulphur is added to the sugar in order to make the sugar white and increase the shelf life of the sugar. Raw sugar has a yellow to brown color. To produce a white sugar, sulfur dioxide is bubbled through the cane juice before evaporation so as to bleach color-forming impurities into colourless ones.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:We often see "sulphur free sugar" printed on sugar packets. Sulphur is added to the sugar as it:##Option_A: acts as dust absorbant in sugar.###Option_B: acts as sugar whitener.##Option_C: makes the sugar crystals soft.##Option_D: acts as dust absorbant in sugar.##Answer:b##Explaination:Sulphur free sugar are currently in huge deamand as sugar containing the sulphur is harmful for the body according to many new researches. Sulphur is added to the sugar in order to make the sugar white and increase the shelf life of the sugar. Raw sugar has a yellow to brown color. To produce a white sugar, sulfur dioxide is bubbled through the cane juice before evaporation so as to bleach color-forming impurities into colourless ones.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding imposition of Martial Law: Article 34 has defined the expression martial law in the Constitution. It affects both Fundamental rights and centre-state relations. It suspends the government and ordinary law courts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The concept of martial law has been borrowed from the English common law. However, the expression ‘martial law’ has not been defined anywhere in the constitution. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It affects only Fundamental Rights and not Centre- State relations because it is different from National Emergency. During the operation of martial law, the military authorities are vested with abnormal powers to take all necessary steps. They impose restrictions and regulations on the rights of the civilians, can punish the civilians and even condemn them to death. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. It refers to a situation where civil administration is run by the military authorities according to their own rules. It thus implies the suspension of ordinary law and the government. It is imposed in some specific area of the country. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding imposition of Martial Law: Article 34 has defined the expression martial law in the Constitution. It affects both Fundamental rights and centre-state relations. It suspends the government and ordinary law courts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The concept of martial law has been borrowed from the English common law. However, the expression ‘martial law’ has not been defined anywhere in the constitution. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It affects only Fundamental Rights and not Centre- State relations because it is different from National Emergency. During the operation of martial law, the military authorities are vested with abnormal powers to take all necessary steps. They impose restrictions and regulations on the rights of the civilians, can punish the civilians and even condemn them to death. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. It refers to a situation where civil administration is run by the military authorities according to their own rules. It thus implies the suspension of ordinary law and the government. It is imposed in some specific area of the country. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to the One Planet Summit of 2017, consider the following statements: 1. It was jointly organized by the UN, the World Bank and the French government. 2. It aims to mobilize public and private finance in support of climate action. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Both the statements are correct. In December 2017, the President of the French Republic, Emmanuel Macron, the President of the World Bank Group, Jim Yong Kim, and the Secretary-General of the United Nations, António Guterres, decided to refute fatalism in the face of the ecological emergency for our planet by calling together in Paris international leaders and committed citizens from around the world. They launched an ambitious project to win the battle against climate change. 12 commitments were made, the One Planet Coalition was created. It will ensure that the commitments are kept. The One Planet Summit is committed to a carbon neutrality initiative entrusted to EcoAct ad aims to mobilize public and private finance in support of climate action. A $220m World Bank loan combined with an $80m guarantee facility to support additional commercial credit (target $200m) is planned for 2018 for India’s energy efficiency programmes of Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL).
|
c
|
Events.International
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the One Planet Summit of 2017, consider the following statements: 1. It was jointly organized by the UN, the World Bank and the French government. 2. It aims to mobilize public and private finance in support of climate action. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Both the statements are correct. In December 2017, the President of the French Republic, Emmanuel Macron, the President of the World Bank Group, Jim Yong Kim, and the Secretary-General of the United Nations, António Guterres, decided to refute fatalism in the face of the ecological emergency for our planet by calling together in Paris international leaders and committed citizens from around the world. They launched an ambitious project to win the battle against climate change. 12 commitments were made, the One Planet Coalition was created. It will ensure that the commitments are kept. The One Planet Summit is committed to a carbon neutrality initiative entrusted to EcoAct ad aims to mobilize public and private finance in support of climate action. A $220m World Bank loan combined with an $80m guarantee facility to support additional commercial credit (target $200m) is planned for 2018 for India’s energy efficiency programmes of Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL).##Topic:Events.International##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following programmes/ schemes support the Make in India initiative of Government of India? Invest India Atal Innovation Mission India Aspiration Fund Self-Employment and Talent Utilization (SETU) MUDRA Bank Select the correct answer using the code below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 5 only
|
3, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
The Government of India has set up Invest India as the national investment promotion and facilitation agency. An innovation promotion platform called Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) and a techno-financial, incubation and facilitation programme called Self-Employment and Talent Utilization (SETU) are being implemented to encourage innovation and start-ups in India. Further, a Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (MUDRA) Bank has been set up to provide and refinance to commercial banks/NBFCs/cooperative banks for loans given to micro-units.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following programmes/ schemes support the Make in India initiative of Government of India? Invest India Atal Innovation Mission India Aspiration Fund Self-Employment and Talent Utilization (SETU) MUDRA Bank Select the correct answer using the code below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 2 and 5 only##Option_C: 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Government of India has set up Invest India as the national investment promotion and facilitation agency. An innovation promotion platform called Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) and a techno-financial, incubation and facilitation programme called Self-Employment and Talent Utilization (SETU) are being implemented to encourage innovation and start-ups in India. Further, a Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (MUDRA) Bank has been set up to provide and refinance to commercial banks/NBFCs/cooperative banks for loans given to micro-units.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding ductility: It is a solid material"s ability to deform under tensile stress. Steel is more ductile than glass. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Ductility is when a solid material stretches under tensile stress. If ductile, a material may be stretched into a wire. Malleability, a similar property, is a material's ability to deform under pressure (compressive stress). If malleable, a material may be flattened by hammering or rolling. Most common steels, for example, are quite ductile and hence can accommodate local stress concentrations. Brittle materials, such as glass, cannot accommodate concentrations of stress because they lack ductility, and therefore fracture easily.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding ductility: It is a solid material"s ability to deform under tensile stress. Steel is more ductile than glass. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Ductility is when a solid material stretches under tensile stress. If ductile, a material may be stretched into a wire. Malleability, a similar property, is a material's ability to deform under pressure (compressive stress). If malleable, a material may be flattened by hammering or rolling. Most common steels, for example, are quite ductile and hence can accommodate local stress concentrations. Brittle materials, such as glass, cannot accommodate concentrations of stress because they lack ductility, and therefore fracture easily.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: River Associated City 1. Yangtze : Shanghai 2. Nile : Cairo 3. Volga : Paris Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Yangtze - Yangtze River is the largest in China and the third longest in the world. Rising in Tanggula Mountain, it flows eastwards and pours itself into the East China Sea. It mainly runs across Qinghai-Tibet Plateau, Sichuan, Yunnan, Chongqing, Hubei, Hunan, Jiangxi, Anhui, Jiangsu and Shanghai from west to east. Nile - It is the longest river in the world. There are several major cities that are located along the edge of the Nile. These cities are Cairo , Thebes/Luxor, Khartoum, Gondokoro, Aswan, and Karnak. Volga River - river of Europe, the continent’s longest, and the principal waterway of western Russia and the historic cradle of the Russian state . It does not pass through Paris.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: River Associated City 1. Yangtze : Shanghai 2. Nile : Cairo 3. Volga : Paris Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Yangtze - Yangtze River is the largest in China and the third longest in the world. Rising in Tanggula Mountain, it flows eastwards and pours itself into the East China Sea. It mainly runs across Qinghai-Tibet Plateau, Sichuan, Yunnan, Chongqing, Hubei, Hunan, Jiangxi, Anhui, Jiangsu and Shanghai from west to east. Nile - It is the longest river in the world. There are several major cities that are located along the edge of the Nile. These cities are Cairo , Thebes/Luxor, Khartoum, Gondokoro, Aswan, and Karnak. Volga River - river of Europe, the continent’s longest, and the principal waterway of western Russia and the historic cradle of the Russian state . It does not pass through Paris.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following cities is/are part of Buddhist circuit envisaged by the Ministry of Tourism? Vaishali Pavapuri Sarnath Kapilvastu Lumbini Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 3, 4 and 5 only
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The map of the Buddhist circuit as envisaged by the ministry comprises Bodh Gaya, Vaishali, Rajgir and Kushinagar in Bihar, Sarnath, and Shravasti in UP, along with Kapilavastu and Lumbini in Nepal where Buddha was born. The Ministry has already taken the Buddhist circuit under its Swadesh Darshan scheme, and released funds of Rs 100 crore. Pavapuri is a holy site for Jains located in the Nalanda district in the Bihar state of Eastern India. Around 5th Century BCE, Mahavira, the last of the twenty-four Tirthankara attained Nirvana or moksha (liberation). He was cremated at Pavapuri.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following cities is/are part of Buddhist circuit envisaged by the Ministry of Tourism? Vaishali Pavapuri Sarnath Kapilvastu Lumbini Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3, 4 and 5 only##Option_C: 2, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The map of the Buddhist circuit as envisaged by the ministry comprises Bodh Gaya, Vaishali, Rajgir and Kushinagar in Bihar, Sarnath, and Shravasti in UP, along with Kapilavastu and Lumbini in Nepal where Buddha was born. The Ministry has already taken the Buddhist circuit under its Swadesh Darshan scheme, and released funds of Rs 100 crore. Pavapuri is a holy site for Jains located in the Nalanda district in the Bihar state of Eastern India. Around 5th Century BCE, Mahavira, the last of the twenty-four Tirthankara attained Nirvana or moksha (liberation). He was cremated at Pavapuri.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The Peninsular block is a prominent geological region of India. Which of the following is/are extensions of this block? Patkai Bum Meghalaya Plateau Karbi-Anglong Plateau Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The Karbi Anglong Plateau and the Meghalaya Plateau in the northeast are extensions of the Peninsular block. It is believed that due to the force exerted by the northeastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin, a huge fault was created between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau. Later, this depression got filled up by the deposition activity of the numerous rivers. Today, the Meghalaya and Karbi Anglong plateau stand detached from the main Peninsular Block. Patkai Bum is part of the Himalayan Mountain system.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Peninsular block is a prominent geological region of India. Which of the following is/are extensions of this block? Patkai Bum Meghalaya Plateau Karbi-Anglong Plateau Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Karbi Anglong Plateau and the Meghalaya Plateau in the northeast are extensions of the Peninsular block. It is believed that due to the force exerted by the northeastward movement of the Indian plate at the time of the Himalayan origin, a huge fault was created between the Rajmahal hills and the Meghalaya plateau. Later, this depression got filled up by the deposition activity of the numerous rivers. Today, the Meghalaya and Karbi Anglong plateau stand detached from the main Peninsular Block. Patkai Bum is part of the Himalayan Mountain system.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
As per the recommendations of the Empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers, which of following Central Taxes will be subsumed under proposed the Goods and Services Tax? Service Tax Countervailing Duty Sales Tax Luxury Tax Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Central Taxes to be subsumed under GST: Central Excise Duty, Additional Excise Duties, The Excise Duty levied under the Medicinal and Toiletries Preparation Act, Service Tax, Additional Customs Duty, commonly known as Countervailing Duty (CVD) , Special Additional Duty of Customs - 4% (SAD) Surcharges, and Cesses. State taxes and levies to be subsumed under GST: VAT / Sales tax, Entertainment tax (unless it is levied by the local bodies), Luxury tax, Taxes on lottery, betting and gambling, State Cesses and Surcharges in so far as they relate to supply of goods and services, Entry tax not in lieu of Octroi. Exemptions (as of now): Purchase tax: Some of the States felt that they are getting substantial revenue from Purchase Tax and, therefore, it should not be subsumed under GST while majority of the States were of the view that no such exemptions should be given. The difficulties of the foodgrain producing States was appreciated as substantial revenue is being earned by them from Purchase Tax and it was, therefore, felt that in case Purchase Tax has to be subsumed then adequate and continuing compensation has to be provided to such States. This issue is being discussed in consultation with the Government of India. Tax on items containing Alcohol: Alcoholic beverages would be kept out of the purview of GST. Sales Tax/VAT could be continued to be levied on alcoholic beverages as per the existing practice. In case it has been made Vatable by some States, there is no objection to that. Excise Duty, which is presently levied by the States may not also be affected. Tax on Tobacco products: Tobacco products would be subjected to GST with ITC(Input Tax Credit). Centre may be allowed to levy excise duty on tobacco products over and above GST with ITC. Tax on Petroleum Products: As far as petroleum products are concerned, it was decided that the basket of petroleum products, i.e. crude, motor spirit (including ATF) and HSD would be kept outside GST as is the prevailing practice in India. Sales Tax could continue to be levied by the States on these products with prevailing floor rate. Similarly, Centre could also continue its levies. A final view whether Natural Gas should be kept outside the GST will be taken after further deliberations. Taxation of Services: As indicated earlier, both the Centre and the States will have concurrent power to levy tax on goods and services. In the case of States, the principle for taxation of intra-State and inter- State has already been formulated by the Working Group of Principal Secretaries /Secretaries of Finance / Taxation and Commissioners of Trade Taxes with senior representatives of Department of Revenue, Government of India. For inter-State transactions an innovative model of Integrated GST will be adopted by appropriately aligning and integrating CGST and IGST.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As per the recommendations of the Empowered Committee of State Finance Ministers, which of following Central Taxes will be subsumed under proposed the Goods and Services Tax? Service Tax Countervailing Duty Sales Tax Luxury Tax Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Central Taxes to be subsumed under GST: Central Excise Duty, Additional Excise Duties, The Excise Duty levied under the Medicinal and Toiletries Preparation Act, Service Tax, Additional Customs Duty, commonly known as Countervailing Duty (CVD) , Special Additional Duty of Customs - 4% (SAD) Surcharges, and Cesses. State taxes and levies to be subsumed under GST: VAT / Sales tax, Entertainment tax (unless it is levied by the local bodies), Luxury tax, Taxes on lottery, betting and gambling, State Cesses and Surcharges in so far as they relate to supply of goods and services, Entry tax not in lieu of Octroi. Exemptions (as of now): Purchase tax: Some of the States felt that they are getting substantial revenue from Purchase Tax and, therefore, it should not be subsumed under GST while majority of the States were of the view that no such exemptions should be given. The difficulties of the foodgrain producing States was appreciated as substantial revenue is being earned by them from Purchase Tax and it was, therefore, felt that in case Purchase Tax has to be subsumed then adequate and continuing compensation has to be provided to such States. This issue is being discussed in consultation with the Government of India. Tax on items containing Alcohol: Alcoholic beverages would be kept out of the purview of GST. Sales Tax/VAT could be continued to be levied on alcoholic beverages as per the existing practice. In case it has been made Vatable by some States, there is no objection to that. Excise Duty, which is presently levied by the States may not also be affected. Tax on Tobacco products: Tobacco products would be subjected to GST with ITC(Input Tax Credit). Centre may be allowed to levy excise duty on tobacco products over and above GST with ITC. Tax on Petroleum Products: As far as petroleum products are concerned, it was decided that the basket of petroleum products, i.e. crude, motor spirit (including ATF) and HSD would be kept outside GST as is the prevailing practice in India. Sales Tax could continue to be levied by the States on these products with prevailing floor rate. Similarly, Centre could also continue its levies. A final view whether Natural Gas should be kept outside the GST will be taken after further deliberations. Taxation of Services: As indicated earlier, both the Centre and the States will have concurrent power to levy tax on goods and services. In the case of States, the principle for taxation of intra-State and inter- State has already been formulated by the Working Group of Principal Secretaries /Secretaries of Finance / Taxation and Commissioners of Trade Taxes with senior representatives of Department of Revenue, Government of India. For inter-State transactions an innovative model of Integrated GST will be adopted by appropriately aligning and integrating CGST and IGST.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which one of the following best describes the main objective of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan"?
