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Which of the following is not a mandatory provision of the 73 rd Constitutional amendment act?
|
Fixed tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels.
|
Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
|
Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
|
Fixed tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels.
|
Provision of reservation of seats for backward classes in panchayats at all the levels is not mandatory one. The other options are correct. The provisions of the 73rd amendment act can be identified as the the compulsory and voluntary provisions. Compulsory provisions are: 1. Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages 2. Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels 3. Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels 4. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels 5. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats 6. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels 7. Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels 8. Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat 9. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats 10.Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats Voluntary provisions are: 1.Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies. 2.Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level. 3.Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. 4.Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare plans for economic development and social justice; and to perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. 5.Granting financial powers to the panchayats, i.e. authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.
|
d
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is not a mandatory provision of the 73 rd Constitutional amendment act?##Option_A: Fixed tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels.###Option_B: Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.##Option_C: Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.##Option_D: Fixed tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels.##Answer:d##Explaination:Provision of reservation of seats for backward classes in panchayats at all the levels is not mandatory one. The other options are correct. The provisions of the 73rd amendment act can be identified as the the compulsory and voluntary provisions. Compulsory provisions are: 1. Organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages 2. Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels 3. Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels 4. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels 5. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats 6. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels 7. Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels 8. Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat 9. Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats 10.Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats Voluntary provisions are: 1.Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies. 2.Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level. 3.Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. 4.Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare plans for economic development and social justice; and to perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. 5.Granting financial powers to the panchayats, i.e. authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the 73 rd Constitutional Amendment act: It added a new part and a new schedule to the Constitution of India. It promoted the process of democratic decentralisation. It has brought panchayati raj institutions under the justiciable part of Constitution. Which of the above statements are correct?
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only.
|
1, 2 and 3
|
73rd Amendment Act of 1992: This act has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. It is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. In addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It deals with Article 243-G. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grassroot democratic institutions in the country. It transfers the representative democracy into participatory democracy. It is a revolutionary concept to build democracy at the grassroot level in the country and promote the process of democratic decentralisation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The act gives a constitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution. In other words, the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act. Consequently, neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of the state government any more. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
a
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the 73 rd Constitutional Amendment act: It added a new part and a new schedule to the Constitution of India. It promoted the process of democratic decentralisation. It has brought panchayati raj institutions under the justiciable part of Constitution. Which of the above statements are correct?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only.##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3##Answer:a##Explaination:73rd Amendment Act of 1992: This act has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. It is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 O. In addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It deals with Article 243-G. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The act is a significant landmark in the evolution of grassroot democratic institutions in the country. It transfers the representative democracy into participatory democracy. It is a revolutionary concept to build democracy at the grassroot level in the country and promote the process of democratic decentralisation. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The act gives a constitutional status to the panchayati raj institutions. It has brought them under the purview of the justiciable part of the Constitution. In other words, the state governments are under constitutional obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj system in accordance with the provisions of the act. Consequently, neither the formation of panchayats nor the holding of elections at regular intervals depend on the will of the state government any more. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are correct regarding the office of State Election Commissioner?
1. He is appointed by the Governor.
2. His conditions of service are determined by law as made by the State legislature.
3.He is removed by the governor on the recommendation of the State Legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
Statement 1 is correct. Article 243 K(1) states that for elections to the Panchayats the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor
Statement 2 is not correct. His conditions of service and tenure of office is determined by governor.
Statement 3 is not correct. The state election commissioner is removed in a similar manner as that of the State High Court i.e. by the President on recommendation of the Parliament
|
b
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are correct regarding the office of State Election Commissioner?
1. He is appointed by the Governor.
2. His conditions of service are determined by law as made by the State legislature.
3.He is removed by the governor on the recommendation of the State Legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3
###Option_B: 1 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. Article 243 K(1) states that for elections to the Panchayats the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor
Statement 2 is not correct. His conditions of service and tenure of office is determined by governor.
Statement 3 is not correct. The state election commissioner is removed in a similar manner as that of the State High Court i.e. by the President on recommendation of the Parliament
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Gram Sabha as provided by 73 rd Constitutional Amendment Act is a body comprising of:
|
All the adult members of the village coming under the Panchayat area.
|
All the registered voters in the area of the Panchayat at the village level.
|
All graduates of three years standing and residing within the area of Panchayat.
|
All the adult members of the village coming under the Panchayat area.
|
Gram Sabha is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Thus, it is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters in the area of a panchayat. It may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the legislature of a state determines.
|
b
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Gram Sabha as provided by 73 rd Constitutional Amendment Act is a body comprising of:##Option_A: All the adult members of the village coming under the Panchayat area.###Option_B: All the registered voters in the area of the Panchayat at the village level.##Option_C: All graduates of three years standing and residing within the area of Panchayat.##Option_D: All the adult members of the village coming under the Panchayat area.##Answer:b##Explaination:Gram Sabha is a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level. Thus, it is a village assembly consisting of all the registered voters in the area of a panchayat. It may exercise such powers and perform such functions at the village level as the legislature of a state determines.##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
According to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the chairperson of the Panchayat at the village level is elected in which of the following manner?
|
He is directly elected by the people.
|
He is indirectly elected by amongst the elected members of Panchayat.
|
It has been left to state legislature to determine the mode of election.
|
He is directly elected by the people.
|
Article 243C(5) provides that the Chairperson of:
(a) Panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide; and
(b) a Panchayat at the intermediate level or district level, shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members thereof
|
c
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the chairperson of the Panchayat at the village level is elected in which of the following manner?##Option_A:He is directly elected by the people.###Option_B:He is indirectly elected by amongst the elected members of Panchayat.##Option_C:It has been left to state legislature to determine the mode of election.##Option_D:He is directly elected by the people.##Answer:c##Explaination:
Article 243C(5) provides that the Chairperson of:
(a) Panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the Legislature of a State may, by law, provide; and
(b) a Panchayat at the intermediate level or district level, shall be elected by, and from amongst, the elected members thereof
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following subjects are placed under the purview of Panchayats in the 11th schedule? Technical Training and Vocational Education Public Distribution System Poverty alleviation Programme Social Forestry and Farm forestry Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
All the given options are under the purview of panchayats under the 11 th schedule. This schedule places following functional items under the purview of the Panchayats: 1. Agriculture, including agricultural extension. 2. Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation. 3. Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development. 4. Animal husbandry, dairying and poultry. 5. Fisheries. 6. Social forestry and farm forestry. 7. Minor forest produce. 8. Small scale industries, including food processing industries. 9. Khadi, village and cottage industries. 10. Rural housing. 11. Drinking water. 12. Fuel and fodder. 13. Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication. 14. Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity. 15. Non-conventional energy sources. 16. Poverty alleviation programme. 17. Education, including primary and secondary schools. 18. Technical training and vocational education. 19. Adult and non-formal education. 20. Libraries. 21. Cultural activities. 22. Markets and fairs. 23. Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries. 24. Family welfare. 25. Women and child development. 26. Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded. 27. Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. 28. Public distribution system. 29. Maintenance of community assets
|
d
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following subjects are placed under the purview of Panchayats in the 11th schedule? Technical Training and Vocational Education Public Distribution System Poverty alleviation Programme Social Forestry and Farm forestry Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:All the given options are under the purview of panchayats under the 11 th schedule. This schedule places following functional items under the purview of the Panchayats: 1. Agriculture, including agricultural extension. 2. Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation. 3. Minor irrigation, water management and watershed development. 4. Animal husbandry, dairying and poultry. 5. Fisheries. 6. Social forestry and farm forestry. 7. Minor forest produce. 8. Small scale industries, including food processing industries. 9. Khadi, village and cottage industries. 10. Rural housing. 11. Drinking water. 12. Fuel and fodder. 13. Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication. 14. Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity. 15. Non-conventional energy sources. 16. Poverty alleviation programme. 17. Education, including primary and secondary schools. 18. Technical training and vocational education. 19. Adult and non-formal education. 20. Libraries. 21. Cultural activities. 22. Markets and fairs. 23. Health and sanitation, including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries. 24. Family welfare. 25. Women and child development. 26. Social welfare, including welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded. 27. Welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. 28. Public distribution system. 29. Maintenance of community assets##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act are not applicable to which of the following states? 1. Jammu and Kashmir 2. Mizoram 3. Nagaland Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The act does not apply to the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram and certain other areas.
These areas include,
(a) the scheduled areas and the tribal areas in the states;
(b) the hill area of Manipur for which a district council exists; and
(c) Darjeeling district of West Bengal for which Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council exists.
However, the Parliament may extend the provisions of this Part to the scheduled areas subject to such exceptions and modifications as it may specify. Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted the ‘Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act’, 1996 (PESA).
|
d
|
Panchayati Raj
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act are not applicable to which of the following states? 1. Jammu and Kashmir 2. Mizoram 3. Nagaland Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 2 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
The act does not apply to the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram and certain other areas.
These areas include,
(a) the scheduled areas and the tribal areas in the states;
(b) the hill area of Manipur for which a district council exists; and
(c) Darjeeling district of West Bengal for which Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council exists.
However, the Parliament may extend the provisions of this Part to the scheduled areas subject to such exceptions and modifications as it may specify. Under this provision, the Parliament has enacted the ‘Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act’, 1996 (PESA).
##Topic:Panchayati Raj##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with regard to District Planning Committee: It is provided by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act. It consolidates the plan prepared by the Panchayats and Municipalities of the district. All its members are elected by the elected members of the Panchayats and Municipalities from amongst themselves. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 and 2 are correct. DPC has been provided by the 74 th Constitution amendment act) and it consolidates the plan prepared by the panchayats and Municipalities. Statement 3 is wrong as only four-fifth of the members of DPC are elected by the elected members of the Panchayats and Municipalities from amongst themselves and not 100%.
|
a
|
Local Urban Government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question: Consider the following statements with regard to District Planning Committee: It is provided by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act. It consolidates the plan prepared by the Panchayats and Municipalities of the district. All its members are elected by the elected members of the Panchayats and Municipalities from amongst themselves. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only ###Option_B:2 only ##Option_C:1 and 3 only ##Option_D:1 and 2 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 and 2 are correct. DPC has been provided by the 74 th Constitution amendment act) and it consolidates the plan prepared by the panchayats and Municipalities. Statement 3 is wrong as only four-fifth of the members of DPC are elected by the elected members of the Panchayats and Municipalities from amongst themselves and not 100%. ##Topic:Local Urban Government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Notified Area Committee, consider the following statements : 1. It is created by a separate act of the state legislature. 2. It is an entirely nominated body. 3. It is established for the administration of towns and smaller cities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
A notified area committee is created for the administration of two types of areas—a fast developing town due to industrialisation, and a town which does not yet fulfil all the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is considered important by the state government. Since it is established by notification in the government gazette, it is called a notified area committee. Hence, it is not a statutory body. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of a notified area committee including the chairman are nominated by the state government. Thus, it is neither an elected body nor a statutory body. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The municipalities are established for the administration of towns and smaller cities. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
|
b
|
Local Urban Government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Notified Area Committee, consider the following statements : 1. It is created by a separate act of the state legislature. 2. It is an entirely nominated body. 3. It is established for the administration of towns and smaller cities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:A notified area committee is created for the administration of two types of areas—a fast developing town due to industrialisation, and a town which does not yet fulfil all the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is considered important by the state government. Since it is established by notification in the government gazette, it is called a notified area committee. Hence, it is not a statutory body. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It is an entirely nominated body, that is, all the members of a notified area committee including the chairman are nominated by the state government. Thus, it is neither an elected body nor a statutory body. Hence, statement 2 is correct. The municipalities are established for the administration of towns and smaller cities. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.##Topic:Local Urban Government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is correct regarding Municipal Commissioner?
1. He is the chief executive authority of the Municipal Corporation
2. He is chairman of the standing committees of the Corporation
3. He is elected by members of the council from amongst themselves.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as Municipal Commissioner is the chief executive authority of the corporation
Statement 2 is incorrect as Standing Committes is separate part in Municipal Corporation and commissioner is not the chairman though he is reponsible for implementing the decisions taken by the standing committee
Statement 3 is also incorrect. Municipal Commissioner is appointed by the state government
|
b
|
Local Urban Government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is correct regarding Municipal Commissioner?
1. He is the chief executive authority of the Municipal Corporation
2. He is chairman of the standing committees of the Corporation
3. He is elected by members of the council from amongst themselves.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct as Municipal Commissioner is the chief executive authority of the corporation
Statement 2 is incorrect as Standing Committes is separate part in Municipal Corporation and commissioner is not the chairman though he is reponsible for implementing the decisions taken by the standing committee
Statement 3 is also incorrect. Municipal Commissioner is appointed by the state government
##Topic:Local Urban Government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which among the following urban bodies is/are established by an act of the State Legislature? Port Trust Cantonment Board Town Area Committee Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
A port trust is created by an Act of Parliament. It consists of both elected and nominated members. Its chairman is an official. Its civic functions are more or less similar to those of a municipality. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006-a legislation enacted by the Central government. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal authority and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting, and conservancy. It is created by a separate act of a state legislature. Its composition, functions and other matters are governed by the act. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
c
|
Local Urban Government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following urban bodies is/are established by an act of the State Legislature? Port Trust Cantonment Board Town Area Committee Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:A port trust is created by an Act of Parliament. It consists of both elected and nominated members. Its chairman is an official. Its civic functions are more or less similar to those of a municipality. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area. It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006-a legislation enacted by the Central government. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. A town area committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal authority and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting, and conservancy. It is created by a separate act of a state legislature. Its composition, functions and other matters are governed by the act. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Local Urban Government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements regarding Cantonment Boards:
1. It is established only for the civilian population in the cantonment area.
2. It is created and administered by the central government.
3. It is entirely nominated body.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006—a legislation enacted by the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the Central government. Thus, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members. The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station. The military officer commanding the station is the exofficio president of the board and presides over its meetings.officer holding the post in its ex-officio capacity. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
|
b
|
Local Urban Government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Cantonment Boards:
1. It is established only for the civilian population in the cantonment area.
2. It is created and administered by the central government.
3. It is entirely nominated body.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
A cantonment board is established for municipal administration for civilian population in the cantonment area. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It is set up under the provisions of the Cantonments Act of 2006—a legislation enacted by the Central government. It works under the administrative control of the defence ministry of the Central government. Thus, a cantonment board is created as well as administered by the Central government. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
A cantonment board consists of partly elected and partly nominated members. The elected members hold office for a term of five years while the nominated members (i.e., ex-officio members) continue so long as they hold the office in that station. The military officer commanding the station is the exofficio president of the board and presides over its meetings.officer holding the post in its ex-officio capacity. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
##Topic:Local Urban Government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with regard to disqualification under Anti defection law: Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer. This decision is final and cannot be subjected to judicial review. While taking such a decision, the decision-taking authority function as a tribunal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the house. Statement 2 is Incorrect. Originally, the act provided that the decision of the presiding officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, The Supreme Court declared this provision as unconstitutional. It held that the presiding officer, while deciding a question under the 10 th Schedule, function as a tribunal. Hence his/her decision like that of any other tribunals, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala-fides, perversity etc. Statement 3 is Correct. The presiding officer functions as a tribunal while taking such decisions.
|
a
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to disqualification under Anti defection law: Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer. This decision is final and cannot be subjected to judicial review. While taking such a decision, the decision-taking authority function as a tribunal. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is Correct. Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the house. Statement 2 is Incorrect. Originally, the act provided that the decision of the presiding officer is final and cannot be questioned in any court. However, The Supreme Court declared this provision as unconstitutional. It held that the presiding officer, while deciding a question under the 10 th Schedule, function as a tribunal. Hence his/her decision like that of any other tribunals, is subject to judicial review on the grounds of mala-fides, perversity etc. Statement 3 is Correct. The presiding officer functions as a tribunal while taking such decisions.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With regard to composition of Legislative Assembly, Consider the following statements:
1. All members of the all-Legislative assemblies across the country are directly elected.
2. Governor can nominate one members from the Anglo-Indian community in the assembly.
3. Maximum strength of Legislative Council depends upon the total strength of Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. Generally the legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise. However some members of the legislative assemblies of Sikkim and Nagaland are also elected indirectly.
