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Which of the following anti-malarial drug is gameticidal for all species of Plasmodium?
[ "Quinine", "Primaquine", "Chloroquine", "Aesunate" ]
B
PRIMAQUINE - Kills Gametes of All 4 Species. So It is used for preventing the transmission of the malaria. Chloroquine and quinine can kill the gametes of mainly P vivax. Exo-erythrocytic stage: Radical cure of malaria PRIMAQUINE - given for 2 weeks TAFENOQUINE - Single Dose Erythrocytic stage:These drugs are used to t...
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Predominant blood supply to the supraduodenal bile duct is derrived from:
[ "Vessels that run upward along the bile duct from the duodenal end of the duct such as the retroduodenal and the gastroduodenal aeries", "Vessels that run downward along the bile duct from the hepatic end of the duct such as the right hepatic aery", "Vessels that arise from the hepatic aery proper as it runs up...
A
A i.e. Vessels that run upward along the bile duct from the duodenal end of the duct such as the retroduodenal and the gastroduodenal aeriesPredominant (60%) blood supply to supraduodenal bile duct is derived from ascending (running upward) branches from retroduodenal branch of gastroduodenal aery. These branches run u...
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H.Pylori causes which of the following anemia -
[ "Iron deficiency anemia", "Sideroblastic anemia", "Hemolytic anemia", "Aplastic anemia" ]
A
H.Pylori infection leads to peptic ulcer disease in human. Long standing peptic ulcer causes gastro intestinal bleeding and blood loss. If the blood loss exceeds ceain levels it may lead to iron defficiency anemia Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1013
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An endocrinologist decided to give a 7 year old boy testosterone therapy and continued it till puberty. This therapy is likely to:
[ "Increase adult stature", "Reduce adult stature", "Have no effect on adult stature", "Cause hypertrophy of penis" ]
B
null
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Which laser is used in the management of after cataracts –
[ "Argon", "Krypton", "Nd–YAG", "Excimer" ]
C
Thin after cataract can be cleared centrally by Nd : YAG laser capsulotomy.
train
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Chylous ascities is caused by all of the following except:
[ "Colloid carcinoma of stomach.", "Tuberculosis", "Trauma.", "Nephrotic syndrome." ]
A
Answer is A (Colloid carcinoma of stomach): Colloid carcinoma of stomach causes mucinous ascities - Harrisons 16'h/ 245 Chylous Ascitis refers to a turbid milley or crcamy peritoneal fluid due to the presence of thoracic or intestinal lymph. It is most often a result of lymphatic obstruction from the cause mentioned be...
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Raltegravir can cause ?
[ "Hypokalemia", "Hypocalcemia", "Hyperkalemia", "Hypercalcemia" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hyperkalemia Myopathy (muscle pain, tiredness) and rhabdomyolysis. Skin reactions. Allergic reactions. Liver problems. Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS). Nonspecific : nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, headache. No textbook has mentioned any electrolyte abnormality as a side effect of ralte...
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Antischkow cells seen in all except
[ "Systemic sclerosis", "Rheumatic Fever", "Iron def Anemia", "Recurrent aphthous stomatitis" ]
A
Anitschkoff cell are also k/a caterpillar cell because their nuclear material is clumped in a wavy form. Conditions it can be seen in are: Rheumatic Fever Recurrent aphthous stomatitis Iron deficiency anemia Megaloblastic anemia Sickle cell anemia ANITSCKOFF CELLS. Systemic sclerosis is characterized by: (1) chronic in...
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Objective methods for checking the refractive error are all except
[ "Ophthalmoscopy", "Retinoscopy", "Refractometry", "Keratometry" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ophthalmoscopy The procedure of determining and correcting refractive errors is termed as refraction. The refraction comprises two complementary methods : ? A) Objective methods : Objective methods of refraction include :- (i) Retinoscopy, (ii) Refractometry, (iii) Keratometry. B) Subjective methods :...
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Keratomalacia (REPEATED question)
[ "Occurs due to vitamin A deficiency", "Relatively benign condition", "First feature of vitamin A deficiency", "Also seen in retinitis pigmentosa" ]
A
Night blindness is a first feature of Vitamin A deficiency and is also a feature of retinitis pigmentosa Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 468
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A hypeensive patient on medication with beta blocker develops severe bradycardia on taking medicines. Which of the following is least likely to be the responsible agent?
[ "Metoprolol", "Nadolol", "Pindolol", "Atenolol" ]
C
Pindolol has intrinsic sympathomimetic acitivity and therefore has lesser risk of causing bradycardia Beta-Blockers with Intrinsic Sympathomimetic Activity (ISA) Preferred in the patients prone to develop severe bradycardia with b blocker therapy. However, these drugs are less useful in angina (because of stimulation o...
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Which of the following does not form a boundary of the triangle of auscultation?
[ "Serratus anterior", "Latissimus dorsi", "Trapezius", "Scapula" ]
A
Boundaries of triangle of auscultation:Medially by trapeziusLaterally by scapula and rhomboid majorInferiorly by latissimus dorsiThis triangle allows lung sounds to be clearly heard at 6th intercostal space because no muscle intervenes between skin and rib cage when shoulders are pulled forward.
