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As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has which of the following powers? Its judgments and proceedings are recognized as legal precedents and legal references in any court of law. It has the power to punish for contempt of any court including tribunals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has two powers: The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court. They are recognised as legal precedents and legal references. Therefore, statement 1 is correct. It has power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment for a term up to six months or with fine up to `2,000 or with both. In 1991, the Supreme Court has ruled that it has power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts and tribunals functioning in the entire country. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
|
c
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has which of the following powers? Its judgments and proceedings are recognized as legal precedents and legal references in any court of law. It has the power to punish for contempt of any court including tribunals. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has two powers: The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court. They are recognised as legal precedents and legal references. Therefore, statement 1 is correct. It has power to punish for contempt of court, either with simple imprisonment for a term up to six months or with fine up to `2,000 or with both. In 1991, the Supreme Court has ruled that it has power to punish for contempt not only of itself but also of high courts, subordinate courts and tribunals functioning in the entire country. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. ##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following provisions have been provided by the Constitution to increase the number of judges temporarily to reduce the work load on Supreme Court? Re-appointment of a retired Supreme Court or High Court judge. Appointment of a High court judge as an ad-hoc judge of Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. CJI can request a retired judge of SC or HC to act as judge of SC for a temporary period. He can do only with the prior consent of the President and also the person to be appointed. Statement 2 is correct. When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad-hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president. The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.
|
c
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following provisions have been provided by the Constitution to increase the number of judges temporarily to reduce the work load on Supreme Court? Re-appointment of a retired Supreme Court or High Court judge. Appointment of a High court judge as an ad-hoc judge of Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the codes given below##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. CJI can request a retired judge of SC or HC to act as judge of SC for a temporary period. He can do only with the prior consent of the President and also the person to be appointed. Statement 2 is correct. When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad-hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president. The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court.##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court covers which of the following matters? 1. Interstate Water Dispute. 2. Disputes arising out of any pre-constitutional treaty. 3. Enforcement of Fundamental rights. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
As a federal court SC has original jurisdiction over federal disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. Other than this, it has no original jurisdiction over matters like inter-state water disputes, ordinary dispute of commercial nature between centre and states, dispute arising out of pre-constitutional treaty, agreement, covenant, recovery of damages by a state against the centre and state. Therefore, statement 1 and 2 are not correct. Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution has constituted the Supreme Court as the guarantor and defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-warrento and certiorari for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal.
|
a
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court covers which of the following matters? 1. Interstate Water Dispute. 2. Disputes arising out of any pre-constitutional treaty. 3. Enforcement of Fundamental rights. Select the correct answer using the codes given below##Option_A: 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 2 only##Option_D: 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:As a federal court SC has original jurisdiction over federal disputes between different units of the Indian Federation. Other than this, it has no original jurisdiction over matters like inter-state water disputes, ordinary dispute of commercial nature between centre and states, dispute arising out of pre-constitutional treaty, agreement, covenant, recovery of damages by a state against the centre and state. Therefore, statement 1 and 2 are not correct. Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution has constituted the Supreme Court as the guarantor and defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens. The Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-warrento and certiorari for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of an aggrieved citizen. In this regard, the Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in the sense that an aggrieved citizen can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal.##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: In the absence of Speaker, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the joint sitting. Deputy speaker is responsible to the Speaker. Chairman of Rajya Sabha can exercise a casting vote in case of a tie. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: In the absence of Speaker, Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting. Statement 2 is incorrect: Deputy speaker is responsible to the House and is not sub ordinate to the Speaker. Statement 3 is correct: Chairman of Rajya Sabha has a power of casting vote but he do not have the power to vote at first instance.
|
a
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: In the absence of Speaker, the Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over the joint sitting. Deputy speaker is responsible to the Speaker. Chairman of Rajya Sabha can exercise a casting vote in case of a tie. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: In the absence of Speaker, Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting. Statement 2 is incorrect: Deputy speaker is responsible to the House and is not sub ordinate to the Speaker. Statement 3 is correct: Chairman of Rajya Sabha has a power of casting vote but he do not have the power to vote at first instance. ##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statement:
1. Speaker has to vacate his office as soon as the Lok Sabha dissolves.
2. President appoints Speaker Pro Tem.
3. President administers the oath of Speaker and Speaker Pro Tem.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect : Speaker vacates his office, immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct: President appoints Speaker Pro Tem.
Statement 3 is incorrect : President administer the oath of Speaker Pro Tem where as there is no separate oath for the Speaker besides oath of member of parliament
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statement:
1. Speaker has to vacate his office as soon as the Lok Sabha dissolves.
2. President appoints Speaker Pro Tem.
3. President administers the oath of Speaker and Speaker Pro Tem.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect : Speaker vacates his office, immediately before the first meeting of the newly elected Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct: President appoints Speaker Pro Tem.
Statement 3 is incorrect : President administer the oath of Speaker Pro Tem where as there is no separate oath for the Speaker besides oath of member of parliament
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the legislative powers of the Governor? 1. He can promulgate an ordinance without any instructions like the President. 2. His ordinance making power is based on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the chief minister. 3. He can withhold his assent to a money bill passed by the state legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is not correct as the governor cannot make ordinances without the instructions of the president in three cases:
If a bill containing the same provisions would have required the previous sanction of the President for its introduction into the state legislature.
If he would have deemed it necessary to re-serve a bill containing the same provisions for the consideration of the President.
If an act of the state legislature containing the same provisions would have been invalid without receiving the President’s assent.
Statement 2 is correct as the ordinance making power can’t be exercised without the consent of the Council of Ministers.
Statement 3 is correct as the governor can either give or withhold his assent to a Money Bill passed by the state legislature.
|
c
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the legislative powers of the Governor? 1. He can promulgate an ordinance without any instructions like the President. 2. His ordinance making power is based on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the chief minister. 3. He can withhold his assent to a money bill passed by the state legislature. Select the correct answer using the code given below:##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is not correct as the governor cannot make ordinances without the instructions of the president in three cases:
If a bill containing the same provisions would have required the previous sanction of the President for its introduction into the state legislature.
If he would have deemed it necessary to re-serve a bill containing the same provisions for the consideration of the President.
If an act of the state legislature containing the same provisions would have been invalid without receiving the President’s assent.
Statement 2 is correct as the ordinance making power can’t be exercised without the consent of the Council of Ministers.
Statement 3 is correct as the governor can either give or withhold his assent to a Money Bill passed by the state legislature.
##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Which of the following statements regarding the India’s integrated judicial system is/are correct?
1. This system has been adopted from Govternment of India Act of 1919.
2. In this system, Central laws are enforced by the Supreme Court and state laws are enforced by the respective High Courts of the state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Unlike the American Constitution, the Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the high courts below it. Under a high court (and below the state level), there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts, that is, district courts and other lower courts.
Statement 1 is incorrect. This system was adopted from Govt. of India Act, 1935. By this act there was to some extent division of powers between centre and british provinces.
Statement 2 is incorrect. this single system of courts enforces both central as well as the state laws, unlike in USA, where federal laws are enforced by federal courts, state laws are enforced by state judiciary.
|
d
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements regarding the India’s integrated judicial system is/are correct?
1. This system has been adopted from Govternment of India Act of 1919.
2. In this system, Central laws are enforced by the Supreme Court and state laws are enforced by the respective High Courts of the state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: Both 1 and 2
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Unlike the American Constitution, the Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the high courts below it. Under a high court (and below the state level), there is a hierarchy of subordinate courts, that is, district courts and other lower courts.
Statement 1 is incorrect. This system was adopted from Govt. of India Act, 1935. By this act there was to some extent division of powers between centre and british provinces.
Statement 2 is incorrect. this single system of courts enforces both central as well as the state laws, unlike in USA, where federal laws are enforced by federal courts, state laws are enforced by state judiciary.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the tenure of Supreme Court judges: 1. He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. 2. He can resign by writing to the President. 3. He can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court. However, it makes the following three provisions in this regard:
1. He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any question regarding his age is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
2. He can resign his office by writing to the president. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
3. He can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
|
d
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the tenure of Supreme Court judges: 1. He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. 2. He can resign by writing to the President. 3. He can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:
The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court. However, it makes the following three provisions in this regard:
1. He holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Any question regarding his age is to be determined by such authority and in such manner as provided by Parliament. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
2. He can resign his office by writing to the president. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
3. He can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which among the statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court (SC) is/are correct ?
1. On the question of law or fact of public importance, SC must tender the opinion to president.
2. On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitutional treaties, SC may tender his opinion.
3. In both the above cases, the opinion tendered by the SC is binding on the president.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. On the question of law or fact of public importance Supreme Court may tender the opinion to president, and it is not binding on the president. In Babri Masjid case, SC refused to tender the opinion.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitutional treaties, agreements, covenant etc, Supreme Court must tender his opinion.
Statement 3 is incorrect. In both the above cases, the opinion tendered by the SC is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement, hence non-binding on the president.
|
d
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which among the statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court (SC) is/are correct ?
1. On the question of law or fact of public importance, SC must tender the opinion to president.
2. On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitutional treaties, SC may tender his opinion.
3. In both the above cases, the opinion tendered by the SC is binding on the president.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect. On the question of law or fact of public importance Supreme Court may tender the opinion to president, and it is not binding on the president. In Babri Masjid case, SC refused to tender the opinion.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. On any dispute arising out of any pre-constitutional treaties, agreements, covenant etc, Supreme Court must tender his opinion.
Statement 3 is incorrect. In both the above cases, the opinion tendered by the SC is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement, hence non-binding on the president.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
On which of the following grounds, the constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in the Supreme Court? When it infringes the Fundamental Rights. When it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it. When it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in the Supreme Court on the following three grounds: (a) it infringes the Fundamental Rights (Part III), (b) it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and (c) it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.
|
d
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:On which of the following grounds, the constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in the Supreme Court? When it infringes the Fundamental Rights. When it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it. When it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in the Supreme Court on the following three grounds: (a) it infringes the Fundamental Rights (Part III), (b) it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and (c) it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court advocates,
1. Only senior advocates are entitled to file any matter or document before the Supreme Court.
2. Based on his ability, experience in law and his standing in the Bar council, SC/HC can designate that advocate as advocate–on-record.
3. All other advocates registered in any State Bar council of India can appear and argue any matter on behalf of a party but cannot file any matter/document before the court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
Statement 1: incorrect: only the advocates on record are entitled to file any matter or document before the Supreme Court. Advocates who have passed the screening exam are designated as so.
Statement 2: incorrect: Based on his ability, experience in law and his standing in the Bar council, SC/HC can designate that advocate as senior advocate.
Statement 3: correct: these Bar councils are to be maintained under Advocates Act, 1961.
|
a
|
Supreme Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements about the Supreme Court advocates,
1. Only senior advocates are entitled to file any matter or document before the Supreme Court.
2. Based on his ability, experience in law and his standing in the Bar council, SC/HC can designate that advocate as advocate–on-record.
3. All other advocates registered in any State Bar council of India can appear and argue any matter on behalf of a party but cannot file any matter/document before the court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
##Option_A: 3 only
###Option_B: 1 and 2 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 3 only
##Answer:a##Explaination:
Statement 1: incorrect: only the advocates on record are entitled to file any matter or document before the Supreme Court. Advocates who have passed the screening exam are designated as so.
Statement 2: incorrect: Based on his ability, experience in law and his standing in the Bar council, SC/HC can designate that advocate as senior advocate.
Statement 3: correct: these Bar councils are to be maintained under Advocates Act, 1961.
##Topic:Supreme Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Pardoning power of the governor 2. Recommendation for imposition of constitutional emergency in the state. 3. Promulgation of ordinances. 4. Reservation of a bill for consideration of the President. Which of the above statements prove that the Governor has been given discretionary powers in the Constitution?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 - pardoning power of the governor is not discretionary. It has to be done with the advice of the council of ministers.
Statement 2 – This is a discretionary power which can be exercised by the Governor.
Statement 3 – Promulgation of ordinances can’t be done without the advice of council of ministers. Hence it is not a discretionary power.
Statement 4 – The governor is the sole authority to decide which bill shall be sent to the president for consideration. So, it’s a discretionary power.
|
b
|
Governor
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Pardoning power of the governor 2. Recommendation for imposition of constitutional emergency in the state. 3. Promulgation of ordinances. 4. Reservation of a bill for consideration of the President. Which of the above statements prove that the Governor has been given discretionary powers in the Constitution?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 - pardoning power of the governor is not discretionary. It has to be done with the advice of the council of ministers.
Statement 2 – This is a discretionary power which can be exercised by the Governor.
Statement 3 – Promulgation of ordinances can’t be done without the advice of council of ministers. Hence it is not a discretionary power.
Statement 4 – The governor is the sole authority to decide which bill shall be sent to the president for consideration. So, it’s a discretionary power.
##Topic:Governor##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to functions and powers of a District judge, consider the following statements: He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters. He has supervisory powers over all subordinate courts in the district. Capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters. In other words, the district judge is also the sessions judge. Statement 2 is correct. The district judge exercises both judicial and administrative powers. He also has supervisory powers over all the subordinate courts in the district. Statement 3 is correct. The sessions judge has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment (death sentence). However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not.
|
d
|
District Court
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to functions and powers of a District judge, consider the following statements: He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters. He has supervisory powers over all subordinate courts in the district. Capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both civil as well as criminal matters. In other words, the district judge is also the sessions judge. Statement 2 is correct. The district judge exercises both judicial and administrative powers. He also has supervisory powers over all the subordinate courts in the district. Statement 3 is correct. The sessions judge has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment (death sentence). However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal or not.##Topic:District Court##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements : 1. All the judges of subordinate judges are appointed by the Governor on the advice of Chief justice of High Court. 2. There are two separate courts at the District level for the trial of civil cases and criminal cases headed by two different Judges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect. District judges are appointed by the governor on consultation with high court and all other subordinate judges are appointed by the governor after the consultation with the State Public service commission and High court. Statement 2 is incorrect. There is only one court at the district level headed by a single district judge. When he deals with civil cases, he is called as district judge and when deals with the criminal cases he is called as the Sessions judge.
|
d
|
Subordinate Courts
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements : 1. All the judges of subordinate judges are appointed by the Governor on the advice of Chief justice of High Court. 2. There are two separate courts at the District level for the trial of civil cases and criminal cases headed by two different Judges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect. District judges are appointed by the governor on consultation with high court and all other subordinate judges are appointed by the governor after the consultation with the State Public service commission and High court. Statement 2 is incorrect. There is only one court at the district level headed by a single district judge. When he deals with civil cases, he is called as district judge and when deals with the criminal cases he is called as the Sessions judge.##Topic:Subordinate Courts##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following are the objective of the Decentralized Procurement Scheme of States for procurement of foodgrains? Encouraging local procurement to the maximum extent. Expanding the procurement volumes at lowest possible transaction costs. Reducing the outgo on account of food subsidy. Reducing the transaction costs involved. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
The Scheme of Decentralised procurement (DCP) refers to the manner of procurement of foodgrains to the central (federal) government stock, through the state agencies, rather than through the central (Federal) agency of Food Corporation of India (FCI). The scheme of Decentralized Procurement of States was introduced by the Central Government in 1997-98. It is aimed at: Reducing the transaction costs involved and thereby enhancing the efficiency of procurement and public distribution. Reducing the outgo on account of food subsidy, Encouraging local procurement to the maximum extent thereby extending the benefits of MSP to local farmers. Expanding the procurement volumes at lowest possible transaction costs.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are the objective of the Decentralized Procurement Scheme of States for procurement of foodgrains? Encouraging local procurement to the maximum extent. Expanding the procurement volumes at lowest possible transaction costs. Reducing the outgo on account of food subsidy. Reducing the transaction costs involved. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 4 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 4 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Scheme of Decentralised procurement (DCP) refers to the manner of procurement of foodgrains to the central (federal) government stock, through the state agencies, rather than through the central (Federal) agency of Food Corporation of India (FCI). The scheme of Decentralized Procurement of States was introduced by the Central Government in 1997-98. It is aimed at: Reducing the transaction costs involved and thereby enhancing the efficiency of procurement and public distribution. Reducing the outgo on account of food subsidy, Encouraging local procurement to the maximum extent thereby extending the benefits of MSP to local farmers. Expanding the procurement volumes at lowest possible transaction costs.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about International Seabed Authority: It governs mineral related activities within EEZ. It functions under United Nations convention on the law of the seas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
This was in news due to a contract between Ministry of Earth Sciences and International seabed authority to explore polymetallic sulphides in the Indian Ocean. The International Seabed Authority is an autonomous international organization established under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea and the 1994 Agreement relating to the Implementation of Part XI of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. The Authority is the organization through which States Parties to the Convention shall, in accordance with the regime for the seabed and ocean floor and subsoil thereof beyond the limits of national jurisdiction (the Area).