Statement 2 is correct. The governor can nominate one person from the Anglo -Indian community, if the community is not adequately represented in the assembly.
Statement 3 is also correct. Maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly. Thus, size of council depends on the size of assembly.
|
b
|
State Legislature
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With regard to composition of Legislative Assembly, Consider the following statements:
1. All members of the all-Legislative assemblies across the country are directly elected.
2. Governor can nominate one members from the Anglo-Indian community in the assembly.
3. Maximum strength of Legislative Council depends upon the total strength of Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Generally the legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise. However some members of the legislative assemblies of Sikkim and Nagaland are also elected indirectly.
Statement 2 is correct. The governor can nominate one person from the Anglo -Indian community, if the community is not adequately represented in the assembly.
Statement 3 is also correct. Maximum strength of the council is fixed at one-third of the total strength of the assembly. Thus, size of council depends on the size of assembly.
##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following circumstances is/are exempted for disqualification under defection? Merger of the party with another party by 2/3 rd members. Voluntarily giving-up the membership after being elected as the presiding officer. Split in the party by 1/3 rd members. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. If a member goes out of his party as a result of merger of the party with another party, he/she is exempted. A merger takes place when 2/3 rd of the members of the party have agreed to such merger. Statement 2 is Correct. If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the house, voluntarily gives up the membership of his/her party or rejoins it after he/she ceases to hold that office. Statement 3 is Incorrect. This provision was deleted by 91 st constitutional amendment act and hence the defectors have no more protection on the grounds of splits.
|
b
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following circumstances is/are exempted for disqualification under defection? Merger of the party with another party by 2/3 rd members. Voluntarily giving-up the membership after being elected as the presiding officer. Split in the party by 1/3 rd members. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is Correct. If a member goes out of his party as a result of merger of the party with another party, he/she is exempted. A merger takes place when 2/3 rd of the members of the party have agreed to such merger. Statement 2 is Correct. If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the house, voluntarily gives up the membership of his/her party or rejoins it after he/she ceases to hold that office. Statement 3 is Incorrect. This provision was deleted by 91 st constitutional amendment act and hence the defectors have no more protection on the grounds of splits.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following provisions of the Tenth Schedule: An independent member of the house becomes disqualified if he/she joins any political party. A member of a political party cannot abstain from voting in the house, contrary to the direction of the party, under any circumstance. A nominated member becomes disqualified if he/she joins political party before the expiry of 6 months. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. An Independent member of a house becomes disqualified to remain a member of the house is he/she joins any political party after such election. Statement 2 is Incorrect. A member belonging to any political party becomes disqualified if he/she votes or abstains from voting contrary to the direction of the party. However a member shall not be disqualified if he/she has obtainined prior permission of the party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days. Statement 3 is incorrect. A nominated member of the house becomes disqualified if he/she joins political party after the expiry of 6 months from the date on which he/she takes his/her seat in the house. That means a nominated member is not disqualified if he/she joins party before the expiry of 6 months.
|
a
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following provisions of the Tenth Schedule: An independent member of the house becomes disqualified if he/she joins any political party. A member of a political party cannot abstain from voting in the house, contrary to the direction of the party, under any circumstance. A nominated member becomes disqualified if he/she joins political party before the expiry of 6 months. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is Correct. An Independent member of a house becomes disqualified to remain a member of the house is he/she joins any political party after such election. Statement 2 is Incorrect. A member belonging to any political party becomes disqualified if he/she votes or abstains from voting contrary to the direction of the party. However a member shall not be disqualified if he/she has obtainined prior permission of the party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days. Statement 3 is incorrect. A nominated member of the house becomes disqualified if he/she joins political party after the expiry of 6 months from the date on which he/she takes his/her seat in the house. That means a nominated member is not disqualified if he/she joins party before the expiry of 6 months.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with reference to Chief Minister of state: 1. He shall prove majority in the legislative assembly before being appointed as Chief Minister. 2. He can be appointed as a Chief Minister even if he is not a member of the state legislature. 3. The term of a Chief Minister has been fixed by the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. The constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as a Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint him as the CM and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly, within a reasonable period.
Statement 2 is correct. A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as a Chief Minister for 6 months, within which time he should be elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be CM.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed and he holds the office during the pleasure of the governor.
|
d
|
Chief Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to Chief Minister of state: 1. He shall prove majority in the legislative assembly before being appointed as Chief Minister. 2. He can be appointed as a Chief Minister even if he is not a member of the state legislature. 3. The term of a Chief Minister has been fixed by the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as a Chief Minister. The governor may first appoint him as the CM and then ask him to prove his majority in the legislative assembly, within a reasonable period.
Statement 2 is correct. A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as a Chief Minister for 6 months, within which time he should be elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be CM.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The term of the Chief Minister is not fixed and he holds the office during the pleasure of the governor.
##Topic:Chief Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Under which of the following cases can the Governor use his individual discretion in appointing Chief Minister? When no political party has clear majority. When the Chief Minister in office dies suddenly. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. When no party has a clear majority in the legislative assembly, then governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of CM. In such a situation the governor usually appoints, the leader of largest party or largest coalition party, as the CM and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the house within a month. Statement 2 is correct. The governor may exercise his individual judgment in the selection and appointment of CM when CM in the office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor. However, on the death of a CM, the ruling party usually elects a new leader and governor appoints him/her as CM.
|
c
|
Chief Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Under which of the following cases can the Governor use his individual discretion in appointing Chief Minister? When no political party has clear majority. When the Chief Minister in office dies suddenly. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. When no party has a clear majority in the legislative assembly, then governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of CM. In such a situation the governor usually appoints, the leader of largest party or largest coalition party, as the CM and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the house within a month. Statement 2 is correct. The governor may exercise his individual judgment in the selection and appointment of CM when CM in the office dies suddenly and there is no obvious successor. However, on the death of a CM, the ruling party usually elects a new leader and governor appoints him/her as CM.##Topic:Chief Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about the Additional Judges and Retired Judges of High Court (HC) and identify the correct statements
1. President can appoint duly qualified person/s as Additional judge/s in case of increase in the workload or arrears of work in the HC.
2. Chief justice of HC can appoint the Retired judge of a HC to act as judge of HC for a temporary period without prior the consent of President.
3. Both the above types of judges can hold the office even after attaining the age of 62 years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 : correct: this is the temporary provision only for the period not exceeding 2 years and appointee cannot hold office after attaining 62 years of age
Statement 2 : Incorrect: Chief justice of HC can appoint the Retired judge of a HC to act as judge of HC for a temporary period with prior the consent of President.
Statement 3: incorrect: Additional judge can not hold office after s/he attains the age of 62 years. This is the temporary provision available only for 2 years. A HC judge will retire once he attains the age of 62 years, hence he can be reappointed only after attaining 62years of age. Chief Justice of HC can request the retired judge to act as a judge of HC for temporary period, with prior consent of president.
|
a
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the Additional Judges and Retired Judges of High Court (HC) and identify the correct statements
1. President can appoint duly qualified person/s as Additional judge/s in case of increase in the workload or arrears of work in the HC.
2. Chief justice of HC can appoint the Retired judge of a HC to act as judge of HC for a temporary period without prior the consent of President.
3. Both the above types of judges can hold the office even after attaining the age of 62 years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 : correct: this is the temporary provision only for the period not exceeding 2 years and appointee cannot hold office after attaining 62 years of age
Statement 2 : Incorrect: Chief justice of HC can appoint the Retired judge of a HC to act as judge of HC for a temporary period with prior the consent of President.
Statement 3: incorrect: Additional judge can not hold office after s/he attains the age of 62 years. This is the temporary provision available only for 2 years. A HC judge will retire once he attains the age of 62 years, hence he can be reappointed only after attaining 62years of age. Chief Justice of HC can request the retired judge to act as a judge of HC for temporary period, with prior consent of president.
##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements:
1. The date of election of deputy speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
2. The date of election of Speaker is fixed by the President.
3. The oath to the Speaker is administered by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The election of Deputy Speaker is held after the election of Speaker. The date of the election is fixed by the Speaker.
Statement 2 is also correct. Soon after general election, the speaker of last Lok Sabha resigns. The Pro Tem Speaker takes the charge. He helps the House elect the speaker on the date decided by the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect There is no seperate of oath / affirmation for speaker/ deputy speaker.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. The date of election of deputy speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
2. The date of election of Speaker is fixed by the President.
3. The oath to the Speaker is administered by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. The election of Deputy Speaker is held after the election of Speaker. The date of the election is fixed by the Speaker.
Statement 2 is also correct. Soon after general election, the speaker of last Lok Sabha resigns. The Pro Tem Speaker takes the charge. He helps the House elect the speaker on the date decided by the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect There is no seperate of oath / affirmation for speaker/ deputy speaker.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
The Election Commission has the power of superintendence, direction and conduct of elections to the 1. Legislative Council 2. Rajya Sabha 3. Office of Vice President 4. Office of Speaker Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
The election commission has the power of superintendence, direction and conduct of all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, Office of President and Office of Vice President. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
|
c
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Election Commission has the power of superintendence, direction and conduct of elections to the 1. Legislative Council 2. Rajya Sabha 3. Office of Vice President 4. Office of Speaker Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The election commission has the power of superintendence, direction and conduct of all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures, Office of President and Office of Vice President. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. ##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Election Officers Roles 1. Returning Officer (RO) : Conducts election 2. Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) : Declares election result 3. District Election Officer (DEO) : Responsible for electoral rolls 4. Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) : Supervises election in state Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) : authorised to supervise the election work in the state/union-territory subject to overall superintendence, direction and control of Election Commission. District Election Officer (DEO) : authorised to supervise the election work of a district subject to overall superintendence, direction and control of Election Commission. Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) : responsible for the preparation of electoral rolls for parliamentary/assemble constituency. Returning Officer (RO) : responsible for the conduct of elections in the parliamentary or assembly constituency concerned. He is also responsible for declaration of results.
|
a
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Election Officers Roles 1. Returning Officer (RO) : Conducts election 2. Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) : Declares election result 3. District Election Officer (DEO) : Responsible for electoral rolls 4. Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) : Supervises election in state Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) : authorised to supervise the election work in the state/union-territory subject to overall superintendence, direction and control of Election Commission. District Election Officer (DEO) : authorised to supervise the election work of a district subject to overall superintendence, direction and control of Election Commission. Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) : responsible for the preparation of electoral rolls for parliamentary/assemble constituency. Returning Officer (RO) : responsible for the conduct of elections in the parliamentary or assembly constituency concerned. He is also responsible for declaration of results.##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding Model Code of Conduct (MCC) :
1. They have been given statutory backing in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
2. They come into force 6 months before election date.
3. They contain guidelines for the ruling party to ensure a level field is maintained across parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. MCC evolved by the Election Commission on the basis of a consensus among political parties and are a set of broad guidelines as to how the political parties and candidates should conduct themselves during election campaign. They have not been given statutory backing in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 .
Statement 2 is incorrect. The MCC comes into force immediately after the announcement of the election schedule by the Election Commission.
Statement 3 is correct. The model code prescribes guidelines for the ruling party either at the Centre or in the state to ensure that a level field is maintained and that no cause is given for any complaint that the ruling party has used its official position for the purposes of its election campaign.
|
c
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding Model Code of Conduct (MCC) :
1. They have been given statutory backing in the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
2. They come into force 6 months before election date.
3. They contain guidelines for the ruling party to ensure a level field is maintained across parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. MCC evolved by the Election Commission on the basis of a consensus among political parties and are a set of broad guidelines as to how the political parties and candidates should conduct themselves during election campaign. They have not been given statutory backing in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 .
Statement 2 is incorrect. The MCC comes into force immediately after the announcement of the election schedule by the Election Commission.
Statement 3 is correct. The model code prescribes guidelines for the ruling party either at the Centre or in the state to ensure that a level field is maintained and that no cause is given for any complaint that the ruling party has used its official position for the purposes of its election campaign.
##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to Money Bill, consider the following statements: 1. All money bills are financial bills but not all financial bills are money bill. 2. Joint sitting for passing money bill is presided by the Speaker. 3. Money bill can be introduced only on the recommendation of President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Financial bills are of three kinds: 1.Money bills—Article 110 2.Financial bills (I)—Article 117 (1) 3.Financial bills (II)—Article 117 (3) This classification implies that money bills are simply a species of financial bills. Hence, all money bills are financial bills but all financial bills are not money bills. Only those financial bills are money bills which contain exclusively those matters which are mentioned in Article 110 of the Constitution.” Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no provision for joint sitting of both the houses in case of money bill. Statement 3 is correct. A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and that too on the recommendation of the president. Every such bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister.