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Macular sparing is seen in the affection of-
[ "Optic nerve", "Optic tract", "Optic chiasma", "Occipital lobe" ]
D
Occipital lobe. Lesions of the visual coex. Congruous homonymous hemianopia (usually sparing the macula, is a feature of occlusion of posterior cerebral aery supplying the anterior pa of occipital coex. Congruous homonymous macular defect occurs in lesions of the tip of the occipital coex following head injury or gun s...
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A patient develops hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy following sexual contact, 3 weeks back. The best test to rule out HIV infection is
[ "ELISA", "Western blot", "p24 Ag", "Lymph node biopsy" ]
C
the p24 antigen is the earliest marker for HIV infections. Acute HIV syndrome develops 3-6 weeks after the infection. The acute HIV syndrome represents the initial or primary response of an immunocompetent adult to the HIV infection. It is characterized by a high level of virus production, viremia and widespread seedin...
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After the division of testicular vein for treatment of varicose vein, venous drainage of testes is by ?
[ "Cremasteric veins", "Dorsal vein of penis", "Pampiniform plexus", "Internal pudendal vein" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cremasteric veins
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A pregnant lady presented with painless bleeding in the 3rd trimester. Most common cause will be
[ "Placenta previa", "Abruptio placentae", "Vesicular mole", "none" ]
A
Ans a Ref: Sheila balakrishna obs, page 157Clinical features of placenta previaSymptomsClassical presentation of painless antepartum haemorrhage. Recurrent initial bleeding is unusually not severeSignsPallor proportionate to amount of bleedingSize of the uterus correspond to period of amenorrhoeaUterus soft, non tender...
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Regarding suckling reflex, which of the following is true
[ "Has afferent hormonal and efferent neuronal components", "Increases placental lactogen secretion", "Increases the release of dopamine from the arcuate nucleus", "Triggers the release of oxytocin by stimulating the supraoptic nuclei" ]
D
When the baby suckles, neural signals from the nipple travel nerves to the spinal cord and up to the brain (afferent component), which triggers the release of oxytocin from the supraoptic nuclei (efferent component).
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Narrowest part of larynx in children-
[ "Supraglottic", "Subglottic", "Glottic region", "None" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Subglottico Narrowest part of larynx in children - Subglottic region,o Narrowest part of larynx in adults - Rima glottidis (glottis)
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Which cranial nerve is not transmitted by superior orbital fissure?
[ "2", "3", "4", "5" ]
A
Ans. A 2Ref: Netter's Clinical Anatomy, 3rd ed. pg. 442Structures transmitted via the superior orbital fissure* Cranial nerve III, IV, VI (ophthalmic nerve) and VI* Inferior ophthalmic veinThe optic nerve is transmitted via the optic canal. The optic canal transmits optic nerve, ophthalmic artery and central retinal ve...
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Exchange of trace evidence occurs, When a person comes in contact with other person . This principle is called?
[ "Locard's principle", "Quetelet's rule", "Petty's principle", "None of the above" ]
A
Locard's principle of Exchange  It States that " When two objects come into contact with each other, there is always transfer of some material between them". This is helpful in crime investigations, especially in sexual offences.
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55-year-old lady, both upper limb, both lower limb, perineum 3rd degree burns. How much fluid will you give in first 8 hours?
[ "6710 mL", "8120 mL", "9120 mL", "10,120 mL" ]
A
Ans. (a)6710mL Ref: Bailey and Love 27th edition, page 625Parkland formula =4x weight in Kg x TBSATotal body surface area is calculated based on Lund andBrowder Chart in this case:So* Upper limb =1.5+1.5+2+1.5+1.5+2=10%for each upper limb* Lower limb =4.75+3.5+1.75+4.75+3.5+1.75=20%.for each lower limb* So total burns ...
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Patient with leprosy, smear sample taken show 10- 100 bacilli in one field. Bacterial index is:
[ "1+", "2+", "3+", "4+" ]
D
Bacterial index is calculated by counting the number of bacilli in 100 fields under oil immersion Grade Number of bacilli 1+ 1 to 10 bacilli per 100 fields 2+ 1 to 10 bacilli per 10 fields 3+ 1 to 10 bacilli per field 4+ 10 to 100 bacilli per field 5+ 100 to 1000 bacilli per field 6+ Multiple clumps of bacilli present
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Cognisable offense comes under which section of Cr.P.C. -
[ "2C", "2B", "1A", "None" ]
A
(S.2 (c), Cr.P.C.)It is an offence in which a police officer can arrest a person without warrant from the Magistrate.eg:rape, murder, dowry death, rash or negligent act etc. Ref:The Symopsis of Forensic medicine& Toxicology (Dr.K.S.Narayan Reddy) pg no-5,28th edition.
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Posterior relation of neck of pancreas
[ "IVC", "Origin of porntal vein", "Aoa", "Common bile duct" ]
B
The frontal vein (supratrochlear vein) begins on the forehead in a venous plexus which communicates with the frontal branches of the superficial temporal vein. The veins converge to form a single trunk, which runs downward near the middle line of the forehead parallel with the vein of the opposite side. The two veins a...