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about International Seabed Authority: It governs mineral related activities within EEZ. It functions under United Nations convention on the law of the seas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:This was in news due to a contract between Ministry of Earth Sciences and International seabed authority to explore polymetallic sulphides in the Indian Ocean. The International Seabed Authority is an autonomous international organization established under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea and the 1994 Agreement relating to the Implementation of Part XI of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea. The Authority is the organization through which States Parties to the Convention shall, in accordance with the regime for the seabed and ocean floor and subsoil thereof beyond the limits of national jurisdiction (the Area).##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
CASPOL, a material developed by ISRO, is expected to be useful in many areas. ISRO is now looking to commercialise the technology. Which of the following are true about CASPOL? It has flame-retardant and thermal-control properties. It can prevent water seepage through concrete surfaces. It contains no toxic materials and is eco-friendly. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. It is a water-based, ready-to-coat, and easy-to-use flame-proof coating. It has flame-retardant and thermal-control properties. It can be applied on walls, clothes, paper, thatched roofs, wood, and other materials. Statement 2 is correct. Caspol can also be applied over the concrete surface of buildings to prevent water seepage as its application fills micro cracks and holes effectively. Statement 3 is correct. According to ISRO, the new compound contains no toxic materials and is eco-friendly.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:CASPOL, a material developed by ISRO, is expected to be useful in many areas. ISRO is now looking to commercialise the technology. Which of the following are true about CASPOL? It has flame-retardant and thermal-control properties. It can prevent water seepage through concrete surfaces. It contains no toxic materials and is eco-friendly. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. It is a water-based, ready-to-coat, and easy-to-use flame-proof coating. It has flame-retardant and thermal-control properties. It can be applied on walls, clothes, paper, thatched roofs, wood, and other materials. Statement 2 is correct. Caspol can also be applied over the concrete surface of buildings to prevent water seepage as its application fills micro cracks and holes effectively. Statement 3 is correct. According to ISRO, the new compound contains no toxic materials and is eco-friendly.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
With reference to Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), recently seen in news, consider the following statements: It is a statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. The members along with chairman of CBFC are appointed by Central Government. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the CBFC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a Statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification. The Board, consists of non-official members and a Chairman (all of whom are appointed by Central Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai. It has nine Regional offices. The members of the panels are nominated by Central Government by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of 2 years. The Certification process is in accordance with The Cinematograph Act, 1952, The Cinematograph (certification) Rules, 1983, and the guidelines issued by the Central government u/s 5 (B). At present films are certified under 4 categories; Unrestricted Public Exhibition Unrestricted Public Exhibition - but with a word of caution that Parental discretion required for children below 12 years Restricted to adults Restricted to any special class of persons
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC), recently seen in news, consider the following statements: It is a statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. The members along with chairman of CBFC are appointed by Central Government. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the CBFC. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a Statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952. Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by the Central Board of Film Certification. The Board, consists of non-official members and a Chairman (all of whom are appointed by Central Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai. It has nine Regional offices. The members of the panels are nominated by Central Government by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of 2 years. The Certification process is in accordance with The Cinematograph Act, 1952, The Cinematograph (certification) Rules, 1983, and the guidelines issued by the Central government u/s 5 (B). At present films are certified under 4 categories; Unrestricted Public Exhibition Unrestricted Public Exhibition - but with a word of caution that Parental discretion required for children below 12 years Restricted to adults Restricted to any special class of persons##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: For "Inferior goods", demand decreases with increase in consumer"s income. For "Giffen goods", demand decreases with decrease in price of the good. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct. An inferior good is a type of good for which demand declines as the level of income or real GDP in the economy increases. This occurs when a good has more costly substitutes that see an increase in demand as the society's economy improves. An inferior good is the opposite of a normal good, which experiences an increase in demand along with increases in the income level. Statement 2 is correct. A Giffen good is a good for which demand increases as the price increases, and falls when the price decreases. A Giffen good has an upward-sloping demand curve, which is contrary to the fundamental law of demand which states that quantity demanded for a product falls as the price increases.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: For "Inferior goods", demand decreases with increase in consumer"s income. For "Giffen goods", demand decreases with decrease in price of the good. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct. An inferior good is a type of good for which demand declines as the level of income or real GDP in the economy increases. This occurs when a good has more costly substitutes that see an increase in demand as the society's economy improves. An inferior good is the opposite of a normal good, which experiences an increase in demand along with increases in the income level. Statement 2 is correct. A Giffen good is a good for which demand increases as the price increases, and falls when the price decreases. A Giffen good has an upward-sloping demand curve, which is contrary to the fundamental law of demand which states that quantity demanded for a product falls as the price increases.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to Lucknow Pact, 1916, consider the following statements: It accepted the principle of separate electorates for Muslims. It was opposed by Balgangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Lucknow Pact, (December 1916) was made by the Indian National Congress headed by Maratha leader Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the All-India Muslim League led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah; it was adopted by the Congress at its Lucknow session on December 29 and by the league on Dec. 31, 1916. The meeting at Lucknow marked the reunion of the moderate and radical wings of the Congress. The pact dealt both with the structure of the government of India and with the relation of the Hindu and Muslim communities. The Congress agreed to separate electorates for Muslims in provincial council elections. This pact paved the way for Hindu-Muslim cooperation in the Khilafat movement and Mohandas Gandhi's noncooperation movement from 1920. Both Tilak and Annie Besant had played a leading role in bringing about this agreement between the congress and the League. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Lucknow Pact, 1916, consider the following statements: It accepted the principle of separate electorates for Muslims. It was opposed by Balgangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Lucknow Pact, (December 1916) was made by the Indian National Congress headed by Maratha leader Bal Gangadhar Tilak and the All-India Muslim League led by Muhammad Ali Jinnah; it was adopted by the Congress at its Lucknow session on December 29 and by the league on Dec. 31, 1916. The meeting at Lucknow marked the reunion of the moderate and radical wings of the Congress. The pact dealt both with the structure of the government of India and with the relation of the Hindu and Muslim communities. The Congress agreed to separate electorates for Muslims in provincial council elections. This pact paved the way for Hindu-Muslim cooperation in the Khilafat movement and Mohandas Gandhi's noncooperation movement from 1920. Both Tilak and Annie Besant had played a leading role in bringing about this agreement between the congress and the League. Hence, statement 2 is correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
With reference to deficits which of the following statements is not correct?
|
Budget deficit is that part of the government"s deficit which is financed through short-term borrowings.
|
Effective Revenue deficit is the difference between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts.
|
Monetized deficit is that part of the government deficit which is financed solely by borrowing from the RBI.
|
Budget deficit is that part of the government"s deficit which is financed through short-term borrowings.
|
Budget Deficit is that part of the government's deficit which is financed through short-term borrowings. These short-term borrowings may be from the RBI or from other sources. Normally, short-term borrowings from the RBI are through the net issuance of short-term treasury bills (that is, ad-hoc and ordinary treasury bills) and by running-down the central government's cash balances held by the RBI. Effective revenue Deficit Introduced in 2011-12, it is defined as revenue deficit minus that revenue expenditure (in the form of grants), which goes into the creation of Capital Assets whereas, Revenue deficit is defined as the difference between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts. Monetized deficit Also known as the 'net reserve bank credit to the government', it is that part of the government deficit which is financed solely by borrowing from the RBI. Since borrowings from the RBI can be both short-term and long-term, therefore, monetized deficit is the sum of the net issuance of short-term treasury bills, dated securities (that is, long-term borrowing from the RBI) and rupee coins held exclusively by the RBI, net of Government's deposits with the RBI. Gross Fiscal Deficit is defined as the excess of total expenditure of the government over the total non-debt creating receipts. Fiscal deficit can be either 'gross' or 'net'. The Central government makes capital disbursements as loans to the different segments of the economy. In the developing countries, a large part goes as loans to other sectors-States and local Governments, public sector enterprises and the like. Net fiscal deficit can be arrived at by deducting net domestic lending from gross fiscal deficit .
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to deficits which of the following statements is not correct?##Option_A: Budget deficit is that part of the government"s deficit which is financed through short-term borrowings.###Option_B: Effective Revenue deficit is the difference between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts.##Option_C: Monetized deficit is that part of the government deficit which is financed solely by borrowing from the RBI.##Option_D: Budget deficit is that part of the government"s deficit which is financed through short-term borrowings.##Answer:b##Explaination:Budget Deficit is that part of the government's deficit which is financed through short-term borrowings. These short-term borrowings may be from the RBI or from other sources. Normally, short-term borrowings from the RBI are through the net issuance of short-term treasury bills (that is, ad-hoc and ordinary treasury bills) and by running-down the central government's cash balances held by the RBI. Effective revenue Deficit Introduced in 2011-12, it is defined as revenue deficit minus that revenue expenditure (in the form of grants), which goes into the creation of Capital Assets whereas, Revenue deficit is defined as the difference between revenue expenditure and revenue receipts. Monetized deficit Also known as the 'net reserve bank credit to the government', it is that part of the government deficit which is financed solely by borrowing from the RBI. Since borrowings from the RBI can be both short-term and long-term, therefore, monetized deficit is the sum of the net issuance of short-term treasury bills, dated securities (that is, long-term borrowing from the RBI) and rupee coins held exclusively by the RBI, net of Government's deposits with the RBI. Gross Fiscal Deficit is defined as the excess of total expenditure of the government over the total non-debt creating receipts. Fiscal deficit can be either 'gross' or 'net'. The Central government makes capital disbursements as loans to the different segments of the economy. In the developing countries, a large part goes as loans to other sectors-States and local Governments, public sector enterprises and the like. Net fiscal deficit can be arrived at by deducting net domestic lending from gross fiscal deficit .##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding pending bills when the Lok Sabha is dissolved:
1. All bills that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurance does not lapse.
2. A bill passed by Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha does not lapse.
3. A bill passed by Rajya Sabha but pending in the Lok Sabha lapses
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: All bills that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurance does not lapse.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A bill passed by Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses
Statement 3 is correct: A bill passed by Rajya Sabha but pending in the Lok Sabha lapses
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements regarding pending bills when the Lok Sabha is dissolved:
1. All bills that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurance does not lapse.
2. A bill passed by Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha does not lapse.
3. A bill passed by Rajya Sabha but pending in the Lok Sabha lapses
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: All bills that are to be examined by the Committee on Government Assurance does not lapse.
Statement 2 is incorrect: A bill passed by Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses
Statement 3 is correct: A bill passed by Rajya Sabha but pending in the Lok Sabha lapses
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Dissolution of Lok Sabha by President is subjected to judicial review.
2. Quorum is one-tenth of the total number of members of the house including the presiding officer.
3. A minister who is not the member of either house can participate in the proceedings of both the houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Dissolution of Lok Sabha by President is not subjected to judicial review
Statement 2 is incorrect: Quorum is one-tenth of the total number of members of the house including the presiding officer.
Statement 3 is correct: A minister who is not the member of either house can participate in the proceedings of both the houses.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. Dissolution of Lok Sabha by President is subjected to judicial review.
2. Quorum is one-tenth of the total number of members of the house including the presiding officer.
3. A minister who is not the member of either house can participate in the proceedings of both the houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:b##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Dissolution of Lok Sabha by President is not subjected to judicial review
Statement 2 is incorrect: Quorum is one-tenth of the total number of members of the house including the presiding officer.
Statement 3 is correct: A minister who is not the member of either house can participate in the proceedings of both the houses.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Adjournment motion can be introduced in Lok Sabha only. No confidence motion can be moved against an individual minister or the entire council of minister. Censure motion can be moved against the entire council of minister only. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Adjournment motion can be introduced in Lok Sabha only. Statement 2 is not correct: No confidence motion can be moved against the entire council of minister only. Statement 3 is not correct: Censure motion can be moved against an individual minister or the entire council of minister.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Adjournment motion can be introduced in Lok Sabha only. No confidence motion can be moved against an individual minister or the entire council of minister. Censure motion can be moved against the entire council of minister only. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:2 and 3 only##Option_C:1 and 3##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Adjournment motion can be introduced in Lok Sabha only. Statement 2 is not correct: No confidence motion can be moved against the entire council of minister only. Statement 3 is not correct: Censure motion can be moved against an individual minister or the entire council of minister.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to Gandhara and Mathura school of art, consider the following statements: 1. The Mathura school of art emerged in northwestern part of the Indian and used local red stone to make idols of Buddha, along with Jaina and Hindu deities in large numbers. 2. The Gandhara school of art also called as Greeko-Roman style used predominantly blue-grey schist stone for making idols of Buddha and Bodhisattava. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Mathura School : The most prominent contribution of the Mathura school to the contemporary art was the images of Buddha which were carved for the first time perhaps in this art form. The Mathura artists used local red stone with black spots to make the images . Mathura has also yielded large numbers of sculptures of Jaina deities besides the ayagapatas or stone slabs to place objects of worship. The Brahmanical influence on the art school of Mathura is also evident. During the Kushana period a number of sculptures of brahmanical deities were carved, which included Kartikeya, Vishnu, Kubera. Hence, statement 1 is not correct The Gandhara School of Art : The Gandhara region was situated in the northwestern part of the Indian Subcontinent . This region was successively ruled by the Greeks, Mauryas, Sungas, Shakas, and Kushanas for many centuries. The school of art which developed here around the beginning of the Christian era has been called variously as Graeco-Roman, Indo Greek or Graeco-Buddhist . This is perhaps because this school has all the influences-Roman, Greek and Indian. The theme of sculptures in predominantly Buddhist but their style is Greek. The chief patrons of Gandhara art were the Shakas and Kushanas. The stone used for making idols of Buddha and Bodhisattava was predominantly blue-grey schist. Chief characteristics of Gandhara school of art lies in its beautiful portrayal of human figures with distinguished muscles of the body. Buddha is depicted with a garment draped in Graeco-Roman fashion, and with very curly hair. These beautiful images of the Buddha are ranked among the best pieces of sculptures. Hence, statement 2 is correct
|
b
|
Greek, Shaka etc.
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Gandhara and Mathura school of art, consider the following statements: 1. The Mathura school of art emerged in northwestern part of the Indian and used local red stone to make idols of Buddha, along with Jaina and Hindu deities in large numbers. 2. The Gandhara school of art also called as Greeko-Roman style used predominantly blue-grey schist stone for making idols of Buddha and Bodhisattava. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2 ##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Mathura School : The most prominent contribution of the Mathura school to the contemporary art was the images of Buddha which were carved for the first time perhaps in this art form. The Mathura artists used local red stone with black spots to make the images . Mathura has also yielded large numbers of sculptures of Jaina deities besides the ayagapatas or stone slabs to place objects of worship. The Brahmanical influence on the art school of Mathura is also evident. During the Kushana period a number of sculptures of brahmanical deities were carved, which included Kartikeya, Vishnu, Kubera. Hence, statement 1 is not correct The Gandhara School of Art : The Gandhara region was situated in the northwestern part of the Indian Subcontinent . This region was successively ruled by the Greeks, Mauryas, Sungas, Shakas, and Kushanas for many centuries. The school of art which developed here around the beginning of the Christian era has been called variously as Graeco-Roman, Indo Greek or Graeco-Buddhist . This is perhaps because this school has all the influences-Roman, Greek and Indian. The theme of sculptures in predominantly Buddhist but their style is Greek. The chief patrons of Gandhara art were the Shakas and Kushanas. The stone used for making idols of Buddha and Bodhisattava was predominantly blue-grey schist. Chief characteristics of Gandhara school of art lies in its beautiful portrayal of human figures with distinguished muscles of the body. Buddha is depicted with a garment draped in Graeco-Roman fashion, and with very curly hair. These beautiful images of the Buddha are ranked among the best pieces of sculptures. Hence, statement 2 is correct##Topic:Greek, Shaka etc.##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements, regarding the money bill: 1. Speaker decision whether a bill is a money bill or not is not subjected to judicial review. 2. It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha on the recommendation of Speaker. 3. President has the power to with hold his assent to the bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Speaker decision whether a bill is a money bill or not is not subjected to judicial review
Statement 2 is incorrect: It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha on the recommendation of President.
Statement 3 is correct: President may either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill but can not return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements, regarding the money bill: 1. Speaker decision whether a bill is a money bill or not is not subjected to judicial review. 2. It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha on the recommendation of Speaker. 3. President has the power to with hold his assent to the bill. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 1, 2 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: Speaker decision whether a bill is a money bill or not is not subjected to judicial review
Statement 2 is incorrect: It can only be introduced in Lok Sabha on the recommendation of President.
Statement 3 is correct: President may either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill but can not return the bill for reconsideration of the Houses.
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements:
Constitution is the fundamental law of the land.
All the laws of the country must conform to the Constitution of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
nan
|
c
|
Features and Significant Provisions
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements:
Constitution is the fundamental law of the land.