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Money Bill, consider the following statements: 1. All money bills are financial bills but not all financial bills are money bill. 2. Joint sitting for passing money bill is presided by the Speaker. 3. Money bill can be introduced only on the recommendation of President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Financial bills are of three kinds: 1.Money bills—Article 110 2.Financial bills (I)—Article 117 (1) 3.Financial bills (II)—Article 117 (3) This classification implies that money bills are simply a species of financial bills. Hence, all money bills are financial bills but all financial bills are not money bills. Only those financial bills are money bills which contain exclusively those matters which are mentioned in Article 110 of the Constitution.” Statement 2 is incorrect. There is no provision for joint sitting of both the houses in case of money bill. Statement 3 is correct. A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and that too on the recommendation of the president. Every such bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister. ##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
2. All resolutions introduced in either of the houses has to be voted upon.
3. All resolutions are subtantive motion while all motions are not substantive.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. All motions are not necessarily put to vote of the House, whereas all the resolutions are required to be voted upon.
Statement 2 is correct. All resolutions come in the category of substantive motions, that is to say, every resolution is a particular type of motion. All motions need not necessarily be substantive.
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
2. All resolutions introduced in either of the houses has to be voted upon.
3. All resolutions are subtantive motion while all motions are not substantive.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. All motions are not necessarily put to vote of the House, whereas all the resolutions are required to be voted upon.
Statement 2 is correct. All resolutions come in the category of substantive motions, that is to say, every resolution is a particular type of motion. All motions need not necessarily be substantive.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with reference to presiding officers in Parliament: In case of vacancy in the office of speaker and deputy speaker, Lok Sabha may elect any member as acting speaker. In the instance when resolution of their removal is in consideration, both speaker and the chairman can vote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the president, not Lok Sabha, who appoints a member of parliament as acting speaker if the post of speaker/deputy speaker is vacant until the next speaker/deputy speaker is elected by the house. Statement 2 is incorrect as well. While Speaker can vote in the first instance when a resolution for his removal is under consideration of the Lok Sabha, the Chairman can only be present and speak in the house without voting.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with reference to presiding officers in Parliament: In case of vacancy in the office of speaker and deputy speaker, Lok Sabha may elect any member as acting speaker. In the instance when resolution of their removal is in consideration, both speaker and the chairman can vote. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the president, not Lok Sabha, who appoints a member of parliament as acting speaker if the post of speaker/deputy speaker is vacant until the next speaker/deputy speaker is elected by the house. Statement 2 is incorrect as well. While Speaker can vote in the first instance when a resolution for his removal is under consideration of the Lok Sabha, the Chairman can only be present and speak in the house without voting. ##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. The question of disqualification other than on the ground of defection is decided by the President. 2. A member can be nominated to Rajya Sabha for any number of times. 3. The normal term of Rajya Sabha is Six years at a time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Only on the question of disqualification on the ground of defection does the speaker decides. Else for other case of disqualification, it the president who takes the decision.
Statement 2 is correct as well. The retiring member of the Rajya Sabha are eligible for re-election and renomination for any number of times.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. The question of disqualification other than on the ground of defection is decided by the President. 2. A member can be nominated to Rajya Sabha for any number of times. 3. The normal term of Rajya Sabha is Six years at a time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. Only on the question of disqualification on the ground of defection does the speaker decides. Else for other case of disqualification, it the president who takes the decision.
Statement 2 is correct as well. The retiring member of the Rajya Sabha are eligible for re-election and renomination for any number of times.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
What is the purpose of opposition in the house?
1. It checks autocratic tendencies of the ruling party.
2. It provides an alternate government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
An effective opposition is very essential for the successful operation of the parliamentary democracy prevalent in India. It checks the autocratic tendencies of the ruling party as well as provides an alternative government. The opposition has a duty to themselves and to their voters to play the role of an alternative government and indeed, the role of a government in waiting. Further it is responsible for challenging the policies of the government and producing different policies where appropriate
|
c
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
What is the purpose of opposition in the house?
1. It checks autocratic tendencies of the ruling party.
2. It provides an alternate government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
An effective opposition is very essential for the successful operation of the parliamentary democracy prevalent in India. It checks the autocratic tendencies of the ruling party as well as provides an alternative government. The opposition has a duty to themselves and to their voters to play the role of an alternative government and indeed, the role of a government in waiting. Further it is responsible for challenging the policies of the government and producing different policies where appropriate
##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
What are the benefits received by the political parties recognised by the Election Commission? 1. Exclusive allocation of election symbols. 2. Access to electoral rolls. 3. Time for political broadcast on state owned television and radio stations. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Benefits received by recognised political parties include: 1. Exclusive allocation of election symbols. Every national party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use throughout the country. Similarly, every state party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use in the state or states in which it is so recognised. 2. Access to electoral rolls. 3. Time for political broadcast on state owned television and radio-stations.
|
d
|
Electoral politics
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What are the benefits received by the political parties recognised by the Election Commission? 1. Exclusive allocation of election symbols. 2. Access to electoral rolls. 3. Time for political broadcast on state owned television and radio stations. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Benefits received by recognised political parties include: 1. Exclusive allocation of election symbols. Every national party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use throughout the country. Similarly, every state party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use in the state or states in which it is so recognised. 2. Access to electoral rolls. 3. Time for political broadcast on state owned television and radio-stations. ##Topic:Electoral politics##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
What are the advantages of Electronic Voting machine over traditional ballot paper system?
1. Eliminates the possibility of invalid votes.
2. Make counting of votes much faster.
3. Savings in cost of printing paper.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. It eliminates the possibility of invalid and doubtful votes.
Statement 2 is Correct. It makes the process of counting of votes much faster than the conventional system.
Statement 3 is Correct. The most important advantage is that the printing of millions of ballot papers can be dispensed with, as only one ballot paper is required for fixing on the Balloting Unit at each polling station instead of one ballot paper for each individual elector. This results in huge savings by way of cost of paper, printing, transportation, storage and distribution.
|
c
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
What are the advantages of Electronic Voting machine over traditional ballot paper system?
1. Eliminates the possibility of invalid votes.
2. Make counting of votes much faster.
3. Savings in cost of printing paper.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Correct. It eliminates the possibility of invalid and doubtful votes.
Statement 2 is Correct. It makes the process of counting of votes much faster than the conventional system.
Statement 3 is Correct. The most important advantage is that the printing of millions of ballot papers can be dispensed with, as only one ballot paper is required for fixing on the Balloting Unit at each polling station instead of one ballot paper for each individual elector. This results in huge savings by way of cost of paper, printing, transportation, storage and distribution.
##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following reform(s) have been made in Rajya Sabha elections?
1. Domicile requirement of a candidate has been removed.
2. Introduction of open ballot system instead of secret ballot system.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. The change was made in 2003. Domicile or residency requirement of a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha was removed. It would be sufficient if he/she is an elector in any parliamentary constituency in the country.
Statement 2 is Correct. Introduction of open ballot system instead of secret ballot system for the elections to Rajya Sabha was done. This was done to curb cross voting and to wipe out the role of money power during Rajya Sabha elections. Under the new system, an elector belonging to a political party has to show the ballot paper after making his vote to the nominated agent of that political party.
|
c
|
Working of the political system since Independence
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following reform(s) have been made in Rajya Sabha elections?
1. Domicile requirement of a candidate has been removed.
2. Introduction of open ballot system instead of secret ballot system.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Correct. The change was made in 2003. Domicile or residency requirement of a candidate contesting an election to the Rajya Sabha was removed. It would be sufficient if he/she is an elector in any parliamentary constituency in the country.
Statement 2 is Correct. Introduction of open ballot system instead of secret ballot system for the elections to Rajya Sabha was done. This was done to curb cross voting and to wipe out the role of money power during Rajya Sabha elections. Under the new system, an elector belonging to a political party has to show the ballot paper after making his vote to the nominated agent of that political party.
##Topic:Working of the political system since Independence##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: The President is integral part of the Parliament. Parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President. Parliamentary privileges extend to the Attorney General of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2
|
1 and 3
|
2 and 3
|
1 and 2
|
Statement 1 is correct. Parliament incldues both the houses i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and the President. Statement 2 is correct. Though President is integral part of the Parliament, the parliamentary privileges do not extend to him. Statement 3 is also correct. The constitution has extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of the house of the parliament. It includes Attorney General.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: The President is integral part of the Parliament. Parliamentary privileges do not extend to the President. Parliamentary privileges extend to the Attorney General of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2###Option_B: 1 and 3##Option_C: 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 and 2##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Parliament incldues both the houses i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and the President. Statement 2 is correct. Though President is integral part of the Parliament, the parliamentary privileges do not extend to him. Statement 3 is also correct. The constitution has extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of the house of the parliament. It includes Attorney General. ##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following parliamentary committees: Business Advisory Committee Committee of Privileges Rules Committee General Purpose Committee Which of the above mentioned committees are headed by the Speaker?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Speaker of the Loksabha or the Chairperson of the Rajyasabha heads following committees: Business Advisory Committee General Purpose Committee Rules Committee
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following parliamentary committees: Business Advisory Committee Committee of Privileges Rules Committee General Purpose Committee Which of the above mentioned committees are headed by the Speaker? ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only ###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Speaker of the Loksabha or the Chairperson of the Rajyasabha heads following committees: Business Advisory Committee General Purpose Committee Rules Committee##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. If Finance Minister is the member of Public Accounts Committee, he becomes its chairperson.
2.The member of Public Accounts Committee are elected according to the principle of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. No minister can be part of Public Accounts Committee.
Statement 2 is correct. The members of PAC are elected by the Parliament every year amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. If Finance Minister is the member of Public Accounts Committee, he becomes its chairperson.
2.The member of Public Accounts Committee are elected according to the principle of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?:
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. No minister can be part of Public Accounts Committee.
Statement 2 is correct. The members of PAC are elected by the Parliament every year amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With refernce to powers of Rajya Sabha,consider the following statements:
(1) Any resolution to remove the Vice-President can be brought only in the Rajya Sabha.
(2) Prime MInister, even if member of Rajya Sabha, is responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
(3) All financial bill, other than Money Bill, can also be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Rajya sabha alone can initiate the removal of the vice-president. He is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.
Statement 2 is also correct. Any minister regardless of his memebrship to any house is responsible to the lower house.
Statement 3 is correct. A financial bill, no conataining solely the matters of Article 110, also can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. But with regard to its passage, both the houses have equal powers.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With refernce to powers of Rajya Sabha,consider the following statements:
(1) Any resolution to remove the Vice-President can be brought only in the Rajya Sabha.
(2) Prime MInister, even if member of Rajya Sabha, is responsible only to the Lok Sabha.
(3) All financial bill, other than Money Bill, can also be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct. Rajya sabha alone can initiate the removal of the vice-president. He is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.
Statement 2 is also correct. Any minister regardless of his memebrship to any house is responsible to the lower house.
Statement 3 is correct. A financial bill, no conataining solely the matters of Article 110, also can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. But with regard to its passage, both the houses have equal powers.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Money bill: It can be introduced only by a minister. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the the Money bill. President can withhold his assent to the Money bill . Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and that too on the recommendation of the president. Every such bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister. Statement 2 is correct. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the the Money bill. It should return the bill with or without recommendations within 14 days. Statement 3 is correct as well. The president may either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill. It can be rejected or approved but cannot be returned for reconsideration of the Parliament.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Money bill: It can be introduced only by a minister. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the the Money bill. President can withhold his assent to the Money bill . Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 1 and 3 only ##Option_C: 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: A money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and that too on the recommendation of the president. Every such bill is considered to be a government bill and can be introduced only by a minister. Statement 2 is correct. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject the the Money bill. It should return the bill with or without recommendations within 14 days. Statement 3 is correct as well. The president may either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill. It can be rejected or approved but cannot be returned for reconsideration of the Parliament.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Who among the following can vote in the election of the President? Elected and nominated members of the Lok Sabha. Elected Members of Rajya Sabha. Elected Members of Legislative Assemblies of UTs Elected members of Legislative Councils Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of: the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament; the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states ; and the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry . However nominated members of Parliament though do not take part in election but take part in impeachment process of the President. Also, elected members of Legislative assemblies though take part in election but do not take part in impeachment proceedings. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following can vote in the election of the President? Elected and nominated members of the Lok Sabha. Elected Members of Rajya Sabha. Elected Members of Legislative Assemblies of UTs Elected members of Legislative Councils Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 4 only##Option_D:1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The President is elected not directly by the people but by members of electoral college consisting of: the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament; the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the states ; and the elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry . However nominated members of Parliament though do not take part in election but take part in impeachment process of the President. Also, elected members of Legislative assemblies though take part in election but do not take part in impeachment proceedings. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
1) Which of the following statements regarding a Parliamentary Committee is/are correct?
1. It is always nominated by the Speaker/Chairman of the House.
2. It presents its report to the House or to the Speaker/Chairman of the House.
3. It works under the direction of the Speaker/Chairman of the House.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct as the Parliamentary Committees can either be elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker/Chairman.
Statement 2 is correct as the Parliamentary Committee is made to exercise checks over the executive by the Parliament. So its report is submitted to the House for discussions.
Statement 3 is correct as the Speaker/Chairman gives overall directions to the Committees.
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
1) Which of the following statements regarding a Parliamentary Committee is/are correct?
1. It is always nominated by the Speaker/Chairman of the House.
2. It presents its report to the House or to the Speaker/Chairman of the House.
3. It works under the direction of the Speaker/Chairman of the House.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct as the Parliamentary Committees can either be elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker/Chairman.
Statement 2 is correct as the Parliamentary Committee is made to exercise checks over the executive by the Parliament. So its report is submitted to the House for discussions.
Statement 3 is correct as the Speaker/Chairman gives overall directions to the Committees.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Committee on Public undertakings? The members are elected every year from both the houses of the parliament. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of this Committee can be only from Lok sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct as the members are elected every year for a term of 1 year. The elections are done through proportional representation using a single transferable vote. Statement 2 is correct. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. Statement 3 is correct. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Committee on Public undertakings? The members are elected every year from both the houses of the parliament. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. The chairman of this Committee can be only from Lok sabha. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct as the members are elected every year for a term of 1 year. The elections are done through proportional representation using a single transferable vote. Statement 2 is correct. A minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. Statement 3 is correct. The chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its members who are drawn from the Lok Sabha only. ##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with regard to the Estimates Committee: 1. The members are nominated only from Lok Sabha. 2. It called a ‘continuous economy committee’ since it examines all the ministries and departments throughout the year. 3. It examines the budget estimates only after they have been voted by the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. The members are not nominated, they are elected only from Loksabha according to the principles of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. Statement 2 is not correct as the committees only take up few ministries and departments every year on rotation basis. Thus it takes years to cover all the ministries. The name continuous economic committee is given because it examines the estimates included in the budget and suggests economies in public expenditure. Statement 3 is correct. It examines the budget estimates only after they have been voted by the Parliament, and not before that.