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All of the following statements are true about qSOFA except :
[ "qSOFA score is used for acute pancreatitis", "RR >22/minute,Altered mental status,SBP<110 mmHg", "Score of 3 has >10% of moality", "Score of 1 has 2-3 % of moality" ]
B
qSOFA used for Acute Pancreatitis. Pneumonic: QRS Mental Status Quick Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (SOFA) Score qSOFA (Quick SOFA) Criteria Points Respiratory rate >=22/min 1 Change in mental status 1 Systolic BP <=100 mm Hg 1 Interpretation Score Moality 0 <1% 1 2-3% >=2 >=10%
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The following is usually the first sign of pubey in girls ?
[ "Onset of menstruation", "Appearance of pubic hair", "Change in voice", "Increase in breast size" ]
D
Adolescence: Stage of transmission from childhood to adulthood. During this stage, there will be an appearance of sexual characters with changes in cognition and psychology. Adolescence refers to this entire process, pubey refers to the physical aspect. Age 10-19 year is considered as a period of adolescence and pubey ...
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Amino acid which lacks chirality is
[ "Lysine", "Leucine", "Histidine", "Glycine" ]
D
The α-carbon of amino acids has four different groups attached to it and so is a chiral or asymmetric carbon. The only amino acid which does not have four different groups attached to α-carbon is glycine, i.e. glycine does not have chiral carbon or chirality.
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Strychnine acts by inhibiting: COMEDK 15
[ "GABA", "Glycine", "Acetylcholine", "Dopamine" ]
B
Ans. Glycine
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ABO blood group inheritance is an example of:
[ "Codominance", "Mitochondrial inheritence", "Allelic exclusion", "Sex-linked Inheritance" ]
A
When both of the alleles of a gene pair contribute to the phenotype, this is called as codominance. Good examples of codominant inheritance are: Histocompatibility Blood group antigens
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Sclerotic bodies are present in
[ "Mycetoma", "Chromoblastomycosis", "Sporotrichosis", "Rhinosporidiasis 565" ]
B
Chromoblastomycosis- sclerotic bodies-yeast like bodies with septae. they can be demonstrated in KOH mount. Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 551
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Which of the following is not anti-apoptotic gene?
[ "BCL-XL", "MCL-1", "BCL-XS", "BCL-2" ]
C
BCL-XS is pro-apoptotic gene.
train
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Macrophage tropic strains of HIV use ?
[ "CCR5", "CXCR4", "CCR4", "None" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CCR5 Receptors for HIV The receptor for the virus is CD4 antigen, and therefore the virus may infect any cell bearing the CD4 antigen on the surface this is primarily the CD4 + (Helper) T Lymphocyte Specific binding of virus to CD4 receptor is by the envelope glycoprotein gp-I 20. However, for infecti...
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Obturator nerve arises from
[ "Ventral division of L2 L3 L4", "Dorsal division of L2 L3 L4", "Ventral rami of L1 L2", "Dorsal rami of L1 L2" ]
A
(Ventral rami of L2 L3 L4) (171, 320-BDC-2 4th)OBTURATOR NERVE - is a branch of lumbar plexus, it arises from ventral division of L2 L3 L4 segments of spinal cords.Branches of obturator nerve : Anterior divisionPosterior divisionMuscularPectineus, adductor longus, adductor brevis, gracilisObturator extemus, adductor ma...
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All of the following diseases have a consistent symptom of tinnitus, except -
[ "Meniere's disease", "CSOM", "Otosclerosis", "Mastoiditis" ]
D
null
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One advantage of a live attenuated vaccine is?
[ "It does not produce persistent infections", "The viral strain does not reve to virulent forms", "It has an unlimited shelf life", "It induces a wide spectrum of antibodies" ]
D
An advantage of live attenuated vaccines is that they induce a wide spectrum of antibodies. Disadvantages include the possible production of persistent infections, reversion to highly virulent strains and a limited shelf life.
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Which type of Human papilloma virus is most commonly associated with Cervical cancer ?
[ "HPV 16", "HPV 24", "HPV 32", "HPV 36" ]
A
Genital HPV infection is extremely common and most often cause no symptoms. A propoion of individuals infected with low-risk HPV types such as HPV-6 or HPV-11 will develop genital was, whereas a subset of women with high-risk HPVs such as HPV-16 or HPV-18 will develop preneoplastic lesions of cervical intraepithelial n...
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Shape of nulliparous cervical canal is :
[ "Circular", "Transverse", "Spherical", "Longitudinal" ]
B
Transverse [Ref: BDC 4/e, Vol 2, p 359; Gray's Anatomy 38/e, p 1871; Jeffcoate's Gynaecology 6/e, p 31 Don't get confused with the answer . Question is about cervical canal & not the external os. The external os is circular in a nulliparous woman & transverse or slit like in parous women. In a nulliparous women, the ce...