|
Building institutional capacity in institutes of higher education in research & training relevant to the needs of rural India.
|
Providing skill training to youth in rural areas for employment in MSMEs.
|
Identifying the entrepreneurs in village and providing them technology and finance to set up companies.
|
Building institutional capacity in institutes of higher education in research & training relevant to the needs of rural India.
|
The Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) has launched a programme called Unnat Bharat Abhiyan with an aim to connect institutions of higher education, including Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), National Institutes of Technology (NITs) and Indian Institutes of Science Education & Research (IISERs) etc. with local communities to address the development challenges through appropriate technologies. The objectives of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan are broadly two-fold: Building institutional capacity in Institutes of higher education in research & training relevant to the needs of rural India. Provide rural India with professional resource support from institutes of higher education ,especially those which have acquired academic excellence in the field of Science, Engineering & Technology and Management.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which one of the following best describes the main objective of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan"?##Option_A: Building institutional capacity in institutes of higher education in research & training relevant to the needs of rural India.###Option_B: Providing skill training to youth in rural areas for employment in MSMEs.##Option_C: Identifying the entrepreneurs in village and providing them technology and finance to set up companies.##Option_D: Building institutional capacity in institutes of higher education in research & training relevant to the needs of rural India.##Answer:a##Explaination:The Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD) has launched a programme called Unnat Bharat Abhiyan with an aim to connect institutions of higher education, including Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), National Institutes of Technology (NITs) and Indian Institutes of Science Education & Research (IISERs) etc. with local communities to address the development challenges through appropriate technologies. The objectives of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan are broadly two-fold: Building institutional capacity in Institutes of higher education in research & training relevant to the needs of rural India. Provide rural India with professional resource support from institutes of higher education ,especially those which have acquired academic excellence in the field of Science, Engineering & Technology and Management.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
G.K. Gokhale laid the foundation of the "Servants of India Society" in 1905, for which of the following purpose/purposes? To train the National Missionaries for the service of India. To overthrow the Britishers through constitutional means. To fight against the social evils. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
In 1905, Gokhale laid the foundation of the Servants of India Society with a view to " the training of national missionaries for the service of India, and to promote, by all constitutional means the true interests of the Indian people". Also, this Society created awareness among people and released journals to fight against social evils.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:G.K. Gokhale laid the foundation of the "Servants of India Society" in 1905, for which of the following purpose/purposes? To train the National Missionaries for the service of India. To overthrow the Britishers through constitutional means. To fight against the social evils. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:In 1905, Gokhale laid the foundation of the Servants of India Society with a view to " the training of national missionaries for the service of India, and to promote, by all constitutional means the true interests of the Indian people". Also, this Society created awareness among people and released journals to fight against social evils.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Which of the following has/have been accorded Geographical Indication" status? Basmati Rice Litti Chokha of Bihar Rosogolla of West Bengal Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The GI tag for basmati rice has been approved in February 2016. It has been given to the seven north Indian Basmati rice-producing states like Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, Delhi, parts of Uttar Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir. Litti Chokha has not been given the Geographical Indication status. The GI tag for rosogolla has resulted into a controversy. West Bengal has set off the official process of staking its claim, by filing application for the Geographical Indication (GI) for the syrupy sweet. A bitter-war has broken out over the origins of this white dripping-with-sweetness-ball of cottage-cheese. The fight is between Odisha and West Bengal, with each one claiming ownership of rasagolla. The bitter contest over the Intellectual Property Rights to an iconic sweet, the 'rosogolla' has moved into a new phase with Odisha citing 'literary evidence' to buttress its claim over West Bengal. Some of the other examples of GI are Mysore Silk, Mysore Agarbathi, Kancheepuram Silk, Orissa Ikat, Channapatna Toys & Dolls, and Coimbatore Wet Grinder.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following has/have been accorded Geographical Indication" status? Basmati Rice Litti Chokha of Bihar Rosogolla of West Bengal Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The GI tag for basmati rice has been approved in February 2016. It has been given to the seven north Indian Basmati rice-producing states like Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand, Delhi, parts of Uttar Pradesh and Jammu & Kashmir. Litti Chokha has not been given the Geographical Indication status. The GI tag for rosogolla has resulted into a controversy. West Bengal has set off the official process of staking its claim, by filing application for the Geographical Indication (GI) for the syrupy sweet. A bitter-war has broken out over the origins of this white dripping-with-sweetness-ball of cottage-cheese. The fight is between Odisha and West Bengal, with each one claiming ownership of rasagolla. The bitter contest over the Intellectual Property Rights to an iconic sweet, the 'rosogolla' has moved into a new phase with Odisha citing 'literary evidence' to buttress its claim over West Bengal. Some of the other examples of GI are Mysore Silk, Mysore Agarbathi, Kancheepuram Silk, Orissa Ikat, Channapatna Toys & Dolls, and Coimbatore Wet Grinder.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
What is ASASSN-15lh, recently seen in news?
|
A communication satellite by ISRO.
|
Most luminous supernova observed.
|
A Gravitational wave detector of European Space Agency.
|
A communication satellite by ISRO.
|
Astronomers have discovered the most luminous supernova ever observed, which is up to 50 times brighter than the entire Milky Way galaxy. The super-luminous supernova, called ASASSN-15lh, was discovered by the All Sky Automated Survey for SuperNovae team (ASAS-SN), an international collaboration at the Ohio State University in US, which uses a network of 14-centimetre telescopes around the world to scan the visible sky every two or three nights looking for very bright supernovae.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What is ASASSN-15lh, recently seen in news?##Option_A: A communication satellite by ISRO.###Option_B: Most luminous supernova observed.##Option_C: A Gravitational wave detector of European Space Agency.##Option_D: A communication satellite by ISRO.##Answer:b##Explaination:Astronomers have discovered the most luminous supernova ever observed, which is up to 50 times brighter than the entire Milky Way galaxy. The super-luminous supernova, called ASASSN-15lh, was discovered by the All Sky Automated Survey for SuperNovae team (ASAS-SN), an international collaboration at the Ohio State University in US, which uses a network of 14-centimetre telescopes around the world to scan the visible sky every two or three nights looking for very bright supernovae.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding differentiated banks: They offer a limited range of services/products or function under a different regulatory dispensation. Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks are both examples of differentiated banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Differentiated banks are distinct from universal banks as they function in a niche segment. The differentiation could be on account of capital requirement, scope of activities or area of operations. As such, they offer a limited range of services / products or function under a different regulatory dispensation. Both Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks are examples of differentiated banks. The Small Finance Banks will be small sized universal banks. They have to finance priority sector to the extent of 75% of their NDTL; while 40% should be as per standard priority sector norms, the other 35% can be in any of the priority sector. 50% of their credit portfolio will have to be of ticket size of less than Rs.25 lakh. The Payments Banks can undertake payment and deposit services only. They can accept deposits from a customer upto Rs.1 lakh only. They will have no credit portfolio. They should invest 75% of their NDTL only in Government securities. They will not be subject to priority sector norms. They can perform Banking Correspondent functions to other banks.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding differentiated banks: They offer a limited range of services/products or function under a different regulatory dispensation. Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks are both examples of differentiated banks. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Differentiated banks are distinct from universal banks as they function in a niche segment. The differentiation could be on account of capital requirement, scope of activities or area of operations. As such, they offer a limited range of services / products or function under a different regulatory dispensation. Both Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks are examples of differentiated banks. The Small Finance Banks will be small sized universal banks. They have to finance priority sector to the extent of 75% of their NDTL; while 40% should be as per standard priority sector norms, the other 35% can be in any of the priority sector. 50% of their credit portfolio will have to be of ticket size of less than Rs.25 lakh. The Payments Banks can undertake payment and deposit services only. They can accept deposits from a customer upto Rs.1 lakh only. They will have no credit portfolio. They should invest 75% of their NDTL only in Government securities. They will not be subject to priority sector norms. They can perform Banking Correspondent functions to other banks.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following best describes Heliosphere, a term recently seen in news?
|
Outermost layer of the sun.
|
Magnetic bubble that surrounds the Sun and the solar system.
|
An area beyond ionosphere where Earth"s gravity is still influential.
|
Outermost layer of the sun.
|
Scientists using data from NASA’s Interstellar Boundary Explorer (IBEX) have pinned down an interstellar magnetic field which lies at the very edge of the giant magnetic bubble surrounding our solar system called the heliosphere. Close to the Sun, the solar wind has a large pressure and can easily push the interstellar medium away from the Sun. Further away from the Sun, the pressure from the interstellar medium is strong enough to slow down and eventually stop the flow of solar wind from traveling into its surroundings. The entire area or bubble inside the boundary of the solar system is called the heliosphere. The place where the solar wind slows down and begins to interact with the interstellar medium is called the heliosheath.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following best describes Heliosphere, a term recently seen in news?##Option_A: Outermost layer of the sun.###Option_B: Magnetic bubble that surrounds the Sun and the solar system.##Option_C: An area beyond ionosphere where Earth"s gravity is still influential.##Option_D: Outermost layer of the sun.##Answer:b##Explaination:Scientists using data from NASA’s Interstellar Boundary Explorer (IBEX) have pinned down an interstellar magnetic field which lies at the very edge of the giant magnetic bubble surrounding our solar system called the heliosphere. Close to the Sun, the solar wind has a large pressure and can easily push the interstellar medium away from the Sun. Further away from the Sun, the pressure from the interstellar medium is strong enough to slow down and eventually stop the flow of solar wind from traveling into its surroundings. The entire area or bubble inside the boundary of the solar system is called the heliosphere. The place where the solar wind slows down and begins to interact with the interstellar medium is called the heliosheath.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
With reference Marginal Standing facility, consider the following statements: It is always fixed above the repo rate. It is used by banks as last resort to borrow funds. Funds are borrowed by pledging government securities. Its limit is upto 10% of Net Demand and Time Liabilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) refers to the penal rate at which banks can borrow money from the central bank over and above what is available to them through the LAF window. MSF, being a penal rate, is always fixed above the repo rate. The MSF would be the last resort for banks once they exhaust all borrowing options including the liquidity adjustment facility by pledging government securities, where the rates are lower in comparison with the MSF. The MSF would be a penal rate for banks and the banks can borrow funds by pledging government securities within the limits of the statutory liquidity ratio. The scheme has been introduced by RBI with the main aim of reducing volatility in the overnight lending rates in the inter-bank market and to enable smooth monetary transmission in the financial system. MSF represents the upper band of the interest corridor with repo rate at the middle and reverse repo as the lower band. MSF scheme is provided by RBI by which the banks can borrow overnight upto 1 per cent of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) i.e. 1 per cent of the aggregate deposits and other liabilities of the banks. However, with effect from 17th April 2012 RBI raised the borrowing limit under the MSF from 1 per cent to 2 per cent of their NDTL.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference Marginal Standing facility, consider the following statements: It is always fixed above the repo rate. It is used by banks as last resort to borrow funds. Funds are borrowed by pledging government securities. Its limit is upto 10% of Net Demand and Time Liabilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) refers to the penal rate at which banks can borrow money from the central bank over and above what is available to them through the LAF window. MSF, being a penal rate, is always fixed above the repo rate. The MSF would be the last resort for banks once they exhaust all borrowing options including the liquidity adjustment facility by pledging government securities, where the rates are lower in comparison with the MSF. The MSF would be a penal rate for banks and the banks can borrow funds by pledging government securities within the limits of the statutory liquidity ratio. The scheme has been introduced by RBI with the main aim of reducing volatility in the overnight lending rates in the inter-bank market and to enable smooth monetary transmission in the financial system. MSF represents the upper band of the interest corridor with repo rate at the middle and reverse repo as the lower band. MSF scheme is provided by RBI by which the banks can borrow overnight upto 1 per cent of their net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) i.e. 1 per cent of the aggregate deposits and other liabilities of the banks. However, with effect from 17th April 2012 RBI raised the borrowing limit under the MSF from 1 per cent to 2 per cent of their NDTL.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Incheon Strategy, sometimes seen in the news, is:
|
a strategy to tackle the regional terrorism.
|
a plan of action for sustainable economic growth.
|
an agenda for empowerment of person with disability.
|
a strategy to tackle the regional terrorism.