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to the Estimates Committee: 1. The members are nominated only from Lok Sabha. 2. It called a ‘continuous economy committee’ since it examines all the ministries and departments throughout the year. 3. It examines the budget estimates only after they have been voted by the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. The members are not nominated, they are elected only from Loksabha according to the principles of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. Statement 2 is not correct as the committees only take up few ministries and departments every year on rotation basis. Thus it takes years to cover all the ministries. The name continuous economic committee is given because it examines the estimates included in the budget and suggests economies in public expenditure. Statement 3 is correct. It examines the budget estimates only after they have been voted by the Parliament, and not before that.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Departmental Standing Committees? The members of this committee are elected by proportional representation. It considers the demands for grants of concerned ministries and can suggest cuts in the budget. Its recommendations are advisory in nature and hence not binding on the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct as the members of the Departmental Standing Committees are nominated by the Speaker/chairman from amongst the members of the concerned House.Each committee has 31 members ( 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha ) Statement 2 is not correct as the Committees cannot make any suggestions of a nature of cuts in their reports. Statement 3 is correct. The recommendations of Departmental Standing Committees are advisory in nature and are not binding on the parliament.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Departmental Standing Committees? The members of this committee are elected by proportional representation. It considers the demands for grants of concerned ministries and can suggest cuts in the budget. Its recommendations are advisory in nature and hence not binding on the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 2 only###Option_B: 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct as the members of the Departmental Standing Committees are nominated by the Speaker/chairman from amongst the members of the concerned House.Each committee has 31 members ( 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha ) Statement 2 is not correct as the Committees cannot make any suggestions of a nature of cuts in their reports. Statement 3 is correct. The recommendations of Departmental Standing Committees are advisory in nature and are not binding on the parliament.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements :
1. If any question arises on whether the matter falls within Governor’s discretion or not, the decision of Governor is final.
2. The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired in any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is Correct. Article 163 provides for a COM with the CM at the head to aid and advice the Governor in exercise of his functions except the discretionary ones. If any question arises on whether the matter falls within Governor’s discretion or not, the decision of Governor is final and the validity of anything done by him cannot be called on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.
Statement 2 is Correct. Article 163 also states that the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired in any court.
|
d
|
State Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements :
1. If any question arises on whether the matter falls within Governor’s discretion or not, the decision of Governor is final.
2. The advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired in any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct ?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is Correct. Article 163 provides for a COM with the CM at the head to aid and advice the Governor in exercise of his functions except the discretionary ones. If any question arises on whether the matter falls within Governor’s discretion or not, the decision of Governor is final and the validity of anything done by him cannot be called on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.
Statement 2 is Correct. Article 163 also states that the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired in any court.
##Topic:State Council of Minister##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Article 164 states that there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal affairs in certain states who may in addition be in-charge of the welfare of the Schedule castes and backward classes or any other work. This provision applies to which of the following states? Chattisgarh Jharkhand Madhya Pradesh Odisha Bihar Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2, 4 and 5 only
|
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
|
Article 164 states that there should be a tribal welfare minister in Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha. Originally this provision was applicable to Bihar, MP and Odisha. The 94 th Constitutional Amendment Act 2006 removed Bihar and added Chattisgarh and Jharkhand.
|
a
|
State Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Article 164 states that there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal affairs in certain states who may in addition be in-charge of the welfare of the Schedule castes and backward classes or any other work. This provision applies to which of the following states? Chattisgarh Jharkhand Madhya Pradesh Odisha Bihar Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2, 4 and 5 only##Option_D: 1, 2, 3 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Article 164 states that there should be a tribal welfare minister in Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha. Originally this provision was applicable to Bihar, MP and Odisha. The 94 th Constitutional Amendment Act 2006 removed Bihar and added Chattisgarh and Jharkhand.##Topic:State Council of Minister##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements in reference to strength of council of ministers in States and Delhi: 1. For states, it shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of Legislative Assembly of that state. 2. For states, the constitution has prescribed the minimum strength of Council of Ministers. 3. For Delhi, the strength of the Council of Ministers is fixed at 10% of the total strength of the assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Article 164 states the composition of State COM (including CM). It shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of Legislative Assembly of that state. But, the number of ministers including CM shall not be less than 12. This provision was added by 91 st Constitutional Amendment Act 2003. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 3 is correct. For Delhi, The strength of the council of ministers is fixed at ten per cent of the total strength of the assembly, that is, seven—one chief minister and six other ministers.
|
d
|
State Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements in reference to strength of council of ministers in States and Delhi: 1. For states, it shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of Legislative Assembly of that state. 2. For states, the constitution has prescribed the minimum strength of Council of Ministers. 3. For Delhi, the strength of the Council of Ministers is fixed at 10% of the total strength of the assembly. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
Article 164 states the composition of State COM (including CM). It shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of Legislative Assembly of that state. But, the number of ministers including CM shall not be less than 12. This provision was added by 91 st Constitutional Amendment Act 2003. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Statement 3 is correct. For Delhi, The strength of the council of ministers is fixed at ten per cent of the total strength of the assembly, that is, seven—one chief minister and six other ministers.
##Topic:State Council of Minister##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India provides Hindi the status of national language. 2. The Parliament by passing a bill with simple majority can add any language in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. 3. The official languages of different states of India are specified in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not give any languages the status of national language. The official languages of Government off India are Hindi and English. Statement 2 is incorrect : Addition of any language which is not mentioned in the Schedule Eighth of the constitution requires constitutional amendment. For this the parliament has to pass a constitutional amendment bill regarding the same with special najority. The original constitution of India specified fourteen languages. Later on with the amendment of the constitution additional eight languages were added to make a total of twenty two. Statement 3 is incorrect : Eight Schedule lists the regional languages of India. One objective behind this is to use these languages for the enrichment of Hindi language. However the official languages of all the state are not listed in eight schedule. For example, English is official language of Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura. But it is not listed in the schedule. Similarly Kokborok is one of the official languages of Tripura but it is not there in the list. Similarly Sikkim has a total of 11 official languages but all are not listed in eight schedule.
|
d
|
Provisions related to Language
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India provides Hindi the status of national language. 2. The Parliament by passing a bill with simple majority can add any language in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. 3. The official languages of different states of India are specified in Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India does not give any languages the status of national language. The official languages of Government off India are Hindi and English. Statement 2 is incorrect : Addition of any language which is not mentioned in the Schedule Eighth of the constitution requires constitutional amendment. For this the parliament has to pass a constitutional amendment bill regarding the same with special najority. The original constitution of India specified fourteen languages. Later on with the amendment of the constitution additional eight languages were added to make a total of twenty two. Statement 3 is incorrect : Eight Schedule lists the regional languages of India. One objective behind this is to use these languages for the enrichment of Hindi language. However the official languages of all the state are not listed in eight schedule. For example, English is official language of Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura. But it is not listed in the schedule. Similarly Kokborok is one of the official languages of Tripura but it is not there in the list. Similarly Sikkim has a total of 11 official languages but all are not listed in eight schedule.##Topic:Provisions related to Language##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to official language of a state, consider the following statements: It should be spoken by the majority of the population of the state. It should be listed in 8th schedule of the constitution. It is adopted on the direction of the Governor with the prior consent of the president of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement is incorrect: Though it is being observed that official language of a particular state is spoken by a large section of the population but it is not the soul criteria to make a language as an official language. The official language is used in the official and administrative works in the state for the effective functioning of the government. Even the President, for protecting the linguistic interests of the minorities in the states, can direct to states to recognize any language as a official language. Statement 2 is incorrect: the choice of the state is not limited to the languages enumerated in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution . Statement 3 is incorrect : State legislature of a state has given exclusive power to adopt any one or more languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state. Authorisation of the governor is not required here.
|
d
|
Provisions related to Language
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to official language of a state, consider the following statements: It should be spoken by the majority of the population of the state. It should be listed in 8th schedule of the constitution. It is adopted on the direction of the Governor with the prior consent of the president of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement is incorrect: Though it is being observed that official language of a particular state is spoken by a large section of the population but it is not the soul criteria to make a language as an official language. The official language is used in the official and administrative works in the state for the effective functioning of the government. Even the President, for protecting the linguistic interests of the minorities in the states, can direct to states to recognize any language as a official language. Statement 2 is incorrect: the choice of the state is not limited to the languages enumerated in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution . Statement 3 is incorrect : State legislature of a state has given exclusive power to adopt any one or more languages in use in the state or Hindi as the official language of that state. Authorisation of the governor is not required here.##Topic:Provisions related to Language##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the Acting Judges and Retired Judges of High Court (HC) and identify the correct statements
1. President can appoint duly qualified person/s as additional judge/s in case of increase in the workload or arrears of work in the HC.
2. Chief justice of HC can appoint the Retired judge of a HC to act as judge of HC for a temporary period without prior the consent of President.
3. Both the above types of judges can hold the office even after attaining the age of 62 years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 : correct: this is the temporary provision only for the period not exceeding 2 years and appointee cannot hold office after attaining 62 years of age
Statement 2 : Incorrect: Chief justice of HC can appoint the Retired judge of a HC to act as judge of HC for a temporary period with prior the consent of President.
Statement 3: incorrect: Both the above types of judges cannot hold the office after attaining the age of 62 years.
|
a
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the Acting Judges and Retired Judges of High Court (HC) and identify the correct statements
1. President can appoint duly qualified person/s as additional judge/s in case of increase in the workload or arrears of work in the HC.
2. Chief justice of HC can appoint the Retired judge of a HC to act as judge of HC for a temporary period without prior the consent of President.
3. Both the above types of judges can hold the office even after attaining the age of 62 years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 : correct: this is the temporary provision only for the period not exceeding 2 years and appointee cannot hold office after attaining 62 years of age
Statement 2 : Incorrect: Chief justice of HC can appoint the Retired judge of a HC to act as judge of HC for a temporary period with prior the consent of President.
Statement 3: incorrect: Both the above types of judges cannot hold the office after attaining the age of 62 years.
##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to language used in the proceedings of Supreme Court ,consider the following statements:
1. Only English language is used in Supreme Court.
2. The official languages of the States can be used in Supreme Court with the direction of the President.
3. Parliament by amending constitution can allow Supreme Court to use Hindi
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct : The proceedings and judgements of Supreme Court must be in English only. The parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court. But constitution provides provisions for the use of Hindi or any other official language of a state in the proceedings of the High Court. In this case the governor of a state with previous consent of the President authorizes the state. But as per the constitution, until parliament passes a bill, Hindi or any other official language can not be used for the judgements , decrees and orders passed by the High Court. Parliament made this possible by enacting The Official Language Act of 1963. But we need to keep in mind that this act permits to use Hindi for the judgements passed by the High court not the Indian constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Official languages ot the States are not used in the Supreme Court. There is no provisions regarding the direction issued by the President to Supreme court for the use of official languages of the States.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Amendment of the constitution is not required in this case. The parliament can make a provision regarding use of Hindi language in the proceedings of the Supreme Court. But till now Parliament has not passed a bill for this.
Hence the correct code is a
|
a
|
Provisions related to Language
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to language used in the proceedings of Supreme Court ,consider the following statements:
1. Only English language is used in Supreme Court.
2. The official languages of the States can be used in Supreme Court with the direction of the President.
3. Parliament by amending constitution can allow Supreme Court to use Hindi
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct : The proceedings and judgements of Supreme Court must be in English only. The parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court. But constitution provides provisions for the use of Hindi or any other official language of a state in the proceedings of the High Court. In this case the governor of a state with previous consent of the President authorizes the state. But as per the constitution, until parliament passes a bill, Hindi or any other official language can not be used for the judgements , decrees and orders passed by the High Court. Parliament made this possible by enacting The Official Language Act of 1963. But we need to keep in mind that this act permits to use Hindi for the judgements passed by the High court not the Indian constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Official languages ot the States are not used in the Supreme Court. There is no provisions regarding the direction issued by the President to Supreme court for the use of official languages of the States.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Amendment of the constitution is not required in this case. The parliament can make a provision regarding use of Hindi language in the proceedings of the Supreme Court. But till now Parliament has not passed a bill for this.