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In catatonic schizophrenia, all are seen except :
[ "Mannerism", "Negativism", "Echolalia", "Flight of ideas" ]
D
D. i.e. Flight of ideas
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True statement regarding objectives of Sterilisation beds programme is -
[ "To have 2000 beds by 1987", "To provide Rs. 1000/- per bed", "To provide Sterillisation facilities to hospitals where they arc not available", "Voluntary agencies not included in the provision of facilities" ]
C
Ans. is `c' i.e., To provide Sterillisation facilities to hospitals where they are not available Sterlization bed scheme A scheme for reservation of sterilization beds in Hospitals run by Government, local bodies and voluntary organization was introduced as early as in the year 1964 in order to provide immediate facili...
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Organism associated with fish consumption and also causes carcinoma gallbladder:-
[ "Gnathostoma", "Anglostrongyloidosis cantonensis", "Clonorchis sinensis", "H. dimunata" ]
C
Clonorchis sinensis Clonorchis sinensis is a liver fluke, acquired by ingestion of raw or inadequately cooked freshwater fishes. In human body, it lives within bile ducts and causes inflammatory reaction leading to cholangiohepatitis and biliary obstruction. It is well known risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma It is a r...
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Blood brain barrier is formed by which of the following cells?
[ "Schwann cells", "Oligodendrocytes", "Astrocytes", "Microglia" ]
C
Oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells are involved in myelin formation around axons in the CNS and peripheral nervous system, respectively. Astrocytes, which are found throughout the brain, are of two subtypes. Fibrous astrocytes, which contain many intermediate filaments, are found primarily in white matter. Protoplasmic...
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The site of action of the furosemide is:
[ "Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle", "Descending limb of loop of Henle", "Proximal convoluted tubule", "Distal convoluted tubule" ]
A
Ans. (A) Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle(Ref: Goodman and Gilman 12th/678)Furosemide is a loop diuretic and this group of drugs act on thick ascending limb of loop of Henle.
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Intermediate host for hydatid disease aEUR'
[ "Man", "Dog", "Cat", "Foxes" ]
A
Man Hydatid disease of the liver is caused by Echinococcus granulosus: Ecchinococcus granulosus:- Also known as dog tapeworm, hydatid worm Habitat Small intestine of dog and other canine animals Definitive host --> Dog, wolf, fox, jackal (canine animals) Intermediate host Sheep, pig, cattle, horse, goat, man (dead end)...
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A 65-year-old woman with a history of multinodular goiter complains of increasing nervousness, insomnia, and heart palpitations. She has lost 9 kg (20 lb) over the past 6 months. Physical examination reveals a diffusely enlarged thyroid. There is no evidence of exophthalmos. Laboratory studies show elevated serum level...
[ "Autoimmune hepatitis", "Cardiac arrhythmia", "Follicular carcinoma of the thyroid", "Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid" ]
B
Hyperthyroidism refers to the clinical consequences of an excessive amount of circulating thyroid hormone. The principal metabolic products of the thyroid gland are triiodothyronine (T3) and tetraiodothyronine (thyroxine; T4). T4 is principally a prohormone; the major effector of thyroid function is T3. These molecules...
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Which of the following is the hallmark of chronic renal failure?
[ "Metabolic acidosis", "Hypercalcemia", "Hypokalemia", "Increased proneness to hypoxia" ]
A
Metabolic acidosis (Ref: Robbin's 7th Ed/Pg 961) Manifestations of chronic renal failure: I. Fluid & electrolyte 1. Dehydration 2. Edema 3. Hyperkalemia 4. Metabolic acidosis II. Calcium, Phosphate, & bone 1. Hyperphosphatemia 2. Hypocalcaemia 3. Secondary hyperparathyroidism 4. Renal osteodystrophy III. Hematologic 1....
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Which is not a protein misfolding disease?
[ "Prion disease", "Alzheimer's disease", "Beta thalassemia", "Ehler's Danlos syndrome" ]
D
Ans. D. Ehler's Danlos syndromeThe Prion Related Protein DiseasesQPrion like changes underlie many neurodegenerative diseases like protein rich in a helix changes to protein rich in b sheet.Alzheimer's diseaseParkinsons diseaseHuntingtons diseaseFrontotemporal dementiaDementia with Lewy bodiesAmyloidosisBeta thalassemi...
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Saturated salt solution concentrates eggs of all, except -
[ "Unfertilized egg of ascaris", "Trichuris", "Hymenolepis nana", "Echinococcus granulosus" ]
A
null
train
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All enveloped helical RNA viruses belong to one large group, which includes all of the following except:
[ "Influenza", "Parainfluenza", "Mumps", "Herpes" ]
D
Ans. d. Herpes
train
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About glycolysis true is:
[ "Occurs in mitochondria", "Complete breakdown of glucose", "Conversion of glucose to 3C units", "3 ATPs are used in anaerobic pathway" ]
C
Ans. C. Conversion of Glucose to 3C units(Ref. Harper 3 He page 157)Option a. Glycolysis occur in cytosolOption b. Complete breakdown of Glucose happens when Pyruvate formed by Glycolysis undergo Pyruvate Dehydrogenase reaction, followed by TCA Cycle.Option d. In anaerobic GlycolysisNumber of ATPs produced is 4Number o...