|
Incheon Strategy is an agenda for empowerment of person with disability. The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) has a long history of working to improve the rights of persons with disabilities. Since 1993, when it launched its first Asian and Pacific "Decade on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities" (1993-2002), it has consistently demonstrated leadership in this important area. The second decade, 2003-2012, continued this process, culminating in what is now known as the Incheon Strategy to "Make the Right Real" for Persons with Disabilities in the Asia Pacific Region, or simply, the Incheon Strategy.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Incheon Strategy, sometimes seen in the news, is:##Option_A: a strategy to tackle the regional terrorism.###Option_B: a plan of action for sustainable economic growth.##Option_C: an agenda for empowerment of person with disability.##Option_D: a strategy to tackle the regional terrorism.##Answer:c##Explaination:Incheon Strategy is an agenda for empowerment of person with disability. The United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (ESCAP) has a long history of working to improve the rights of persons with disabilities. Since 1993, when it launched its first Asian and Pacific "Decade on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities" (1993-2002), it has consistently demonstrated leadership in this important area. The second decade, 2003-2012, continued this process, culminating in what is now known as the Incheon Strategy to "Make the Right Real" for Persons with Disabilities in the Asia Pacific Region, or simply, the Incheon Strategy.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Recently launched ASTROSAT is a:
|
Earth Observation Satellite
|
Communication Satellite
|
Navigational Satellite
|
Earth Observation Satellite
|
ASTROSAT is India's first dedicated multi wavelength space observatory. This scientific satellite mission endeavours for a more detailed understanding of our universe. One of the unique features of ASTROSAT mission is that it enables the simultaneous multi-wavelength observations of various astronomical objects with a single satellite. Currently, 34 satellites are operational in the country comprising of: 13 Communication Satellites namely, INSAT-3A, INSAT-3C, INSAT-4A, INSAT-4B, INSAT-4CR, GSAT-6, GSAT-7, GSAT-8, GSAT-10, GSAT-12, GSAT-14, GSAT-15 and GSAT-16. 12 Earth Observation Satellites namely, Resourcesat-2, RISAT-1, RISAT-2, Cartosat-1, Cartosat-2, Cartosat-2A, Cartosat-2B, Oceansat-2, SARAL, Kalpana-1, Megha-Tropiques and INSAT-3D. 7 Navigational Satellites namely, IRNSS-1A, 1B, 1C, 1D, 1E, 1F & 1G. 2 Space science Satellites namely Mars Orbiter Mission & Astrosat.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently launched ASTROSAT is a:##Option_A: Earth Observation Satellite###Option_B: Communication Satellite##Option_C: Navigational Satellite##Option_D: Earth Observation Satellite##Answer:d##Explaination:ASTROSAT is India's first dedicated multi wavelength space observatory. This scientific satellite mission endeavours for a more detailed understanding of our universe. One of the unique features of ASTROSAT mission is that it enables the simultaneous multi-wavelength observations of various astronomical objects with a single satellite. Currently, 34 satellites are operational in the country comprising of: 13 Communication Satellites namely, INSAT-3A, INSAT-3C, INSAT-4A, INSAT-4B, INSAT-4CR, GSAT-6, GSAT-7, GSAT-8, GSAT-10, GSAT-12, GSAT-14, GSAT-15 and GSAT-16. 12 Earth Observation Satellites namely, Resourcesat-2, RISAT-1, RISAT-2, Cartosat-1, Cartosat-2, Cartosat-2A, Cartosat-2B, Oceansat-2, SARAL, Kalpana-1, Megha-Tropiques and INSAT-3D. 7 Navigational Satellites namely, IRNSS-1A, 1B, 1C, 1D, 1E, 1F & 1G. 2 Space science Satellites namely Mars Orbiter Mission & Astrosat.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
The terms Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra are associated with
|
Sangam Literature
|
Temple Architecture of Odisha
|
Folk Dance of Manipur
|
Sangam Literature
|
The main architectural features of Odisha temples are classified in three orders, i.e., rekhapida, pidhadeul and khakra. Most of the main temple sites are located in ancient Kalinga-modern Puri District, including Bhubaneswar or ancient Tribhuvanesvara, Puri and Konark. The temples of Odisha constitute a distinct substyle within the nagaraorder. In general, here the shikhara, called deulin Odisha, is vertical almost until the top when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. Deulsare preceded, as usual, by mandapas called jagamohanain Odisha. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure becomes circular in the crowning mastaka.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The terms Rekhapida, Pidhadeul and Khakra are associated with##Option_A: Sangam Literature###Option_B: Temple Architecture of Odisha##Option_C: Folk Dance of Manipur##Option_D: Sangam Literature##Answer:b##Explaination:The main architectural features of Odisha temples are classified in three orders, i.e., rekhapida, pidhadeul and khakra. Most of the main temple sites are located in ancient Kalinga-modern Puri District, including Bhubaneswar or ancient Tribhuvanesvara, Puri and Konark. The temples of Odisha constitute a distinct substyle within the nagaraorder. In general, here the shikhara, called deulin Odisha, is vertical almost until the top when it suddenly curves sharply inwards. Deulsare preceded, as usual, by mandapas called jagamohanain Odisha. The ground plan of the main temple is almost always square, which, in the upper reaches of its superstructure becomes circular in the crowning mastaka.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Which among the following contained provisions related to partition of India? Desai-Liaqat Pact C. Rajgopalachari formula Mountbatten Plan Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The main points in C Rajgopalachari Plan were: Muslim League to endorse Congress demand for independence. League to cooperate with Congress in forming a provisional government at centre. After the end of the war, the entire population of Muslim majority areas in the North-West and “North-East India to decide by a plebiscite, whether or not to form a separate sovereign state. In case of acceptance of partition, agreement to be made jointly for safeguarding defence, commerce, communications, etc. The above terms to be operative only if England transferred full powers to India. According to the Desai Liaqat Pact: the Congress and the League had agreed to form an interim government in the Centre. The composition of such government would be on the following lines: an equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League. The persons nominated needs not be the members of the Central Legislature. Representatives of the minorities especially the Scheduled Castes and the Sikhs, and (c) The Commander-in-Chief. The Government would function within the framework of the existing Government of India Act. However, it did not provide provisions related to partition. Mountbatten Plan: Lord Mountbatten worked out a detailed plan for the transfer of power to the Indian people. The salient features of the Mountbatten plan were as follows: Muslim-dominated areas may be separated to form a Dominion In that case such a domination would be constituted by a partition of Bengal and the Punjab. A referendum in North-west Frontier Province would decide whether it should join Pakistan or not. Similarly the people of Sylhet, in Assam, were also to give their verdict in a referendum whether they were willing to join the Muslim area in Bengal. A Boundary Commission was to define the boundaries of the Hindu and Muslim Provinces in the Punjab and Bengal The British Parliament was to legislate an Act for the immediate transfer of Power. (6) The representatives of the Muslim-dominated areas could form a separate Constitution-making body or Constituent Assembly.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following contained provisions related to partition of India? Desai-Liaqat Pact C. Rajgopalachari formula Mountbatten Plan Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The main points in C Rajgopalachari Plan were: Muslim League to endorse Congress demand for independence. League to cooperate with Congress in forming a provisional government at centre. After the end of the war, the entire population of Muslim majority areas in the North-West and “North-East India to decide by a plebiscite, whether or not to form a separate sovereign state. In case of acceptance of partition, agreement to be made jointly for safeguarding defence, commerce, communications, etc. The above terms to be operative only if England transferred full powers to India. According to the Desai Liaqat Pact: the Congress and the League had agreed to form an interim government in the Centre. The composition of such government would be on the following lines: an equal number of persons nominated by the Congress and the League. The persons nominated needs not be the members of the Central Legislature. Representatives of the minorities especially the Scheduled Castes and the Sikhs, and (c) The Commander-in-Chief. The Government would function within the framework of the existing Government of India Act. However, it did not provide provisions related to partition. Mountbatten Plan: Lord Mountbatten worked out a detailed plan for the transfer of power to the Indian people. The salient features of the Mountbatten plan were as follows: Muslim-dominated areas may be separated to form a Dominion In that case such a domination would be constituted by a partition of Bengal and the Punjab. A referendum in North-west Frontier Province would decide whether it should join Pakistan or not. Similarly the people of Sylhet, in Assam, were also to give their verdict in a referendum whether they were willing to join the Muslim area in Bengal. A Boundary Commission was to define the boundaries of the Hindu and Muslim Provinces in the Punjab and Bengal The British Parliament was to legislate an Act for the immediate transfer of Power. (6) The representatives of the Muslim-dominated areas could form a separate Constitution-making body or Constituent Assembly.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Dadabhai Naoroji: He founded the influential East Indian Association to educate the English public on Indian affairs. He was elected as the Member of Parliament in the British House of Commons. He presided over the annual sessions of the Indian National Congress three times. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Dadabhai Naoroji was born into a leading Parsi family in Bombay. In 1855 Naoroji became a partner in an important Parsi commercial firm in London, and in 1862 he set up his own commercial house there. In the same year he founded the influential East Indian Association to educate the English public on Indian affairs. He stood unsuccessfully for election to Parliament in 1886. In 1892, however, he was elected Liberal member of Parliament for Central Finsbury, London. He became widely known for his unfavourable opinion of the economic consequences of British rule in India and was appointed a member of the royal commission on Indian expenditure in 1895. In 1886, 1893, and 1906 he also presided over the annual sessions of the Indian National Congress , which led the nationalist movement in India. In the session of 1906 his conciliatory tactics helped to postpone the impending split between moderates and extremists in the Congress Party. In his many writings and speeches and especially in Poverty and Un-British Rule in India (1901), Naoroji argued that India was too highly taxed and that its wealth was being drained away to England.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Dadabhai Naoroji: He founded the influential East Indian Association to educate the English public on Indian affairs. He was elected as the Member of Parliament in the British House of Commons. He presided over the annual sessions of the Indian National Congress three times. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Dadabhai Naoroji was born into a leading Parsi family in Bombay. In 1855 Naoroji became a partner in an important Parsi commercial firm in London, and in 1862 he set up his own commercial house there. In the same year he founded the influential East Indian Association to educate the English public on Indian affairs. He stood unsuccessfully for election to Parliament in 1886. In 1892, however, he was elected Liberal member of Parliament for Central Finsbury, London. He became widely known for his unfavourable opinion of the economic consequences of British rule in India and was appointed a member of the royal commission on Indian expenditure in 1895. In 1886, 1893, and 1906 he also presided over the annual sessions of the Indian National Congress , which led the nationalist movement in India. In the session of 1906 his conciliatory tactics helped to postpone the impending split between moderates and extremists in the Congress Party. In his many writings and speeches and especially in Poverty and Un-British Rule in India (1901), Naoroji argued that India was too highly taxed and that its wealth was being drained away to England.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Preventive Detention, consider the following statements: The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to determine the legality of preventive detention. Both the Parliament and state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for the reasons connected with security of a state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The writ of Habeas Corpus is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person free, if the detention is found to be illegal. Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs and the security of India. Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Preventive Detention, consider the following statements: The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to determine the legality of preventive detention. Both the Parliament and state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for the reasons connected with security of a state. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The writ of Habeas Corpus is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then examines the cause and legality of detention. It would set the detained person free, if the detention is found to be illegal. Thus, this writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs and the security of India. Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community. Hence, 2nd statement is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to constitutional safeguards provided to SCs and STs under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called SCs or the STs. In the matters of promotion to the public services of the Centre, the standard of evaluation can be lowered in favour of SCs/STs. The Centre should pay grants-in-aid to the states for meeting the costs of schemes of welfare of SCs and STs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called the SCs or the STs. It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what castes or tribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs. Thus, the lists of the SCs or STs vary from state to state and union territory to union territory. In case of the states, the President issues the notification after consulting the governor of the state concerned. But, any inclusion or exclusion of any caste or tribe from Presidential notification can be done only by the Parliament and not by a subsequent Presidential notification. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The 82nd Amendment Act of 2000 provides for making of any provision in favour of the SCs and STs for relaxation in qualifying marks in any examination or lowering the standards of evaluation, for reservation in matters of promotion to the public services of the Centre and the states. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. The Centre should pay grants-in-aid to the states for meeting the costs of schemes of welfare of STs(Article 275(1)) and for raising the level of administration in scheduled areas. There is no such mandatory provision for SCs. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to constitutional safeguards provided to SCs and STs under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called SCs or the STs. In the matters of promotion to the public services of the Centre, the standard of evaluation can be lowered in favour of SCs/STs. The Centre should pay grants-in-aid to the states for meeting the costs of schemes of welfare of SCs and STs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Constitution does not specify the castes or tribes which are to be called the SCs or the STs. It leaves to the President the power to specify as to what castes or tribes in each state and union territory are to be treated as the SCs and STs. Thus, the lists of the SCs or STs vary from state to state and union territory to union territory. In case of the states, the President issues the notification after consulting the governor of the state concerned. But, any inclusion or exclusion of any caste or tribe from Presidential notification can be done only by the Parliament and not by a subsequent Presidential notification. Hence, 1st statement is correct. The 82nd Amendment Act of 2000 provides for making of any provision in favour of the SCs and STs for relaxation in qualifying marks in any examination or lowering the standards of evaluation, for reservation in matters of promotion to the public services of the Centre and the states. Hence, 2nd statement is correct. The Centre should pay grants-in-aid to the states for meeting the costs of schemes of welfare of STs(Article 275(1)) and for raising the level of administration in scheduled areas. There is no such mandatory provision for SCs. Hence, 3rd statement is incorrect.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following ports are natural harbours? Mumbai Port Marmagao Port Kochchi Port Chennai Port Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Mumbai is a natural harbour and the biggest port of the country. The port is situated closer to the general routes from the countries of Middle East, Mediterranean countries, North Africa, North America and Europe where the major share of country's overseas trade is carried out. Marmagao Port, situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary, is a natural harbour in Goa. It gained significance after its remodelling in 1961 to handle iron-ore exports to Japan. Kochchi Port, situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal, popularly known as the "Queen of the Arabian Sea", is also a natural harbour. This port has an advantageous location being close to the Suez-Colombo route. Chennai Port is one of the oldest ports on the eastern coast. It is an artificial harbour built in 1859. It is not much suitable for large ships because of the shallow waters near the coast.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following ports are natural harbours? Mumbai Port Marmagao Port Kochchi Port Chennai Port Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Mumbai is a natural harbour and the biggest port of the country. The port is situated closer to the general routes from the countries of Middle East, Mediterranean countries, North Africa, North America and Europe where the major share of country's overseas trade is carried out. Marmagao Port, situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary, is a natural harbour in Goa. It gained significance after its remodelling in 1961 to handle iron-ore exports to Japan. Kochchi Port, situated at the head of Vembanad Kayal, popularly known as the "Queen of the Arabian Sea", is also a natural harbour. This port has an advantageous location being close to the Suez-Colombo route. Chennai Port is one of the oldest ports on the eastern coast. It is an artificial harbour built in 1859. It is not much suitable for large ships because of the shallow waters near the coast.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: The convective transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere. In northern India, local winds called "loo" is the outcome of convection process. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating in the form of currents and further transmits the heat of the atmosphere. This process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as convection. The convective transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere. In tropical regions particularly in northern India during summer season local winds called ‘loo’ is the outcome of advection process and not convection process. The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called advection. Horizontal movement of the air is relatively more important than the vertical movement. In middle latitudes, most of dirunal (day and night) variation in daily weather are caused by advection alone.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The convective transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere. In northern India, local winds called "loo" is the outcome of convection process. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The air in contact with the earth rises vertically on heating in the form of currents and further transmits the heat of the atmosphere. This process of vertical heating of the atmosphere is known as convection. The convective transfer of energy is confined only to the troposphere. In tropical regions particularly in northern India during summer season local winds called ‘loo’ is the outcome of advection process and not convection process. The transfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called advection. Horizontal movement of the air is relatively more important than the vertical movement. In middle latitudes, most of dirunal (day and night) variation in daily weather are caused by advection alone.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which among the following is/are part of Secondary Capital Market? Rights Shares Debentures Initial Public Offering Government securities Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Secondary Market refers to a market where securities are traded after being initially offered to the public in the primary market and/or listed on the Stock Exchange. Majority of the trading is done in the secondary market. Secondary market comprises of equity markets and the debt markets. Following are the main financial products/instruments dealt in the secondary market: Equity Shares Rights Issue / Rights Shares Preferred Stock / Preference shares Government securities (G-Secs) Debentures Bond Commercial Paper An initial public offering (IPO) is the first sale of stock by a private company to the public. IPOs are often issued by smaller, younger companies seeking the capital to expand, but can also be done by large privately owned companies looking to become publicly traded. It is part of primary market.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following is/are part of Secondary Capital Market? Rights Shares Debentures Initial Public Offering Government securities Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Secondary Market refers to a market where securities are traded after being initially offered to the public in the primary market and/or listed on the Stock Exchange. Majority of the trading is done in the secondary market. Secondary market comprises of equity markets and the debt markets. Following are the main financial products/instruments dealt in the secondary market: Equity Shares Rights Issue / Rights Shares Preferred Stock / Preference shares Government securities (G-Secs) Debentures Bond Commercial Paper An initial public offering (IPO) is the first sale of stock by a private company to the public. IPOs are often issued by smaller, younger companies seeking the capital to expand, but can also be done by large privately owned companies looking to become publicly traded. It is part of primary market.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
The name of Purnima Devi Barman and the Hargilla army, recently seen in the news, is relevant in the context of
|
Women empowerment among the tribals of Assam.