Hence the correct code is a
##Topic:Provisions related to Language##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements with regard to co-operatives: To form co-operative societies is a fundamental right under article 19 . Part IX-B of the constitution contains the provisions for co-operative societies. Co-operative societies is a state subject in seventh schedule of the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: To form co-operative societies is a fundamental right under article 19 . Statement 2 is correct: Part IX-B of the constitution contains the provisions for co-operative societies. Statement 3 is correct: Co-operative societies is a state subject in seventh schedule of the constitution.
|
d
|
Co-operative societies
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to co-operatives: To form co-operative societies is a fundamental right under article 19 . Part IX-B of the constitution contains the provisions for co-operative societies. Co-operative societies is a state subject in seventh schedule of the constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: To form co-operative societies is a fundamental right under article 19 . Statement 2 is correct: Part IX-B of the constitution contains the provisions for co-operative societies. Statement 3 is correct: Co-operative societies is a state subject in seventh schedule of the constitution.##Topic:Co-operative societies##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to All-India Services, consider the following statements: 1. UPSC regulates the recruitment and the conditions of service of the persons appointed to these services. 2. Their salaries and pensions are met by both the state and the centre. 3. For the addition of new All India Service, a constitutional amendment is required. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The officers of All-India Services are recruited by the central government according to rules prescribed under All-India Services Act of 1951. The constitution states that the parliament can make laws to regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of the officers recruited under All-India Services. So All-India Services Act was passed which assigned UPSC to conduct exams for the recruitment in to the services. Statement 2 is incorrect : The members of the All-India Services are recruited by the Centre but their services are placed under various state cadres. But their salaries and pensions are met by the States. Statement 3 is incorrect: Addition of any new All-India Service does not require amendment of the constitution. The Rajya can pass a resolution declaring it is necessary to create a new All-India Service in the national interest then the parliament can create a new All-India Service. On the same fashion India Forest Service was established as the third All-India Service by the parliament. Hence the correct code is d.
|
d
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to All-India Services, consider the following statements: 1. UPSC regulates the recruitment and the conditions of service of the persons appointed to these services. 2. Their salaries and pensions are met by both the state and the centre. 3. For the addition of new All India Service, a constitutional amendment is required. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct? ##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: The officers of All-India Services are recruited by the central government according to rules prescribed under All-India Services Act of 1951. The constitution states that the parliament can make laws to regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of the officers recruited under All-India Services. So All-India Services Act was passed which assigned UPSC to conduct exams for the recruitment in to the services. Statement 2 is incorrect : The members of the All-India Services are recruited by the Centre but their services are placed under various state cadres. But their salaries and pensions are met by the States. Statement 3 is incorrect: Addition of any new All-India Service does not require amendment of the constitution. The Rajya can pass a resolution declaring it is necessary to create a new All-India Service in the national interest then the parliament can create a new All-India Service. On the same fashion India Forest Service was established as the third All-India Service by the parliament. Hence the correct code is d.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
A person to be eligible for contesting election of President should fulfil which of the following qualifications? He should have completed 35 years of age. He should be qualified for election as a member of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. He should not hold any office of profit under the government of India or of any state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
A person to be eligible for election as President should fulfil the following qualifications: He should be a citizen of India. He should have completed 35 years of age. He should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state government or any local authority or any other public authority. However, a sitting President or Vice-President of the Union, the Governor of any state and a minister of the Union or any state is not deemed to hold any office of profit and hence qualified as a presidential candidate.
|
b
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:A person to be eligible for contesting election of President should fulfil which of the following qualifications? He should have completed 35 years of age. He should be qualified for election as a member of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. He should not hold any office of profit under the government of India or of any state. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:A person to be eligible for election as President should fulfil the following qualifications: He should be a citizen of India. He should have completed 35 years of age. He should be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state government or any local authority or any other public authority. However, a sitting President or Vice-President of the Union, the Governor of any state and a minister of the Union or any state is not deemed to hold any office of profit and hence qualified as a presidential candidate.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are correct regarding impeachment of the President?
He can be impeached only on the charge of violation of Constitution.
Only elected members of Parliament can vote at impeachment proceedings.
On removal of President, Vice-President takes charge as president for the remaining tenure.
Impeachment resolution needs to be passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership in both the houses.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Article 56(1)(b) states that President may , for violation of the constituion, be removed from office by impeachement. However Constituion does not give description of what amounts to violation of constituion
Statement 2 is not correct: The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election.
Statement 3 is not correct: Unlike in USA, Vice president does not take charge for remaining tenure but only till the new president is elected.
Statement 4 is correct: The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be given to the President. After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. If the other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President stands removed from his office.
|
c
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following is/are correct regarding impeachment of the President?
He can be impeached only on the charge of violation of Constitution.
Only elected members of Parliament can vote at impeachment proceedings.
On removal of President, Vice-President takes charge as president for the remaining tenure.
Impeachment resolution needs to be passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership in both the houses.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only
##Option_C: 1 and 4 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: Article 56(1)(b) states that President may , for violation of the constituion, be removed from office by impeachement. However Constituion does not give description of what amounts to violation of constituion
Statement 2 is not correct: The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election.
Statement 3 is not correct: Unlike in USA, Vice president does not take charge for remaining tenure but only till the new president is elected.
Statement 4 is correct: The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be given to the President. After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. If the other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President stands removed from his office.
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
1. The members of All-India Services and Central Services work under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Central
government.
2. Only the Central government can take any disciplinary action against the personnel of All-India Services and Central
Services.
3.Fundamental rights of the members of Cetral Services and State Services can be restricted by the executive during
national emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The personnel of the Central services work under the exclusive jurisdiction of the central government. But the members of the All-India Services are jointly controlled by the centre and state governments since they are recruited by the centre and posted in the states.
Statement 2 is correct : The constitution empowers the parliament to make laws to regulate the recruitments and conditions of service of the persons appointed to the Central Services. The parliament authorizes the central government to take disciplinary actions against the officers. Though the members of the All-India Services are controlled jointly by the centre and the state governments but only the Centre can take the disciplinary actions against these members.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is not the executive head rather the parliament and state legislatures can impose reasonable restriction on fundamental rights of the members of the Central Services and State Services respectively. The condition of national emergency is not required in this case. The law making bodies can impose at any time in the interests of integrity, honesty, impartiality and so on.
Hence the correct code is b.
|
b
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. The members of All-India Services and Central Services work under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Central
government.
2. Only the Central government can take any disciplinary action against the personnel of All-India Services and Central
Services.
3.Fundamental rights of the members of Cetral Services and State Services can be restricted by the executive during
national emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The personnel of the Central services work under the exclusive jurisdiction of the central government. But the members of the All-India Services are jointly controlled by the centre and state governments since they are recruited by the centre and posted in the states.
Statement 2 is correct : The constitution empowers the parliament to make laws to regulate the recruitments and conditions of service of the persons appointed to the Central Services. The parliament authorizes the central government to take disciplinary actions against the officers. Though the members of the All-India Services are controlled jointly by the centre and the state governments but only the Centre can take the disciplinary actions against these members.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It is not the executive head rather the parliament and state legislatures can impose reasonable restriction on fundamental rights of the members of the Central Services and State Services respectively. The condition of national emergency is not required in this case. The law making bodies can impose at any time in the interests of integrity, honesty, impartiality and so on.
Hence the correct code is b.
##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are correct regarding Executive powers of President ? He appoints attorney general of India who holds office during his pleasure. He can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of backward classes. He appoints Comptroller and Auditor General who holds office during his pleasure. He can declare any area as scheduled area and has powers with respect to the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas. Select the correct answer using the code
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Article 76(4) states that "The Attorney-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine". Statement 2 is correct: Article 340 states that President by order appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within the territory of India. Statement 3 is not correct: While CAG is appointed by President but he does not holds office during pleasure of President. Statement 4 is correct: Fifth Schedule contain provisions like 6(2) whereby President may at any time by order direct that whole or any part of a state to be scheduled area , remove or alter such area.
|
b
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are correct regarding Executive powers of President ? He appoints attorney general of India who holds office during his pleasure. He can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of backward classes. He appoints Comptroller and Auditor General who holds office during his pleasure. He can declare any area as scheduled area and has powers with respect to the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas. Select the correct answer using the code ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B:1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C:3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Article 76(4) states that "The Attorney-General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President, and shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine". Statement 2 is correct: Article 340 states that President by order appoint a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes within the territory of India. Statement 3 is not correct: While CAG is appointed by President but he does not holds office during pleasure of President. Statement 4 is correct: Fifth Schedule contain provisions like 6(2) whereby President may at any time by order direct that whole or any part of a state to be scheduled area , remove or alter such area.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
CASSINI is sometimes mentioned in the news refers to:
|
New mission launched by ISRO to finding water on moon.
|
A spacecraft by NASA to study Saturn planet.
|
An unmanned spacecraft by European space agency.
|
New mission launched by ISRO to finding water on moon.
|
The Cassini–Huygens mission commonly called Cassini , by NASA to send a probe to study the planet Saturn and its system, including its rings and natural satellites.
Launched on October 15, 1997, Cassini was active in space for more than 19 years, with 13 years spent orbiting Saturn, studying the planet and its system after entering orbit on July 1, 2004. Its mission ended on September 15, 2017 , when Cassini was commanded to fly into Saturn's upper atmosphere and burn up in order to prevent any risk of contaminating Saturn's moons, which might have offered habitable environments to stowaway terrestrial microbes on the spacecraft.
|
b
|
Space Discoveries
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
CASSINI is sometimes mentioned in the news refers to:
##Option_A:
New mission launched by ISRO to finding water on moon.
###Option_B:
A spacecraft by NASA to study Saturn planet.
##Option_C:
An unmanned spacecraft by European space agency.
##Option_D:
New mission launched by ISRO to finding water on moon.
##Answer:b##Explaination:
The Cassini–Huygens mission commonly called Cassini , by NASA to send a probe to study the planet Saturn and its system, including its rings and natural satellites.
Launched on October 15, 1997, Cassini was active in space for more than 19 years, with 13 years spent orbiting Saturn, studying the planet and its system after entering orbit on July 1, 2004. Its mission ended on September 15, 2017 , when Cassini was commanded to fly into Saturn's upper atmosphere and burn up in order to prevent any risk of contaminating Saturn's moons, which might have offered habitable environments to stowaway terrestrial microbes on the spacecraft.
##Topic:Space Discoveries##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements, regarding co-operative society:
1. Co-operatives must be audited by CAG annually.
2. State Laws on co-operative society were made null and void by the 97th amendment act.
3. Board of co-operative societies can not be kept suspended for more than six months.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Co-operatives must be audited as per the provisions made by the state legislature..
Statement 2 is incorrect: State Laws on co-operative society were made null and void by the 97th amendment act to the extent of their inconsistency only.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Board of co-operative societies can not be kept suspended for more than six months.
In case of suspenssion of a board, the administrator appointed to manage the affairs of such a co-operative society shall arrange foe conduct of election within the period of six months .
|
a
|
Co-operative societies
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements, regarding co-operative society:
1. Co-operatives must be audited by CAG annually.
2. State Laws on co-operative society were made null and void by the 97th amendment act.
3. Board of co-operative societies can not be kept suspended for more than six months.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Co-operatives must be audited as per the provisions made by the state legislature..
Statement 2 is incorrect: State Laws on co-operative society were made null and void by the 97th amendment act to the extent of their inconsistency only.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Board of co-operative societies can not be kept suspended for more than six months.
In case of suspenssion of a board, the administrator appointed to manage the affairs of such a co-operative society shall arrange foe conduct of election within the period of six months .
##Topic:Co-operative societies##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
In the context of Indian polity, consider the following statements regarding the doctrine of pleasure: It is only applicable to persons who are members of the All-India Services and Central Services not to the members of State services. It is used to remove Comptroller and Auditor General of India and Chief Election Commissioner from their office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Doctrine of pleasure means all the persons who are members of the All-India Services and Central Services hold office during the pleasure of the President. Similarly, the personnel of the state services hold office during the pleasure of the governor. So this doctrine is also applicable to persons of the state services. Statement 2 is not correct: Doctrine of pleasure is not applicable for Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) and Chief Election Commissioner (CEC). Though they are appointed by the President, they may be removed from their office only on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity on the resolution for the same being passed by the parliament with a special majority.
|
d
|
Others
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:In the context of Indian polity, consider the following statements regarding the doctrine of pleasure: It is only applicable to persons who are members of the All-India Services and Central Services not to the members of State services. It is used to remove Comptroller and Auditor General of India and Chief Election Commissioner from their office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Doctrine of pleasure means all the persons who are members of the All-India Services and Central Services hold office during the pleasure of the President. Similarly, the personnel of the state services hold office during the pleasure of the governor. So this doctrine is also applicable to persons of the state services. Statement 2 is not correct: Doctrine of pleasure is not applicable for Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) and Chief Election Commissioner (CEC). Though they are appointed by the President, they may be removed from their office only on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity on the resolution for the same being passed by the parliament with a special majority.##Topic:Others##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding High Court (HC) :
1. Unless the state legislature expands the territorial jurisdiction of a HC, it is coterminous with the territory of concerned state.
2. Only the state legislature can change the jurisdiction and powers of HC except the jurisdiction and powers of the HC provided specified in the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1: incorrect: this power of expanding the territorial jurisdiction of HC lies with Parliament, not with state legislature.
Statement 2: incorrect: this power of expanding the jurisdiction and powers of HC also lies with the Parliament.
|
d
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding High Court (HC) :
1. Unless the state legislature expands the territorial jurisdiction of a HC, it is coterminous with the territory of concerned state.
2. Only the state legislature can change the jurisdiction and powers of HC except the jurisdiction and powers of the HC provided specified in the constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1: incorrect: this power of expanding the territorial jurisdiction of HC lies with Parliament, not with state legislature.
Statement 2: incorrect: this power of expanding the jurisdiction and powers of HC also lies with the Parliament.
##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the powers of the President, consider the following statements: 1. He summons the joint sitting of the Parliament and presides over it. 2. His prior assent is required to introduce the Constitutional Amendment Bill and the Money bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: President summons the joint sitting of the Parliament but it is presided by the speaker of Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is not correct: Constitutional amendment bills do not require prior assent of the President.
|
d
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the powers of the President, consider the following statements: 1. He summons the joint sitting of the Parliament and presides over it. 2. His prior assent is required to introduce the Constitutional Amendment Bill and the Money bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: President summons the joint sitting of the Parliament but it is presided by the speaker of Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is not correct: Constitutional amendment bills do not require prior assent of the President. ##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the financial powers of the President? Demand for grants can be introduced only after his prior recommendation. He constitutes a Finance Commission to recommend the distribution of revenue between the center and states. He can make advances out of the contingency fund of India without prior sanction of Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Article 113(3) states that no Demands for Grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 280 , President constitutes a Finance commission every 5 years to distribute revenue between the Centre and the state. Statement 3 is correct : Contingency fund is at the disposal of the President and no prior approval of the Parliament is required for appropriation from this fund. However no money can be appropriated from the Consolidated Fund of India without prior sanction of the Parliament.
|
b
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are correct regarding the financial powers of the President? Demand for grants can be introduced only after his prior recommendation. He constitutes a Finance Commission to recommend the distribution of revenue between the center and states. He can make advances out of the contingency fund of India without prior sanction of Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B:1, 2 and 3##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Article 113(3) states that no Demands for Grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 280 , President constitutes a Finance commission every 5 years to distribute revenue between the Centre and the state. Statement 3 is correct : Contingency fund is at the disposal of the President and no prior approval of the Parliament is required for appropriation from this fund. However no money can be appropriated from the Consolidated Fund of India without prior sanction of the Parliament.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Article 350A -it shall be the duty of the state to provide education up to the primary level to the children of linguistic minorities in their mother tongue. 2. Article 350B provides for the special officer for linguistic minorities appointed by the President Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
No_topic
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Article 350A -it shall be the duty of the state to provide education up to the primary level to the children of linguistic minorities in their mother tongue. 2. Article 350B provides for the special officer for linguistic minorities appointed by the President Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:No_topic##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to Central Administrative Tribunal, consider the following statements:
1. It does not cover the members of the Nagarpalikas and Panchayati Raj Institutions.
2. It can not draw cases from State Administrative Tribunal
3.It has power to determine its own jurisdiction
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) can adjudicate the disputes relating to service matters of persons appointed in All-India Services, Central Services, Local authorities, civil posts under the Centre etc. Its jurisdiction does not extend to members of the defence forces and officers and servants of Supreme court and the secretarial staff of the parliament. So the Nagarpalikas and Panchayati Raj Institutions are covered under CAT.