All the laws of the country must conform to the Constitution of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:nan##Topic:Features and Significant Provisions##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements:
1. Motion of thanks can be discussed in both the houses but voted only in Lok Sabha.
2. In joint sitting of the parliament no new amendments can be proposed to the bill.
3. In joint sitting Bills are passed with absolute majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Motion of thanks can be discussed and voted in both the houses.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In joint sitting of the parliament no new amendments can be proposed to the bill, except in two cases:
Those amendments that have caused final disagreement between the houses
Those amendments that might have become necessary due to delay in the passage of the bill
Statement 3 is incorrect: In joint sitting Bills are passed with simple majority ie majority of members present and voting
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following statements:
1. Motion of thanks can be discussed in both the houses but voted only in Lok Sabha.
2. In joint sitting of the parliament no new amendments can be proposed to the bill.
3. In joint sitting Bills are passed with absolute majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Motion of thanks can be discussed and voted in both the houses.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In joint sitting of the parliament no new amendments can be proposed to the bill, except in two cases:
Those amendments that have caused final disagreement between the houses
Those amendments that might have become necessary due to delay in the passage of the bill
Statement 3 is incorrect: In joint sitting Bills are passed with simple majority ie majority of members present and voting
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Parliamentary Secretaries, consider the following statements: They are categorised as members of the council of ministers. The hold independent charge of a department. They assist senior ministers in discharge of their parliamentary duties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Parliamentary secretaries are the members of the council of ministers. They have no department under their control. They are attached to the senior ministers and assist them in the discharge of their parliamentary duties.
|
b
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Parliamentary Secretaries, consider the following statements: They are categorised as members of the council of ministers. The hold independent charge of a department. They assist senior ministers in discharge of their parliamentary duties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Parliamentary secretaries are the members of the council of ministers. They have no department under their control. They are attached to the senior ministers and assist them in the discharge of their parliamentary duties.##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Council of Ministers, consider the following statements: Their maximum strength is limited by the constitution. Only a Member of the Parliament can be appointed as a minister. The advice tendered by the ministers to the President cannot be enquired in any court. Which of the above statements are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Article 75 provides that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. The provision was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003. Hence, statement 1 is correct. A person who is not the member of the Parliament can be appointed as a minister for a period of 6 months. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. The nature of advice tendered by ministers to the President cannot be enquired by any court. This provision emphasises the intimate and the confidential relationship between the President and the ministers. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
a
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Council of Ministers, consider the following statements: Their maximum strength is limited by the constitution. Only a Member of the Parliament can be appointed as a minister. The advice tendered by the ministers to the President cannot be enquired in any court. Which of the above statements are correct?##Option_A:1 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Article 75 provides that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. The provision was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003. Hence, statement 1 is correct. A person who is not the member of the Parliament can be appointed as a minister for a period of 6 months. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. The nature of advice tendered by ministers to the President cannot be enquired by any court. This provision emphasises the intimate and the confidential relationship between the President and the ministers. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the council of ministers, which of the following statements is not correct?
|
They hold office during the pleasure of the President.
|
They undertake an oath to protect and defend the constitution.
|
Courts are barred from enquiring into the nature of advice rendered by the minister to the President.
|
They hold office during the pleasure of the President.
|
Article 75 provides that the ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Article 74 provides for a council of ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. The 42nd and 44th Constitutional Amendment Acts have made the advice binding on the President. Further, the nature of advice tendered by ministers to the President cannot be enquired by any court. This provision emphasises the intimate and the confidential relationship between the President and the ministers. However " to protect and defend the Constitution" is part of the oath of the President and not the ministers who take oath 'to bear true faith and allegiance to the constitution'.
|
b
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the council of ministers, which of the following statements is not correct?##Option_A: They hold office during the pleasure of the President.###Option_B: They undertake an oath to protect and defend the constitution.##Option_C: Courts are barred from enquiring into the nature of advice rendered by the minister to the President.##Option_D: They hold office during the pleasure of the President.##Answer:b##Explaination:Article 75 provides that the ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. Article 74 provides for a council of ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions. The 42nd and 44th Constitutional Amendment Acts have made the advice binding on the President. Further, the nature of advice tendered by ministers to the President cannot be enquired by any court. This provision emphasises the intimate and the confidential relationship between the President and the ministers. However " to protect and defend the Constitution" is part of the oath of the President and not the ministers who take oath 'to bear true faith and allegiance to the constitution'.##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Cabinet? 1. It is a smaller body than the Council of Ministers. 2. Its powers and functions are defined in the constitution. 3. It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
It is a smaller body consisting of 15 to 20 ministers. It includes the cabinet ministers only. Thus, it is a part of the council of ministers. It directs the council of ministers by taking policy decisions that are binding on all ministers. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It was inserted in Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act. Thus, it did not find a place in the original text of the Constitution. Now also, Article 352 only defines the cabinet saying that it is ‘the council consisting of the prime minister and other ministers of cabinet rank appointed under Article 75’ and does not describe its powers and functions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act made the President bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers (effectively Cabinet). However, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act provides that empowered the President to send back once the advice of the Cabinet for reconsideration. But the reconsidered advice is to be binding on the President. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
b
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Cabinet? 1. It is a smaller body than the Council of Ministers. 2. Its powers and functions are defined in the constitution. 3. It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:It is a smaller body consisting of 15 to 20 ministers. It includes the cabinet ministers only. Thus, it is a part of the council of ministers. It directs the council of ministers by taking policy decisions that are binding on all ministers. Hence, statement 1 is correct. It was inserted in Article 352 of the Constitution in 1978 by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act. Thus, it did not find a place in the original text of the Constitution. Now also, Article 352 only defines the cabinet saying that it is ‘the council consisting of the prime minister and other ministers of cabinet rank appointed under Article 75’ and does not describe its powers and functions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act made the President bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers (effectively Cabinet). However, the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act provides that empowered the President to send back once the advice of the Cabinet for reconsideration. But the reconsidered advice is to be binding on the President. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are correct regarding Cabinet Committees? They are extra constitutional bodies. Only cabinet ministers can be part of cabinet committees. All cabinet committees are headed by the Prime minister. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The following are the features of Cabinet Committees: They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned in the Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment. They are of two types—standing and ad hoc. The former are of a permanent nature while the latter are of a temporary nature. The ad hoc committees are constituted from time to time to deal with special problems. They are disbanded after their task is completed. They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition varies from time to time. Their membership varies from three to eight. They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership. They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other senior Ministers. They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister . Some times other Cabinet Ministers, particularly the Home Minister or the Finance Minister, also acts as their Chairman. But, in case the Prime Minister is a member of a committee, he invariably presides over it.
|
b
|
Central Council of Minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are correct regarding Cabinet Committees? They are extra constitutional bodies. Only cabinet ministers can be part of cabinet committees. All cabinet committees are headed by the Prime minister. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The following are the features of Cabinet Committees: They are extra-constitutional in emergence. In other words, they are not mentioned in the Constitution. However, the Rules of Business provide for their establishment. They are of two types—standing and ad hoc. The former are of a permanent nature while the latter are of a temporary nature. The ad hoc committees are constituted from time to time to deal with special problems. They are disbanded after their task is completed. They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. Hence, their number, nomenclature, and composition varies from time to time. Their membership varies from three to eight. They usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not debarred from their membership. They not only include the Ministers in charge of subjects covered by them but also include other senior Ministers. They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister . Some times other Cabinet Ministers, particularly the Home Minister or the Finance Minister, also acts as their Chairman. But, in case the Prime Minister is a member of a committee, he invariably presides over it.##Topic:Central Council of Minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements: Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants. The expenditure made from the consolidate fund of India can be discussed in Parliament but can not be voted. Policy cut motion reduce the amount of demand to zero. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants. Statement 2 is incorrect: There are two types of expenditures related to consolidated fund of India. The expenditure made from the consolidate fund of India can be discussed and voted in Parliament, whereas expenditure charged upon the consolidate fund of India can be discussed in Parliament but can’t be voted. Statement 3 is incorrect: Policy cut motion reduce the amount of demand to Re 1.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants. The expenditure made from the consolidate fund of India can be discussed in Parliament but can not be voted. Policy cut motion reduce the amount of demand to zero. Which of the statements given above are not correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demand for grants. Statement 2 is incorrect: There are two types of expenditures related to consolidated fund of India. The expenditure made from the consolidate fund of India can be discussed and voted in Parliament, whereas expenditure charged upon the consolidate fund of India can be discussed in Parliament but can’t be voted. Statement 3 is incorrect: Policy cut motion reduce the amount of demand to Re 1.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Who among the following enjoys Parliamentary Privileges? President Attorney General Union ministers Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
President does not enjoy Parliamentary privileges. Constitution has extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceeding of a house of Parliament or any of its committees. These include the attorney general of India and Union ministers. Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members. They are necessary in order to secure the independence and effectiveness of their actions. Without these privileges, the Houses can neither maintain their authority, dignity and honour nor can protect their members from any obstruction in the discharge of their parliamentary responsibilities.
|
b
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Who among the following enjoys Parliamentary Privileges? President Attorney General Union ministers Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:President does not enjoy Parliamentary privileges. Constitution has extended the parliamentary privileges to those persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceeding of a house of Parliament or any of its committees. These include the attorney general of India and Union ministers. Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members. They are necessary in order to secure the independence and effectiveness of their actions. Without these privileges, the Houses can neither maintain their authority, dignity and honour nor can protect their members from any obstruction in the discharge of their parliamentary responsibilities.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Which of the following statements are correct regarding office of the Prime minister? He holds office during the pleasure of the President. Resignation of Prime minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers Constitution has provided procedure for selection and appointment of Prime minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him. Statement 2 is correct: Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of ministers, the other ministers cannot function when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In other words, the resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. The resignation or death of any other minister, on the other hand, merely creates a vacancy which the Prime Minister may or may not like to fill. Statement 3 is incorrect: Constitution has not specified any selection procedure for Prime minster. It is based on Parliamentary Convention that leader of the majority party is appointed as Prime minister.
|
a
|
Prime minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following statements are correct regarding office of the Prime minister? He holds office during the pleasure of the President. Resignation of Prime minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers Constitution has provided procedure for selection and appointment of Prime minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President. However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss him. Statement 2 is correct: Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of ministers, the other ministers cannot function when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In other words, the resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. The resignation or death of any other minister, on the other hand, merely creates a vacancy which the Prime Minister may or may not like to fill. Statement 3 is incorrect: Constitution has not specified any selection procedure for Prime minster. It is based on Parliamentary Convention that leader of the majority party is appointed as Prime minister.##Topic:Prime minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
With reference to the Prime minister, consider the following statements: Resignation or death of Prime minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers. He advises President with regard to summoning of the sessions of the Parliament. He has to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of ministers relating to the administration of affairs of the Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of ministers, the other ministers cannot function when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In other words, the resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Prime Minister is the leader of the Lower House. In this capacity, he enjoys the following powers: He advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament. He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at any time. He announces government policies on the floor of the House. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Article 78 provides that it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
|
d
|
Prime minister
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to the Prime minister, consider the following statements: Resignation or death of Prime minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers. He advises President with regard to summoning of the sessions of the Parliament. He has to communicate to the President all decisions of the council of ministers relating to the administration of affairs of the Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of ministers, the other ministers cannot function when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In other words, the resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The Prime Minister is the leader of the Lower House. In this capacity, he enjoys the following powers: He advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament. He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at any time. He announces government policies on the floor of the House. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Article 78 provides that it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.##Topic:Prime minister ##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Cabinet committees ?
1. They are constituional bodies.
2. Their number and membership is fixed.
3. Prime minister is head of all cabinet committees.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1and 2 only
|
Cabinet committees are : extra-constituional because they are not mentioned in the constituion their number and membership varies with time.
Prime minister is head of all those committees of which he is member, but he is not member of all the committees
|
d
|
Cabinet committees
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Cabinet committees ?
1. They are constituional bodies.
2. Their number and membership is fixed.
3. Prime minister is head of all cabinet committees.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 3 only
##Option_D: 1and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Cabinet committees are : extra-constituional because they are not mentioned in the constituion their number and membership varies with time.
Prime minister is head of all those committees of which he is member, but he is not member of all the committees
##Topic:Cabinet committees##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following is not the purpose of constituting Cabinet committees?
|
To reduce the enormous workload on Cabinet.
|
To facilitate in depth examination of policy issues and effective delegation.
|
To give federal character to policy making.
|
To reduce the enormous workload on Cabinet.
|
Cabinet committees are an organisational device to reduce the enormous workload of the Cabinet. They also facilitate in-depth examination of policy issues and effective coordination. They are based on the principles of division of labour and effective delegation. They sort out issues and formulate proposals for the consideration of the Cabinet. However they don't impart federal character to policy making as there is no involvement of states in these committees. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.
|
c
|
Cabinet committees
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is not the purpose of constituting Cabinet committees?##Option_A:To reduce the enormous workload on Cabinet.###Option_B:To facilitate in depth examination of policy issues and effective delegation.##Option_C:To give federal character to policy making.##Option_D:To reduce the enormous workload on Cabinet.##Answer:c##Explaination:Cabinet committees are an organisational device to reduce the enormous workload of the Cabinet. They also facilitate in-depth examination of policy issues and effective coordination. They are based on the principles of division of labour and effective delegation. They sort out issues and formulate proposals for the consideration of the Cabinet. However they don't impart federal character to policy making as there is no involvement of states in these committees. Hence option (c) is the correct answer.##Topic:Cabinet committees##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: 1. A resolution for the discontinuance of the nation emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha. 2. Rajya Sabha can authorize the parliament to make laws on subject of state list. 3. Prime Minister is the leader of the house to which he belongs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: A resolution for the discontinuance of the nation emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct: Rajya Sabha can authorize the parliament to make laws on subject of state list. Statement 3 is correct: Prime Minister is the leader of the house to which he belongs. For the other house, he can nominate a minister who is a member of that house to function as the leader of the house.
|
d
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. A resolution for the discontinuance of the nation emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha. 2. Rajya Sabha can authorize the parliament to make laws on subject of state list. 3. Prime Minister is the leader of the house to which he belongs. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ##Option_A: 1 and 2 only ###Option_B: 2 and 3 only ##Option_C: 1 and 3 only ##Option_D: 1 and 2 only ##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: A resolution for the discontinuance of the nation emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha. Statement 2 is correct: Rajya Sabha can authorize the parliament to make laws on subject of state list. Statement 3 is correct: Prime Minister is the leader of the house to which he belongs. For the other house, he can nominate a minister who is a member of that house to function as the leader of the house.##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the Continental Shelves: These are extended margins of oceanic crust. There is uniformity in the width of continental shelves of the every ocean. The sedimentary deposits found here are sources of fossil fuels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is incorrect: Continental shelves are extended margins of continental crust. Continental shelf, Continental slope and Continental rise, are part of continental margin. Statement 2 is incorrect: Width of the continental shelves vary from one ocean to another. These are almost absent or very narrow along margins like coasts of Chile, West coast of Sumatra, whereas Siberian shelf in the Arctic Ocean, the largest in the world, stretches to 1,500 km in width. Statement 3 is correct. Due to large amount of sedimentary deposits, continental shelves are the sources of marine fossil fuels like petroleum.
|
c
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the Continental Shelves: These are extended margins of oceanic crust. There is uniformity in the width of continental shelves of the every ocean. The sedimentary deposits found here are sources of fossil fuels. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is incorrect: Continental shelves are extended margins of continental crust. Continental shelf, Continental slope and Continental rise, are part of continental margin. Statement 2 is incorrect: Width of the continental shelves vary from one ocean to another. These are almost absent or very narrow along margins like coasts of Chile, West coast of Sumatra, whereas Siberian shelf in the Arctic Ocean, the largest in the world, stretches to 1,500 km in width. Statement 3 is correct. Due to large amount of sedimentary deposits, continental shelves are the sources of marine fossil fuels like petroleum.##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
What are indirect sources of information regarding Interior of the Earth ?
1. Seismic activity
2. Gravitation
3. Magnetic Field
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 only
|
Seismic activity and infromaation from earthquakes are one of the most important source of Earth's structure.
Gravitation anomaly occusring due to distribution of mass of the material in earth crust and thus tells us about structure of Crust.
Distribution Magnetic field depends upon distribution of magnetic material in the earth and thus magnetic values at different laces tells us about the earth crust.
|
d
|
The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
What are indirect sources of information regarding Interior of the Earth ?
1. Seismic activity
2. Gravitation
3. Magnetic Field
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
##Option_A: 1 only
###Option_B: 2 only
##Option_C: 1 and 2 only
##Option_D: 1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Seismic activity and infromaation from earthquakes are one of the most important source of Earth's structure.
Gravitation anomaly occusring due to distribution of mass of the material in earth crust and thus tells us about structure of Crust.