|
Fight against caste heirachies in north east.
|
Conservation of rare adjutant stork species in Assam"s Brahamputra valley.
|
Women empowerment among the tribals of Assam.
|
Purnima Devi Barman and the Hargilla army have got India Biodiversity award, 2016 in the category of conservation of species. The Greater Adjutant bird, is found only in two areas in India and Cambodia. Purnima Devi Barman and the women's Hargilla army protected this endangered species increasing nests three-fold in six years. The India Biodiversity Awards (IBA) is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change and UNDP India, to recognize and honour outstanding models of biodiversity conservation, sustainable use and governance at the grassroots level.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The name of Purnima Devi Barman and the Hargilla army, recently seen in the news, is relevant in the context of##Option_A: Women empowerment among the tribals of Assam.###Option_B: Fight against caste heirachies in north east.##Option_C: Conservation of rare adjutant stork species in Assam"s Brahamputra valley.##Option_D: Women empowerment among the tribals of Assam.##Answer:c##Explaination:Purnima Devi Barman and the Hargilla army have got India Biodiversity award, 2016 in the category of conservation of species. The Greater Adjutant bird, is found only in two areas in India and Cambodia. Purnima Devi Barman and the women's Hargilla army protected this endangered species increasing nests three-fold in six years. The India Biodiversity Awards (IBA) is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change and UNDP India, to recognize and honour outstanding models of biodiversity conservation, sustainable use and governance at the grassroots level.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following rivers originate from the Amarkantak plateau? Narmada Tapi Son Mahanadi Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Narmada and Son are the two rivers originating from Amarkantak Plateau. Tapi - It originates from Multai in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. Mahanadi - It rises near Sihawa in Raipur district of Chhattisgarh.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following rivers originate from the Amarkantak plateau? Narmada Tapi Son Mahanadi Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Narmada and Son are the two rivers originating from Amarkantak Plateau. Tapi - It originates from Multai in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. Mahanadi - It rises near Sihawa in Raipur district of Chhattisgarh.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Which of the following falls under the power of Judicial Review of the High courts? Executive order of the centre. Executive order of the concerned state. Law enacted by Centre. Law enacted by the concerned state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
·
Power of Judicial Review of High Court: Judicial
Review is the power of the High court to examine the constitutionality of:
o
Executive order of the centre.
o
Executive order of the concerned state.
o
Law enacted by Centre.
o
Law enacted by the
concerned state.
·
Hence, all the statements are correct.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following falls under the power of Judicial Review of the High courts? Executive order of the centre. Executive order of the concerned state. Law enacted by Centre. Law enacted by the concerned state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:·
Power of Judicial Review of High Court: Judicial
Review is the power of the High court to examine the constitutionality of:
o
Executive order of the centre.
o
Executive order of the concerned state.
o
Law enacted by Centre.
o
Law enacted by the
concerned state.
·
Hence, all the statements are correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which among the following was the objective of Rowlatt Act?
|
It imposition restrictions the Indians of certain to carry arms.
|
It authorised imprisonment of people without trial.
|
It restricted the movement of people returning to India from abroad.
|
It imposition restrictions the Indians of certain to carry arms.
|
Rowlatt Act, (February 1919), legislation passed by the Imperial Legislative Council, the legislature of British India. The act allowed certain political cases to be tried without juries and permitted internment of suspects without trial. Their object was to replace the repressive provisions of the wartime Defence of India Act (1915) by a permanent law. They were based on the report of Justice S.A.T. Rowlatt's committee of 1918.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following was the objective of Rowlatt Act?##Option_A: It imposition restrictions the Indians of certain to carry arms.###Option_B: It authorised imprisonment of people without trial.##Option_C: It restricted the movement of people returning to India from abroad.##Option_D: It imposition restrictions the Indians of certain to carry arms.##Answer:b##Explaination:Rowlatt Act, (February 1919), legislation passed by the Imperial Legislative Council, the legislature of British India. The act allowed certain political cases to be tried without juries and permitted internment of suspects without trial. Their object was to replace the repressive provisions of the wartime Defence of India Act (1915) by a permanent law. They were based on the report of Justice S.A.T. Rowlatt's committee of 1918.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
The recent amendment to Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 is related to
|
distribution of revenue generated by telecom spectrum auctions between centre and states.
|
make states responsible for regulating fermentation industry in cases of foreign collaborations.
|
transfer the authority to regulate "potable alcohol" to States.
|
distribution of revenue generated by telecom spectrum auctions between centre and states.
|
The Amendment in the First Schedule of Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 to transfer the authority to regulate 'potable alcohol' to States as recommended by the Law Commission in its 158th Report. With this Amendment in the First Schedule of Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951, a long standing confusion about jurisdiction of Central and State - Government on Alcohol - Potable Alcohol and Industrial Alcohol has been resolved. However, Union government will continue to be responsible for formulating all policy and regulating foreign collaborations for all products of fermentation industries, including industrial and potable alcohol.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The recent amendment to Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 is related to##Option_A: distribution of revenue generated by telecom spectrum auctions between centre and states.###Option_B: make states responsible for regulating fermentation industry in cases of foreign collaborations.##Option_C: transfer the authority to regulate "potable alcohol" to States.##Option_D: distribution of revenue generated by telecom spectrum auctions between centre and states.##Answer:c##Explaination:The Amendment in the First Schedule of Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 to transfer the authority to regulate 'potable alcohol' to States as recommended by the Law Commission in its 158th Report. With this Amendment in the First Schedule of Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951, a long standing confusion about jurisdiction of Central and State - Government on Alcohol - Potable Alcohol and Industrial Alcohol has been resolved. However, Union government will continue to be responsible for formulating all policy and regulating foreign collaborations for all products of fermentation industries, including industrial and potable alcohol.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
The compound Mustard Gas has been recently in news. Why?
|
It is a major pollutant in manufacturing of mustard oil.
|
It is used by police forces to control mob.
|
It is a by-product in the extraction of Shale Gas.
|
It is a major pollutant in manufacturing of mustard oil.
|
Sulfur mustard, commonly known as mustard gas, is a cytotoxic and vesicant chemical warfare agent with the ability to form large blisters on the exposed skin and in the lungs. IS Syrian Army troops with mustard gas in an offensive against a Syrian military airport in the eastern province of Deir al-Zor that borders Iraq, state media said on late Monday.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The compound Mustard Gas has been recently in news. Why?##Option_A: It is a major pollutant in manufacturing of mustard oil.###Option_B: It is used by police forces to control mob.##Option_C: It is a by-product in the extraction of Shale Gas.##Option_D: It is a major pollutant in manufacturing of mustard oil.##Answer:d##Explaination:Sulfur mustard, commonly known as mustard gas, is a cytotoxic and vesicant chemical warfare agent with the ability to form large blisters on the exposed skin and in the lungs. IS Syrian Army troops with mustard gas in an offensive against a Syrian military airport in the eastern province of Deir al-Zor that borders Iraq, state media said on late Monday.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
With reference to Bitcoins, consider the following statements: It is a digital code mined after solving a complex maths problem. It is used as peer to peer transaction without any central bank. RBI has recognized and allowed Bitcoins for daily transactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Bitcoin is a form of digital currency, created and held electronically. No one controls it. Bitcoin can be used to buy things electronically. In that sense, it’s like conventional dollars, euros, or yen, which are also traded digitally. However, bitcoin's most important characteristic, and the thing that makes it different to conventional money, is that it is decentralized. No single institution controls the bitcoin network. It is used in peer to peer transaction. The bitcoin protocol - the rules that make bitcoin work - say that only 21 million bitcoins can ever be created by miners. In 2013, RBI issued warning against Bitcoins, however, the Reserve Bank of India has come around to appreciate the strengths of the underlying 'blockchain' technology. But it has not recognized and allowed Bitcoins for daily transactions.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Bitcoins, consider the following statements: It is a digital code mined after solving a complex maths problem. It is used as peer to peer transaction without any central bank. RBI has recognized and allowed Bitcoins for daily transactions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Bitcoin is a form of digital currency, created and held electronically. No one controls it. Bitcoin can be used to buy things electronically. In that sense, it’s like conventional dollars, euros, or yen, which are also traded digitally. However, bitcoin's most important characteristic, and the thing that makes it different to conventional money, is that it is decentralized. No single institution controls the bitcoin network. It is used in peer to peer transaction. The bitcoin protocol - the rules that make bitcoin work - say that only 21 million bitcoins can ever be created by miners. In 2013, RBI issued warning against Bitcoins, however, the Reserve Bank of India has come around to appreciate the strengths of the underlying 'blockchain' technology. But it has not recognized and allowed Bitcoins for daily transactions.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
With reference to Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), which of the statements given below is correct?
|
It is fraction of net demand and time liabilities that scheduled commercial banks keep with the RBI.
|
It is maintained only in cash and gold.
|
It forms part of Liquidity Adjustment Facility.
|
It is fraction of net demand and time liabilities that scheduled commercial banks keep with the RBI.
|
The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a prudential measure under which (as per the Banking Regulations Act 1949) all Scheduled Commercial Banks in India must maintain an amount in one of the following forms as a percentage of their total Demand and Time Liabilities (DTL) / Net DTL (NDTL); (i) Cash. (ii) Gold; or (iii) Investments in un-encumbered Instruments that include; (a) Treasury-Bills of the Government of India. (b) Dated securities including those issued by the Government of India from time to time under the market borrowings programme and the Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS). (c) State Development Loans (SDLs) issued by State Governments under their market borrowings programme. (d) Other instruments as notified by the RBI. In contrast to the CRR, under which banks have to maintain cash with the RBI, the SLR requires holding of assets in one of the above three categories by the bank itself. LAF is a facility extended by the Reserve Bank of India to the scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs) and primary dealers to avail of liquidity in case of requirement or park excess funds with the RBI in case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the collateral of Government securities including State Government securities. The operations of LAF are conducted by way of repurchase agreements (repos and reverse repos) with RBI being the counter-party to all the transactions. It does not include SLR.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), which of the statements given below is correct?##Option_A: It is fraction of net demand and time liabilities that scheduled commercial banks keep with the RBI.###Option_B: It is maintained only in cash and gold.##Option_C: It forms part of Liquidity Adjustment Facility.##Option_D: It is fraction of net demand and time liabilities that scheduled commercial banks keep with the RBI.##Answer:d##Explaination:The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is a prudential measure under which (as per the Banking Regulations Act 1949) all Scheduled Commercial Banks in India must maintain an amount in one of the following forms as a percentage of their total Demand and Time Liabilities (DTL) / Net DTL (NDTL); (i) Cash. (ii) Gold; or (iii) Investments in un-encumbered Instruments that include; (a) Treasury-Bills of the Government of India. (b) Dated securities including those issued by the Government of India from time to time under the market borrowings programme and the Market Stabilization Scheme (MSS). (c) State Development Loans (SDLs) issued by State Governments under their market borrowings programme. (d) Other instruments as notified by the RBI. In contrast to the CRR, under which banks have to maintain cash with the RBI, the SLR requires holding of assets in one of the above three categories by the bank itself. LAF is a facility extended by the Reserve Bank of India to the scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs) and primary dealers to avail of liquidity in case of requirement or park excess funds with the RBI in case of excess liquidity on an overnight basis against the collateral of Government securities including State Government securities. The operations of LAF are conducted by way of repurchase agreements (repos and reverse repos) with RBI being the counter-party to all the transactions. It does not include SLR.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which among the following urban local bodies have no elected members under any circumstance? Notified Area Committee Township Town Area Committee Cantonment Board Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Notified Area Committee is neither an elected body nor a statutory body - All its members are nominated. Township is a type of urban government established by the large public enterprises to provide civic amenities to its staff and workers who live in the housing colonies built near the plant. It has no elected members. Town Area Committee is a set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi municipal authority created by a separate act of a state government. It can be wholly elected or wholly nominated or partially elected and partially nominated. Cantonment Board - It is established for municipal administration of civilian population in the cantonment area. It works under the administrative control of the Defense Ministry of the Central Government. A cantonment board consists of partially elected and partially nominated members.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following urban local bodies have no elected members under any circumstance? Notified Area Committee Township Town Area Committee Cantonment Board Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Notified Area Committee is neither an elected body nor a statutory body - All its members are nominated. Township is a type of urban government established by the large public enterprises to provide civic amenities to its staff and workers who live in the housing colonies built near the plant. It has no elected members. Town Area Committee is a set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi municipal authority created by a separate act of a state government. It can be wholly elected or wholly nominated or partially elected and partially nominated. Cantonment Board - It is established for municipal administration of civilian population in the cantonment area. It works under the administrative control of the Defense Ministry of the Central Government. A cantonment board consists of partially elected and partially nominated members.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is not correct about natural habitats?