Statement 2 is correct: CAT and SAT exercise their own original jurisdiction in relation to service matters. CAT deals at the central level whereas SAT at the state level. So this statement is correct.
Statement 3 is incorrect : It is the parliament who decides the jurisdiction of CAT.
Hence the correct code is c.
|
c
|
Tribunals
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to Central Administrative Tribunal, consider the following statements:
1. It does not cover the members of the Nagarpalikas and Panchayati Raj Institutions.
2. It can not draw cases from State Administrative Tribunal
3.It has power to determine its own jurisdiction
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) can adjudicate the disputes relating to service matters of persons appointed in All-India Services, Central Services, Local authorities, civil posts under the Centre etc. Its jurisdiction does not extend to members of the defence forces and officers and servants of Supreme court and the secretarial staff of the parliament. So the Nagarpalikas and Panchayati Raj Institutions are covered under CAT.
Statement 2 is correct: CAT and SAT exercise their own original jurisdiction in relation to service matters. CAT deals at the central level whereas SAT at the state level. So this statement is correct.
Statement 3 is incorrect : It is the parliament who decides the jurisdiction of CAT.
Hence the correct code is c.
##Topic:Tribunals##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
The provision of joint sitting is applicable for which of the following bills? 1. Ordinary bills 2. Financial bills 3. Constitutional Amendment bills Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
President summons the joint sitting to resolve the deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill. Provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bill or Constitutional amendment bills.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The provision of joint sitting is applicable for which of the following bills? 1. Ordinary bills 2. Financial bills 3. Constitutional Amendment bills Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:President summons the joint sitting to resolve the deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill. Provision of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money bill or Constitutional amendment bills.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding High Court (HC) judges : A distinguished jurist in the eye Chief Justice of India can be appointed as a judge of HC. A judge of HC can be removed by the Governor after an address by the state legislature has been presented to him. Grounds for removal of HC judges are to be determined by the respective state legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no provision of appointing distinguished jurist as a judge of HC (this provision is there for appointing judge of SC only). Statement 2 is incorrect. State legislature has no powers with respect to removal of the judge of HC. He can be removed by the President after an address by the Parliament has been presented to him in the same session. Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no such provision in the constitution. There are only two grounds for removal of HC/SC judges-proved misbehavior or incapacity.
|
d
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding High Court (HC) judges : A distinguished jurist in the eye Chief Justice of India can be appointed as a judge of HC. A judge of HC can be removed by the Governor after an address by the state legislature has been presented to him. Grounds for removal of HC judges are to be determined by the respective state legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no provision of appointing distinguished jurist as a judge of HC (this provision is there for appointing judge of SC only). Statement 2 is incorrect. State legislature has no powers with respect to removal of the judge of HC. He can be removed by the President after an address by the Parliament has been presented to him in the same session. Statement 3 is incorrect. There is no such provision in the constitution. There are only two grounds for removal of HC/SC judges-proved misbehavior or incapacity.##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following vetos can be used by the President of India regarding a bill passed by Parliament? Absolute Veto Qualified Veto Suspensive Veto Pocket Veto Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1,2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1,2 and 3 only
|
President of India does not enjoys Qualified Veto on the lines of US President. However he enjoys: Absolute Veto: he can reject a bill Suspensive Veto: he can return the bill for reconsideration Pocket Veto: he can keep the bill pending for indefinite period
|
c
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following vetos can be used by the President of India regarding a bill passed by Parliament? Absolute Veto Qualified Veto Suspensive Veto Pocket Veto Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1,2 and 3 only###Option_B: 3 and 4 only ##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1,2 and 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:President of India does not enjoys Qualified Veto on the lines of US President. However he enjoys: Absolute Veto: he can reject a bill Suspensive Veto: he can return the bill for reconsideration Pocket Veto: he can keep the bill pending for indefinite period##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
With reference to orders given by the Tribunals, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Appeals against the tribunal orders could be filed directly in the Supreme Court.
2. Appeals against the tribunal orders to be filed first in the District Court concerned and then before the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliament has enacted Administrative Tribunal Act 1985. State and Central Administrative Tribunals were constituted pursuant to the 1985 Administrative Tribunals Act. As per this Act, appeals against the tribunal orders could be filed directly in the Supreme Court. However, Supreme Court in L. Chandrakumar’s case in 1997 declared this restriction on the jurisdiction of the High Courts as unconstitutional. So the appeals would have to be filed first in the High Court concerned and then before the Supreme Court.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Appeals against the orders of the Tribunal to be filed first in the High court. Central Administrative Tribunal enjoys the status of High Court.
So the correct code is d
|
d
|
Tribunals
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to orders given by the Tribunals, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Appeals against the tribunal orders could be filed directly in the Supreme Court.
2. Appeals against the tribunal orders to be filed first in the District Court concerned and then before the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliament has enacted Administrative Tribunal Act 1985. State and Central Administrative Tribunals were constituted pursuant to the 1985 Administrative Tribunals Act. As per this Act, appeals against the tribunal orders could be filed directly in the Supreme Court. However, Supreme Court in L. Chandrakumar’s case in 1997 declared this restriction on the jurisdiction of the High Courts as unconstitutional. So the appeals would have to be filed first in the High Court concerned and then before the Supreme Court.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Appeals against the orders of the Tribunal to be filed first in the High court. Central Administrative Tribunal enjoys the status of High Court.
So the correct code is d
##Topic:Tribunals##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the ordinance-making power of the President? He can promulgate an ordinance only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session. Ordinances cannot be introduced to amend tax laws or the Constitution. Ordinances cannot be promulgated retrospectively. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: He can promulgate an ordinance when either of the houses is not in session. Statement 2 is not correct: It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance. It can alter or amend a tax law also. However, it cannot be issued to amend the Constitution. Statement 3 is not correct : An ordinance like any other legislation can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date.
|
d
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are correct regarding the ordinance-making power of the President? He can promulgate an ordinance only when both Houses of Parliament are not in session. Ordinances cannot be introduced to amend tax laws or the Constitution. Ordinances cannot be promulgated retrospectively. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1, 2 and 3##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: He can promulgate an ordinance when either of the houses is not in session. Statement 2 is not correct: It may modify or repeal any act of Parliament or another ordinance. It can alter or amend a tax law also. However, it cannot be issued to amend the Constitution. Statement 3 is not correct : An ordinance like any other legislation can be retrospective, that is, it may come into force from a back date.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Tribunals in India, consider the following statements: 1. Tribunals are part of the Integrated Judiciary System of India. 2. Tribunals do not cover the employees of the Public Sector Undertakings 3. Armed Forces Tribunal is established by the Ministry of Defence. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Tribunals are not part of the Integrated judicial system of India. Integrated judicial system provides for Supreme court at the top and the State High Courts below it. Statement 2 is not correct: The service matters related to the employees of the PSU can be brought under Central Administrative Tribunals or State Administrative Tribunals by a notification. Statement 3 is not correct: The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 was passed by the parliament and it led to the establishment of the Armed Forces Tribunal in India.
|
d
|
Tribunals
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Tribunals in India, consider the following statements: 1. Tribunals are part of the Integrated Judiciary System of India. 2. Tribunals do not cover the employees of the Public Sector Undertakings 3. Armed Forces Tribunal is established by the Ministry of Defence. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Tribunals are not part of the Integrated judicial system of India. Integrated judicial system provides for Supreme court at the top and the State High Courts below it. Statement 2 is not correct: The service matters related to the employees of the PSU can be brought under Central Administrative Tribunals or State Administrative Tribunals by a notification. Statement 3 is not correct: The Armed Forces Tribunal Act, 2007 was passed by the parliament and it led to the establishment of the Armed Forces Tribunal in India.##Topic:Tribunals##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Pardoning power of President ?
1. He can suspend or remite a sentence for an offence against union law only.
2. Pardoning power by the President is not subject to judicial review.
3. In exercise of his pardoning power, President sits as court of appeal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of any offence in all cases where the:
1. Punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union Law;
2. Punishment or sentence is by a court martial (military court); and
3. Sentence is a sentence of death (under both state or central law)
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The exercise of power by the President can be subjected to judicial review if the presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary; it is an executive power. But, the President while exercising this power, does not sit as a court of appeal. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
|
d
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Pardoning power of President ?
1. He can suspend or remite a sentence for an offence against union law only.
2. Pardoning power by the President is not subject to judicial review.
3. In exercise of his pardoning power, President sits as court of appeal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of any offence in all cases where the:
1. Punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union Law;
2. Punishment or sentence is by a court martial (military court); and
3. Sentence is a sentence of death (under both state or central law)
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The exercise of power by the President can be subjected to judicial review if the presidential decision is arbitrary, irrational, mala fide or discriminatory. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
The pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary; it is an executive power. But, the President while exercising this power, does not sit as a court of appeal. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The coastal states can exercise jurisdiction over the minerals located in which of the following regions? Territorial waters Continental shelf Exclusive economic zone Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
The minerals, land and any other valuable things obtained within the territorial waters, continental shelf and exclusive economic zone of India vests with the Union. The coastal states cannot claim over this.
|
d
|
Rights and Liabilities of the government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The coastal states can exercise jurisdiction over the minerals located in which of the following regions? Territorial waters Continental shelf Exclusive economic zone Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The minerals, land and any other valuable things obtained within the territorial waters, continental shelf and exclusive economic zone of India vests with the Union. The coastal states cannot claim over this.##Topic:Rights and Liabilities of the government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding High Court’s (HC) supervisory jurisdiction and control over subordinate courts in a state: 1. HC can withdraw the cases pending before the Subordinate courts that involve substantial question of law that requires interpretation of constitution. 2. HC has superintendence power over all the courts and tribunals, including military courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. It can withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a substantial question of law that require the interpretation of the Constitution. It can then either dispose of the case itself or determine the question of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgement. Statement 2 is incorrect. This superintendence power does not apply to military courts and tribunals
|
a
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding High Court’s (HC) supervisory jurisdiction and control over subordinate courts in a state: 1. HC can withdraw the cases pending before the Subordinate courts that involve substantial question of law that requires interpretation of constitution. 2. HC has superintendence power over all the courts and tribunals, including military courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. It can withdraw a case pending in a subordinate court if it involves a substantial question of law that require the interpretation of the Constitution. It can then either dispose of the case itself or determine the question of law and return the case to the subordinate court with its judgement. Statement 2 is incorrect. This superintendence power does not apply to military courts and tribunals##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1.The Union government can be sued for the wrongs committed by a public official during the maintenance of public
path and collection of revenue.
2.The Union government can not be sued for the contract it makes with a business organization in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The State maintains public path for the welfare of the general public and there is not commercial object in it (Mclnerny Vs Secretary of state, Calcutta High Court verdict). So, laying public path and its maintenance are part of sovereign functions of the state. Similarly collection of revenue is also a sovereign function. If a public official commit any civil wrongs is respect of sovereign function then the government is not suable.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The government is suable for the contract made by it, to acquire, hold and dispose property or for any other purpose. But the President or Governor is not personally if any contract is executed in his name. Also, the officer who is executing this contract is not personally liable.
Hence the correct code is d.
|
c
|
Rights and Liabilities of the government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1.The Union government can be sued for the wrongs committed by a public official during the maintenance of public
path and collection of revenue.
2.The Union government can not be sued for the contract it makes with a business organization in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The State maintains public path for the welfare of the general public and there is not commercial object in it (Mclnerny Vs Secretary of state, Calcutta High Court verdict). So, laying public path and its maintenance are part of sovereign functions of the state. Similarly collection of revenue is also a sovereign function. If a public official commit any civil wrongs is respect of sovereign function then the government is not suable.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The government is suable for the contract made by it, to acquire, hold and dispose property or for any other purpose. But the President or Governor is not personally if any contract is executed in his name. Also, the officer who is executing this contract is not personally liable.
Hence the correct code is d.
##Topic:Rights and Liabilities of the government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following pairs: Union Territory Under the territorial jurisdiction of 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands : Madras High Court 2. Lakshadweep Islands : Kerala High Court 3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu : Gujarat High Court Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The high courts of India are the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union territory. However, some of the union territories does not have a dedicated High Court. They come under the purview of the following High Courts. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are under the territorial jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court. Lakshadweep Islands are under the territorial jurisdiction of Kerala High Court. Bombay HC has jurisdiction over Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. Bombay HC has jurisdiction over Goa also.
|
b
|
High Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Union Territory Under the territorial jurisdiction of 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands : Madras High Court 2. Lakshadweep Islands : Kerala High Court 3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu : Gujarat High Court Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The high courts of India are the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union territory. However, some of the union territories does not have a dedicated High Court. They come under the purview of the following High Courts. Andaman and Nicobar Islands are under the territorial jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court. Lakshadweep Islands are under the territorial jurisdiction of Kerala High Court. Bombay HC has jurisdiction over Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. Bombay HC has jurisdiction over Goa also. ##Topic:High Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with reference to safeguards provided for public officials in India:
The President and the Governor of states can not be sued for their official acts and personal acts during the term of their office.
The Constitution does not grant any immunity to the ministers for their official acts.
The judicial review of the Supreme Court covers the aid and advice given by the Council of Ministers to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: The President and the Governor are given immunity by the constitution for any act done by them in exercise and performance of their official powers and duties, during the term of their office. But in case of personal acts there is one exception. That is civil proceedings can be started against the President and the governor in respect of their personal acts after giving two months advance notice. This can be even done during the term of their office.
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution does not grant any immunity to the ministers for their official acts. However since the ministers are not required to countersign the official acts or the President and the Governor, they are not liable in the courts for those acts.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The aid and advice given by the Council of Ministers to the President can’t be inquired and questioned by the courts.
|
c
|
Rights and Liabilities of the government
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements with reference to safeguards provided for public officials in India:
The President and the Governor of states can not be sued for their official acts and personal acts during the term of their office.
The Constitution does not grant any immunity to the ministers for their official acts.
The judicial review of the Supreme Court covers the aid and advice given by the Council of Ministers to the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The President and the Governor are given immunity by the constitution for any act done by them in exercise and performance of their official powers and duties, during the term of their office. But in case of personal acts there is one exception. That is civil proceedings can be started against the President and the governor in respect of their personal acts after giving two months advance notice. This can be even done during the term of their office.