Distribution Magnetic field depends upon distribution of magnetic material in the earth and thus magnetic values at different laces tells us about the earth crust.
##Topic:The Lithosphere : Inside the Earth, Land Form , Volcanoes , Earthquakes , Erosion , Soil##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements about Right to Information Act, 2005: It provides for the appointment of a public information officer in each department. Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) card holders can ask for information under the RTI Act. The Act imposes obligation on public agencies to disclose the information suo-motu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It provides for the appointment of a public information officer in each department to provide information to the public on request. PIOs are officers designated by the public authorities in all administrative units or offices under it to provide information to the citizens requesting for information under the Act. Any officer, whose assistance has been sought by the PIO for the proper discharge of his or her duties, shall render all assistance and for the purpose of contraventions of the provisions of this Act, such other officer shall be treated as a PIO. Statement 2 is correct: OCI's (Overseas Citizens of India) and PIO's (Persons of Indian Origin) card holders can also ask for information under the RTI Act. For citizens, OCI's and PIO's who are staying out of India, the RTI Application can be filed with the PIO of the local Indian Embassy/Consulate/High Commission and they will inform you regarding the amount of application fee in local currency as well as the mode of payment. Statement 3 is correct: The Act imposes obligation on public agencies to disclose the information suo-motu to reduce requests for an information.
|
d
|
Transparency & Accountability - RTI , Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about Right to Information Act, 2005: It provides for the appointment of a public information officer in each department. Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) card holders can ask for information under the RTI Act. The Act imposes obligation on public agencies to disclose the information suo-motu. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: It provides for the appointment of a public information officer in each department to provide information to the public on request. PIOs are officers designated by the public authorities in all administrative units or offices under it to provide information to the citizens requesting for information under the Act. Any officer, whose assistance has been sought by the PIO for the proper discharge of his or her duties, shall render all assistance and for the purpose of contraventions of the provisions of this Act, such other officer shall be treated as a PIO. Statement 2 is correct: OCI's (Overseas Citizens of India) and PIO's (Persons of Indian Origin) card holders can also ask for information under the RTI Act. For citizens, OCI's and PIO's who are staying out of India, the RTI Application can be filed with the PIO of the local Indian Embassy/Consulate/High Commission and they will inform you regarding the amount of application fee in local currency as well as the mode of payment. Statement 3 is correct: The Act imposes obligation on public agencies to disclose the information suo-motu to reduce requests for an information.##Topic:Transparency & Accountability - RTI , Citizen’s Charter & Anti-Corruption##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: 1. Streams and rivers carry more amount of fresh water than the glaciers. 2. Groundwater is the largest source of fresh water. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Both statements 1 and 2 are not correct. Freshwater sources include - glaciers and icecaps, groundwater sources, lakes, soil moisture, atmosphere and rivers and streams. Of the fresh water, 69% resides in ice caps and glacier (largest source of fresh water), 30% in underground and less than 1% is located in lakes, streams and rivers.
|
d
|
The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: 1. Streams and rivers carry more amount of fresh water than the glaciers. 2. Groundwater is the largest source of fresh water. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?##Option_A:1 only###Option_B:2 only##Option_C:Both 1 and 2##Option_D:1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Both statements 1 and 2 are not correct. Freshwater sources include - glaciers and icecaps, groundwater sources, lakes, soil moisture, atmosphere and rivers and streams. Of the fresh water, 69% resides in ice caps and glacier (largest source of fresh water), 30% in underground and less than 1% is located in lakes, streams and rivers. ##Topic:The Hydrosphere : Ocean water and their circulation##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to the Estimates Commitee, consider the following statement:
1. It comprises of Lok Sabha members only
2. It examines the annual audit report of CAG laid before the Parliament.
3. It examines the budget and suggest measures to bring efficiency and economy
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: It comprises of Lok Sabha members only
Statement 2 is incorrect: Public Accounts Committee examines the annual audit report of CAG laid before the Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct: It examines the budget and suggest measures to bring efficiency and economy
|
c
|
Parliament
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Estimates Commitee, consider the following statement:
1. It comprises of Lok Sabha members only
2. It examines the annual audit report of CAG laid before the Parliament.
3. It examines the budget and suggest measures to bring efficiency and economy
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 2 and 3 only
##Option_C: 1 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:c##Explaination:
Statement 1 is correct: It comprises of Lok Sabha members only
Statement 2 is incorrect: Public Accounts Committee examines the annual audit report of CAG laid before the Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct: It examines the budget and suggest measures to bring efficiency and economy
##Topic:Parliament##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Cabinet has recently approved signing of contract for exploration of Poly metallic Sulphides. Which of the following sets of materials are usually contained by Poly metallic sulphides?
|
Uranium, Thorium, Plutonium
|
Carbon, Hydrogen, Gold
|
Lithium, Barium, Aluminium
|
Uranium, Thorium, Plutonium
|
Deep seabed Poly-Metallic Sulphides (PMS) containing iron, copper, zinc, silver, gold, platinum in variable constitutions are precipitates of hot fluids from upwelling hot magma from deep interior of the oceanic crust discharged through mineralized chimneys. PMS in the Ocean Ridges have attracted worldwide attention for their long term commercial as well as strategic values. The International Seabed Authority (ISA), under the United Nations Convention on Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), earlier approved an application submitted by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India, for allotment of 10,000 sq. km. area along with 15 years plan of work for exploration of Polymetallic Sulphide (PMS) along Central Indian Ridge (CIR) 85 Southwest Indian Ridge (SWIR) region of the Indian Ocean. ISA governs non-¬living resources of seabed lying in international waters.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Cabinet has recently approved signing of contract for exploration of Poly metallic Sulphides. Which of the following sets of materials are usually contained by Poly metallic sulphides?##Option_A: Uranium, Thorium, Plutonium###Option_B: Carbon, Hydrogen, Gold##Option_C: Lithium, Barium, Aluminium##Option_D: Uranium, Thorium, Plutonium##Answer:d##Explaination:Deep seabed Poly-Metallic Sulphides (PMS) containing iron, copper, zinc, silver, gold, platinum in variable constitutions are precipitates of hot fluids from upwelling hot magma from deep interior of the oceanic crust discharged through mineralized chimneys. PMS in the Ocean Ridges have attracted worldwide attention for their long term commercial as well as strategic values. The International Seabed Authority (ISA), under the United Nations Convention on Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), earlier approved an application submitted by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), Government of India, for allotment of 10,000 sq. km. area along with 15 years plan of work for exploration of Polymetallic Sulphide (PMS) along Central Indian Ridge (CIR) 85 Southwest Indian Ridge (SWIR) region of the Indian Ocean. ISA governs non-¬living resources of seabed lying in international waters.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: Mudras of Buddha Significance 1. Bhumisparsha Mudra : Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity despite the temptations of Mara demon 2. Abhaya Mudra : Protection, peace, and the dispelling of fear of devotee 3. Dharmacakra-pravartana Mudra : Teaching of the first sermon of the Buddha at Sarnath Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Bhumisparsa Mudra: Subduing Mara, Calling the Earth to Witness : During meditation, Siddhartha is subjected to many temptations many posed by the evil Mara, who bombards him with his demons , monsters, violent storms and his three seductive daughters. The Buddha remains steadfast. Then to testify to Mara of his meritorious past, he points to the earth with his hand and calls the Earth Goddess. Thorani, the Earth Goddess rises from the ground and wrings the water from her long black hair, by this action raising a torrential flood that drowns Mara and his army of demons. Abhaya Mudra: Gesture of Fearlessness: The Abhaya Mudra symbolizes protection, peace, and the dispelling of fear. Dharmachakra Mudra: Turning the Wheel of the Law in Motion: The Dharmachakra Mudra signifies the teaching of the first sermon of the Buddha at the Deer Park in Sarnath.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Mudras of Buddha Significance 1. Bhumisparsha Mudra : Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity despite the temptations of Mara demon 2. Abhaya Mudra : Protection, peace, and the dispelling of fear of devotee 3. Dharmacakra-pravartana Mudra : Teaching of the first sermon of the Buddha at Sarnath Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Bhumisparsa Mudra: Subduing Mara, Calling the Earth to Witness : During meditation, Siddhartha is subjected to many temptations many posed by the evil Mara, who bombards him with his demons , monsters, violent storms and his three seductive daughters. The Buddha remains steadfast. Then to testify to Mara of his meritorious past, he points to the earth with his hand and calls the Earth Goddess. Thorani, the Earth Goddess rises from the ground and wrings the water from her long black hair, by this action raising a torrential flood that drowns Mara and his army of demons. Abhaya Mudra: Gesture of Fearlessness: The Abhaya Mudra symbolizes protection, peace, and the dispelling of fear. Dharmachakra Mudra: Turning the Wheel of the Law in Motion: The Dharmachakra Mudra signifies the teaching of the first sermon of the Buddha at the Deer Park in Sarnath.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:d
|
Which of the following explains the term "evergreening" in banking?
|
Reviving the sick and loss making PSUs thorough loans
|
Giving a fresh loan to repay an old one
|
Recapitalizing banks thorough loans given by RBI
|
Reviving the sick and loss making PSUs thorough loans
|
Evergreening refers to the practice of giving a fresh loan to repay an old one. An evergreen loan is also known as a revolving loan. The loan is reviewed by the lender annually. If the borrower meets the criteria for renewal, the loan is continued. This can go on indefinitely until the borrower or the bank decides to cancel the loan. Technically, evergreening refers to the practice of "managing" the balance sheet through means, which may not be violating banking laws in letter, but breaching them in spirit. For instance, a bank can lend money to a company to pay off another bank's loan. This way, the second bank can save an account from going bad and reduce its non-performing assets (NPAs). The second bank can then extend a similar facility to a company which has not been able to repay loans from the first bank. Some banks also disburse too many loans at the end of the year. This way they can increase their advances portfolio and reduce the NPA in percentage terms. Evergreening also refers to a variety of legal, business and technological strategies by which producers extend their patents over products that are about to expire, in order to retain royalties from them, by either taking out new patents.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following explains the term "evergreening" in banking?##Option_A: Reviving the sick and loss making PSUs thorough loans###Option_B: Giving a fresh loan to repay an old one##Option_C: Recapitalizing banks thorough loans given by RBI##Option_D: Reviving the sick and loss making PSUs thorough loans##Answer:b##Explaination:Evergreening refers to the practice of giving a fresh loan to repay an old one. An evergreen loan is also known as a revolving loan. The loan is reviewed by the lender annually. If the borrower meets the criteria for renewal, the loan is continued. This can go on indefinitely until the borrower or the bank decides to cancel the loan. Technically, evergreening refers to the practice of "managing" the balance sheet through means, which may not be violating banking laws in letter, but breaching them in spirit. For instance, a bank can lend money to a company to pay off another bank's loan. This way, the second bank can save an account from going bad and reduce its non-performing assets (NPAs). The second bank can then extend a similar facility to a company which has not been able to repay loans from the first bank. Some banks also disburse too many loans at the end of the year. This way they can increase their advances portfolio and reduce the NPA in percentage terms. Evergreening also refers to a variety of legal, business and technological strategies by which producers extend their patents over products that are about to expire, in order to retain royalties from them, by either taking out new patents.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following Religions have been given “National Minority Status”? Jews Zoroastrians Jains Buddhists Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2, 3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
There are six religions in India which have been awarded "National minority" status-Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists and Zoroastrians. Jews in Maharashtra are now a minority community. The State Cabinet on Tuesday approved the decision to grant minority status to the Jews, a demand pending for many years. However, they do not have the national minority status.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Religions have been given “National Minority Status”? Jews Zoroastrians Jains Buddhists Select the correct answer from the codes given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2, 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:There are six religions in India which have been awarded "National minority" status-Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists and Zoroastrians. Jews in Maharashtra are now a minority community. The State Cabinet on Tuesday approved the decision to grant minority status to the Jews, a demand pending for many years. However, they do not have the national minority status.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:c
|
Which of the following countries is/are members of both Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) and Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)? South Africa China France Brazil Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
There are currently 34 countries that are members (Partners) of the MTCR: Argentina (1993); Australia (1990); Austria (1991); Belgium (1990); Brazil (1995); Bulgaria (2004); Canada (1987); Czech Republic (1998); Denmark (1990); Finland (1991); France (1987); Germany (1987); Greece 1992); Hungary (1993); Iceland (1993); Ireland (1992); Italy (1987); Japan (1987); Luxemburg (1990); Netherlands (1990); New Zealand (1991); Norway (1990); Poland (1998); Portugal (1992); Republic of Korea (2001); Russian Federation (1995); South Africa (1995); Spain (1990); Sweden (1991); Switzerland (1992); Turkey (1997); Ukraine (1998); United Kingdom (1987); United States of America (1987). The Current Participating Governments (PGs) are: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belarus, Belgium, Brazil, Bulgaria, Canada, China, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Japan, Kazakhstan, Republic Of Korea, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Russian Federation, Serbia, Slovakia, Slovenia, South Africa, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine, United Kingdom and United States. China is not a member of Missile Technology Control Regime.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following countries is/are members of both Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) and Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)? South Africa China France Brazil Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:There are currently 34 countries that are members (Partners) of the MTCR: Argentina (1993); Australia (1990); Austria (1991); Belgium (1990); Brazil (1995); Bulgaria (2004); Canada (1987); Czech Republic (1998); Denmark (1990); Finland (1991); France (1987); Germany (1987); Greece 1992); Hungary (1993); Iceland (1993); Ireland (1992); Italy (1987); Japan (1987); Luxemburg (1990); Netherlands (1990); New Zealand (1991); Norway (1990); Poland (1998); Portugal (1992); Republic of Korea (2001); Russian Federation (1995); South Africa (1995); Spain (1990); Sweden (1991); Switzerland (1992); Turkey (1997); Ukraine (1998); United Kingdom (1987); United States of America (1987). The Current Participating Governments (PGs) are: Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belarus, Belgium, Brazil, Bulgaria, Canada, China, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Japan, Kazakhstan, Republic Of Korea, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal, Romania, Russian Federation, Serbia, Slovakia, Slovenia, South Africa, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine, United Kingdom and United States. China is not a member of Missile Technology Control Regime.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
With reference to the Hyderabad-Karnataka region of the Karnataka, which among the following statements are correct?
The 98th Constitutional Amendment Act provides for special provisions for this region.
The region shares boundary with Maharashtra, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
Article 371(J) of the Indian Constitution deals with this region.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The provisions of Article 371(J) of the Constitution aimed at bringing about all-round development in the six districts of the Hyderabad-Karnataka region.
It consists of 6 districts namely Bellary (From Madras Presidency), Bidar, Gulbarga, Yadgir, Raichur and Koppal (From the state of Hyderabad). Kalyana Karnataka is also called Gulbarga division.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
With reference to the Hyderabad-Karnataka region of the Karnataka, which among the following statements are correct?
The 98th Constitutional Amendment Act provides for special provisions for this region.
The region shares boundary with Maharashtra, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
Article 371(J) of the Indian Constitution deals with this region.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
##Option_A: 1 and 2 only
###Option_B: 1 and 3 only
##Option_C: 2 and 3 only
##Option_D: 1 and 2 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
The provisions of Article 371(J) of the Constitution aimed at bringing about all-round development in the six districts of the Hyderabad-Karnataka region.
It consists of 6 districts namely Bellary (From Madras Presidency), Bidar, Gulbarga, Yadgir, Raichur and Koppal (From the state of Hyderabad). Kalyana Karnataka is also called Gulbarga division.