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Patient had loss of temporal field of vision in right eye and nasal field of vision in the left eye. The possible site of lesion is
[ "Optic chiasma", "Left optic tract", "Right optic radiation", "Left optic nerve" ]
B
null
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All of the following statements are true regarding warfarin toxicity (skin necrosis) except:
[ "Skin necrosis occurs during initiation of therapy", "Most common sites are toes and tips of fingers", "Decreased quantity of protein C", "Decreased incidence of adverse effects if therapy with LMWH is started." ]
B
Ans. (B) Most common sites are toes and tips of fingers(Ref: Harrison 18/e p433)Common sites of warfarin-induced skin necrosis are breasts, thighs and buttocks.
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Varicella-Zoster virus is not associated with -
[ "Latent infection", "Chicken pox", "Centrifugal rash", "Thrombocytopenia" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Centrifugal rash* Varicella zoster virus (VZU) is Herpes simplex virus type III (HSV-III) causative agent of chicken pox and herpes-zoster (shingle).* Varicella (Chicken pox) and Herpes zoster are different manifestations of the same virus infection. The virus is therefore called varicella zoster viru...
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In Diabetes, What happens to RQ:
[ "RQ always increases in Diabetes", "RQ increases & on giving Insulin it again decreases", "RQ always decreases in Diabetes", "RQ decreases & on giving Insulin it again increases" ]
D
Respiratory Quotient (RQ) Calculation of RQ of Glucose (carbohydrates): Oxidation of glucose in body: C6H1206 + 602 - 6C02 + 6H20 So, RQ = 6/6 = 1 RQ VALUES for different food components: Carbohydrates - 1 Proteins - 0.8 Fats - 0.74 Mixed diet - 0.85 Brain - 0.97 - 0.99 RQ TELLS US Type of macromolecules used in the bo...
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Skin pigmentation & icthyosis like side effects are seen in:
[ "Rifampcin", "Clofazimine", "Dapsone", "Steroid" ]
B
B i.e. Clofazimine Dapsone Dose and side Effects Dose is 1-2mg/kgQ and half life is >24 hoursQ. Clinical response is seen at doses ranging from 25-200mg/day (but rarely requiring 300mg/d.) Doses of 100mg in healthy persons and 50mg in healthy individuals with a G6PD deficiency do not cause hemolysis. Sulfones tend to b...
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Hardness of water is expressed as milli-equivalent per litre (mEq/L), one unit of which is equivalent to which one of the following -
[ "20 mg CaCO3 (20 ppm)", "30 mg CaCO3 (30 ppm)", "40 mg CaCO3 (40 ppm)", "50 mg CaCO3 (50 ppm)" ]
D
Hardness of water us expressed in milliequivalents/L. One mEq/L is equal to 50mg of CaCO3(50 ppm) in one litre. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 786
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Success of revascularization therapy is mainly dependent on
[ "Age of patient", "Complete disinfection of canal", "Periapical status", "Occlusal clearance" ]
B
null
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A patient had a road traffic accident and was put on mechanical ventilation. He is opening his eyes on verbal command and is able to move all his 4 limbs spontaneously. What will be his GCS score?
[ "12", "11", "9", "10" ]
D
Ans. D. 10Ideally it should have been 9NT according to the new update but this question was based on the old concept of verbal score being considered as one in an intubated patient. So the answer would be 9T or 10.
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Which pa of the ventricular system contains choroid plexus?
[ "Cerebral aqueduct", "Frontal horn", "Interventricular foramen", "Third ventricle" ]
D
The third ventricle has a choroid plexus; the frontal horn, and the cerebral aqueduct are all devoid of a choroid plexus; the interventricular foramen has no choroid plexus.
train
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Retardation of skeletal maturity can be caused by all except -
[ "Chronic renal failure", "Hypothyroidism", "Protein energy malnutrition (PEM)", "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia" ]
D
null
train
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In the treatment of hypothyroidism, thyroxine is preferred over liothyronine because thyroxine:
[ "Is faster acting", "Has higher affinity for thyroid hormone receptors", "Has a longer half life", "Can be made more easily by recombinant DNA technology" ]
C
(Ref: KDT 6/e p247) Liothyronine (T3) as compared to thyroxine (T4) is: Fast acting More potent Sho half life Indication of liothyronine includes myxedema coma and for most of the indications thyroxine is used because is has a long half life thus can be used less frequently than T3.
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All of the following are STD except:
[ "Herpes", "Scabies", "Candida", "Leprosy" ]
D
Leprosy is not sexually transmitted.
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Which dental treatment can be carried out in a patient with congenital heart disease?
[ "Pulpotomy", "Pulpectomy", "Extraction", "Any of the above" ]
C
As there are chances of secondary bacterial endocarditis in patients with bacterial endocarditis, so extraction is the only treatment to be done.
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Follicular hyperkeratosis is related to deficiency of?