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution does not grant any immunity to the ministers for their official acts. However since the ministers are not required to countersign the official acts or the President and the Governor, they are not liable in the courts for those acts.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The aid and advice given by the Council of Ministers to the President can’t be inquired and questioned by the courts.
##Topic:Rights and Liabilities of the government##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with regard to Inter State Water Disputes: Article 262 provides that Parliament alone can make laws on Inter-state water disputes. Parliament may restrict the jurisdiction of Supreme Court in these matters. The decision of an Inter-State Water dispute Tribunal is final and binding on the parties involved. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. According to Article 262, Parliament alone has the authority to make laws on Inter-state water disputes. Statement 2 is correct. Article 262 also allows the Parliament to restrict Supreme Court and other courts from interfering in these disputes. Statement 3 is correct. Under Inter-State Water Disputes Act 1956, Parliament can establish an ad-hoc tribunal for a river water dispute. The decision of the tribunal is binding and final on the parties. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other Court has any jurisdiction in these matters.
|
d
|
Inter state issues
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to Inter State Water Disputes: Article 262 provides that Parliament alone can make laws on Inter-state water disputes. Parliament may restrict the jurisdiction of Supreme Court in these matters. The decision of an Inter-State Water dispute Tribunal is final and binding on the parties involved. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only ###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:1 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. According to Article 262, Parliament alone has the authority to make laws on Inter-state water disputes. Statement 2 is correct. Article 262 also allows the Parliament to restrict Supreme Court and other courts from interfering in these disputes. Statement 3 is correct. Under Inter-State Water Disputes Act 1956, Parliament can establish an ad-hoc tribunal for a river water dispute. The decision of the tribunal is binding and final on the parties. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other Court has any jurisdiction in these matters.##Topic:Inter state issues##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following do not take part in election of the Vice-President? Nominated members of Lok Sabha Nominated Members of Rajya Sabha Elected Members of Legislative assemblies of state Nominated members of Legislative members of state Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
Vice President is elected by an electoral college cosisting of all the members of Parliament ( elected and nominated). Members of Legislative assemblies have no role in this election.
|
c
|
Vice President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following do not take part in election of the Vice-President? Nominated members of Lok Sabha Nominated Members of Rajya Sabha Elected Members of Legislative assemblies of state Nominated members of Legislative members of state Select the correct answer using the code given below. ##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Vice President is elected by an electoral college cosisting of all the members of Parliament ( elected and nominated). Members of Legislative assemblies have no role in this election.##Topic:Vice President ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Vice-President of India? He is a member and chairman of the Council of States. He can resign by addressing a resignation letter to the deputy chairman of the Council of States. He can be removed only through a formal impeachment process similar to that of the President Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Vice President is the ex-officio chairman of the Council of States but he is not a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect : He can resign by addressing to the President of India. Statement 3 is incorrect: He is not impeached by a formal impeachment process like President. He can be removed from office by a resolution of Rajya Sabha with an absolute majority and agreed by Lok Sabha.
|
d
|
Vice President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Vice-President of India? He is a member and chairman of the Council of States. He can resign by addressing a resignation letter to the deputy chairman of the Council of States. He can be removed only through a formal impeachment process similar to that of the President Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1, 2 and 3##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Vice President is the ex-officio chairman of the Council of States but he is not a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Statement 2 is incorrect : He can resign by addressing to the President of India. Statement 3 is incorrect: He is not impeached by a formal impeachment process like President. He can be removed from office by a resolution of Rajya Sabha with an absolute majority and agreed by Lok Sabha.##Topic:Vice President ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Financial bill (i) and (ii), consider the following statement:
1. Only Financial bill (II) can be introduced in either of the house.
2. Both require prior recommendation of President for its introduction.
3. Rajya Sabha has the power to amend or reject both type of Finance bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Fiancial Bill (I) can be introduced in Lok Sabha only whereas Financial Bill(II) can be introduced in either of the house.
Financial bill (II) is almost similar to ordinary bill except it requires recommendation of President for introduction
Statement 2 is incorrect: Only Financial bill (ii) requires recommendation of President for its introduction whereas in case of financial bill (II) recommendation of the President is not necessary for its introduction
Statement 3 is correct: Rajya Sabha has the power to amend or reject the both type of bill.
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Financial bill (i) and (ii), consider the following statement:
1. Only Financial bill (II) can be introduced in either of the house.
2. Both require prior recommendation of President for its introduction.
3. Rajya Sabha has the power to amend or reject both type of Finance bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: Fiancial Bill (I) can be introduced in Lok Sabha only whereas Financial Bill(II) can be introduced in either of the house.
Financial bill (II) is almost similar to ordinary bill except it requires recommendation of President for introduction
Statement 2 is incorrect: Only Financial bill (ii) requires recommendation of President for its introduction whereas in case of financial bill (II) recommendation of the President is not necessary for its introduction
Statement 3 is correct: Rajya Sabha has the power to amend or reject the both type of bill.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements are correct regarding removal of Vice-President ?
1. Such resolution can be introduced in Rajya Sabha only.
2. Resolution must be passed by two-third majority in the Rajya Sabha.
3. No such resolution can be moved unless atleast 1 month of advance notice has been given.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
A formal impeachment is not required for removal of Vice-President. He can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority (ie, a majority of the total members of the House) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
No such resoultion can be moved unless a prior notice of 14 days has been given.
|
a
|
Vice President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements are correct regarding removal of Vice-President ?
1. Such resolution can be introduced in Rajya Sabha only.
2. Resolution must be passed by two-third majority in the Rajya Sabha.
3. No such resolution can be moved unless atleast 1 month of advance notice has been given.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
A formal impeachment is not required for removal of Vice-President. He can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority (ie, a majority of the total members of the House) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
No such resoultion can be moved unless a prior notice of 14 days has been given.
##Topic:Vice President ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is not correct when Vice-President is discharging functions of President?
|
He enjoys all immunities which are available to the President for his official acts.
|
He continues to perform the duties of chairman of Rajya Sabha.
|
He can pardon the sentence of a court martial.
|
He enjoys all immunities which are available to the President for his official acts.
|
When Vice -President is acting as President , he enjoys all the powers and Privileges of the President. While acting as President or discharging the functions of President, the Vice-President does not perform the duties of the office of the chairman of Rajya Sabha. During this period, those duties are performed by the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
|
b
|
Vice President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is not correct when Vice-President is discharging functions of President?##Option_A:He enjoys all immunities which are available to the President for his official acts.###Option_B:He continues to perform the duties of chairman of Rajya Sabha.##Option_C:He can pardon the sentence of a court martial.##Option_D:He enjoys all immunities which are available to the President for his official acts.##Answer:b##Explaination:When Vice -President is acting as President , he enjoys all the powers and Privileges of the President. While acting as President or discharging the functions of President, the Vice-President does not perform the duties of the office of the chairman of Rajya Sabha. During this period, those duties are performed by the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.##Topic:Vice President ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which among the following requires the prior sanction of the President before being introduced in the Parliament? 1. Demand for Grants 2. Constitutional Amendement bill 3. Bill for the creation of new states 4. Bill for abolishing the Legislative council of any state. 5. Appropriation Bill Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3, and 5 only
|
2, 3, and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
President's prior sanction is required for introduction of certain bills. His sanction is required to introduce Demand of Grants, Money bill , creation of new states etc Consitutional amendment and Abolition of Legislative council does not require his prior sanction . The appropriation Bill is a money bill so his prior assent is required.
|
b
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following requires the prior sanction of the President before being introduced in the Parliament? 1. Demand for Grants 2. Constitutional Amendement bill 3. Bill for the creation of new states 4. Bill for abolishing the Legislative council of any state. 5. Appropriation Bill Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1, 3, and 5 only##Option_C:2, 3, and 4 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:President's prior sanction is required for introduction of certain bills. His sanction is required to introduce Demand of Grants, Money bill , creation of new states etc Consitutional amendment and Abolition of Legislative council does not require his prior sanction . The appropriation Bill is a money bill so his prior assent is required.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements are correct ? Prime minister is appointed by the President and other ministers are appointed by the Prime minister Council of ministers are directly responsible to the Parliament. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the bussiness of the Government of India. Prime minister has to submit such information relating to affairs of Union and legislative proposals as the President may call for. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct: Prime minister is appointed by the President and other ministers are also appointed by the President on the advice of Prime minister Statement 2 is not correct: Article 75 states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and not to the Parliament. Statement 3 is correct : Article 77(3) The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. Statement 4 is correct: Article 78(b) It shall be duty of prime minister to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for.
|
a
|
President
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are correct ? Prime minister is appointed by the President and other ministers are appointed by the Prime minister Council of ministers are directly responsible to the Parliament. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the bussiness of the Government of India. Prime minister has to submit such information relating to affairs of Union and legislative proposals as the President may call for. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 3 and 4 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 3 and 4 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct: Prime minister is appointed by the President and other ministers are also appointed by the President on the advice of Prime minister Statement 2 is not correct: Article 75 states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha and not to the Parliament. Statement 3 is correct : Article 77(3) The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. Statement 4 is correct: Article 78(b) It shall be duty of prime minister to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation as the President may call for.##Topic:President##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements regarding board of co-operative society: 1. It must have at least one seat reserved for SC or ST and two seats for women. 2. The elected members of the board is five years. 3. Elections for the board members are administered by state election commission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It must have at least one seat reserved for SC or ST and two seats for women. Statement 2 is correct: The term of office of elected members of the board and its office bearers is five years. Statement 3 is incorrect: Elections for the board members are administered by the body authorized by the state legislature.
|
a
|
Co-operative societies
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding board of co-operative society: 1. It must have at least one seat reserved for SC or ST and two seats for women. 2. The elected members of the board is five years. 3. Elections for the board members are administered by state election commission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 1 and 3 ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It must have at least one seat reserved for SC or ST and two seats for women. Statement 2 is correct: The term of office of elected members of the board and its office bearers is five years. Statement 3 is incorrect: Elections for the board members are administered by the body authorized by the state legislature. ##Topic:Co-operative societies##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following conditions must be satisfied before a person is appointed as Prime minister ?
1. He must be member of either house of Parliament.
2. He must have proved his majority in the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
In 1980, the Delhi High Court held that the Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Lok Sabha before he is appointed as the Prime Minister. The President may first
appoint him the Prime Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the Lok Sabha within a
reasonable period.
In 1997, the Supreme Court held that a person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as Prime Minister for six months, within which, he should become a member of either House of Parliament; otherwise, he ceases to be the Prime Minister.
|
d
|
Prime minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following conditions must be satisfied before a person is appointed as Prime minister ?
1. He must be member of either house of Parliament.
2. He must have proved his majority in the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
In 1980, the Delhi High Court held that the Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Lok Sabha before he is appointed as the Prime Minister. The President may first
appoint him the Prime Minister and then ask him to prove his majority in the Lok Sabha within a
reasonable period.
In 1997, the Supreme Court held that a person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as Prime Minister for six months, within which, he should become a member of either House of Parliament; otherwise, he ceases to be the Prime Minister.
##Topic:Prime minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Inter-State Councils : 1. The primary function of Inter-state council is to effect co-ordination between the states and between Centre and State. 2. The Parliament of India has the authority to establish such a council at any time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states. Statement 2 is incorrect. President and not the parliament has the sole authority to establish such a council as and when he/she feels that public interest would be served by such a council.
|
a
|
Inter state issues
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Inter-State Councils : 1. The primary function of Inter-state council is to effect co-ordination between the states and between Centre and State. 2. The Parliament of India has the authority to establish such a council at any time. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only ###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 only ##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. Article 263 contemplates the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between Centre and states. Statement 2 is incorrect. President and not the parliament has the sole authority to establish such a council as and when he/she feels that public interest would be served by such a council. ##Topic:Inter state issues##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following duties can be assigned to the Inter-State council under Article 263? 1. Discussing subjects that have a common interest amongst the states and center or between states. 2. Making recomendations for better co-ordination of policy and action. 3. Enquiring into and advising upon disputes arising between the states. Select the corect answer using the code given below.
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
Statement 1,2 and 3 are correct. Even though the president is empowered to define the duties of an inter-state council, Article 263 specifies the duties that can be assigned to it in the following manner: (a) enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between states; (b) investigating and discussing subjects in which the states or the Centre and the states have a common interest; and (c) making recommendations upon any such subject, and particularly for the better co-ordination of policy and action on it.
|
d
|
Inter state issues
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following duties can be assigned to the Inter-State council under Article 263? 1. Discussing subjects that have a common interest amongst the states and center or between states. 2. Making recomendations for better co-ordination of policy and action. 3. Enquiring into and advising upon disputes arising between the states. Select the corect answer using the code given below.##Option_A:2 and 3 only ###Option_B:1 only##Option_C:1 and 2 only##Option_D:2 and 3 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1,2 and 3 are correct. Even though the president is empowered to define the duties of an inter-state council, Article 263 specifies the duties that can be assigned to it in the following manner: (a) enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may arise between states; (b) investigating and discussing subjects in which the states or the Centre and the states have a common interest; and (c) making recommendations upon any such subject, and particularly for the better co-ordination of policy and action on it.##Topic:Inter state issues##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements with regard to powers and functions Inter-State Council: Its recommendations are advisory in nature and are not binding. Its function is complementary to the Supreme Court"s jurisdiction to decide a legal controversy between the governments. All the questions discussed are decided by consensus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Inter-state council’s function to enquire and advice upon inter-state disputes is complementary to the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 131 to decide a legal controversy between the governments. The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal or non-legal, but its function is advisory unlike that of the court which gives a binding decision. Statement 3 is also correct. All the matters are settled by consensus.
|
d
|
Inter state issues
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to powers and functions Inter-State Council: Its recommendations are advisory in nature and are not binding. Its function is complementary to the Supreme Court"s jurisdiction to decide a legal controversy between the governments. All the questions discussed are decided by consensus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 2 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statements 1 and 2 are correct. The Inter-state council’s function to enquire and advice upon inter-state disputes is complementary to the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 131 to decide a legal controversy between the governments. The Council can deal with any controversy whether legal or non-legal, but its function is advisory unlike that of the court which gives a binding decision. Statement 3 is also correct. All the matters are settled by consensus.##Topic:Inter state issues##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
The Inter-State Council consists of: 1. Prime Minister as the chairman 2. Governors of all the states 3. Administrators of Union Territories not having legislative assemblies 4. Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories having assemblies Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
InterState councils consists of the following members: - The PM as the Chairman. - CMs of all the States. - CMs of UTs having legislative assemblies. - Administrators of UTs not having legislative assemblies. - Six Central cabinet ministers,including the home minister,to be nominated by the prime minister. Governors are not part of the council.