|
It is an ecological area that is inhabited by a particular species of animal, plant, or other type of organism.
|
A natural habitat is made up of abiotic factors such as soil and moisture, as well as biotic factors such as the availability of food and the presence or absence of predators.
|
A natural habitat with only a single species is inconceivable in long run except that of plants which makes its own food.
|
It is an ecological area that is inhabited by a particular species of animal, plant, or other type of organism.
|
Any natural habitat on earth that is inhabited just by a single species doesn't exist. There is no such habitat and such a situation is even inconceivable. For any species, the minimal requirement is one more species on which it can feed. Even a plant species, which makes its own food, cannot survive alone; it needs soil microbes to break down the organic matter in soil and return the inorganic nutrients for absorption. It also requires pollinating agents for survival. It is obvious that in nature, animals, plants and microbes do not and cannot live in isolation but interact in various ways to form a biological community. Rest all statements are correct.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is not correct about natural habitats?##Option_A: It is an ecological area that is inhabited by a particular species of animal, plant, or other type of organism.###Option_B: A natural habitat is made up of abiotic factors such as soil and moisture, as well as biotic factors such as the availability of food and the presence or absence of predators.##Option_C: A natural habitat with only a single species is inconceivable in long run except that of plants which makes its own food.##Option_D: It is an ecological area that is inhabited by a particular species of animal, plant, or other type of organism.##Answer:c##Explaination:Any natural habitat on earth that is inhabited just by a single species doesn't exist. There is no such habitat and such a situation is even inconceivable. For any species, the minimal requirement is one more species on which it can feed. Even a plant species, which makes its own food, cannot survive alone; it needs soil microbes to break down the organic matter in soil and return the inorganic nutrients for absorption. It also requires pollinating agents for survival. It is obvious that in nature, animals, plants and microbes do not and cannot live in isolation but interact in various ways to form a biological community. Rest all statements are correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), consider the following statements: It allows all resident individuals to remit upto to a particular limt for both current and capital account transactions. Individuals can open, maintain and hold foreign currency accounts with overseas banks for carrying out transactions. Under LRS, people san also send money to countries identified as ‘non cooperative’ by the Financial Action Task Force. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) Under LRS, all resident individuals can freely remit $250,000 overseas every financial year for a permissible set of current or capital account transactions. Remittances are permitted for overseas education, travel, medical treatment and purchase of shares and property, apart from maintenance of relatives living abroad, gifting and donations. Individuals can also open, maintain and hold foreign currency accounts with overseas banks for carrying out transactions. However, the rules do not allow remittances for trading on the foreign exchange markets, margin or margin calls to overseas exchanges and counterparties and the purchase of Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds issued by Indian companies abroad. Sending money to certain countries and entities is also barred. Under LRS, people can’t send money to countries identified as ‘non cooperative’ by the Financial Action Task Force. Remittances are also prohibited to entities identified as posing terrorist risks. Why is it important? The LRS represents India’s baby steps towards dismantling controls on foreign exchange movements in and out of the country. It has allowed large numbers of Indians to study abroad and diversify their portfolios from purely desi stocks and property.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS), consider the following statements: It allows all resident individuals to remit upto to a particular limt for both current and capital account transactions. Individuals can open, maintain and hold foreign currency accounts with overseas banks for carrying out transactions. Under LRS, people san also send money to countries identified as ‘non cooperative’ by the Financial Action Task Force. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) Under LRS, all resident individuals can freely remit $250,000 overseas every financial year for a permissible set of current or capital account transactions. Remittances are permitted for overseas education, travel, medical treatment and purchase of shares and property, apart from maintenance of relatives living abroad, gifting and donations. Individuals can also open, maintain and hold foreign currency accounts with overseas banks for carrying out transactions. However, the rules do not allow remittances for trading on the foreign exchange markets, margin or margin calls to overseas exchanges and counterparties and the purchase of Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds issued by Indian companies abroad. Sending money to certain countries and entities is also barred. Under LRS, people can’t send money to countries identified as ‘non cooperative’ by the Financial Action Task Force. Remittances are also prohibited to entities identified as posing terrorist risks. Why is it important? The LRS represents India’s baby steps towards dismantling controls on foreign exchange movements in and out of the country. It has allowed large numbers of Indians to study abroad and diversify their portfolios from purely desi stocks and property.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which of the following element forms the highest number of compounds?
|
Oxygen
|
Hydrogen
|
Carbon
|
Oxygen
|
Carbon has the highest number of compunds. It is mainly due to Catenation. Catenation is the tendency of an element to form chains of identical atoms is called catenation. This tendency is observed in the case of non-metals showing covalency of two or more. However, this property is maximum in carbon as it can combine with other carbon atoms by single, double or triple covalent bonds.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following element forms the highest number of compounds?##Option_A: Oxygen###Option_B: Hydrogen##Option_C: Carbon##Option_D: Oxygen##Answer:c##Explaination:Carbon has the highest number of compunds. It is mainly due to Catenation. Catenation is the tendency of an element to form chains of identical atoms is called catenation. This tendency is observed in the case of non-metals showing covalency of two or more. However, this property is maximum in carbon as it can combine with other carbon atoms by single, double or triple covalent bonds.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
With reference to the recently approved National Institutional Ranking Framework, consider the following statements: It outlines a methodology to rank only Engineering and Management institutions across the country. The ranking frameworks are similar but the exact methodologies are domain specific. National Board of Accreditation has undertaken the task of doing the ranking exercise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) outlines a methodology to rank institutions across the country. The methodology draws from the overall recommendations broad understanding arrived at by a Core Committee set up by MHRD, to identify the broad parameters for ranking various universities and institutions. The parameters broadly cover "Teaching, Learning and Resources", "Research and Professional Practices", "Graduation Outcomes", "Outreach and Inclusivity", and "Perception". Although the Ranking Frameworks are similar, the exact methodologies are domain specific. Ranking methods have been worked out for 6 categories of institutions i.e., Engineering, Management, Pharmacy, Architecture, Universities and Colleges. Thus statement 1 is wrong. National Board of Accreditation has undertaken the task of doing the ranking exercise.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the recently approved National Institutional Ranking Framework, consider the following statements: It outlines a methodology to rank only Engineering and Management institutions across the country. The ranking frameworks are similar but the exact methodologies are domain specific. National Board of Accreditation has undertaken the task of doing the ranking exercise. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) outlines a methodology to rank institutions across the country. The methodology draws from the overall recommendations broad understanding arrived at by a Core Committee set up by MHRD, to identify the broad parameters for ranking various universities and institutions. The parameters broadly cover "Teaching, Learning and Resources", "Research and Professional Practices", "Graduation Outcomes", "Outreach and Inclusivity", and "Perception". Although the Ranking Frameworks are similar, the exact methodologies are domain specific. Ranking methods have been worked out for 6 categories of institutions i.e., Engineering, Management, Pharmacy, Architecture, Universities and Colleges. Thus statement 1 is wrong. National Board of Accreditation has undertaken the task of doing the ranking exercise.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Arrange the above fuels in decreasing market share of global energy consumption: Coal Oil Natural Gas Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1-2-3
|
1-3-2
|
2-1-3
|
1-2-3
|
Oil is the world's leading fuel, accounting for 32.9 per cent of global energy consumption and is gaining market share for the first time since 1999. Coal came in as the second-largest fuel by market share (29.2 per cent). Natural gas' market share of primary energy consumption stood at 23.8 per cent.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Arrange the above fuels in decreasing market share of global energy consumption: Coal Oil Natural Gas Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1-2-3###Option_B: 1-3-2##Option_C: 2-1-3##Option_D: 1-2-3##Answer:c##Explaination:Oil is the world's leading fuel, accounting for 32.9 per cent of global energy consumption and is gaining market share for the first time since 1999. Coal came in as the second-largest fuel by market share (29.2 per cent). Natural gas' market share of primary energy consumption stood at 23.8 per cent.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which of the following can be transmitted by blood transfusion? Malaria Hepatitis C Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) Select the correct answer using the code below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Transfusion- transmitted infections (TTIs) are infections resulting from the introduction of a pathogen into a person through blood transfusion. A wide variety of organisms, including bacteria, viruses, prions, and parasites can be transmitted through blood transfusions. Parasitic Disease- Leishmaniasis and Malaria. Viral Disease- Dengue, Hepatitis A/B/C and Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following can be transmitted by blood transfusion? Malaria Hepatitis C Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) Select the correct answer using the code below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Transfusion- transmitted infections (TTIs) are infections resulting from the introduction of a pathogen into a person through blood transfusion. A wide variety of organisms, including bacteria, viruses, prions, and parasites can be transmitted through blood transfusions. Parasitic Disease- Leishmaniasis and Malaria. Viral Disease- Dengue, Hepatitis A/B/C and Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: Mineral Leading Producing State 1. Iron : Odisha 2. Copper : Rajasthan 3. Bauxite : Chhattisgarh 4. Gold : Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
Mineral Leading Producing State Iron : Odisha (Mayurbhanj, Sambalpur, Koraput) Copper : Madhya Pradesh (Balaghat, Betul) Bauxite : Odisha (Kalahandi, Koraput) Gold : Karnataka (Kolar, Dharwad, Raichur)
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Mineral Leading Producing State 1. Iron : Odisha 2. Copper : Rajasthan 3. Bauxite : Chhattisgarh 4. Gold : Karnataka Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 3 and 4 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Mineral Leading Producing State Iron : Odisha (Mayurbhanj, Sambalpur, Koraput) Copper : Madhya Pradesh (Balaghat, Betul) Bauxite : Odisha (Kalahandi, Koraput) Gold : Karnataka (Kolar, Dharwad, Raichur)##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs: Commission Name Subject 1. Aitchison Commission : Education Reforms 2. Welby Commission : Indian Expenditure 3. Fraser Commission : Police Commission Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Aitchison Commission - In 1886, a Public Service Commission was set up by the government of India under the chairmanship of C. U. Aitchison to examine the conditions under which Indians could be appointed to posts ordinarily reserved for the Europeans. It recommended admission of Indians, subject to their fitness, into the Civil Services but did not favour holding of competitive examination simultaneously in India for this purpose. Welby Commission - A Royal Commission under the chairmanship of Lord Welby for examining military and civil expenditures incurred and the apportionment of those charges between government of Britain and India. William Wedderburn and Dadabhai Naoroji were both members of this commission. It said that Indian Office must be consulted regarding charges affecting India and that India's payment to England should be tied to a fixed exchange rate. Fraser Commission - In 1902-03, a Police Commission was established for the Police reforms under Sir Andrew Frazer. "Thugee and Dakaiti Department" was abolished by the Police Commission, because it was now thought that Thugee no longer exists even in the princely states.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Commission Name Subject 1. Aitchison Commission : Education Reforms 2. Welby Commission : Indian Expenditure 3. Fraser Commission : Police Commission Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Aitchison Commission - In 1886, a Public Service Commission was set up by the government of India under the chairmanship of C. U. Aitchison to examine the conditions under which Indians could be appointed to posts ordinarily reserved for the Europeans. It recommended admission of Indians, subject to their fitness, into the Civil Services but did not favour holding of competitive examination simultaneously in India for this purpose. Welby Commission - A Royal Commission under the chairmanship of Lord Welby for examining military and civil expenditures incurred and the apportionment of those charges between government of Britain and India. William Wedderburn and Dadabhai Naoroji were both members of this commission. It said that Indian Office must be consulted regarding charges affecting India and that India's payment to England should be tied to a fixed exchange rate. Fraser Commission - In 1902-03, a Police Commission was established for the Police reforms under Sir Andrew Frazer. "Thugee and Dakaiti Department" was abolished by the Police Commission, because it was now thought that Thugee no longer exists even in the princely states.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about vegetation in Taiga Region: The trees are evergreen and broad-shaped leaves. The forests contain soft wood trees like birch and spruce. The forests are relatively free from undergrowth. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
In Taiga region, coniferous forests occur extensively. The trees are evergreen and needle-shaped leaves prevent loss of moisture by transpiration. The forests contain soft wood trees like birch, cedar, maple and spruce. Also, the forests are relatively free from undergrowth.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about vegetation in Taiga Region: The trees are evergreen and broad-shaped leaves. The forests contain soft wood trees like birch and spruce. The forests are relatively free from undergrowth. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:In Taiga region, coniferous forests occur extensively. The trees are evergreen and needle-shaped leaves prevent loss of moisture by transpiration. The forests contain soft wood trees like birch, cedar, maple and spruce. Also, the forests are relatively free from undergrowth.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Arrange the following crops in the decreasing order of their gross cropped area percentage: Cereals Pulses and Oilseeds Fruits and Vegetables Fibres Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1-3-2-4
|
3-1-4-2
|
1-2-4-3
|
1-3-2-4
|
Correct order is - Cereals > Oilseeds and Pulses > Fibres > Fruits and Vegetables. Percentage Share of Area To Gross Cropped Area of these are s follows: Cereals: 51.20% Pulses and Oilseeds: 11.98% + 14.43% = 26.41% Fruits and vegetables: 2.03% + 2.79% = 4.82% Fibres: 6.73%
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Arrange the following crops in the decreasing order of their gross cropped area percentage: Cereals Pulses and Oilseeds Fruits and Vegetables Fibres Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1-3-2-4###Option_B: 3-1-4-2##Option_C: 1-2-4-3##Option_D: 1-3-2-4##Answer:c##Explaination:Correct order is - Cereals > Oilseeds and Pulses > Fibres > Fruits and Vegetables. Percentage Share of Area To Gross Cropped Area of these are s follows: Cereals: 51.20% Pulses and Oilseeds: 11.98% + 14.43% = 26.41% Fruits and vegetables: 2.03% + 2.79% = 4.82% Fibres: 6.73%##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to All India Kishan Sabha (AIKS), consider the following statements: It was founded in Lucknow with Swami Sahajanand as its president. It demanded the elimination of zamindari system and annulment of rural debts. The Congress manifesto for 1937 elections was influenced by AIKS agenda. Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The All-India Kisan Sabha was formed in April 1936 at Lucknow with Swami Shajanand as President and N.G. Ranga as General-Secretary. The first session of the All-India Kisan Sabha was addressed by Jawaharlal Nehru. Others participants included Ram Manohar Lohia, Sohan Singh Josh, Indulal Yagnik, Jaya Prakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Deva, Kamal Sarkar. A Kisan Sabha manifesto was finalized and this was adopted by the Congress at Faizabad session. The Kisan Sabha held its 2nd session along with the Faizpur Congress Session in 1936. In August 1936, the Kisan Manifesto was released, which demanded the elimination of zamindari system and annulment of rural debts. The Congress manifesto (especially the agrarian policy) for the 1937 provincial elections was strongly influenced by AIKS agenda.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to All India Kishan Sabha (AIKS), consider the following statements: It was founded in Lucknow with Swami Sahajanand as its president. It demanded the elimination of zamindari system and annulment of rural debts. The Congress manifesto for 1937 elections was influenced by AIKS agenda. Which of the statements given above are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The All-India Kisan Sabha was formed in April 1936 at Lucknow with Swami Shajanand as President and N.G. Ranga as General-Secretary. The first session of the All-India Kisan Sabha was addressed by Jawaharlal Nehru. Others participants included Ram Manohar Lohia, Sohan Singh Josh, Indulal Yagnik, Jaya Prakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Deva, Kamal Sarkar. A Kisan Sabha manifesto was finalized and this was adopted by the Congress at Faizabad session. The Kisan Sabha held its 2nd session along with the Faizpur Congress Session in 1936. In August 1936, the Kisan Manifesto was released, which demanded the elimination of zamindari system and annulment of rural debts. The Congress manifesto (especially the agrarian policy) for the 1937 provincial elections was strongly influenced by AIKS agenda.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