[ "Vitamin A", "Vitamin C", "Zinc", "Vitamin E" ]
A
ANSWER: (A) vitamin AREF: Roxberg dermatology, page291, Harper/28th e/468 Table 44-1Repeat from December 2010VITAMIN A (RETINOL):Retinol is a vital, lipid-soluble vitamin found in dairy produce and liver and is also obtainable in the form of beta- carotene from carrots, tomatoes and other vegetables.lt is essential for...
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A person died due to bullet injury. On post-moem examination, a metallic bullet was found in his body. This bullet showed the presence of primary and markings. These markings can be used for
[ "Identification of weapon", "Knowing the range of firing", "Severity of tissue damage", "Knowing the time of crime" ]
A
Ans. a. Identification of weapon "Primary and secondary marks on the surface of the bullet help in identification of the gun. Primary markings on the surface of the bullet tells about the 'make' or type of the gun used and the secondary marks which are due to some elevation or depression on the inner surface of the bar...
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In papilledema, all the following are true except
[ "Blurring of the disc", "Congestion of retinal veins", "Soft white exudates around the disc", "Sudden loss of vision" ]
D
D. i.e. Sudden loss of vision
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Torus aoicus is an impression in the cavity of:
[ "Right atrium", "Left atrium", "Right ventricle", "Left ventricle" ]
A
Torus aoicus is a bulge in the right atrial wall anterosuperiorly above the membranous septum. It is superior to the coronary sinus and anterior to the fossa ovalis. It represents the deeper and anterior surface of the posterior sinus and cusp of the aoic valve. Ref: Greys Anatomy, 38th Edition, Page 1480
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Fever increases the basal metabolic rate about ---for each 1 Degree raise in bodv temperature
[ "3%", "7%", "10%", "20%" ]
B
(B) 7%# During sleep, the rate falls about 10% below that of waking levels.> Fever increases the metabolic rate about 7% for each degree rise in body temperature.
train
med_mcqa
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Maize is pellagragenic due to excess content of
[ "Lysine", "Threonine", "Leucine", "Tryptophan" ]
C
Amino acid imbalance caused by an excess of leucine is the cause of pellagra in maize (also jowar), eaters.Excess of leucine appears to interfere in the conversion of tryptophan to niacin.Park 23e pg: 619
train
med_mcqa
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Positive forced duction test is seen in-
[ "Extraocular muscle palsy", "Mechanical restriction of ocular movement", "Concomitant squit", "None" ]
B
Forced Duction Test is performed to differentiate between the incomitant squint due to paralysis of extraocular muscle and that due to mechanical restriction of ocular movements. Positive Forced Duction Test (i.e., a restriction is encountered on passive rotation) is seen in cases of mechanical restriction of ocular mo...
train
med_mcqa
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A person after 6 hr. of consuming rice pudding in restaurant develops vomiting. True statements regarding food poisoning-
[ "Caused by staphylococcus aureus", "Preformed toxin", "Caused by vibrio parahaemolyticus", "Heat labile toxin" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Preformed toxin . Vomiting within 6 hours of ingestion of rice suggests the diagnosis of emetic type of food poisoning caused by B. cereus. . It caused by preformed heat stable enterotoxin. . In emetic form, B. cereus is not found in large numbers in fecal specimens. Therefore food sample is more usef...
train
med_mcqa
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Most common virus causing common cold
[ "Adenovirus", "Rhinovirus", "Influenza virus", "Respiratory syncytial virus" ]
B
The rhinovirus is the most common viral infectious agent in humans and is the predominant cause of common cold. Rhinovirus infection proliferates in temperatures of 33-35deg, the temperature found in nose. Rhinoviruses belong to the genus Enterovirus in the family picornaviridae. Ref : Essentials of Medical microbiolog...
train
med_mcqa
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Thomsen friedensreich phenomenon is ?
[ "Red cells infection by CMV", "Red cell agglutination by all blood group sera", "Hemolysis of transfused blood", "Due to B antigen" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Red cell agglutination by all blood group sera Thomsen-Freidenreich Phenomenon Red cell suspensions contaminated with ceain bacteria, e.g. pseudomonas aeruginosa, become agglutinable by all blood group sera and even by normal human sera. This is known as Thomsen Friedenreich phenomenon and is due to u...
train
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A patient comes 6 hours after consuming morphine and presents with pin point pupils and respiratory depression. T 1/2 of morphine is 3 hours and volume of distribution (Vd) is 200 L. Current plasma concentration of morphine is 0.5 mg/L. Calculate the initial morphine dose consumed by the person.
[ "100 mg", "400 mg", "10 mg", "50 mg" ]
B
* Volume of distribution means how much amount of plasma is required to accommodate the whole drug, if the plasma concentration remains constant. Current plasma concentration is 0.5 mg/L means* 1 litre contains 0.5 mg of morphine So, Vd of 200 L means* 200 litre contain 0.5 x 200=100 mg So now total amount of morphine ...
train
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A 45 year old patient presented with neurological deficits and seizures. Imaging showed a lesion in the temporal lobe. Biopsy was taken from the lesion and neural tissue sent for histological examination (microscopy shown below). Based on the characteristic histological features, what is the most likely diagnosis?
