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A female underwent aboion after finding out evidence of molar pregnancy. Which of the following is a BAD prognostic factor for choriocarcinoma?
[ "Full term pregnancy", "Sho duration", "Aboion", "Low beta HCG" ]
A
Modified WHO Prognostic Scoring System as Adapted by FIGO: Scores 0 1 2 4 Age <40 > 40 - - Antecedent pregnancy Mole Aboion Term - Interval months from index pregnancy <4 4-<7 7-<13 > 13 Pretreatment serum hCG (IU/mL) < 103 103-< 104 104-< 105 > 105 Largest tumor size (including uterus) - 3-< 5 cm > 5 cm - Site of meta...
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Which one of the following is the major site for Purine nucleotide biosynthesis?
[ "Liver", "Erythrocytes", "Polymorphonuclear leukocytes", "Brain" ]
A
Liver is the major site for Purine nucleotide biosynthesis. Erythrocytes, Polymorphonuclear leukocytes and Brain cannot produce purines. The purines are built upon a pre-existing ribose 5-phosphate.
train
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Which of the following is not used for emergency contraception?
[ "Mifepristone", "IUCD", "Levonorgestrel", "Danazol" ]
D
Emergency contraception should be given within 72 hours of unprotected sex. They interfere with postovulatory events which normally results in pregnancy and therefore known as incentives - As the most common method and drug is - levonorgestrel with success rate of 95 %.the tablets can be offered up to 120 hours. howeve...
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Fertilization is complete when -
[ "1st Polar body is formed", "2nd Polar body is formed", "Primary oocyte is formed", "Secondary oocyte is formed" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2nd Polar body is formed "As soon as a spermatozoon enters the ovum, the lather finishes its second meiotic division and the second polar body is formed" - I.B. Singh
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Which pox wont grow in egg, animal cells:
[ "Cow pox", "Vaccinia", "Variola", "Molluscum" ]
D
Ans. d. Molluscum
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Integrated management of childhood illness (IMCI) intiative was taken to prevent morbidity and mortality from all of the following except –
[ "Malaria", "Malnutrition", "Otitis Media", "Neonatal tetanus" ]
D
null
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Opsomyoclonus is encountered as C/F of -
[ "Meningioma", "Neuroblastoma", "Neurofibromatosis", "Excision" ]
B
"At least 50% of children with opsoclonus-myoclonus have an underlying neuroblastoma." - Harrison Opsoclonus-Myoclonus Syndrome Opsoclonus is a disorder of eye movement characterized by involuntary, chaotic saccades that occur in all directions of gaze; it is frequently associated with myoclonus and ataxia. Causes o...
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Maintainence dose is calculated by using value of?
[ "Clearance", "Volume of distribution", "Oral bioavailability", "Daily dosage" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Clearance Drug dosing For drugs with longer t1/2 a dose that is sufficient to attain the target concentration after single administration, if repeated will accumulate according to plateau principal and produce toxicity later on. On the other hand, if the dosing is such as to attain target level at ste...
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Which is not a sexual spore
[ "Zygospores", "Ascospores", "Blastospore", "Basidiospore" ]
C
Blastospore is a vegetative asexual spore.
train
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Which of these is LEAST LIKELY to cause Post-Menopausal bleeding in a woman with uterine prolapse?
[ "Bleeding disorder", "Vaginal atrophy", "Cancer Cervix", "Decubitus ulcer on prolapse" ]
A
Bleeding disorders are less likely to present in Post-Menopausal age group Senile vaginal atrophy may be associated with prolapse uterus and is a common cause of Post-Menopausal bleeding cervical malignancy is the most common cause of Post-Menopausal bleeding in India decubitus ulcers occuron the most dependent pa of p...
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Datura poisoning is characterized by: PGI 12; NEET 13
[ "Pinpoint pupil", "Dilated salivary gland", "Dilated pupil with facial flush", "Decreased temperature" ]
C
Ans. Dilated pupil with facial flush
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Which is not an effect of atropine?
[ "Rise of body temperature", "Decreased salivary secretion", "Bradycardia", "Increased A-V conduction" ]
C
ANSWER: (C) BradycardiaREF: KDT 4th Ed p. 94EFFECTS OF ATROPINE:CNS* Stimulates medullary , vasomotor and respiratory center* Depresses vestibular excitation , hence anti motion sickness* Suppresses cholinergic activity in basal ganglia, hence decreases tremor.* High doses may cause cortical excitation , restlessness ,...