With reference to Yoga, consider the following statements: Yogic practices have been traced to Indus valley civilisation. The presence of yoga is seen in Buddhist, Jain and Tantric traditions. The details of yoga have been systematically compiled in Mahabhasya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Yoga is widely considered as an "immortal cultural outcome" of the Indus Saraswati Valley Civilisation - dating back to 2700 BC - and has proven itself to cater to both material and spiritual uplift of humanity. A number of seals and fossil remains of Indus Saraswati Valley Civilisation with Yogic motifs and figures performing Yoga sadhana suggest the presence of Yoga in ancient India. The seals and idols of mother Goddess are suggestive of Tantra Yoga. The presence of Yoga is also available in folk traditions, Vedic and Upanishadic heritage, Buddhist and Jain traditions, Darshanas, epics ofMahabharata including Bhagawadgita and Ramayana, theistic traditions of Shaivas, Vaishnavas and Tantric traditions. Though Yoga was being practiced in the pre-Vedic period, the great sage Maharishi Patanjali systematised and codified the then existing Yogic practices, its meaning and its related knowledge through Patanjali's Yoga Sutras.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Yoga, consider the following statements: Yogic practices have been traced to Indus valley civilisation. The presence of yoga is seen in Buddhist, Jain and Tantric traditions. The details of yoga have been systematically compiled in Mahabhasya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Yoga is widely considered as an "immortal cultural outcome" of the Indus Saraswati Valley Civilisation - dating back to 2700 BC - and has proven itself to cater to both material and spiritual uplift of humanity. A number of seals and fossil remains of Indus Saraswati Valley Civilisation with Yogic motifs and figures performing Yoga sadhana suggest the presence of Yoga in ancient India. The seals and idols of mother Goddess are suggestive of Tantra Yoga. The presence of Yoga is also available in folk traditions, Vedic and Upanishadic heritage, Buddhist and Jain traditions, Darshanas, epics ofMahabharata including Bhagawadgita and Ramayana, theistic traditions of Shaivas, Vaishnavas and Tantric traditions. Though Yoga was being practiced in the pre-Vedic period, the great sage Maharishi Patanjali systematised and codified the then existing Yogic practices, its meaning and its related knowledge through Patanjali's Yoga Sutras.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: In a step-down transformer the AC output gives the current more than the input current. A Mobile phone charger is essentially a step down transformer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
A transformer that reduces the output voltage is called a step down transformer. In a step-down transformer the AC output gives the current less than the input current as the voltage also reduces. A Mobile phone charger is essentially a step down transformer. The cellphone charger extracts the power from the home supply (AC 220V) and converts it to a DC level of required voltage.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: In a step-down transformer the AC output gives the current more than the input current. A Mobile phone charger is essentially a step down transformer. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:A transformer that reduces the output voltage is called a step down transformer. In a step-down transformer the AC output gives the current less than the input current as the voltage also reduces. A Mobile phone charger is essentially a step down transformer. The cellphone charger extracts the power from the home supply (AC 220V) and converts it to a DC level of required voltage.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding Lok Adalat: It is headed by either sitting or retired judicial officer. It can settle both civil and criminal case. Its awards are binding and final. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Legal Services Authorities Act (1987) has established a nation-wide network to provide free and competent legal aid to the poor and to organise lok adalats for promoting equal justice. Lok adalat is a statutory forum for conciliatory settlement of legal disputes. The Lok Adalat is presided over by a sitting or retired judicial officer as the chairman, with two other members, usually a lawyer and a social worker. Hence, 1st statement is correct. A Lok Adalat has the jurisdiction to settle, by way of effecting compromise between the parties, any matter which may be pending before any court, as well as matters at pre-litigative stage i.e. disputes which have not yet been formally instituted in any Court of Law. Such matters may be civil or criminal in nature , but any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under any law cannot be decided by the Lok Adalat even if the parties involved therein agree to settle the same . Hence, 2nd statement is correct. It has been given the status of a civil court . Its awards are enforceable, binding on the parties and final as no appeal lies before any court against them. Hence, 3rd statement is correct.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Lok Adalat: It is headed by either sitting or retired judicial officer. It can settle both civil and criminal case. Its awards are binding and final. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Legal Services Authorities Act (1987) has established a nation-wide network to provide free and competent legal aid to the poor and to organise lok adalats for promoting equal justice. Lok adalat is a statutory forum for conciliatory settlement of legal disputes. The Lok Adalat is presided over by a sitting or retired judicial officer as the chairman, with two other members, usually a lawyer and a social worker. Hence, 1st statement is correct. A Lok Adalat has the jurisdiction to settle, by way of effecting compromise between the parties, any matter which may be pending before any court, as well as matters at pre-litigative stage i.e. disputes which have not yet been formally instituted in any Court of Law. Such matters may be civil or criminal in nature , but any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under any law cannot be decided by the Lok Adalat even if the parties involved therein agree to settle the same . Hence, 2nd statement is correct. It has been given the status of a civil court . Its awards are enforceable, binding on the parties and final as no appeal lies before any court against them. Hence, 3rd statement is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA), The Hague, consider the following statements: It works under the aegis of United Nations. It was first permanent organization to solve international disputes through arbitration. India is a member country of PCA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) is an intergovernmental organization located at The Hague in the Netherlands. The PCA is not a court, but rather an organiser of arbitral tribunals to resolve conflicts between member states. It should not be confused with the International Court of Justice, a separate institution. The court was established in 1899 by the first Hague Peace Conference. It was first permanent organization to solve international disputes through arbitration. India is a member country of PCA. It was in news due to Italian marine, Salvatore Girone, facing a murder charge in India.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA), The Hague, consider the following statements: It works under the aegis of United Nations. It was first permanent organization to solve international disputes through arbitration. India is a member country of PCA. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) is an intergovernmental organization located at The Hague in the Netherlands. The PCA is not a court, but rather an organiser of arbitral tribunals to resolve conflicts between member states. It should not be confused with the International Court of Justice, a separate institution. The court was established in 1899 by the first Hague Peace Conference. It was first permanent organization to solve international disputes through arbitration. India is a member country of PCA. It was in news due to Italian marine, Salvatore Girone, facing a murder charge in India.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Submarine canyons can be found on which of the following oceanic floor features? Continental Shelf Continental Slope Continental Rise Abyssal Plains Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
4 only
|
1 only
|
Submarine canyons are deep gorges on the ocean floor. They are strikingly deep valleys with steep slopes that form long concave profiles. They occur around all the coasts of the world and are mainly restricted to the continental shelf, slope and rise.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Submarine canyons can be found on which of the following oceanic floor features? Continental Shelf Continental Slope Continental Rise Abyssal Plains Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Submarine canyons are deep gorges on the ocean floor. They are strikingly deep valleys with steep slopes that form long concave profiles. They occur around all the coasts of the world and are mainly restricted to the continental shelf, slope and rise. ##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding the idea of ‘Liberty’ in preamble: This idea has been taken from Russian revolution. Liberty conceived by the preamble is absolute. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in our preamble have been taken from the French revolution. The ideal of justice - social, economic and political- has been taken from the Russian Revolution. Liberty doesn't mean 'license' to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within limitations mentioned in the constitution itself. In brief, the liberty conceived by the preamble or fundamental rights is not absolute but qualified.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the idea of ‘Liberty’ in preamble: This idea has been taken from Russian revolution. Liberty conceived by the preamble is absolute. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in our preamble have been taken from the French revolution. The ideal of justice - social, economic and political- has been taken from the Russian Revolution. Liberty doesn't mean 'license' to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within limitations mentioned in the constitution itself. In brief, the liberty conceived by the preamble or fundamental rights is not absolute but qualified.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: Power to legislate on residuary subjects is vested in the Parliament. If there is a conflict between the central law and state law for a concurrent subject, it is the former which always prevails. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Article 248: Residuary powers of legislation: Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. Such power shall include the power of making any law imposing a tax not mentioned in either of those Lists In case of a conflict between the Central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in a concurrent list, it is the central law which prevails. But there is an exception. If the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent, then the state law prevails in that state. However, Parliament can still override such a law by making a law on the same matter.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Power to legislate on residuary subjects is vested in the Parliament. If there is a conflict between the central law and state law for a concurrent subject, it is the former which always prevails. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Article 248: Residuary powers of legislation: Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. Such power shall include the power of making any law imposing a tax not mentioned in either of those Lists In case of a conflict between the Central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in a concurrent list, it is the central law which prevails. But there is an exception. If the state law has been reserved for the consideration of the President and has received his assent, then the state law prevails in that state. However, Parliament can still override such a law by making a law on the same matter.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The steel sector has witnessed de-accelerated growth in the last year owing to which of the following reasons? Slowdown in global demand Surge in steel imports Higher borrowing and raw material costs Lower productivity Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
The steel and aluminum industries have witnessed deaccelerated growth in the last year. Due to near-stagnant demand for steel globally, and in particular in China, major global steel producers are pushing steel products into the Indian market, leading to a surge in steel imports. The Indian steel industry with higher borrowing and raw material costs and lower productivity is at a comparative disadvantage.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The steel sector has witnessed de-accelerated growth in the last year owing to which of the following reasons? Slowdown in global demand Surge in steel imports Higher borrowing and raw material costs Lower productivity Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The steel and aluminum industries have witnessed deaccelerated growth in the last year. Due to near-stagnant demand for steel globally, and in particular in China, major global steel producers are pushing steel products into the Indian market, leading to a surge in steel imports. The Indian steel industry with higher borrowing and raw material costs and lower productivity is at a comparative disadvantage.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
With reference to Iqtadari system of Delhi Sultanate, consider the following statements: Iqtadars were responsible for collection of revenue and maintance of law and order. Iqtadars were provided hereditary rights in land granted to them as iqtas Iqtadars could mint coins in their name. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Initially the Delhi Sultans had divided their empire into several 'Iqtas' or provinces or spheres of influence and put them under the charge of officers called 'Iqtadars' (governors). Duties and powers of the Iqtadar: He was under the supervision of the Central government and carried on orders of the Sultan. He enjoyed the same powers in the province as the Sultan enjoyed in the empire. He maintained large armies and was required to send the same when asked by the Sultan. He maintained order in the territory under his charge and protected the life and property of the people. He appointed soldiers in his army. He collected revenue from the people of his territory. From the revenue thus collected he administered expenditure on the maintenance of his army, his pay and other administrative expenditure and deposited the rest in the state treasury. He sent yearly report of his income and expenditure to the centre. Restrictions on the Iqtadar: The Iqtadar did not enjoy hereditary powers. The Sultan could take back Iqta from him whenever he pleased. The Iqtadar was liable to be transferred from one place to another. He could not engage himself in wars of extension without the prior approval of the Sultan. He was required to send a part of the booty to the Sultan. The elephants and the members of the royal family captured during wars were to be sent to the Sultan. He was not allowed to hold his own court. He could not use a canopy or royal emblem. He could not mint coins in his name. He could not read 'Khutba' in his name.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Iqtadari system of Delhi Sultanate, consider the following statements: Iqtadars were responsible for collection of revenue and maintance of law and order. Iqtadars were provided hereditary rights in land granted to them as iqtas Iqtadars could mint coins in their name. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Initially the Delhi Sultans had divided their empire into several 'Iqtas' or provinces or spheres of influence and put them under the charge of officers called 'Iqtadars' (governors). Duties and powers of the Iqtadar: He was under the supervision of the Central government and carried on orders of the Sultan. He enjoyed the same powers in the province as the Sultan enjoyed in the empire. He maintained large armies and was required to send the same when asked by the Sultan. He maintained order in the territory under his charge and protected the life and property of the people. He appointed soldiers in his army. He collected revenue from the people of his territory. From the revenue thus collected he administered expenditure on the maintenance of his army, his pay and other administrative expenditure and deposited the rest in the state treasury. He sent yearly report of his income and expenditure to the centre. Restrictions on the Iqtadar: The Iqtadar did not enjoy hereditary powers. The Sultan could take back Iqta from him whenever he pleased. The Iqtadar was liable to be transferred from one place to another. He could not engage himself in wars of extension without the prior approval of the Sultan. He was required to send a part of the booty to the Sultan. The elephants and the members of the royal family captured during wars were to be sent to the Sultan. He was not allowed to hold his own court. He could not use a canopy or royal emblem. He could not mint coins in his name. He could not read 'Khutba' in his name.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:a
|
"Instruments of Instructions" enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935 is a precursor to:
|
Emergency Provisions
|
Directive Principles of State Policy
|
Fundamental Duties
|
Emergency Provisions
|
The directive principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935. The only difference is that the DPSPs are the instructions to the legislature and the executive.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Instruments of Instructions" enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935 is a precursor to:##Option_A: Emergency Provisions###Option_B: Directive Principles of State Policy##Option_C: Fundamental Duties##Option_D: Emergency Provisions##Answer:b##Explaination:The directive principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935. The only difference is that the DPSPs are the instructions to the legislature and the executive.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is the primary factor responsible for location of oil refinery at Mathura and fertilizer plant at Jagdishpur?