[ "Glioblastoma", "Pilocytic astrocytoma", "Oligodendroglioma", "Medulloblastoma" ]
C
Oligodendroglioma: The tumors are composed of bwith spherical nuclei containing finely granular chromatin (similar to normal oligodendrocytes) surrounded by a clear halo of vacuolated cytoplasm giving a 'fried egg' appearance. The tumor typically contains a delicate network of anastomosing capillaries ('chicken-wire' c...
train
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The earliest manifestation of increased intrcranial pressure following head injury is
[ "Ipsilateral pupillary dilatation", "Contralateral pupillary dilatation", "Altered mental status", "Hemiparesis" ]
C
In general, symptoms and signs that suggest a rise in ICP include altered level of consciousness, headache, vomitingwithout nausea, ocular palcies, back pain and papilledema. If papilledema is protracted, it may lead to visual disturbances, optic atrophy, and eventually blindness. The headache is classically a morning ...
train
med_mcqa
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Characteristic feature of Otosclerosis are all except-
[ "Conductive deafness", "Positive rinne's test", "Paracusis willisii", "Mobile ear drum" ]
B
You are aware of all options given in Question. Just Remember: The following otoscopic findings in otosclerosis. Remember: Tympanic membrane is normal and mobile in 90% cases. (i.e. option d is correct). Schwartz sign—Flammingo cases pink colour of tympanic membrane is seen in 10% cases. It indicates active focus with...
train
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Whole body radiation is indicated in – a) Advanced head & neck tumours b) BM transplantation c) Medulloblastoma d) Mycosis fungoides e) Histiocytosis-x
[ "ab", "bd", "ac", "dc" ]
B
null
train
med_mcqa
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Movements of pronation and supination occurs in all the following upper limb joints, EXCEPT?
[ "Superior radio - ulnar joint", "Middle radio - ulnar joint", "Inferior radio - ulnar joint", "Radio - carpal joint" ]
D
Supination and pronation movements are not possible in radio-carpal(wrist) joint because the aicular surfaces are ellipsoid shaped. Supination and pronation movements are possible in superior, middle and inferior radio-ulnar joints.
train
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What are the boundaries of trauttman's triangle:
[ "Bony labyrinth anteriorly", "Sigmoid sinus posteriorly", "Superior petrosal sinus superiorly", "All of the above" ]
D
Ans.: A (Bony labyrinth anteriorly); B (Sigmoid sinus posteriorly); C (Superior petrosal sinus superiorly) "Trautmann's triangle is bounded by the bony labyrinth anteriorly sigmoid sinus posteriorly & the dura or superior petrosal sinus sunehorlv"- PL Dhinora 5th7462 Fig.: Various structures & landmarks seen after cort...
train
med_mcqa
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Pacemaker of respiration?
[ "Dorsal nuclear group", "Apneustic centre", "Pnemotaxic centre", "Pre Botzinger complex" ]
D
D i.e. Pre Botzinger complex
train
med_mcqa
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Not a characteristic of femtolasik:
[ "Bladeless lasik", "Flapless lasik", "Less incidence of dry eyes", "Cannot be done in thinner corneas" ]
B
SMILE and PRK is the flapless LASIK. Femtolasik is not flapless lasik FemtoLASIK can be used in patients with slightly thinner corneas compared to regular LASIK
train
med_mcqa
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Many of our bad habits of day-to-day life can be removed by:
[ "Positive conditioning", "Negative conditioning", "Biofeedback", "Generalization" ]
B
Negative conditioning is used to increase the frequency of a paicular behavior by decreasing the negative consequences. However in this question, out of given options, it's the best answer
train
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In gastrectomy following occurs except -
[ "Calcium deficiency", "Steatorrhoea", "Fe. deficiency", "Fluid loss" ]
D
null
train
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HLA DR3 is associated with?
[ "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "Pemphigus vulgaris", "Behcet disease", "Psoriasis vulgaris" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dermatitis herpetiformis * Both dermatitis herpetiformis and celiac disease (gluten sensitive enteropathy) are associated with increased expression of HLA-A1, HLA-B8, HLA-DR3 and HLA-DQ2.* DR3 associated diseases are Myasthenia gravis, Graves' disease, Type I DM, Dermatitis herpetiformis, Chronic acti...
train
med_mcqa
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Type B Lactic acidosis is due to
[ "Congestive Hea Failure", "Diabetes", "Sho bowel syndrome", "Cyanide poison" ]
B
Lactic Acidosis:An increase in plasma l-lactate may be secondary to poor tissue perfusion (type A)--circulatory insufficiency (shock, cardiac failure), severe anemia, mitochondrial enzyme defects, and inhibitors (carbon monoxide, cyanide)--or to aerobic disorders (type B)-- malignancies, nucleoside analogue reverse tra...
train
med_mcqa
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As per RNTCP guidelines first do in TB suspect case -
[ "Chest X-ray", "Sputum culture", "Sputum microscopy", "Start short-course chemotherapy" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sputum microscopy Treatment stratgies in RNTCPo Under the RNTCP active case finding is not pursuedo Case finding is passive.o Patients presenting thremselves with symptoms suspicious of tuberculosis are screened through 2 sputum smear examination.o Sputum microscopic examination is done in designated ...