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Recently, scientists using highly sensitive radio telescopes have discovered the first complex organic chiral molecule in interstellar space. Which of the following explains the term "chirality"?
|
phenomenon of a substance exhibiting different crystal structures.
|
molecules have mirror-image versions of themselves
|
atoms with the same number of protons but that have a different number of neutrons
|
phenomenon of a substance exhibiting different crystal structures.
|
Chirality - Stereoisomers are isomers that differ in the spatial arrangement of atoms, rather than the order of atomic connectivity. One of the most interesting types of isomer is mirror-image stereoisomers, a non-superimposable set of two molecules that are mirror images of one another. The existence of these molecules is determined by concept known as chirality. These molecules are essential for biology and have been found in meteorites on Earth and comets in our Solar System. This is the first molecule detected in interstellar space that has the property of chirality, making it a pioneering leap forward in our understanding of how prebiotic molecules are made in the Universe and the effects they may have on the origins of life. Polymorphism - phenomenon of a substance exhibiting different crystal structures. Isotopes - atoms with the same number of protons but that have a different number of neutrons. Isobars - atoms of different elements having the same mass number but different atomic numbers.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently, scientists using highly sensitive radio telescopes have discovered the first complex organic chiral molecule in interstellar space. Which of the following explains the term "chirality"?##Option_A: phenomenon of a substance exhibiting different crystal structures.###Option_B: molecules have mirror-image versions of themselves##Option_C: atoms with the same number of protons but that have a different number of neutrons##Option_D: phenomenon of a substance exhibiting different crystal structures.##Answer:b##Explaination:Chirality - Stereoisomers are isomers that differ in the spatial arrangement of atoms, rather than the order of atomic connectivity. One of the most interesting types of isomer is mirror-image stereoisomers, a non-superimposable set of two molecules that are mirror images of one another. The existence of these molecules is determined by concept known as chirality. These molecules are essential for biology and have been found in meteorites on Earth and comets in our Solar System. This is the first molecule detected in interstellar space that has the property of chirality, making it a pioneering leap forward in our understanding of how prebiotic molecules are made in the Universe and the effects they may have on the origins of life. Polymorphism - phenomenon of a substance exhibiting different crystal structures. Isotopes - atoms with the same number of protons but that have a different number of neutrons. Isobars - atoms of different elements having the same mass number but different atomic numbers.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:b
|
With reference to monsoons consider the following statements: In India, agriculture is more dependent on summer monsoon than winter monsoon. In China and Japan, the winter monsoon is stronger than the summer monsoon. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
In India, agriculture is more dependent on summer monsoon than winter monsoon. The summer monsoon is characterized by highly variable weather with frequent spells of drought and heavy rains. The winter monsoon is a gentle drift of air in which the winds generally blow from the north-east. Retreating monsoon cause sporadic rainfall specially in the north eastern parts and Tamil Nadu coastal areas of India. In the eastern Asiatic countries such as China and Japan, the winter monsoon is stronger than the summer monsoon. Along the cast, the cold continental dry air masses and warm oceanic humid air masses clash and produce heavy cyclonic rains. Hence, both the statements are correct.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to monsoons consider the following statements: In India, agriculture is more dependent on summer monsoon than winter monsoon. In China and Japan, the winter monsoon is stronger than the summer monsoon. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:In India, agriculture is more dependent on summer monsoon than winter monsoon. The summer monsoon is characterized by highly variable weather with frequent spells of drought and heavy rains. The winter monsoon is a gentle drift of air in which the winds generally blow from the north-east. Retreating monsoon cause sporadic rainfall specially in the north eastern parts and Tamil Nadu coastal areas of India. In the eastern Asiatic countries such as China and Japan, the winter monsoon is stronger than the summer monsoon. Along the cast, the cold continental dry air masses and warm oceanic humid air masses clash and produce heavy cyclonic rains. Hence, both the statements are correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
The fundamental objective of proposed ELISA project of European Space Agency is to detect:
|
Gravitational Waves
|
Dark Matter and Dark Energy
|
Higgs Boson
|
Gravitational Waves
|
ELISA Pathfinder is paving the way for future missions by testing in flight the very concept of gravitational wave detection: it will put two test masses in a near-perfect gravitational free-fall and control and measure their motion with unprecedented accuracy. It's objective is to detect the gravitational waves and not the dark matter and Dark Energy. LISA Pathfinder is an ESA mission, which also carries a NASA payload. Only feasible in space LISA pathfinder is a pioneer mission. Not only are these technologies new, they cannot be properly verified on the ground. This is because Earth's gravity and environment would hamper the test results.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The fundamental objective of proposed ELISA project of European Space Agency is to detect:##Option_A: Gravitational Waves###Option_B: Dark Matter and Dark Energy##Option_C: Higgs Boson##Option_D: Gravitational Waves##Answer:a##Explaination:ELISA Pathfinder is paving the way for future missions by testing in flight the very concept of gravitational wave detection: it will put two test masses in a near-perfect gravitational free-fall and control and measure their motion with unprecedented accuracy. It's objective is to detect the gravitational waves and not the dark matter and Dark Energy. LISA Pathfinder is an ESA mission, which also carries a NASA payload. Only feasible in space LISA pathfinder is a pioneer mission. Not only are these technologies new, they cannot be properly verified on the ground. This is because Earth's gravity and environment would hamper the test results.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:a
|
"Swell" and "Surf" may be classified types of which of the following?
|
Tides
|
Wind-generated waves
|
Ocean Currents
|
Tides
|
There are three types of wind-generated waves: Sea Swell Surf An overall irregular and chaotic wave pattern is called the sea. As waves move away from the winds that disturb the smoothness of sea surface they begin to move in an uniform pattern of equivalent period and height. These trains of waves are called swells. The breaking waves in coastal regions are called surf.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Swell" and "Surf" may be classified types of which of the following?##Option_A: Tides###Option_B: Wind-generated waves##Option_C: Ocean Currents##Option_D: Tides##Answer:b##Explaination:There are three types of wind-generated waves: Sea Swell Surf An overall irregular and chaotic wave pattern is called the sea. As waves move away from the winds that disturb the smoothness of sea surface they begin to move in an uniform pattern of equivalent period and height. These trains of waves are called swells. The breaking waves in coastal regions are called surf.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs: Major Crop Leading Producing State 1. Rice : West Bengal 2. Cotton : Maharashtra 3. Oilseeds : Madhya Pradesh 4. Sugarcane : Uttar Pradesh Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 3 and 4 only
|
2 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Major Crop Leading Producing State Rice West Bengal Wheat Uttar Pradesh Maize Andhra Pradesh Cotton Gujarat Oilseeds Madhya Pradesh Sugarcane Uttar Pradesh Tobacco Gujarat Rubber Kerala
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Major Crop Leading Producing State 1. Rice : West Bengal 2. Cotton : Maharashtra 3. Oilseeds : Madhya Pradesh 4. Sugarcane : Uttar Pradesh Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 3 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Major Crop Leading Producing State Rice West Bengal Wheat Uttar Pradesh Maize Andhra Pradesh Cotton Gujarat Oilseeds Madhya Pradesh Sugarcane Uttar Pradesh Tobacco Gujarat Rubber Kerala##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Praja Mandal movements were associated with:
|
All India Kisan Sabha
|
Princley States
|
Tribes of North East
|
All India Kisan Sabha
|
By the middle of the 19th century, the British government had established treaty relations with most of the Princely States in India. In theory, the rulers had absolute power but in practice, they were subject to the dictates of the British Resident and dependent on the British government for internal and external protection. The onset of the nationalist movement in British India also had an impact on the people of the Princely States. The launching of the non-cooperation and Khilafat movements stirred the entire Indian population cutting across the borders of British India. Under the national movement, the subjects of the princely states established people's organizations in the Princely States were established in Mysore, Hyderabad, Baroda, Kathiawad, Jamnagar, Indore, Nawanagar, etc.The people’s organisation started by the people of princely states for the national movement were called 'Praja Mandals' or 'Praja Parishads'. The national movement in the princely states are also called Praja Mandal movements. The National Movement Associations in Princely States. The Hitvardhak Sabha: The Hitvardhak Sabha was founded in Poona in May 1921. The aim of this association was to solve the problems of the people of southern princely states. Akhil Bhor Sansthan Praja Sabha: Wamanrao Patwardhan founded Akhil Bhor Sansthan Praja Sabha in Bhor region in November 1921.The aim of this Sabha was to fight for the problems related to people of Bhor region.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Praja Mandal movements were associated with:##Option_A: All India Kisan Sabha###Option_B: Princley States##Option_C: Tribes of North East##Option_D: All India Kisan Sabha##Answer:b##Explaination:By the middle of the 19th century, the British government had established treaty relations with most of the Princely States in India. In theory, the rulers had absolute power but in practice, they were subject to the dictates of the British Resident and dependent on the British government for internal and external protection. The onset of the nationalist movement in British India also had an impact on the people of the Princely States. The launching of the non-cooperation and Khilafat movements stirred the entire Indian population cutting across the borders of British India. Under the national movement, the subjects of the princely states established people's organizations in the Princely States were established in Mysore, Hyderabad, Baroda, Kathiawad, Jamnagar, Indore, Nawanagar, etc.The people’s organisation started by the people of princely states for the national movement were called 'Praja Mandals' or 'Praja Parishads'. The national movement in the princely states are also called Praja Mandal movements. The National Movement Associations in Princely States. The Hitvardhak Sabha: The Hitvardhak Sabha was founded in Poona in May 1921. The aim of this association was to solve the problems of the people of southern princely states. Akhil Bhor Sansthan Praja Sabha: Wamanrao Patwardhan founded Akhil Bhor Sansthan Praja Sabha in Bhor region in November 1921.The aim of this Sabha was to fight for the problems related to people of Bhor region.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Consider the following pairs: Works Authored by 1. Bandi Jiwan : Sachindra Nath Sanyal 2. Philosophy of Bomb : Batukeshwar Dutt 3. Pather Dabi : Sarath Chandra Chattopadhyay Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Sachindra Nath Sanyal was the founder of the Hindustan Republican Association. He was sent to the dreaded Cellular Jail in the Andamans and in jail he wrote the famous book "Bandi Jiwan" (A Life of Captivity). This book would become the bible for a generation of revolutionaries fighting British rule. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. The Philosophy of Bomb was written by Bhagwati Charan Vohra in response to Mahatma Gandhi's article the Cult of Bomb. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched. Pather Dabi is a Bengali novel written by Sarath Chandra Chattopadhyay published between 1922-26. The book is about a secret society named Pather Dabi whose goal is to free India from British rule. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Works Authored by 1. Bandi Jiwan : Sachindra Nath Sanyal 2. Philosophy of Bomb : Batukeshwar Dutt 3. Pather Dabi : Sarath Chandra Chattopadhyay Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?##Option_A:1 and 2 only###Option_B:1 and 3 only##Option_C:2 and 3 only##Option_D:1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:Sachindra Nath Sanyal was the founder of the Hindustan Republican Association. He was sent to the dreaded Cellular Jail in the Andamans and in jail he wrote the famous book "Bandi Jiwan" (A Life of Captivity). This book would become the bible for a generation of revolutionaries fighting British rule. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched. The Philosophy of Bomb was written by Bhagwati Charan Vohra in response to Mahatma Gandhi's article the Cult of Bomb. Hence pair 2 is not correctly matched. Pather Dabi is a Bengali novel written by Sarath Chandra Chattopadhyay published between 1922-26. The book is about a secret society named Pather Dabi whose goal is to free India from British rule. Hence pair 3 is correctly matched.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Cabotage Tax, recently seen in news is associated with which of the following sectors?
|
Pharmaceutical Sector
|
Information Technology Sector
|
Shipping Sector
|
Pharmaceutical Sector
|
Cabotage means reserving coastal trade for national flag vessels; in other words, it refers to the practice of imposing restrictions for movement of domestic cargo by foreign flag vessels. Cabotage is applied in the coastal trade or the internal trade from one port to another in India, which is generally carried out by ships of lower draft/depth. Coastal movement require the use of smaller sized ships due to draft (depth), waterway width and navigational restrictions, as well as the availability of appropriate loading and handling facility at the port.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Cabotage Tax, recently seen in news is associated with which of the following sectors?##Option_A: Pharmaceutical Sector###Option_B: Information Technology Sector##Option_C: Shipping Sector##Option_D: Pharmaceutical Sector##Answer:c##Explaination:Cabotage means reserving coastal trade for national flag vessels; in other words, it refers to the practice of imposing restrictions for movement of domestic cargo by foreign flag vessels. Cabotage is applied in the coastal trade or the internal trade from one port to another in India, which is generally carried out by ships of lower draft/depth. Coastal movement require the use of smaller sized ships due to draft (depth), waterway width and navigational restrictions, as well as the availability of appropriate loading and handling facility at the port.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements about European Union: It is a monetary Union of European Countries. It was created in the aftermath of the Second World War India has a free trade agreement with European Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The European Union is a unique economic and political union between 28 European countries that together cover much of the continent. The EU was created in the aftermath of the Second World War. The first steps were to foster economic cooperation: the idea being that countries that trade with one another become economically interdependent and so more likely to avoid conflict. The result was the European Economic Community (EEC), created in 1958, and initially increasing economic cooperation between six countries: Belgium, Germany, France, Italy, Luxembourg and the Netherlands. Since then, a huge single market has been created and continues to develop towards its full potential. India doesn't have a free trade agreement with European Union. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements about European Union: It is a monetary Union of European Countries. It was created in the aftermath of the Second World War India has a free trade agreement with European Union. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The European Union is a unique economic and political union between 28 European countries that together cover much of the continent. The EU was created in the aftermath of the Second World War. The first steps were to foster economic cooperation: the idea being that countries that trade with one another become economically interdependent and so more likely to avoid conflict. The result was the European Economic Community (EEC), created in 1958, and initially increasing economic cooperation between six countries: Belgium, Germany, France, Italy, Luxembourg and the Netherlands. Since then, a huge single market has been created and continues to develop towards its full potential. India doesn't have a free trade agreement with European Union. Hence statement 3 is not correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Which of the following are recognized as Capital expenditures in the Union Budget? Loans to state governments Expenditure on the acquisition of land or a building Investment in shares Interest payments on debts Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 4 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
Capital Expenditure: There are expenditures of the government which result in creation of physical or financial assets or reduction in financial liabilities. This includes expenditure on the acquisition of land, building, machinery, equipment, investment in shares, and loans and advances by the central government to state and union territory governments, PSUs and other parties. Capital expenditure is also categorized as plan and non-plan in the budget documents. Revenue Expenditure is expenditure incurred for purposes other than the creation of physical or financial assets of the central government. It relates to those expenses incurred for the normal functioning of the government departments and various services, interest payments on debt incurred by the government, and grants given to state governments and other parties (even though some of the grants may be meant for creation of assets).
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following are recognized as Capital expenditures in the Union Budget? Loans to state governments Expenditure on the acquisition of land or a building Investment in shares Interest payments on debts Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 4 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Capital Expenditure: There are expenditures of the government which result in creation of physical or financial assets or reduction in financial liabilities. This includes expenditure on the acquisition of land, building, machinery, equipment, investment in shares, and loans and advances by the central government to state and union territory governments, PSUs and other parties. Capital expenditure is also categorized as plan and non-plan in the budget documents. Revenue Expenditure is expenditure incurred for purposes other than the creation of physical or financial assets of the central government. It relates to those expenses incurred for the normal functioning of the government departments and various services, interest payments on debt incurred by the government, and grants given to state governments and other parties (even though some of the grants may be meant for creation of assets).##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Consider the following pairs:
1. Second Schedule
:
Forms of oaths and affirmations
2. Third Schedule
:
Provisions related to emoluments and allowances
3. Fourth Schedule
:
Allocation of seats in Lok Sabha
Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Second Schedule: Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of:
The President of India
The Governors of States
The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states
The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states
The Judges of the Supreme Court
The Judges of the High Courts
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Third Schedule: Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for:
The Union ministers
The candidates for election to the Parliament
The members of Parliament
The judges of the Supreme Court
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
The state ministers
The candidates for election to the state legislature
The members of the state legislature
The judges of the High Courts.
Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:
Consider the following pairs:
1. Second Schedule
:
Forms of oaths and affirmations
2. Third Schedule
:
Provisions related to emoluments and allowances
3. Fourth Schedule
:
Allocation of seats in Lok Sabha
Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?
##Option_A:
1 only
###Option_B:
1 and 2 only
##Option_C:
2 and 3 only
##Option_D:
1 only
##Answer:d##Explaination:
Second Schedule: Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of:
The President of India
The Governors of States
The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states
The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states
The Judges of the Supreme Court
The Judges of the High Courts
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Third Schedule: Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for:
The Union ministers
The candidates for election to the Parliament
The members of Parliament
The judges of the Supreme Court
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
The state ministers
The candidates for election to the state legislature
The members of the state legislature
The judges of the High Courts.
Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories
##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: State Highest Point 1. Maharashtra : Kalsubai 2. Gujarat : Guru Shikar 3. Kerala : Doddabetta 4. Arunachal Pradesh : Kangto Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
State Highest Point Maharashtra Kalsubai Rajasthan Guru Shikar Kerala Anaimudi Arunachal Pradesh Kangto Gujarat Girnar Tamil Nadu Doddabetta
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: State Highest Point 1. Maharashtra : Kalsubai 2. Gujarat : Guru Shikar 3. Kerala : Doddabetta 4. Arunachal Pradesh : Kangto Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 1 and 4 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:State Highest Point Maharashtra Kalsubai Rajasthan Guru Shikar Kerala Anaimudi Arunachal Pradesh Kangto Gujarat Girnar Tamil Nadu Doddabetta##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:b
|
Annual Kaliparaj conferences were held in Bardoli district after suspension of Non-cooperation movement (NCM). What was the purpose of these conferences?
|
To work for upliftment of low caste untouchable and tribal inhabitants.
|
To prepare masses for armed revolt against British government following the suspension of NCM.
|
To organise peasants to refuse payment of rent to landlords.
|
To work for upliftment of low caste untouchable and tribal inhabitants.
|
Stung by Gandhiji's rebuke in 1922 that they had done nothing for the upliftment of the low-caste untouchable and tribal inhabitants - who were known by the name of Kaliparaj (dark people) to distinguish them from the high caste or Ujaliparaj (fair people) and who formed sixty per cent of the population of the taluq - Bardoli congressmen, who belonged to high castes started work among the Kaliparaj through a network of six ashrams that were spread out over the taluq. Annual Kallparaj conferences were held in 1922 and, in 1927, Gandhiji, who presided over the annual conference, initiated an enquiry into the conditions of the Kaliparaj, who he also now renamed as Raniparaj or the inhabitants of the forest in preference to the derogatory term Kaliparaj or dark people.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Annual Kaliparaj conferences were held in Bardoli district after suspension of Non-cooperation movement (NCM). What was the purpose of these conferences?##Option_A: To work for upliftment of low caste untouchable and tribal inhabitants.###Option_B: To prepare masses for armed revolt against British government following the suspension of NCM.##Option_C: To organise peasants to refuse payment of rent to landlords.##Option_D: To work for upliftment of low caste untouchable and tribal inhabitants.##Answer:a##Explaination:Stung by Gandhiji's rebuke in 1922 that they had done nothing for the upliftment of the low-caste untouchable and tribal inhabitants - who were known by the name of Kaliparaj (dark people) to distinguish them from the high caste or Ujaliparaj (fair people) and who formed sixty per cent of the population of the taluq - Bardoli congressmen, who belonged to high castes started work among the Kaliparaj through a network of six ashrams that were spread out over the taluq. Annual Kallparaj conferences were held in 1922 and, in 1927, Gandhiji, who presided over the annual conference, initiated an enquiry into the conditions of the Kaliparaj, who he also now renamed as Raniparaj or the inhabitants of the forest in preference to the derogatory term Kaliparaj or dark people.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:a
|
With reference to approaches to Human development, consider the following pairs: Approach Description 1. Welfare Approach : This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. 2. Basic Needs Approach : This approach emphasizes on human choices and is linked to income. 3. Capability Approach : This approach is associated with building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
Approaches to Human Development: Income Approach: This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys. Higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development. Welfare Approach: This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary and amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising expenditure on welfare. Basic Needs Approach: This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.e.: health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections. Capability Approach: This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to approaches to Human development, consider the following pairs: Approach Description 1. Welfare Approach : This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. 2. Basic Needs Approach : This approach emphasizes on human choices and is linked to income. 3. Capability Approach : This approach is associated with building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?##Option_A: 1 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 3 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Approaches to Human Development: Income Approach: This is one of the oldest approaches to human development. Human development is seen as being linked to income. The idea is that the level of income reflects the level of freedom an individual enjoys. Higher the level of income, the higher is the level of human development. Welfare Approach: This approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities. The approach argues for higher government expenditure on education, health, social secondary and amenities. People are not participants in development but only passive recipients. The government is responsible for increasing levels of human development by maximising expenditure on welfare. Basic Needs Approach: This approach was initially proposed by the International Labour Organisation (ILO). Six basic needs i.e.: health, education, food, water supply, sanitation, and housing were identified. The question of human choices is ignored and the emphasis is on the provision of basic needs of defined sections. Capability Approach: This approach is associated with Prof. Amartya Sen. Building human capabilities in the areas of health, education and access to resources is the key to increasing human development.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
Which among the following was/were impact of Central Asian contacts on India? Introduction of Steel making Better cavalry Introduction of trousers and heavy long coats. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Shakas and Kushanas were excellent horsemen. They made common the use of reins and saddles. They also used some kind of a toe stirrup made of rope which facilitated their movement. The Shakas and Kushanas introduced turban, tunic, trousers and heavy long coat. The Central Asians also brought in cap, helmet and boots which were used by warriors. The art of making steel was known during Mauryan rule. Steel objects belonging to about 200 B.C. or to an earlier date have been found in the middle Gangetic plains before advent of Central Asians.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following was/were impact of Central Asian contacts on India? Introduction of Steel making Better cavalry Introduction of trousers and heavy long coats. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The Shakas and Kushanas were excellent horsemen. They made common the use of reins and saddles. They also used some kind of a toe stirrup made of rope which facilitated their movement. The Shakas and Kushanas introduced turban, tunic, trousers and heavy long coat. The Central Asians also brought in cap, helmet and boots which were used by warriors. The art of making steel was known during Mauryan rule. Steel objects belonging to about 200 B.C. or to an earlier date have been found in the middle Gangetic plains before advent of Central Asians.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:c
|
Which of the following commission/ resolution are associated with urban bodies in India? Royal Commission of decentralization Lord Mayo"s Resolution on financial decentralization Lord Ripon"s Resolution Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The institution of urban local government originated and developed in modern India during the period of British Rule. The major events in this context are as follows: 1687-88 - First municipal corporation was established at Madras 1726 - Municipal corporations were established in Bombay and Calcutta 1870 - Lord Mayo's Resolution on financial decentralization 1882 - Lord Rippon's Resolution (hailed as the 'Magna Carta' of local self-government) 1907 - Appointment of Royal Commission on Decentralisation 1919 - Introduction of dyarchical system in Provinces, where the local self-government became a transferred subject 1935 - Introduction of provincial autonomy scheme under the GoI Act (1935), where the local self-government was declared a provincial subject.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following commission/ resolution are associated with urban bodies in India? Royal Commission of decentralization Lord Mayo"s Resolution on financial decentralization Lord Ripon"s Resolution Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The institution of urban local government originated and developed in modern India during the period of British Rule. The major events in this context are as follows: 1687-88 - First municipal corporation was established at Madras 1726 - Municipal corporations were established in Bombay and Calcutta 1870 - Lord Mayo's Resolution on financial decentralization 1882 - Lord Rippon's Resolution (hailed as the 'Magna Carta' of local self-government) 1907 - Appointment of Royal Commission on Decentralisation 1919 - Introduction of dyarchical system in Provinces, where the local self-government became a transferred subject 1935 - Introduction of provincial autonomy scheme under the GoI Act (1935), where the local self-government was declared a provincial subject.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Which of the following best describes the "Base effect" with reference to the inflation calculation?
|
The impact on prices due to significant changes in the consumer base of a particular good or service.
|
The impact on prices as a result of increase in taxes due to widening of indirect tax base.
|
The impact on the prices due to rise in price levels in the previous/base year.
|
The impact on prices due to significant changes in the consumer base of a particular good or service.
|
The base effect refers to the impact of the rise in price level (i.e. last year's inflation) in the previous year over the corresponding rise in price levels in the current year (i.e., current inflation): if the price index had risen at a high rate in the corresponding period of the previous year leading to a high inflation rate, some of the potential rise is already factored in, therefore a similar absolute increase in the Price index in the current year will lead to a relatively lower inflation rates. On the other hand, if the inflation rate was too low in the corresponding period of the previous year, even a relatively smaller rise in the Price Index will arithmetically give a high rate of current inflation.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following best describes the "Base effect" with reference to the inflation calculation?##Option_A: The impact on prices due to significant changes in the consumer base of a particular good or service.###Option_B: The impact on prices as a result of increase in taxes due to widening of indirect tax base.##Option_C: The impact on the prices due to rise in price levels in the previous/base year.##Option_D: The impact on prices due to significant changes in the consumer base of a particular good or service.##Answer:c##Explaination:The base effect refers to the impact of the rise in price level (i.e. last year's inflation) in the previous year over the corresponding rise in price levels in the current year (i.e., current inflation): if the price index had risen at a high rate in the corresponding period of the previous year leading to a high inflation rate, some of the potential rise is already factored in, therefore a similar absolute increase in the Price index in the current year will lead to a relatively lower inflation rates. On the other hand, if the inflation rate was too low in the corresponding period of the previous year, even a relatively smaller rise in the Price Index will arithmetically give a high rate of current inflation.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
With reference to Index of Industrial Production, consider the following statements: It captures the general level of industrial activity in the country. Mining sector has been accorded highest weightage in index. It is compiled and published by Ministry of Commerce & Industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
Index of Industrial Production (IIP) measures the quantum of changes in the industrial production in an economy and captures the general level of industrial activity in the country. It is a composite indicator expressed in terms of an index number which measures the short term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to the base period. Index of Industrial Production is compiled and published every month by Central Statistics Office (CSO) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. IIP covers 682 items comprising Mining (61 items), Manufacturing (620 items) & Electricity (1 item). The weights of the three sectors are 14.16%, 75.53% and 10.32% respectively and are on the basis of their share of GDP at factor cost during 2004-05. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Index of Industrial Production, consider the following statements: It captures the general level of industrial activity in the country. Mining sector has been accorded highest weightage in index. It is compiled and published by Ministry of Commerce & Industry. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:Index of Industrial Production (IIP) measures the quantum of changes in the industrial production in an economy and captures the general level of industrial activity in the country. It is a composite indicator expressed in terms of an index number which measures the short term changes in the volume of production of a basket of industrial products during a given period with respect to the base period. Index of Industrial Production is compiled and published every month by Central Statistics Office (CSO) of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. IIP covers 682 items comprising Mining (61 items), Manufacturing (620 items) & Electricity (1 item). The weights of the three sectors are 14.16%, 75.53% and 10.32% respectively and are on the basis of their share of GDP at factor cost during 2004-05. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:a
|
According to the provisions of the Indus Water Treaty, for which of the following river India does not have the exclusive rights to use the waters?
|
Satluj
|
Chenab
|
Beas
|
Satluj
|
According to the provisions of the Indus Water Treaty, India has the exclusive rights to use the waters of three eastern rivers (Satluj, Beas and Ravi), leaving out three remaining rivers (Chenab, Jhelum and Indus) to Pakistan.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:According to the provisions of the Indus Water Treaty, for which of the following river India does not have the exclusive rights to use the waters?##Option_A: Satluj###Option_B: Chenab##Option_C: Beas##Option_D: Satluj##Answer:b##Explaination:According to the provisions of the Indus Water Treaty, India has the exclusive rights to use the waters of three eastern rivers (Satluj, Beas and Ravi), leaving out three remaining rivers (Chenab, Jhelum and Indus) to Pakistan.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding deep-sea benthic zones of the oceans: It is characterized by uniformly low temperatures. Most organisms of this zone are carnivorous in nature. This area is also characterised by persistent darkness. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The deep-sea benthic zone extends from depths of 200 mts to the deepest trenches. It is characterised by uniformly low temperatures and persistent darkness . On the whole, the population of the organisms decreases with the increasing distance from the coast. Most organisms of this zone are carnivorous in nature living on the organic debris of dead organisms of the upper zone.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding deep-sea benthic zones of the oceans: It is characterized by uniformly low temperatures. Most organisms of this zone are carnivorous in nature. This area is also characterised by persistent darkness. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The deep-sea benthic zone extends from depths of 200 mts to the deepest trenches. It is characterised by uniformly low temperatures and persistent darkness . On the whole, the population of the organisms decreases with the increasing distance from the coast. Most organisms of this zone are carnivorous in nature living on the organic debris of dead organisms of the upper zone.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following methods can be used to calculate the aggregate value of goods and services produced in the economy? measuring the aggregate value of factor payments measuring the aggregate of net value added by the firms measuring the aggregate value of spending received by the firms Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
We can calculate the aggregate value of goods and services produced in the economy by any of the three methods: measuring the aggregate value of factor payments (income method) measuring the aggregate value of goods and services produced by the firms (product method) measuring the aggregate value of spending received by the firms (expenditure method). In the product method, to avoid double counting, we need to deduct the value of intermediate goods and take into account only the aggregate value of final goods and services. We derive the formulae for calculating the aggregate income of an economy by each of these methods.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following methods can be used to calculate the aggregate value of goods and services produced in the economy? measuring the aggregate value of factor payments measuring the aggregate of net value added by the firms measuring the aggregate value of spending received by the firms Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:d##Explaination:We can calculate the aggregate value of goods and services produced in the economy by any of the three methods: measuring the aggregate value of factor payments (income method) measuring the aggregate value of goods and services produced by the firms (product method) measuring the aggregate value of spending received by the firms (expenditure method). In the product method, to avoid double counting, we need to deduct the value of intermediate goods and take into account only the aggregate value of final goods and services. We derive the formulae for calculating the aggregate income of an economy by each of these methods.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Which among the following organisations were established abroad by Indians for revolutionary activities? Yugantar Ashram Swadesh Sevak Home India House Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Gadar Party was founded in 1913 to free India from British slavery. The headquarters of the association was established initially at San Francisco and named as “Yugantar Ashram. G. D. Kumar set up a Swadesh Sevak Home in Vancouver on the lines of the India house in London and also began to bring out a Gurumukhi paper called Swadesh Sewak which advocated social reform and also asked Indian troops to rise in revolt against the British. India House was a student residence in North London that existed between 1905 and 1910. With the patronage of lawyer Shyamji Krishna Varma, it was opened to promote nationalist views among Indian students in Britain.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which among the following organisations were established abroad by Indians for revolutionary activities? Yugantar Ashram Swadesh Sevak Home India House Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The Gadar Party was founded in 1913 to free India from British slavery. The headquarters of the association was established initially at San Francisco and named as “Yugantar Ashram. G. D. Kumar set up a Swadesh Sevak Home in Vancouver on the lines of the India house in London and also began to bring out a Gurumukhi paper called Swadesh Sewak which advocated social reform and also asked Indian troops to rise in revolt against the British. India House was a student residence in North London that existed between 1905 and 1910. With the patronage of lawyer Shyamji Krishna Varma, it was opened to promote nationalist views among Indian students in Britain.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding the season of Retreating Monsoon in India: Unlike the sudden burst of monsoon, the retreat of the monsoon is gradual. The diurnal range of temperature is quite pronounced. This is the season of most severe tropical cyclones. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Season of Retreating monsoon: The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons. Unlike sudden burst of monsoon, the retreat of the monsoon is gradual and takes about 2-3 months. The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as the ‘October heat’. However, nights are cool and therefore the diurnal range of temperature is quite pronounced. This is the season of most severe tropical cyclones originating in the Indian seas especially in the Bay of Bengal.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding the season of Retreating Monsoon in India: Unlike the sudden burst of monsoon, the retreat of the monsoon is gradual. The diurnal range of temperature is quite pronounced. This is the season of most severe tropical cyclones. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Season of Retreating monsoon: The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons. Unlike sudden burst of monsoon, the retreat of the monsoon is gradual and takes about 2-3 months. The retreating southwest monsoon season is marked by clear skies and rise in temperature. The land is still moist. Owing to the conditions of high temperature and humidity, the weather becomes rather oppressive. This is commonly known as the ‘October heat’. However, nights are cool and therefore the diurnal range of temperature is quite pronounced. This is the season of most severe tropical cyclones originating in the Indian seas especially in the Bay of Bengal.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Which of the following have been provided "immunity" under the Indian Constitution for their personal acts? President Governor Prime Minister Civil Servants Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
3 and 4 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Constitution confers certain immunities to the president of India and governor of states with regard to their official acts and personal acts. No criminal proceedings can be started against the President and the Governors in respect of their personal acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned. This immunity is limited to the period of the term of their office only and does not extend beyond that. However, civil proceedings can be started against them during their term of office in respect of their personal acts after giving two months’ advance notice. Both the ministers (including PM) and civil servants do not enjoy any immunity for their personal acts. The Ministers can be sued for crimes as well as torts in the ordinary courts like common citizens. However, under the Constitution, the civil servants are conferred personal immunity from legal liability for official contracts.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following have been provided "immunity" under the Indian Constitution for their personal acts? President Governor Prime Minister Civil Servants Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1, 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 and 4 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Constitution confers certain immunities to the president of India and governor of states with regard to their official acts and personal acts. No criminal proceedings can be started against the President and the Governors in respect of their personal acts nor can they be arrested or imprisoned. This immunity is limited to the period of the term of their office only and does not extend beyond that. However, civil proceedings can be started against them during their term of office in respect of their personal acts after giving two months’ advance notice. Both the ministers (including PM) and civil servants do not enjoy any immunity for their personal acts. The Ministers can be sued for crimes as well as torts in the ordinary courts like common citizens. However, under the Constitution, the civil servants are conferred personal immunity from legal liability for official contracts.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:a
|
The annual Shangri La Dialogue is associated with which of the followed?