|
Availability of raw material
|
Availability of water body nearby
|
Favourable government policy
|
Availability of raw material
|
Location of oil refinery at Mathura, coach factory at Kapurthala and fertilizer plant at Jagdishpur are some of the results of government policies. Raw material is not a factor for location of oil refinery at Mathura. Also, there is no water body near Jagdishpur. Therefore, both options (a) and (b) can be eliminated. Industrial Inertia - Industries tend to develop at the place of their original establishment, though the original cause may have disappeared. The lock industry at Aligarh is such an example.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is the primary factor responsible for location of oil refinery at Mathura and fertilizer plant at Jagdishpur?##Option_A: Availability of raw material###Option_B: Availability of water body nearby##Option_C: Favourable government policy##Option_D: Availability of raw material##Answer:c##Explaination:Location of oil refinery at Mathura, coach factory at Kapurthala and fertilizer plant at Jagdishpur are some of the results of government policies. Raw material is not a factor for location of oil refinery at Mathura. Also, there is no water body near Jagdishpur. Therefore, both options (a) and (b) can be eliminated. Industrial Inertia - Industries tend to develop at the place of their original establishment, though the original cause may have disappeared. The lock industry at Aligarh is such an example.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
With reference to headline inflation consider the following statements: It is a measure of inflation which excludes items that face volatile price movement. In India, it is measured through Wholesale Price Index. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Core Inflation, also known as underlying inflation, is a measure of inflation which excludes items that face volatile price movement, notably food and energy. In other words, Core Inflation is nothing but Headline Inflation minus inflation that is contributed by food and energy commodities. Headline inflation reflects the rate of change in prices of all goods and services in an economy over a period of time. In India, headline inflation is measured through the WPI - which consists of 676 commodities (services are not included in WPI in India). It is measured on year-on-year basis i.e., rate of change in price level in a given month vis-a-vis corresponding month of last year. This is also known as point to point inflation.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to headline inflation consider the following statements: It is a measure of inflation which excludes items that face volatile price movement. In India, it is measured through Wholesale Price Index. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Core Inflation, also known as underlying inflation, is a measure of inflation which excludes items that face volatile price movement, notably food and energy. In other words, Core Inflation is nothing but Headline Inflation minus inflation that is contributed by food and energy commodities. Headline inflation reflects the rate of change in prices of all goods and services in an economy over a period of time. In India, headline inflation is measured through the WPI - which consists of 676 commodities (services are not included in WPI in India). It is measured on year-on-year basis i.e., rate of change in price level in a given month vis-a-vis corresponding month of last year. This is also known as point to point inflation.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Majjhima Nikaya, part of Sutta Pitaka is a dialogue between a King named Avantiputta and a disciple of Buddha named Kachchana. What is dialogue all about?
|
Resistance by Chandalas against existing social order
|
Rejection of Varna system
|
Spirit of free enquiry
|
Resistance by Chandalas against existing social order
|
Majjhima Nikaya, is part of a dialogue between a king named Avantiputta and a disciple of the Buddha named Kachchana. While it may not be literally true, it reveals Buddhist attitudes towards varna. After there conversation, Avantiputta conceded that there was no difference amongst the varnas.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Majjhima Nikaya, part of Sutta Pitaka is a dialogue between a King named Avantiputta and a disciple of Buddha named Kachchana. What is dialogue all about?##Option_A: Resistance by Chandalas against existing social order###Option_B: Rejection of Varna system##Option_C: Spirit of free enquiry##Option_D: Resistance by Chandalas against existing social order##Answer:b##Explaination:Majjhima Nikaya, is part of a dialogue between a king named Avantiputta and a disciple of the Buddha named Kachchana. While it may not be literally true, it reveals Buddhist attitudes towards varna. After there conversation, Avantiputta conceded that there was no difference amongst the varnas.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
With reference to Corporate social responsibility (CSR) in India, consider the following statements: It is applicable to every company incorporated in India, including a foreign company having its branch office in India. It has been provided legal backing through Companies Act, 2013. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
United Nation's Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) defines CSR in terms of the responsiveness of businesses to stakeholders’ legal, ethical, social and environmental expectations. According to them, Corporate Social Responsibility is a management concept whereby companies integrate social and environmental concerns in their business operations and interactions with their stakeholders. CSR spending is applicable to every company incorporated in India subject to the eligibility criteria mentioned under Companies (CSR Policy) Rules. 2014 , including its holding or subsidiary, and a foreign company having its branch office or project office in India. Unlike many other countries wherein CSR activities are voluntary, the same is mandated by law in India. Section 135 and Schedule VII of the Companies Act, 2013, relates to CSR related spending by companies. Companies (Corporate Social Responsibility Policy) Rules, 2014 was notified on 27th February 2014 and came into force from 01.04.2014. These Rules provide for the manner in which CSR activities shall be formulated, undertaken, reported and monitored.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Corporate social responsibility (CSR) in India, consider the following statements: It is applicable to every company incorporated in India, including a foreign company having its branch office in India. It has been provided legal backing through Companies Act, 2013. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:United Nation's Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) defines CSR in terms of the responsiveness of businesses to stakeholders’ legal, ethical, social and environmental expectations. According to them, Corporate Social Responsibility is a management concept whereby companies integrate social and environmental concerns in their business operations and interactions with their stakeholders. CSR spending is applicable to every company incorporated in India subject to the eligibility criteria mentioned under Companies (CSR Policy) Rules. 2014 , including its holding or subsidiary, and a foreign company having its branch office or project office in India. Unlike many other countries wherein CSR activities are voluntary, the same is mandated by law in India. Section 135 and Schedule VII of the Companies Act, 2013, relates to CSR related spending by companies. Companies (Corporate Social Responsibility Policy) Rules, 2014 was notified on 27th February 2014 and came into force from 01.04.2014. These Rules provide for the manner in which CSR activities shall be formulated, undertaken, reported and monitored.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
The Baltic Dry Index is an indicator related to:
|
movement of people and freight from Baltic sea, one of the busiest sea routes of the world.
|
price of oil and natural gas in major economies of the world based out of Asia, Europe and North America.
|
an assessment of the price of moving the major raw materials by important sea routes.
|
movement of people and freight from Baltic sea, one of the busiest sea routes of the world.
|
The Baltic Dry Index (BDI) is an economic indicator issued daily by the London-based Baltic Exchange. Not restricted to Baltic Sea countries. The index provides an assessment of the price of moving the major raw materials by sea. Taking in 23 shipping routes measured on a timecharter basis, the index covers Handysize, Supramax, Panamax, and Capesize dry bulk carriers (types of freight carriers or vessels) carrying a range of commodities including coal, iron ore and grain. A decline in the Baltic Index over FY 2015-16 is a reflection of slowdown in India’s and the world’s merchandise trade as well as of overseas shipping services.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Baltic Dry Index is an indicator related to:##Option_A: movement of people and freight from Baltic sea, one of the busiest sea routes of the world.###Option_B: price of oil and natural gas in major economies of the world based out of Asia, Europe and North America.##Option_C: an assessment of the price of moving the major raw materials by important sea routes.##Option_D: movement of people and freight from Baltic sea, one of the busiest sea routes of the world.##Answer:c##Explaination:The Baltic Dry Index (BDI) is an economic indicator issued daily by the London-based Baltic Exchange. Not restricted to Baltic Sea countries. The index provides an assessment of the price of moving the major raw materials by sea. Taking in 23 shipping routes measured on a timecharter basis, the index covers Handysize, Supramax, Panamax, and Capesize dry bulk carriers (types of freight carriers or vessels) carrying a range of commodities including coal, iron ore and grain. A decline in the Baltic Index over FY 2015-16 is a reflection of slowdown in India’s and the world’s merchandise trade as well as of overseas shipping services.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Which among the following events influenced the course of the Ghadar movement? Komagata Maru incident Outbreak of first World war Singh Sabha movement Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Three events influenced the course of the Ghadar movement: the arrest and escape of Har Dayal, the Komagata Maru incident and the outbreak of the First World War. The Singh Sabha Movement was a Sikh movement begun in the late 19th century. The movement's aims were the revival of the Sikh Gurus' teachings, the production of religious literature in the Punjabi language using the Gurmukhi script. It did not impact the Ghadar movement.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following events influenced the course of the Ghadar movement? Komagata Maru incident Outbreak of first World war Singh Sabha movement Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Three events influenced the course of the Ghadar movement: the arrest and escape of Har Dayal, the Komagata Maru incident and the outbreak of the First World War. The Singh Sabha Movement was a Sikh movement begun in the late 19th century. The movement's aims were the revival of the Sikh Gurus' teachings, the production of religious literature in the Punjabi language using the Gurmukhi script. It did not impact the Ghadar movement.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
Arrange the following peaks in India in the order of location from west to east: Kangchenjunga Nanda Devi Kamet Saltoro Kangri Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
4-1-2-3
|
4-3-2-1
|
3-1-4-2
|
4-1-2-3
|
These four are amongst the highest peaks in India: Saltoro Kangri - Jammu and Kashmir Kamet - Uttrakhand Nanda Devi - Uttrakhand Kangchenjunga - Sikkim
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Arrange the following peaks in India in the order of location from west to east: Kangchenjunga Nanda Devi Kamet Saltoro Kangri Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 4-1-2-3###Option_B: 4-3-2-1##Option_C: 3-1-4-2##Option_D: 4-1-2-3##Answer:b##Explaination:These four are amongst the highest peaks in India: Saltoro Kangri - Jammu and Kashmir Kamet - Uttrakhand Nanda Devi - Uttrakhand Kangchenjunga - Sikkim##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
With reference to temples at Khajuraho, consider the following statements: They are made of sandstone. They were patronised by Chandella dynasty. They belong to both Hinduism and Jainism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The temples at Khajuraho were built during the Chandella dynasty, which reached its apogee between 950 and 1050. Only about 20 temples remain; they fall into three distinct groups and belong to two different religions - Hinduism and Jainism. The Khajuraho temples are made of sandstone, with a granite foundation that is almost concealed from view.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to temples at Khajuraho, consider the following statements: They are made of sandstone. They were patronised by Chandella dynasty. They belong to both Hinduism and Jainism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The temples at Khajuraho were built during the Chandella dynasty, which reached its apogee between 950 and 1050. Only about 20 temples remain; they fall into three distinct groups and belong to two different religions - Hinduism and Jainism. The Khajuraho temples are made of sandstone, with a granite foundation that is almost concealed from view.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Recently, there was a revision of the limits of the piracy High Risk Area (HRA) shifting it away from the India’s western coastline. Which of the following international body is in charge of setting these boundaries?
|
Contact Group of Piracy off the Coast of Somalia
|
International Maritime Organization
|
World Trade Organization
|
Contact Group of Piracy off the Coast of Somalia
|
The Contact Group on Piracy off the Coast of Somalia (CGPCS) was created on January 14, 2009 pursuant to UN Security Council Resolution 1851. This voluntary, ad hoc international forum brings together countries, organizations, and industry groups with an interest in combating piracy. Participating states seek to coordinate political, military, and other efforts to bring an end to piracy off the coast of Somalia and to ensure that pirates are brought to justice. European Union Chair of the Contact Group of Piracy off the Coast of Somalia (CGPCS) announced the revision of the limits of the piracy High Risk Area (HRA) with effect from 01 December 15.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently, there was a revision of the limits of the piracy High Risk Area (HRA) shifting it away from the India’s western coastline. Which of the following international body is in charge of setting these boundaries?##Option_A: Contact Group of Piracy off the Coast of Somalia###Option_B: International Maritime Organization##Option_C: World Trade Organization##Option_D: Contact Group of Piracy off the Coast of Somalia##Answer:a##Explaination:The Contact Group on Piracy off the Coast of Somalia (CGPCS) was created on January 14, 2009 pursuant to UN Security Council Resolution 1851. This voluntary, ad hoc international forum brings together countries, organizations, and industry groups with an interest in combating piracy. Participating states seek to coordinate political, military, and other efforts to bring an end to piracy off the coast of Somalia and to ensure that pirates are brought to justice. European Union Chair of the Contact Group of Piracy off the Coast of Somalia (CGPCS) announced the revision of the limits of the piracy High Risk Area (HRA) with effect from 01 December 15.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of recently enacted Anti Hijacking Bill, 2016 passed by the Parliament? It provides death penalty in case of the death of hostage or crew. Hijacking is a non-bailable crime under the bill. Hijacking and the related offences shall be extraditable. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Under the bill, any aid to the hijacker will be prosecuted for abetting the crime Making a credible threat to commit hijack is also an offence. Directing someone else to commit or agreeing with the crime is also an offence under the Anti-Hijacking Bill. Hijacking is a non-bailable crime under the bill. Punishment for hijacking: Death penalty in case of the death of hostage or crew. Life imprisonment in all other cases. Confiscation of all movable and immovable property of the hijacker. Extradition: Hijacking and the related offences shall be extraditable. Extraditable offences are those offences for which one country many transfer the accused to another country's legal jurisdiction. No request for extradition shall be refused on the ground that hijacking is a political offence or is connected to a political offence.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of recently enacted Anti Hijacking Bill, 2016 passed by the Parliament? It provides death penalty in case of the death of hostage or crew. Hijacking is a non-bailable crime under the bill. Hijacking and the related offences shall be extraditable. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Under the bill, any aid to the hijacker will be prosecuted for abetting the crime Making a credible threat to commit hijack is also an offence. Directing someone else to commit or agreeing with the crime is also an offence under the Anti-Hijacking Bill. Hijacking is a non-bailable crime under the bill. Punishment for hijacking: Death penalty in case of the death of hostage or crew. Life imprisonment in all other cases. Confiscation of all movable and immovable property of the hijacker. Extradition: Hijacking and the related offences shall be extraditable. Extraditable offences are those offences for which one country many transfer the accused to another country's legal jurisdiction. No request for extradition shall be refused on the ground that hijacking is a political offence or is connected to a political offence.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
In the context of modern scientific research, what is Bigelow Expandable Activity Module (BEAM), recently seen in news?