train
med_mcqa
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ESI Act was made in:(1998)
[ "1946", "1948", "1952", "1954" ]
B
Ans: bRef: Park, 17th ed, p. 585 & 18th ed, p. 617
train
med_mcqa
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Hepatitis B vaccine, dose schedule in adult (months)-
[ "0,1,2", "0,1,3", "0,1,6", "0,1,10" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., 0, 1, 6 Prophalvxis against HBVo Both passive and active immunization are available for HBV infection prophylaxis,o Passive prophylaxis is by hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG').o Active immunization is by recombinant hepatitis B vaccine.o These are two recombinant vaccines :1. Recombivax - HB2. Enger...
train
med_mcqa
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Name the operation shown here.
[ "Boari flap operation", "Young operation", "Pierce operation", "Nesbitt operation" ]
A
Ans. (a) Boari Flap operation* Boari Flap operation - For lower ureteric injuries the bladder is used to reconstruct the gap as shown here.* Ureteric injury must be repaired immediately.
train
med_mcqa
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A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population of –
[ "1000", "2000", "3000", "5000" ]
C
Remember the following facts ​A sub centre caters a population of - 5000 in general, 3000 in hilly, tribal & backward areas A PHC caters a population of* - 30,000 in general, 20,000 in hilly, tribal & backward area. A Community health centre caters a population of - 80,000 to 1.2 lakh. A health assistant (male & femal...
train
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The drug of choice in obsessive compulsive disorder is which one of the following:
[ "Sertraline", "Amoxapine", "Hydroxyzine", "Alprazolam" ]
A
null
train
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Right heart border is formed by-
[ "Superior vena cava", "Superior vena cava + right atrium", "Superior vena cava + right atrium + inferior vena cava", "Right ventricle" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Superior vena cava + right atrium + inferior vena cava o In PA view the right margin of heart is formed by superior vena cava, right atrium and inferior vena cava from above downward. The left margin is formed by aortic knuckle (Prominence due to arch of aorta), Pulmonary trunk, left auricle and left ...
train
med_mcqa
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Hasner valve is seen in:
[ "Nasolacrimal duct", "Gartner's duct", "Stenson's duct", "Wharton's duct" ]
A
Ans: A (Nasolacrimal duct) VALVE OF HASNER BDC4th/Yolin230"The inferior meatus lies underneath the inferior concha, and is the largest of the three meatuses. The nasolacrimal duct opens into it at the junction of its anterior one-third and posterior two-thirds. The opening is guarded by the lacrimal fold or Hasner's va...
train
med_mcqa
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all the following about xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis are true except
[ "On cut section yellowish nodules are seen", "Associated with tuberculosis", "Foam cells are seen", "Giant cells are seen" ]
B
As discussed in text ,xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is associated with E.coli Proteus metabolism, pseudomonas, streptococcal faecalis, and klebshiella Refer robbins 8/943
train
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Puerperium is the period :
[ "6 weeks following delivery", "3 weeks following delivery", "One week following delivery", "None of the above" ]
A
6 weeks following delivery
train
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An advanced diagnostic technique which has been suggested as an alternative to culture methods is:
[ "Phase contrast microscopy", "Direct immunofluorescence", "Latex agglutination", "Indirect immonofluorescent microscope assays" ]
A
null
train
med_mcqa
null
Estimated mean Hemoglobin (I-lb) of 100 women is 10g%. Standard detion (a) is lgm%. Standard error of estimate will be -
[ "0.001", "1", "10", "0.1" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 0.1 o Standard error of mean is calculated as Standard Detion/ VT1; where 'n' is the total number of values within the sample. Thus the standard error of mean hemoglobin from the above sample would be (1.0/ Vioo ) or 1/10 or 0.1.
train
med_mcqa
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Increased Aldosterone leads to all of the following, except:
[ "Hypokalemia", "Hypeension", "Hypernatremia", "Metabolic acidosis" ]
D
Increased Aldosterone is associated with metabolic alkalosis and not metabolic acidosis. Other findings associated with it includes hypokalemia (potassium excretion), hypernatremia (sodium conservation) and hypeension (characteristically diastolic). Ref: Endocrine Physiology, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6; CURRENT Diagnosis a...
train
med_mcqa
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Curschmann spirals are characteristic of which of the following airway disease?
[ "Chronic bronchitis", "Emphysema", "Atelectasis", "Bronchial asthma" ]
D
Ref: Robbins Pathology, 9th ed. pg. 682Findings in Bronchial Asthma in Broncho-Alveolar Lavage or in Sputum* Curschmann spirals, is a finding in bronchial asthma which may result from extrusion of mucus plugs from subepithelial mucous gland ducts or bronchioles.* Charcot-Leyden crystals: It is composed of an eosinophil...
train
med_mcqa
null
White piedra is caused by -
[ "Piedra hortae", "Pityrosporum orbicularea", "Hortae wernickii", "Trichosporum beigelli" ]
D
null
train
med_mcqa
null