|
Global Warming and Climate Change
|
Defence and Security Issues
|
Pathway to Economic recovery
|
Global Warming and Climate Change
|
The IISS Asia Security Summit was launched in 2002 by British think tank the International Institute for Strategic Studies and the Singaporean government. This annual dialogue brings together defence ministers and military chiefs from 28 Asia-Pacific countries to talk about security in the region. It gets its name from the location of the meeting, the Shangri-La hotel in Singapore.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The annual Shangri La Dialogue is associated with which of the followed?##Option_A: Global Warming and Climate Change###Option_B: Defence and Security Issues##Option_C: Pathway to Economic recovery##Option_D: Global Warming and Climate Change##Answer:b##Explaination:The IISS Asia Security Summit was launched in 2002 by British think tank the International Institute for Strategic Studies and the Singaporean government. This annual dialogue brings together defence ministers and military chiefs from 28 Asia-Pacific countries to talk about security in the region. It gets its name from the location of the meeting, the Shangri-La hotel in Singapore.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
Consider the following statements regarding "cognitive digital radio" technology: It enables users to turn their smartphones into peer-to-peer, off-grid communication tools. Users can share their GPS locations on offline maps regardless of access to WiFi or cellular service. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The concept of ‘cognitive digital radio’ technology enables users to turn their smartphones into peer-to-peer, off-grid communication tools. The network generates its own signal through proprietary ad hoc networking protocols and automatically coordinates with other units within range which enables users to send and get text messages, share their GPS locations on offline maps regardless of access to WiFi or cellular service. The technology was first used by a U.S.-based company during Hurricane Katrina so that the affected residents could remain in touch with each other. Recently, during interrogation of some of the terrorists of Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT), the agencies came to know that the terror outfit had modified it and created the application “Calculator”, which can be downloaded on smartphones attached to the off-air network created specifically for them. They were using this technology.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding "cognitive digital radio" technology: It enables users to turn their smartphones into peer-to-peer, off-grid communication tools. Users can share their GPS locations on offline maps regardless of access to WiFi or cellular service. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:The concept of ‘cognitive digital radio’ technology enables users to turn their smartphones into peer-to-peer, off-grid communication tools. The network generates its own signal through proprietary ad hoc networking protocols and automatically coordinates with other units within range which enables users to send and get text messages, share their GPS locations on offline maps regardless of access to WiFi or cellular service. The technology was first used by a U.S.-based company during Hurricane Katrina so that the affected residents could remain in touch with each other. Recently, during interrogation of some of the terrorists of Lashkar-e-Taiba (LeT), the agencies came to know that the terror outfit had modified it and created the application “Calculator”, which can be downloaded on smartphones attached to the off-air network created specifically for them. They were using this technology.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
The Bollgard seed technology is used for which of the following crops?
|
Wheat
|
Sugarcane
|
Cotton
|
Wheat
|
More than 90% of the cotton grown in India uses this technology. In India, Monsanto Mahyco Biotech (India) Ltd (MMBL), a joint venture of Mahyco Seeds Ltd and Monsanto, licenses its patented Bollgard II cotton seed technology to 49 seed companies in exchange for a royalty fee. The central government has recently intervened and issued a Cotton Seed Price (Control) Order, 2015, to fix a uniform price of Bt cotton seed across the states in the country for the benefit of farmers.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Bollgard seed technology is used for which of the following crops?##Option_A: Wheat###Option_B: Sugarcane##Option_C: Cotton##Option_D: Wheat##Answer:c##Explaination:More than 90% of the cotton grown in India uses this technology. In India, Monsanto Mahyco Biotech (India) Ltd (MMBL), a joint venture of Mahyco Seeds Ltd and Monsanto, licenses its patented Bollgard II cotton seed technology to 49 seed companies in exchange for a royalty fee. The central government has recently intervened and issued a Cotton Seed Price (Control) Order, 2015, to fix a uniform price of Bt cotton seed across the states in the country for the benefit of farmers.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:c
|
Lowering of real interest rates may lead to which of the following in an economy? Higher industrial growth Higher direct tax collection Reduced fiscal deficit Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The lowering of real interest rates can reduce the cost of capital of entrepreneurs, provide incentives, generate output and lead to enhancements in direct tax collections which then reduce the fiscal deficit. Thus all statements are correct.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Lowering of real interest rates may lead to which of the following in an economy? Higher industrial growth Higher direct tax collection Reduced fiscal deficit Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The lowering of real interest rates can reduce the cost of capital of entrepreneurs, provide incentives, generate output and lead to enhancements in direct tax collections which then reduce the fiscal deficit. Thus all statements are correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements regarding Hague Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation: It is a voluntary legally non-binding multilateral body. It calls for ban on production, testing and export of Ballistic Missiles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Hague Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation (HCOC) is the result of efforts of the international community to internationally regulate the area of ballistic missiles capable of carrying weapons of mass destruction. The HCOC is the only multilateral transparency and confidence building instrument concerning the spread of ballistic missiles. It is a voluntary, legally non-binding international confidence building. By subscribing to the HCoC, members voluntarily commit themselves politically to provide pre-launch notifications (PLNs) on ballistic missile and space-launch vehicle launches (SLVs) and test flights. Subscribing States also commit themselves to submit an annual declaration (AD) of their country’s policies on ballistic missiles and space-launch vehicles. It does not call for ban on production, testing and export of Ballistic Missiles.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements regarding Hague Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation: It is a voluntary legally non-binding multilateral body. It calls for ban on production, testing and export of Ballistic Missiles. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Hague Code of Conduct against Ballistic Missile Proliferation (HCOC) is the result of efforts of the international community to internationally regulate the area of ballistic missiles capable of carrying weapons of mass destruction. The HCOC is the only multilateral transparency and confidence building instrument concerning the spread of ballistic missiles. It is a voluntary, legally non-binding international confidence building. By subscribing to the HCoC, members voluntarily commit themselves politically to provide pre-launch notifications (PLNs) on ballistic missile and space-launch vehicle launches (SLVs) and test flights. Subscribing States also commit themselves to submit an annual declaration (AD) of their country’s policies on ballistic missiles and space-launch vehicles. It does not call for ban on production, testing and export of Ballistic Missiles.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
Which of the following is/are the reasons for tank irrigation being practised mainly in peninsular India? Undulating relief and hard rock structure. Ground water is not available in large quantity. Non-perennial nature of rivers in this region. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The tank irrigation is practised mainly in peninsular region due to the following reasons: The undulating relief and hard rocks make it difficult to dig canals and wells. There is little percolation of rain water due to hard rock structure and ground water is not available in large quantity. Most of the rivers of this region are seasonal and dry up in summer season. Therefore, they cannot supply water to canals throughout the year.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are the reasons for tank irrigation being practised mainly in peninsular India? Undulating relief and hard rock structure. Ground water is not available in large quantity. Non-perennial nature of rivers in this region. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The tank irrigation is practised mainly in peninsular region due to the following reasons: The undulating relief and hard rocks make it difficult to dig canals and wells. There is little percolation of rain water due to hard rock structure and ground water is not available in large quantity. Most of the rivers of this region are seasonal and dry up in summer season. Therefore, they cannot supply water to canals throughout the year.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Cyclones, consider the following statements: The tropical cyclones originate only over the seas. The extra-tropical cyclone can originate over sea as well as land. The extra tropical cyclone affects a much larger area as compared to the tropical cyclone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The extra-tropical cyclones have frontal origin and can originate over the land and sea. Whereas the tropical cyclones originate only over the seas and on reaching the land they dissipate. The energy that intensifies the tropical cyclone comes from the condensation process in the towering cumulonimbus clouds, surrounding the centre. With continuous supply of moisture from the sea, the storm is further strengthened. On reaching the land the moisture supply is cut off and the storm dissipates. The extra tropical cyclone affects a much larger area as compared to the tropical cyclone.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Cyclones, consider the following statements: The tropical cyclones originate only over the seas. The extra-tropical cyclone can originate over sea as well as land. The extra tropical cyclone affects a much larger area as compared to the tropical cyclone. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:The extra-tropical cyclones have frontal origin and can originate over the land and sea. Whereas the tropical cyclones originate only over the seas and on reaching the land they dissipate. The energy that intensifies the tropical cyclone comes from the condensation process in the towering cumulonimbus clouds, surrounding the centre. With continuous supply of moisture from the sea, the storm is further strengthened. On reaching the land the moisture supply is cut off and the storm dissipates. The extra tropical cyclone affects a much larger area as compared to the tropical cyclone.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
Consider the following statements: Nominated members of the Parliament do not participate in the elections of the President but they vote for the election of Vice President. Nominated members vote in the impeachment of both President and Vice-President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Statement 1 is correct: Only elected members of Parliament vote in President's election. While both elected and nominated participate in the election of Vice-President. Statement 2 is correct: Nominated members vote in the impeachment/removal of both President and Vice-President.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: Nominated members of the Parliament do not participate in the elections of the President but they vote for the election of Vice President. Nominated members vote in the impeachment of both President and Vice-President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Statement 1 is correct: Only elected members of Parliament vote in President's election. While both elected and nominated participate in the election of Vice-President. Statement 2 is correct: Nominated members vote in the impeachment/removal of both President and Vice-President.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:c
|
Consider the following statements: While the basic lava is found at constructive plate margins, acidic lava is found at destructive plate margins. While the basic lava has lower silica content and relatively gentle eruptions, acidic lava has higher silicon content and violent eruptions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
Basaltic or basic lava has a low viscosity and a lower silica content and is found at constructive plate margins (e.g. Mid-atlantic ridge) and also hot spots. Eruptions are frequent but relatively gentle. Andesitic or acidic lava is viscous and has a higher silica content and is found at at destructive plate margins (e.g. Island arcs). Eruptions are less frequent but are violent.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following statements: While the basic lava is found at constructive plate margins, acidic lava is found at destructive plate margins. While the basic lava has lower silica content and relatively gentle eruptions, acidic lava has higher silicon content and violent eruptions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:c##Explaination:Basaltic or basic lava has a low viscosity and a lower silica content and is found at constructive plate margins (e.g. Mid-atlantic ridge) and also hot spots. Eruptions are frequent but relatively gentle. Andesitic or acidic lava is viscous and has a higher silica content and is found at at destructive plate margins (e.g. Island arcs). Eruptions are less frequent but are violent.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:c
|
Which of the following Earthquake waves can be observed at the inner core of the Earth? P-wave S-wave Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The 'S' wave cannot pass through a liquid and are transmitted only through a rigid or a solid body. Due to this, they are not able to pass through outer core and are therefore, not observed at the inner core. The 'P' waves however, pass though the inner core. In fact, the velocity of the 'P' waves passing through inner core again increases as compared to their passage through the outer core.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following Earthquake waves can be observed at the inner core of the Earth? P-wave S-wave Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The 'S' wave cannot pass through a liquid and are transmitted only through a rigid or a solid body. Due to this, they are not able to pass through outer core and are therefore, not observed at the inner core. The 'P' waves however, pass though the inner core. In fact, the velocity of the 'P' waves passing through inner core again increases as compared to their passage through the outer core.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
With reference to Tribal Advisory Council established under fifth schedule, which of the statements is correct?
|
Tribal Advisory Council is established in the states having scheduled areas only.
|
Tribal Advisory Council is established in the states having non-scheduled areas only.
|
Tribal Advisory Council is established in the states having both scheduled and non-scheduled areas on the recommendation of the Governor.
|
Tribal Advisory Council is established in the states having scheduled areas only.
|
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. As per Para 4(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, there shall be Tribal Advisory Council in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President should directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes in non-Scheduled Areas therein. It advises on such matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State as may be referred to them by the Governor. No regulation shall be made unless the Governor making the regulations has, in the case where there is a TAC for the State, consulted such Council.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Tribal Advisory Council established under fifth schedule, which of the statements is correct?##Option_A: Tribal Advisory Council is established in the states having scheduled areas only.###Option_B: Tribal Advisory Council is established in the states having non-scheduled areas only.##Option_C: Tribal Advisory Council is established in the states having both scheduled and non-scheduled areas on the recommendation of the Governor.##Option_D: Tribal Advisory Council is established in the states having scheduled areas only.##Answer:d##Explaination:The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. As per Para 4(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, there shall be Tribal Advisory Council in each State having Scheduled Areas therein and, if the President should directs, also in any State having Scheduled Tribes in non-Scheduled Areas therein. It advises on such matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State as may be referred to them by the Governor. No regulation shall be made unless the Governor making the regulations has, in the case where there is a TAC for the State, consulted such Council.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:d
|
Consider the following pairs: Book Theme 1. Mudrarakshsa : Story of rise of Chandragupta Maurya to power 2. Mrichhakatikam : Story of power struggle between two Aryan tribes 3. Abhijnana-shakuntalam : Love story of King Dushyant Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Mudrarakshasa is a historical play in Sanskrit by Vishakhadatta that narrates the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya (r.c.324 - c.297 BCE) to power in India. Mṛcchakaṭika (The Little Clay Cart) is a ten-act Sanskrit drama attributed to Sudraka. The play is set in the ancient city of Ujjayini during the reign of the King Pālaka, near the end of the Pradyota dynasty that made up the first quarter of the fifth century BC. The central story is that of noble but impoverished young Brahmin, Charudatta, who falls in love with a wealthy courtesan or nagarvadhu, Vasantasena. Abhijnanashakuntalam, is a well-known Sanskrit play by Kālidāsa, dramatizing the story of Shakuntala and king Dushyant told in the epic Mahabharata.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geography
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Consider the following pairs: Book Theme 1. Mudrarakshsa : Story of rise of Chandragupta Maurya to power 2. Mrichhakatikam : Story of power struggle between two Aryan tribes 3. Abhijnana-shakuntalam : Love story of King Dushyant Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Mudrarakshasa is a historical play in Sanskrit by Vishakhadatta that narrates the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya (r.c.324 - c.297 BCE) to power in India. Mṛcchakaṭika (The Little Clay Cart) is a ten-act Sanskrit drama attributed to Sudraka. The play is set in the ancient city of Ujjayini during the reign of the King Pālaka, near the end of the Pradyota dynasty that made up the first quarter of the fifth century BC. The central story is that of noble but impoverished young Brahmin, Charudatta, who falls in love with a wealthy courtesan or nagarvadhu, Vasantasena. Abhijnanashakuntalam, is a well-known Sanskrit play by Kālidāsa, dramatizing the story of Shakuntala and king Dushyant told in the epic Mahabharata.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geography##Answer:b
|
Which of the following is/are common between British parliamentary system and Indian Parliamentary system? Elected Executive Head System of collective responsibility Bicameral legislature Parliamentary sovereignty Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 4 only
|
1, 2 and 3 only
|
The executive head in British Parliamentary system is not elected like President of India. System of collective responsibility is a feature of both Indian and British parliamentary system along with bicameral legislature (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in India and House of Commons and House of Lords in Britain). However, Parliamentary sovereignty is a feature of British polity and not of Indian Polity.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following is/are common between British parliamentary system and Indian Parliamentary system? Elected Executive Head System of collective responsibility Bicameral legislature Parliamentary sovereignty Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1, 2 and 3 only###Option_B: 2 and 3 only##Option_C: 1 and 4 only##Option_D: 1, 2 and 3 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The executive head in British Parliamentary system is not elected like President of India. System of collective responsibility is a feature of both Indian and British parliamentary system along with bicameral legislature (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in India and House of Commons and House of Lords in Britain). However, Parliamentary sovereignty is a feature of British polity and not of Indian Polity.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
Recently in Kashmir Valley Russian poplars trees were cut down on a large scale. What is the reason behind this?
|
It is an invasive tree which has led to the decline of many species.
|
It is perceived that the pollen of the tree is main cause of allergies.
|
It is being cut down to fulfill the timber and fuel requirements of people.
|
It is an invasive tree which has led to the decline of many species.
|
In 2014, the Jammu and Kashmir High Court first banned the sale, purchase and plantation of female Russian poplars (Populus deltoides) following a public outcry and medical warnings that their cotton shedding laden with pollen, during late spring was the main cause of allergies in Srinagar. Thereafter, lakhs of poplar trees were cut down across the Valley. Many experts believe that it is a misinformed decision and Poplar-induced allergy stands at number six as a cause of allergy. While dust remains the main cause, it is followed by lawn grass, deodar, kikaar and chinar pollen.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Recently in Kashmir Valley Russian poplars trees were cut down on a large scale. What is the reason behind this?##Option_A: It is an invasive tree which has led to the decline of many species.###Option_B: It is perceived that the pollen of the tree is main cause of allergies.##Option_C: It is being cut down to fulfill the timber and fuel requirements of people.##Option_D: It is an invasive tree which has led to the decline of many species.##Answer:b##Explaination:In 2014, the Jammu and Kashmir High Court first banned the sale, purchase and plantation of female Russian poplars (Populus deltoides) following a public outcry and medical warnings that their cotton shedding laden with pollen, during late spring was the main cause of allergies in Srinagar. Thereafter, lakhs of poplar trees were cut down across the Valley. Many experts believe that it is a misinformed decision and Poplar-induced allergy stands at number six as a cause of allergy. While dust remains the main cause, it is followed by lawn grass, deodar, kikaar and chinar pollen.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:b
|
"Price elasticity of demand" is a measure of the relationship between a change in the quantity demanded of a particular good and a change in its price. With reference to "Price elasticity of demand", which among the following statements are correct? If the price elasticity of demand is equal to 0, demand is perfectly inelastic. If the price elasticity of demand is greater than 1, demand is elastic. Necessities tend to have inelastic demand while luxuries are more elastic. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
Price elasticity of demand is a measure of the relationship between a change in the quantity demanded of a particular good and a change in its price. Price elasticity of demand is a term in economics often used when discussing price sensitivity. The formula for calculating price elasticity of demand is: Price Elasticity of Demand = % Change in Quantity Demanded / % Change in Price Price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of demand to changes in price for a particular good. If the price elasticity of demand is equal to 0, demand is perfectly inelastic (i.e., demand does not change when price changes). Values between zero and one indicate that demand is inelastic (this occurs when the percent change in demand is less than the percent change in price). When price elasticity of demand equals one, demand is unit elastic (the percent change in demand is equal to the percent change in price). Finally, if the value is greater than one, demand is elastic (demand is affected to a greater degree by changes in price). The degree to which the quantity demanded for a good changes in response to a change in price can be influenced by a number of factors. Factors include the number of close substitutes (demand is more elastic if there are close substitutes) and whether the good is a necessity or luxury (necessities tend to have inelastic demand while luxuries are more elastic).