|
d
|
Inter state issues
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Inter-State Council consists of: 1. Prime Minister as the chairman 2. Governors of all the states 3. Administrators of Union Territories not having legislative assemblies 4. Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories having assemblies Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 and 2 only ###Option_B:1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C:3 and 4 only ##Option_D:1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:InterState councils consists of the following members: - The PM as the Chairman. - CMs of all the States. - CMs of UTs having legislative assemblies. - Administrators of UTs not having legislative assemblies. - Six Central cabinet ministers,including the home minister,to be nominated by the prime minister. Governors are not part of the council. ##Topic:Inter state issues##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following Constitutional provisions is/are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir? Part III Part IV Part IV A Fifth Schedule Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
3 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
3 only
|
Option 1 is incorrect. Part III (dealing with Fundamental Rights) is applicable to the state with some exceptions and conditions. The Fundamental Right to Property is still guaranteed in the state. Also, certain special rights are granted to the permanent residents of the state with regard to public employment, acquisition of immovable property, settlement and government scholarships. Options 2 and 3 are correct. Part IV (dealing with Directive Principles of State Policy) and Part IVA (dealing with Fundamental Duties) are not applicable to the state. Option 4 is correct. The Fifth Schedule (dealing with administration and control of schedule areas and scheduled tribes) and the Sixth Schedule (dealing with administration of tribal areas) do not apply to the state.
|
c
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Constitutional provisions is/are not applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir? Part III Part IV Part IV A Fifth Schedule Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only ##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Option 1 is incorrect. Part III (dealing with Fundamental Rights) is applicable to the state with some exceptions and conditions. The Fundamental Right to Property is still guaranteed in the state. Also, certain special rights are granted to the permanent residents of the state with regard to public employment, acquisition of immovable property, settlement and government scholarships. Options 2 and 3 are correct. Part IV (dealing with Directive Principles of State Policy) and Part IVA (dealing with Fundamental Duties) are not applicable to the state. Option 4 is correct. The Fifth Schedule (dealing with administration and control of schedule areas and scheduled tribes) and the Sixth Schedule (dealing with administration of tribal areas) do not apply to the state.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements with regard to special status of Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370: 1. The Parliament cannot make laws on subjects not mentioned in instrument of accession signed in 1947. 2. The President can repeal Article 370 only on the recommendation of State government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 370 mentions that Parliament can make laws on those matters in the Union list and concurrent list that correspond with the matters mentioned in the instruments of Accession. However, Parliament can make laws on other matters of union list and concurrent list specified by the President only with the concurrence of State government. Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 370 can be repealed by the President only on the recommendation of the Constituent assembly of the State and NOT the State Government.
|
d
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to special status of Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370: 1. The Parliament cannot make laws on subjects not mentioned in instrument of accession signed in 1947. 2. The President can repeal Article 370 only on the recommendation of State government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 only ###Option_B: 2 only ##Option_C: Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D: 1 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 370 mentions that Parliament can make laws on those matters in the Union list and concurrent list that correspond with the matters mentioned in the instruments of Accession. However, Parliament can make laws on other matters of union list and concurrent list specified by the President only with the concurrence of State government. Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 370 can be repealed by the President only on the recommendation of the Constituent assembly of the State and NOT the State Government.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to Special status of Jammu and Kashmir, which of the following cannot be imposed by the President in the state? National Emergency Financial Emergency President"s Rule Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Emergency cannot be imposed on the grounds of internal disturbance. On other grounds, national Emergency can be imposed in Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct. Financial Emergency cannot be imposed in Jammu and Kashmir . Statement 3 is incorrect. President’s Rule can be imposed but only on the failure of constitution of the State, not Indian Constitution.
|
b
|
Miscellaneous Polity
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Special status of Jammu and Kashmir, which of the following cannot be imposed by the President in the state? National Emergency Financial Emergency President"s Rule Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. National Emergency cannot be imposed on the grounds of internal disturbance. On other grounds, national Emergency can be imposed in Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct. Financial Emergency cannot be imposed in Jammu and Kashmir . Statement 3 is incorrect. President’s Rule can be imposed but only on the failure of constitution of the State, not Indian Constitution.##Topic:Miscellaneous Polity##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements:
1. It is Parliament which by law has fixed the maximum and minimum limits of the strength of the Legislative Council.
2. On the question of disqualification of a member of State Legislature, the decision of the Speaker/Chairmen is final.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the constitution not parliament that has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits of the Council. However the actual strength of a council is fixed by Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect as well. It is the governor who decides upon the question of disqualification of the member not the the speaker/chairperson.
|
d
|
State Legislature
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. It is Parliament which by law has fixed the maximum and minimum limits of the strength of the Legislative Council.
2. On the question of disqualification of a member of State Legislature, the decision of the Speaker/Chairmen is final.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. It is the constitution not parliament that has fixed the maximum and the minimum limits of the Council. However the actual strength of a council is fixed by Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect as well. It is the governor who decides upon the question of disqualification of the member not the the speaker/chairperson.
##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following bills in State Legislature: 1. A bill passed by the assembly but pending in the council. 2. A bill passed by the council but pending in the assembly. 3. A bill passed by the state legislature but pending the assent of the governor. 4. A bill passed by the state legislature but returned by the president for reconsideration. Which of the above bills lapse when the assembly is dissolved:
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The position with respect to lapsing of bills on the dissolution of the assembly is mentioned below:
1.A Bill pending in the assembly lapses (whether originating in the assembly or transmitted to it by the council)
2.A Bill passed by the assembly but pending in the council lapses.
3.A Bill pending in the council but not passed by the assembly does not lapse.
4.A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the houses (in a bicameral state) but pending assent of the governor or the President does not lapse.
5.A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the Houses (in a bicameral state) but returned by the president for reconsideration of House (s) does not lapse.”
|
b
|
State Legislature
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following bills in State Legislature: 1. A bill passed by the assembly but pending in the council. 2. A bill passed by the council but pending in the assembly. 3. A bill passed by the state legislature but pending the assent of the governor. 4. A bill passed by the state legislature but returned by the president for reconsideration. Which of the above bills lapse when the assembly is dissolved:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
The position with respect to lapsing of bills on the dissolution of the assembly is mentioned below:
1.A Bill pending in the assembly lapses (whether originating in the assembly or transmitted to it by the council)
2.A Bill passed by the assembly but pending in the council lapses.
3.A Bill pending in the council but not passed by the assembly does not lapse.
4.A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the houses (in a bicameral state) but pending assent of the governor or the President does not lapse.
5.A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the Houses (in a bicameral state) but returned by the president for reconsideration of House (s) does not lapse.”
##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements with regard to state legislature: 1. Legislative Assembly while passing an ordinary bill can override the amendments made by Legislative Council. 2. A bill rejected by the Legislative Assembly, irrespective of its origin, ends and becomes dead. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time and not vice versa. When a bill is passed by the assembly for the second time and transmitted to the legislative council, if the legislative council rejects the bill again, or proposes amendments that are not acceptable to the legislative assembly, or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the form in which it was passed by the legislative assembly for the second time. Statement 2 is correct. The mechanism of passing the bill for the second time to resolve a deadlock applies to a bill originating in the legislative assembly only. When a bill, which has originated in the legislative council and sent to the legislative assembly, is rejected by the latter, the bill ends and becomes dead.
|
c
|
State Legislature
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements with regard to state legislature: 1. Legislative Assembly while passing an ordinary bill can override the amendments made by Legislative Council. 2. A bill rejected by the Legislative Assembly, irrespective of its origin, ends and becomes dead. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time and not vice versa. When a bill is passed by the assembly for the second time and transmitted to the legislative council, if the legislative council rejects the bill again, or proposes amendments that are not acceptable to the legislative assembly, or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the form in which it was passed by the legislative assembly for the second time. Statement 2 is correct. The mechanism of passing the bill for the second time to resolve a deadlock applies to a bill originating in the legislative assembly only. When a bill, which has originated in the legislative council and sent to the legislative assembly, is rejected by the latter, the bill ends and becomes dead. ##Topic:State Legislature##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statement regarding disqualification of a member of parliament:
1. Only Speaker/Chairman has the authority to disqualify a member.
2. Disqualification of a member by the Speaker is subject to judicial review
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect : Speaker/Chairman has the authority to disqualify a member only on the grounds of defection where as on other matters President has the final decision.
Statement 2 is correct: Disqualification of a member by the Speaker is subject to judicial review.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding disqualification of a member of parliament:
1. Only Speaker/Chairman has the authority to disqualify a member.
2. Disqualification of a member by the Speaker is subject to judicial review
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect : Speaker/Chairman has the authority to disqualify a member only on the grounds of defection where as on other matters President has the final decision.
Statement 2 is correct: Disqualification of a member by the Speaker is subject to judicial review.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statement regarding Speaker of Lok Sabha:
1. He does not have any voting rights.
2. He is the final interpreter of the Constitution of India within the House.
3. He nominates the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: He can not vote at first instance but has casting vote to break tie.
Statement 2 is correct: He is the final interpreter of the Constitution of India within the House.
Statement 3 is incorrect: He appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha.
Many of the committees have elected chairman and not nominated chairman.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement regarding Speaker of Lok Sabha:
1. He does not have any voting rights.
2. He is the final interpreter of the Constitution of India within the House.
3. He nominates the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 3 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1 and 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: He can not vote at first instance but has casting vote to break tie.
Statement 2 is correct: He is the final interpreter of the Constitution of India within the House.
Statement 3 is incorrect: He appoints the chairman of all the parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha.
Many of the committees have elected chairman and not nominated chairman.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Which of the following statements regarding the Governor of a state is/are correct?
1. He is entitled to emoluments and privileges as may be determined by the President.
2. He cannot belong to the state where he is appointed.
3. The Governor office is not an employment under the Central government, but an independent Constitutional office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct as it is the Parliament that decides upon the emoluments of the Governor.
Statement 2 is not correct as it is just a convention, and has been recommended by various committees and experts. However, in practice this convention has been violated.
Statement 3 is correct as Governor though appointed by the President, cannot be termed as an employment of the Centre.
|
b
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding the Governor of a state is/are correct?
1. He is entitled to emoluments and privileges as may be determined by the President.
2. He cannot belong to the state where he is appointed.
3. The Governor office is not an employment under the Central government, but an independent Constitutional office.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 2 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct as it is the Parliament that decides upon the emoluments of the Governor.
Statement 2 is not correct as it is just a convention, and has been recommended by various committees and experts. However, in practice this convention has been violated.
Statement 3 is correct as Governor though appointed by the President, cannot be termed as an employment of the Centre.
##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the executive powers of the Governor? 1. He appoints as well as removes the State Election Commissioner. 2. He appoints the advocate general of a state who holds office during the pleasure of the governor. 3. He can recommend the imposition of constitutional emergency in a state to the president on his discretion. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct because the state election commissioner can be removed only in a manner and on grounds as a High Court judge. Statement 2 is correct as the advocate general is appointed by the Governor, who determines his remuneration. The advocate general holds office till the pleasure of the governor. Statement 3 is correct because the Governor has got discretionary powers to recommend a constitutional emergency in a state.
|
c
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the executive powers of the Governor? 1. He appoints as well as removes the State Election Commissioner. 2. He appoints the advocate general of a state who holds office during the pleasure of the governor. 3. He can recommend the imposition of constitutional emergency in a state to the president on his discretion. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is not correct because the state election commissioner can be removed only in a manner and on grounds as a High Court judge. Statement 2 is correct as the advocate general is appointed by the Governor, who determines his remuneration. The advocate general holds office till the pleasure of the governor. Statement 3 is correct because the Governor has got discretionary powers to recommend a constitutional emergency in a state.##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which among the following statements about writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court (SC) and High court (HC) is/are correct?
1. Writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court is wider than that of High court.
2. From the perspective of territorial extent, Writ jurisdiction of Supreme court is larger compared to that of High Court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1is incorrect. SC can issue writs only for the enforcement the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the FRs but also for other purposes like other legal writs.
Statement 2 is correct. Since India has the single integrated Judicial system Supreme court has its territorial jurisdiction over entire country where as jurisdiction of HC is coterminous with that of a state, unless Parliament has provided for so.
|
b
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the following statements about writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court (SC) and High court (HC) is/are correct?
1. Writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court is wider than that of High court.
2. From the perspective of territorial extent, Writ jurisdiction of Supreme court is larger compared to that of High Court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1is incorrect. SC can issue writs only for the enforcement the Fundamental Rights and not for other purposes. The high court on the other hand, can issue writs not only for the enforcement of the FRs but also for other purposes like other legal writs.
Statement 2 is correct. Since India has the single integrated Judicial system Supreme court has its territorial jurisdiction over entire country where as jurisdiction of HC is coterminous with that of a state, unless Parliament has provided for so.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements :
1. Expenses of Supreme Court including the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. Parliament can curtail the jurisdiction and powers of Supreme Court only if Chief Justice of India has requested to do so.
3. Parliament can not discuss the Conduct of the judges even during the impeachment motion is under consideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The expenses like salaries, allowances and pensions of judges and staff as well as all the administrative expenses of SC are charged on Consolidated fund of India (Consolidated fund of States with respect to HC). Statement 2 is incorrect. Parliament is not authorized to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of SC. However, parliament can extend the constitutionally guaranteed provisions with respect SC’s jurisdiction. Statement 3 is incorrect. Except during the impeachment motion under consideration, conduct of judges cannot be discussed in parliament. Otherwise SC will be without checks and balances.
|
a
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements :
1. Expenses of Supreme Court including the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. Parliament can curtail the jurisdiction and powers of Supreme Court only if Chief Justice of India has requested to do so.
3. Parliament can not discuss the Conduct of the judges even during the impeachment motion is under consideration.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The expenses like salaries, allowances and pensions of judges and staff as well as all the administrative expenses of SC are charged on Consolidated fund of India (Consolidated fund of States with respect to HC). Statement 2 is incorrect. Parliament is not authorized to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of SC. However, parliament can extend the constitutionally guaranteed provisions with respect SC’s jurisdiction. Statement 3 is incorrect. Except during the impeachment motion under consideration, conduct of judges cannot be discussed in parliament. Otherwise SC will be without checks and balances.##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
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