|
An experimental expandable space station module.
|
A satellite to provide internet connectivity in remote regions.
|
An underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region.
|
An experimental expandable space station module.
|
The Bigelow Expandable Activity Module (BEAM) is an experimental expandable space station module developed by Bigelow Aerospace, under contract to NASA, for testing as a temporary module on the International Space Station (ISS) from 2016 to 2018.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of modern scientific research, what is Bigelow Expandable Activity Module (BEAM), recently seen in news?##Option_A: An experimental expandable space station module. ###Option_B: A satellite to provide internet connectivity in remote regions.##Option_C: An underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region.##Option_D: An experimental expandable space station module. ##Answer:a##Explaination:The Bigelow Expandable Activity Module (BEAM) is an experimental expandable space station module developed by Bigelow Aerospace, under contract to NASA, for testing as a temporary module on the International Space Station (ISS) from 2016 to 2018.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
Pelindaba Treaty, recently seen in news, is related to which of the following?
|
promotion of sustainable economic development
|
prevention of nuclear proliferation
|
prevention of wildlife trafficking
|
promotion of sustainable economic development
|
The Pelindaba Treaty signed in 1996, also known as the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone Treaty, aims at preventing nuclear proliferation and preventing strategic minerals of Africa from being exported freely. On the sidelines of its campaign for membership in the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), India is likely to ask African countries to relax commitment to the Pelindaba Treaty which controls supply of uranium from key mineral hubs of Africa to the rest of the world.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Pelindaba Treaty, recently seen in news, is related to which of the following?##Option_A: promotion of sustainable economic development###Option_B: prevention of nuclear proliferation##Option_C: prevention of wildlife trafficking##Option_D: promotion of sustainable economic development##Answer:b##Explaination:The Pelindaba Treaty signed in 1996, also known as the African Nuclear Weapon Free Zone Treaty, aims at preventing nuclear proliferation and preventing strategic minerals of Africa from being exported freely. On the sidelines of its campaign for membership in the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG), India is likely to ask African countries to relax commitment to the Pelindaba Treaty which controls supply of uranium from key mineral hubs of Africa to the rest of the world.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
The parliament can make laws on State list if: There is constitutional breakdown of state machinery The Chief Ministers of two or more states request the parliament Parliament passes a motion for the same with special majority It is for implementing international treaties Select the correct answer using code given below.
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: If President rule is being invoked in the state then the Parliament can make laws on matters mentioned in the state list and the state legislative assembly is suspended. Statement 2 is not correct: It is the state legislatures which make the request not the Chief Ministers. Statement 3 is not correct: It is not the Parliament rather the Upper House (Rajya Sabha) which can pass a resolution with a special majority of not less than two thirds of members present and voting, if it is necessary in national interest that parliament should make laws on any matter mentioned in the State List. Statement 4 is correct: The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions. This provision enables the Central government to fulfill its international obligations and commitments.
|
a
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The parliament can make laws on State list if: There is constitutional breakdown of state machinery The Chief Ministers of two or more states request the parliament Parliament passes a motion for the same with special majority It is for implementing international treaties Select the correct answer using code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: If President rule is being invoked in the state then the Parliament can make laws on matters mentioned in the state list and the state legislative assembly is suspended. Statement 2 is not correct: It is the state legislatures which make the request not the Chief Ministers. Statement 3 is not correct: It is not the Parliament rather the Upper House (Rajya Sabha) which can pass a resolution with a special majority of not less than two thirds of members present and voting, if it is necessary in national interest that parliament should make laws on any matter mentioned in the State List. Statement 4 is correct: The Parliament can make laws on any matter in the State List for implementing the international treaties, agreements or conventions. This provision enables the Central government to fulfill its international obligations and commitments.##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding the representation of Union territories in Rajya Sabha:
1. All the union territories are represented in Rajya sabha.
2. Representatives are elected by the elected members of legislative assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Only Delhi and Puducherry are represented.
The population of other five Union territories are too small to have any representative in Rajya Sabha .
Statement 2 is incorrect : Representatives are elected by the electoral college specially constituted for the purpose.
Representatives of states in Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of legislative assembly
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding the representation of Union territories in Rajya Sabha:
1. All the union territories are represented in Rajya sabha.
2. Representatives are elected by the elected members of legislative assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: Only Delhi and Puducherry are represented.
The population of other five Union territories are too small to have any representative in Rajya Sabha .
Statement 2 is incorrect : Representatives are elected by the electoral college specially constituted for the purpose.
Representatives of states in Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of legislative assembly
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to State legislature, consider the following statements :
1. Laws passed by it are only applicable with in the territory of the state.
2. During the national emergency both State legislature and Parliament can make laws on same matter.
3. It has exclusive power to introduce bills on all matters mentioned in State List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : The laws made by the state legislature can also be applicable in any other state it there is a strong nexus among the states.
Statement 2 is correct : During the national emergency the state legislature is not suspended and so it also can make laws on matters enumerated in the state list but if any law overlaps with the central law then to the extent of repugnancy the central law overrides the state law.
Statement 3 is not correct : The state legislature in normal circumstances has exclusive power to make laws on matters enumerated in State list. But on certain matters previous sanction of the President is required. For example bill imposing restriction on freedom of trade and commerce.
Hence the correct code is b.
|
b
|
Center-State Legislative Relations
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to State legislature, consider the following statements :
1. Laws passed by it are only applicable with in the territory of the state.
2. During the national emergency both State legislature and Parliament can make laws on same matter.
3. It has exclusive power to introduce bills on all matters mentioned in State List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct : The laws made by the state legislature can also be applicable in any other state it there is a strong nexus among the states.
Statement 2 is correct : During the national emergency the state legislature is not suspended and so it also can make laws on matters enumerated in the state list but if any law overlaps with the central law then to the extent of repugnancy the central law overrides the state law.
Statement 3 is not correct : The state legislature in normal circumstances has exclusive power to make laws on matters enumerated in State list. But on certain matters previous sanction of the President is required. For example bill imposing restriction on freedom of trade and commerce.
Hence the correct code is b.
##Topic:Center-State Legislative Relations##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the executive powers and functions of the union, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Unlike legislative powers, the distribution of executive powers between the centre and states is rigid. 2. If a state fails to comply with executive directions given by the centre then the legislative assembly of the state can be dissolved. 3. The delegation of the executive functions of the centre to a state complusorily requires the consent of that state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: The distribution of legislative powers between the centre and states is rigid as article 246 provides three lists where as there is no as such rigidity in the division of executive power between the centre and states. For example, the President with the consent of the state government may entrust any of the executive functions to that state. Similarly the Governor of a state with the consent of the central government may entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state. Statement 2 is correct: If the state fails to comply with the executive direction of the centre then the President rule can be imposed as per article 356. So the state legislative assembly can be dissolved. Statement 3 is not correct: It can be done even without the consent of the state. The Parliament can make a law on the union list and can confer the executive powers on the states.
|
c
|
Administrative relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the executive powers and functions of the union, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Unlike legislative powers, the distribution of executive powers between the centre and states is rigid. 2. If a state fails to comply with executive directions given by the centre then the legislative assembly of the state can be dissolved. 3. The delegation of the executive functions of the centre to a state complusorily requires the consent of that state. Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: The distribution of legislative powers between the centre and states is rigid as article 246 provides three lists where as there is no as such rigidity in the division of executive power between the centre and states. For example, the President with the consent of the state government may entrust any of the executive functions to that state. Similarly the Governor of a state with the consent of the central government may entrust to that government any of the executive functions of the state. Statement 2 is correct: If the state fails to comply with the executive direction of the centre then the President rule can be imposed as per article 356. So the state legislative assembly can be dissolved. Statement 3 is not correct: It can be done even without the consent of the state. The Parliament can make a law on the union list and can confer the executive powers on the states.##Topic:Administrative relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to Finance Commission,consider the following statements : 1.It members must have experiences in financial matters. 2.All its recommendations are implemented by executive orders 3.It is not a permanent body Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : Parliament has enacted the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act,1951 which lays down the desired qualifications to be appointed as a memeber to the Finance Commission. As per this act not necessarily all members must be from financial backgrounds.One member of Finance Commission must be a high court judge or a person having qualifications to become a high court judge. Statement 2 is not correct : All the recommendations of the Finance Commission are not necessarily implemented by executive orders. Some recommendations are to be implemented by an order of the President. For example, recommendations relating to distribution of Union Taxes and Duties and Grants-in-aid fall in this category. And recommendations in respect of sharing of Profit Petroleum, Debt Relief, Mode of Central Assistance, etc. are implemented by executive orders. Statement 3 is correct : The commission is not a permanent body because it has a term of five years. Hence the correct code d
|
d
|
Financial Relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Finance Commission,consider the following statements : 1.It members must have experiences in financial matters. 2.All its recommendations are implemented by executive orders 3.It is not a permanent body Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : Parliament has enacted the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act,1951 which lays down the desired qualifications to be appointed as a memeber to the Finance Commission. As per this act not necessarily all members must be from financial backgrounds.One member of Finance Commission must be a high court judge or a person having qualifications to become a high court judge. Statement 2 is not correct : All the recommendations of the Finance Commission are not necessarily implemented by executive orders. Some recommendations are to be implemented by an order of the President. For example, recommendations relating to distribution of Union Taxes and Duties and Grants-in-aid fall in this category. And recommendations in respect of sharing of Profit Petroleum, Debt Relief, Mode of Central Assistance, etc. are implemented by executive orders. Statement 3 is correct : The commission is not a permanent body because it has a term of five years. Hence the correct code d##Topic:Financial Relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. The net proceeds of taxes mean total amount of tax levied by the government 2. The net proceeds of taxes on subjects enumerated in the Union list form the part of the Consolidated Fund of India 3. The manner of distribution of the net proceeds of taxes is solely decided by the parliament Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct : The net proceeds of taxes mean the total tax received after deducting the cost of collection. Statement 2 is not correct : The centre has exclusive power to tax on a subject mentioned in the Union list but there are certain taxes which are levied by the centre and do not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India e.g Central Sales Tax. Statement 3 is not correct : There are certain taxes which are levied by the state legislatures and the parliament has no role in it. Besides, Finance commission also recommends the principle of distribution of net proceeds of taxes to the President. Hence the correct code is d
|
d
|
Financial Relation
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. The net proceeds of taxes mean total amount of tax levied by the government 2. The net proceeds of taxes on subjects enumerated in the Union list form the part of the Consolidated Fund of India 3. The manner of distribution of the net proceeds of taxes is solely decided by the parliament Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct : The net proceeds of taxes mean the total tax received after deducting the cost of collection. Statement 2 is not correct : The centre has exclusive power to tax on a subject mentioned in the Union list but there are certain taxes which are levied by the centre and do not form part of the Consolidated Fund of India e.g Central Sales Tax. Statement 3 is not correct : There are certain taxes which are levied by the state legislatures and the parliament has no role in it. Besides, Finance commission also recommends the principle of distribution of net proceeds of taxes to the President. Hence the correct code is d##Topic:Financial Relation##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following promote Cooperative Federalism in India? 1. Inter-State Council 2. Distribution of judicial powers between the Supreme Court and the High Courts 3. Presence of Rajya sabha in the parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : Inter-State Council is created on the recommendation of Sarkaria commission. It helps resolving disputes between the Centre and States and so promote cooperation between them. Statement 2 is incorrect : In India there is integrated judicial system. The single system of courts enforces both the central and state laws. So there is no division of judicial powers between supreme court and high courts. Statement 3 is correct : There is representation of states in the Rajya sabha. So the Rajya sabha protects and promotes the interest of the states at the national level. It also checks the excessive power enjoyed by the centre.
|
a
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following promote Cooperative Federalism in India? 1. Inter-State Council 2. Distribution of judicial powers between the Supreme Court and the High Courts 3. Presence of Rajya sabha in the parliament Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct : Inter-State Council is created on the recommendation of Sarkaria commission. It helps resolving disputes between the Centre and States and so promote cooperation between them. Statement 2 is incorrect : In India there is integrated judicial system. The single system of courts enforces both the central and state laws. So there is no division of judicial powers between supreme court and high courts. Statement 3 is correct : There is representation of states in the Rajya sabha. So the Rajya sabha protects and promotes the interest of the states at the national level. It also checks the excessive power enjoyed by the centre.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Balwant Rai Mehta committee recommended establishment of two tier panchayati raj system.
2. Ashok Mehta committee recomended that there panchayats should be provided with compulsory powers of taxation.
3. L M Singhvi committee recommended that Panchayati Raj institutions should be constitutionlly recognised.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended establishment of a three-tier panchayati raj system—gram panchayat at the village level, panchayat samiti at the block level and zila parishad at the district level. These tiers should be organically linked through a device of indirect elections. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Ashok Mehta Committee recommended that the panchayati raj institutions should have compulsory powers of taxation to mobilise their own financial resourses. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
L M Singhvi Committee recommended The Panchayati Raj institutions should be constitutionally recognised, protected and preserved. For this purpose, a new chapter should be added in the Constitution of India. This will make their identity and integrity reasonably and substantially inviolate. It also suggested constitutional provisions to ensure regular, free and fair elections to the Panchayati Raj bodies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
b
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. Balwant Rai Mehta committee recommended establishment of two tier panchayati raj system.
2. Ashok Mehta committee recomended that there panchayats should be provided with compulsory powers of taxation.
3. L M Singhvi committee recommended that Panchayati Raj institutions should be constitutionlly recognised.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended establishment of a three-tier panchayati raj system—gram panchayat at the village level, panchayat samiti at the block level and zila parishad at the district level. These tiers should be organically linked through a device of indirect elections. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Ashok Mehta Committee recommended that the panchayati raj institutions should have compulsory powers of taxation to mobilise their own financial resourses. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
L M Singhvi Committee recommended The Panchayati Raj institutions should be constitutionally recognised, protected and preserved. For this purpose, a new chapter should be added in the Constitution of India. This will make their identity and integrity reasonably and substantially inviolate. It also suggested constitutional provisions to ensure regular, free and fair elections to the Panchayati Raj bodies. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
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