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Anthropology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:"Price elasticity of demand" is a measure of the relationship between a change in the quantity demanded of a particular good and a change in its price. With reference to "Price elasticity of demand", which among the following statements are correct? If the price elasticity of demand is equal to 0, demand is perfectly inelastic. If the price elasticity of demand is greater than 1, demand is elastic. Necessities tend to have inelastic demand while luxuries are more elastic. Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:d##Explaination:Price elasticity of demand is a measure of the relationship between a change in the quantity demanded of a particular good and a change in its price. Price elasticity of demand is a term in economics often used when discussing price sensitivity. The formula for calculating price elasticity of demand is: Price Elasticity of Demand = % Change in Quantity Demanded / % Change in Price Price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of demand to changes in price for a particular good. If the price elasticity of demand is equal to 0, demand is perfectly inelastic (i.e., demand does not change when price changes). Values between zero and one indicate that demand is inelastic (this occurs when the percent change in demand is less than the percent change in price). When price elasticity of demand equals one, demand is unit elastic (the percent change in demand is equal to the percent change in price). Finally, if the value is greater than one, demand is elastic (demand is affected to a greater degree by changes in price). The degree to which the quantity demanded for a good changes in response to a change in price can be influenced by a number of factors. Factors include the number of close substitutes (demand is more elastic if there are close substitutes) and whether the good is a necessity or luxury (necessities tend to have inelastic demand while luxuries are more elastic).##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Anthropology##Answer:d
|
The Directive Principles of State Policy are the constitutional recommendations to which among the following? Legislature Executive Judiciary Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The phrase 'Directive Principles of State Policy' denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters. According to Article 36, the term 'State' in Part IV has the same meaning as in Part III dealing with Fundamental Rights. Therefore, it includes the legislative and executive organs of the central and state governments, all local authorities and all other public authorities in the country.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:The Directive Principles of State Policy are the constitutional recommendations to which among the following? Legislature Executive Judiciary Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The phrase 'Directive Principles of State Policy' denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters. According to Article 36, the term 'State' in Part IV has the same meaning as in Part III dealing with Fundamental Rights. Therefore, it includes the legislative and executive organs of the central and state governments, all local authorities and all other public authorities in the country.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
With regard to the significance of Fundamental Duties as enshrined in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. The Parliament can provide for the imposition of appropriate punishment for failure to fulfill any of the Fundamental Duties. They extend to both citizens and foreigners residing in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
3 only
|
1 only
|
They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a fundamental duty, it may consider such law to be 'reasonable' in relation to Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality. The Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover, there is not legal sanction against their violation. However, the Parliament is free to enforce them by suitable legislation. In other words, they are enforceable by law. Hence, the Parliament can provide for the imposition of appropriate penalty or punishment for failure to fulfil any of them. Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners, the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With regard to the significance of Fundamental Duties as enshrined in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements: They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. The Parliament can provide for the imposition of appropriate punishment for failure to fulfill any of the Fundamental Duties. They extend to both citizens and foreigners residing in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a fundamental duty, it may consider such law to be 'reasonable' in relation to Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality. The Constitution does not provide for their direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover, there is not legal sanction against their violation. However, the Parliament is free to enforce them by suitable legislation. In other words, they are enforceable by law. Hence, the Parliament can provide for the imposition of appropriate penalty or punishment for failure to fulfil any of them. Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners, the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Animal Husbandry & Vetinary Science##Answer:b
|
We often see that the tooth pastes contain ‘Sorbitol’. What is the function of sorbitol?
|
It acts as an antioxidant in the paste.
|
It is used to enhance the shelf life of paste.
|
It is used as an artificial sweetener in the paste.
|
It acts as an antioxidant in the paste.
|
Sorbitol is a naturally occurring sugar alcohol, slightly less sweet and less caloric than regular sugar. It occurs naturally in prunes, pears and some berries and is also available in solution as a medicinal laxative. Many low-sugar processed foods and gums contain sorbitol. In small amounts, sorbitol appears safe for children. In larger amounts, or in children with kidney disorders, sorbitol can cause problems.
|
c
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:We often see that the tooth pastes contain ‘Sorbitol’. What is the function of sorbitol?##Option_A: It acts as an antioxidant in the paste.###Option_B: It is used to enhance the shelf life of paste.##Option_C: It is used as an artificial sweetener in the paste.##Option_D: It acts as an antioxidant in the paste.##Answer:c##Explaination:Sorbitol is a naturally occurring sugar alcohol, slightly less sweet and less caloric than regular sugar. It occurs naturally in prunes, pears and some berries and is also available in solution as a medicinal laxative. Many low-sugar processed foods and gums contain sorbitol. In small amounts, sorbitol appears safe for children. In larger amounts, or in children with kidney disorders, sorbitol can cause problems.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:c
|
Which of the following soil types is rich in organic matter?
|
Black Soil
|
Red Soil
|
Laterite Soil
|
Black Soil
|
In general, Indian soils are poor in organic matter. Black soils: They are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. They also contain potash. But they lack in phosphorous, nitrogen and organic matter. Red Soils: They are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus. Laterite Soils: These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following soil types is rich in organic matter?##Option_A: Black Soil###Option_B: Red Soil##Option_C: Laterite Soil##Option_D: Black Soil##Answer:d##Explaination:In general, Indian soils are poor in organic matter. Black soils: They are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. They also contain potash. But they lack in phosphorous, nitrogen and organic matter. Red Soils: They are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus. Laterite Soils: These soils are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium, while iron oxide and potash are in excess. Humus content of the soil is removed fast by bacteria that thrives well in high temperature.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:d
|
With reference to Plan Balkan/ Dickie Bird Plan, consider the following statements: It envisaged handing over the country to Congress except the muslim provinces of North West. The plan was formulated due to the failure of the Cabinet mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
2 only
|
Both 1 and 2
|
1 only
|
The Dickie Bird plan was the brain child of Lord Mountbatten. It was also known as ‘Plan Balkan’ as it was intended to balkanize India into small parts to suit British imperialist designs. The Plan was conceived between March and May 1947. The reason was Mount-Batten felt that the Cabinet Mission Plan had become untenable. In this alternative proposal there were following points: This envisaged transfer of power to separate provinces (or to confederations, if formed before the transfer), with the Bengal and Punjab assemblies being given the options to vote for partition of their provinces, the various units thus formed along with princely states rendered independent by the lapse of paramountcy, would then have the choice of joining India, Pakistan, or remaining separate. The plan was quickly abandoned, however, when Nehru reacted violently against it, and the VP Menon-Patel suggestion of transfer to two central governments, India and Pakistan, on the basis of grant of Dominion Status was taken up instead. Handing over the country to Congress except the Muslim provinces of North West and north east were provided in the Wavell's Breakdown Plan. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
General Studies
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Plan Balkan/ Dickie Bird Plan, consider the following statements: It envisaged handing over the country to Congress except the muslim provinces of North West. The plan was formulated due to the failure of the Cabinet mission. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 2 only##Option_C: Both 1 and 2##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The Dickie Bird plan was the brain child of Lord Mountbatten. It was also known as ‘Plan Balkan’ as it was intended to balkanize India into small parts to suit British imperialist designs. The Plan was conceived between March and May 1947. The reason was Mount-Batten felt that the Cabinet Mission Plan had become untenable. In this alternative proposal there were following points: This envisaged transfer of power to separate provinces (or to confederations, if formed before the transfer), with the Bengal and Punjab assemblies being given the options to vote for partition of their provinces, the various units thus formed along with princely states rendered independent by the lapse of paramountcy, would then have the choice of joining India, Pakistan, or remaining separate. The plan was quickly abandoned, however, when Nehru reacted violently against it, and the VP Menon-Patel suggestion of transfer to two central governments, India and Pakistan, on the basis of grant of Dominion Status was taken up instead. Handing over the country to Congress except the Muslim provinces of North West and north east were provided in the Wavell's Breakdown Plan. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:General Studies##Answer:b
|
Lumbering is the main occupation of the people in which of the following regions?
|
Taiga Region
|
Polar Region
|
Mediterranean Region
|
Taiga Region
|
Lumbering is the main occupation of the people in Taiga region in areas which are easily accessible. Cleared forests are utilized systematically. The logs are used for the manufacture of wood pulp, paper, synthetic fibres and furniture.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Agriculture
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Lumbering is the main occupation of the people in which of the following regions?##Option_A: Taiga Region###Option_B: Polar Region##Option_C: Mediterranean Region##Option_D: Taiga Region##Answer:a##Explaination:Lumbering is the main occupation of the people in Taiga region in areas which are easily accessible. Cleared forests are utilized systematically. The logs are used for the manufacture of wood pulp, paper, synthetic fibres and furniture.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Agriculture##Answer:a
|
Department of Space has recently reported that 34 satellites are operational in our country. Arrange the following categories of satellites in the decreasing order of their number: Earth Observation Satellites Communication Satellites Space Science Satellites Navigational Satellites Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1-3-2-4
|
2-3-1-4
|
1-4-2-3
|
1-3-2-4
|
Currently, 34 satellites are operational in the country comprising of: 13 Communication Satellites namely, INSAT-3A, INSAT-3C, INSAT-4A, INSAT-4B, INSAT-4CR, GSAT-6, GSAT-7, GSAT-8, GSAT-10, GSAT-12, GSAT-14, GSAT-15 and GSAT-16. 12 Earth Observation Satellites namely, Resourcesat-2, RISAT-1, RISAT-2, Cartosat-1, Cartosat-2, Cartosat-2A, Cartosat-2B, Oceansat-2, SARAL, Kalpana-1, Megha-Tropiques and INSAT-3D. 7 Navigational Satellites namely, IRNSS-1A, 1B, 1C, 1D, 1E, 1F & 1G. 2 Space science Satellites namely Mars Orbiter Mission & Astrosat.
|
d
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Economics
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Department of Space has recently reported that 34 satellites are operational in our country. Arrange the following categories of satellites in the decreasing order of their number: Earth Observation Satellites Communication Satellites Space Science Satellites Navigational Satellites Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1-3-2-4###Option_B: 2-3-1-4##Option_C: 1-4-2-3##Option_D: 1-3-2-4##Answer:d##Explaination:Currently, 34 satellites are operational in the country comprising of: 13 Communication Satellites namely, INSAT-3A, INSAT-3C, INSAT-4A, INSAT-4B, INSAT-4CR, GSAT-6, GSAT-7, GSAT-8, GSAT-10, GSAT-12, GSAT-14, GSAT-15 and GSAT-16. 12 Earth Observation Satellites namely, Resourcesat-2, RISAT-1, RISAT-2, Cartosat-1, Cartosat-2, Cartosat-2A, Cartosat-2B, Oceansat-2, SARAL, Kalpana-1, Megha-Tropiques and INSAT-3D. 7 Navigational Satellites namely, IRNSS-1A, 1B, 1C, 1D, 1E, 1F & 1G. 2 Space science Satellites namely Mars Orbiter Mission & Astrosat.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Economics##Answer:d
|
With reference to Mughal School of Painting, consider the following statements: It represents a synthesis between Indian and the Persian styles of painting. It is primarily aristocratic and secular. Large number of paintings under Mughal School were commissioned under Aurangzeb. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
|
1 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
2 and 3 only
|
1 only
|
The origin of the Mughal School of Painting is considered to be a landmark in the history of painting in India. With the establishment of the Mughal empire, the Mughal School of painting originated in the reign of Akbar in 1560 A.D. Emperor Akbar was keenly interested in the art of painting and architecture. A large number of Indian artists from all over India were recruited to work under the Persian masters. The Mughal style evolved as a result of a happy synthesis of the indigenous Indian style of painting and the Safavid school of Persian painting. The Mughal style is marked by supple naturalism based on close observation of nature and fine and delicate drawing. It is of an high aesthetic merit. It is primarily aristocratic and secular. Aurangzeb was a puritan and therefore did not encourage art. Painting declined during his period and lost much of its earlier quality. A large number of court painters migrated to the provincial courts. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:With reference to Mughal School of Painting, consider the following statements: It represents a synthesis between Indian and the Persian styles of painting. It is primarily aristocratic and secular. Large number of paintings under Mughal School were commissioned under Aurangzeb. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?##Option_A: 1 only###Option_B: 1 and 2 only##Option_C: 2 and 3 only##Option_D: 1 only##Answer:b##Explaination:The origin of the Mughal School of Painting is considered to be a landmark in the history of painting in India. With the establishment of the Mughal empire, the Mughal School of painting originated in the reign of Akbar in 1560 A.D. Emperor Akbar was keenly interested in the art of painting and architecture. A large number of Indian artists from all over India were recruited to work under the Persian masters. The Mughal style evolved as a result of a happy synthesis of the indigenous Indian style of painting and the Safavid school of Persian painting. The Mughal style is marked by supple naturalism based on close observation of nature and fine and delicate drawing. It is of an high aesthetic merit. It is primarily aristocratic and secular. Aurangzeb was a puritan and therefore did not encourage art. Painting declined during his period and lost much of its earlier quality. A large number of court painters migrated to the provincial courts. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
Which of the following banks have been approved for merger with State Bank of India? Bharatiya Mahila Bank State Bank of Hyderabad IDBI Bank Select the correct answer using the code given below.
|
1 and 2 only
|
1 and 3 only
|
2 only
|
1 and 2 only
|
The Union cabinet has approved the merger of the five subsidiaries of State Bank of India (SBI) with the parent, as the Indian banking system moves into a phase of consolidation. The cabinet approved the merger of the subsidiaries-State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Patiala and State Bank of Travancore- and Bharatiya Mahila Bank Ltd with SBI.
|
a
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Chemistry
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:Which of the following banks have been approved for merger with State Bank of India? Bharatiya Mahila Bank State Bank of Hyderabad IDBI Bank Select the correct answer using the code given below.##Option_A: 1 and 2 only###Option_B: 1 and 3 only##Option_C: 2 only##Option_D: 1 and 2 only##Answer:a##Explaination:The Union cabinet has approved the merger of the five subsidiaries of State Bank of India (SBI) with the parent, as the Indian banking system moves into a phase of consolidation. The cabinet approved the merger of the subsidiaries-State Bank of Bikaner and Jaipur, State Bank of Hyderabad, State Bank of Mysore, State Bank of Patiala and State Bank of Travancore- and Bharatiya Mahila Bank Ltd with SBI.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Chemistry##Answer:a
|
What do the terms "alpna", "mandna", and "kollam" refers to?
|
embroidery style
|
decorative designs on walls and floors
|
poses in Bharatnatyam
|
embroidery style
|
The practice of decorating floor is known with different names as Alpana or Alpona in Bengal, Aripana in Bihar, Jhuniti in Orissa, Mandna in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, Salhiya in Gujarat, Rangoli in Maharashtra, Muggu in Andhra Pradesh and Kalamezhuthu, Kolam in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala and in Uttar Pradesh it is known as Chowkpurna or Aripan.
|
b
|
no_topic_assigned
|
Geology
|
This is some mcq of UPSC standerd ##Question:What do the terms "alpna", "mandna", and "kollam" refers to?##Option_A: embroidery style###Option_B: decorative designs on walls and floors##Option_C: poses in Bharatnatyam##Option_D: embroidery style##Answer:b##Explaination:The practice of decorating floor is known with different names as Alpana or Alpona in Bengal, Aripana in Bihar, Jhuniti in Orissa, Mandna in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, Salhiya in Gujarat, Rangoli in Maharashtra, Muggu in Andhra Pradesh and Kalamezhuthu, Kolam in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala and in Uttar Pradesh it is known as Chowkpurna or Aripan.##Topic:no_topic_assigned##Subject:Geology##Answer:b
|
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