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In otosclerosis the tympanogram is:
[ "Low compliance", "High compliance", "Normal compliance", "None of the above" ]
A
(a) Low compliance(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 21071)The As type of curve in otosclerosis is low compliance and normal pressure type.High compliance, normal pressure type of curve is Ad, seen in ossicular discontinuity.Normal compliance, normal pressure is A type, i.e. normal curve.
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Common source of staph in hospital -a) IV fluidsb) Infective woundsc) Hands of hospital personneld) Bed linene) Instruments
[ "a", "c", "bc", "ad" ]
C
Hospital infection For staphylococci most common source of infection are human and carriers, animal and inanimate objects being less common. Patients with superficial infections (i.e., infective wounds) and respiratory infections disseminate large numbers of staphylococci into the environment. Transmission of staph...
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Which one of the following method is used for the estimation of the chlorine demand of water –
[ "Chlorometer", "Horrock's apparatus", "Berkfeld filter", "Double pot method" ]
B
Chlorine demand of water can be estimated by Horrock's apparatus. Chlorine demand of water is the amount of chlorine that is needed to destroy bacteria, and to oxidize all the organic matter and ammoniacal substances present in water. It is the difference between the amount of chlorine added to the water, and the amoun...
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Standardized mortality rate is standardized for
[ "Age", "Disease", "Region", "A particular time period" ]
A
null
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During the treatment of septic shock, a 28-year- old male remains hypotensive despite adequate volume replacement; PA occlusion pressure is 18 mm Hg. When dopamine is started, ventricular tachycardia develops and this is unresponsive to lidocaine. The V-tach converts back to sinus rhythm once the dopamine is stopped. A...
[ "Amrinone", "Dobutamine", "Epinephrine", "Phenylephrine" ]
D
Dopamine activates b1 -receptors and this was probably the reason for the arrhythmia. Amrinone will inhibit phosphodiesterase and result in an increased cyclic AMP level, producing the same result as b-receptor stimulation. Dobutamine and epinephrine also stimulate the b- receptors. The only choice which stimulates onl...
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A 40 years old P4+2 female has been diagnosed to have H mole. The treatment would be:
[ "Radiotherapy", "Chemotherapy", "Total hysterectomy", "Radio chemotherapy" ]
C
Ans. is c, i.e. Total hysterectomyRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 195; COGDT 10/e, p 889, William Obs. 23/e, p 261, 24/e, p 401"If no further pregnancies are desired, hysterectomy may be preferred to suction curettage. It is a logical procedure in women aged 40 or older because atleast a third of these women will go on to devel...
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A person unacclimatised develops pulmonary edema
[ "19 - 21 days", "2nd - 3rd month", "2 - 3 days", "6 - 7 days" ]
C
When they first arrive at a high altitude, many individuals develop transient "mountain sickness." This syndrome devel- ops 8 to 24 h after arrival at altitude and lasts 4 to 8 d. It is characterized by headache, irritability, insomnia, breathlessness, and nausea and vomiting. Its cause is unsettled, but it appears to ...
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The difference between iron sorbitol–citric acid and iron dextran is that the former
[ "Cannot be injected i.v.", "Is not bound to transferrin in plasma", "Is not excreted in urine", "Produces fewer side effects" ]
A
Iron sorbitol citrate should not be used i.v. because it may rapidly saturate the transferrin receptors and can result in high concentrations of free iron.
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Best indicator of trend of Tuberculosis unaffected by current control measures is:-
[ "Annual risk of infection", "Prevalence of TB infection", "% of primary drug resistance", "% of multidrug resistance" ]
A
Annual risk of infection: Is the propoion of population which will be primarily infected with tuberculosis in course of 1 year. Is incidence of infection of TB. Is known as 'Tuberculosis conversion Index'. Best indicator of trend of TB unaffected by current control measures. ARI: 1-2%. For every 1% rise of ARI, there a...
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Giving Benzathine penicillin in RHD is a type of
[ "Primary prevention", "Secondary prevention", "Tertiary prevention", "Primordial prevention" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Secondary prevention Primary prevention is action taken prior to the onset of disease.Secondary prevention is action which halts the progress of the disease at its incipient stage and prevents complications.Thus giving Benzathine pencillin in RHd is a type of secondary prevention.
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The first biologic agent approved by US FDA for the treatment of psoriasis is:
[ "Alefacept", "Efalizumab", "Etanercept", "Infliximab" ]
A
In 2003, Alefacept became the first biological agent to be licensed for the treatment of severe psoriasis. Alefacept is a T-cell inhibitor - binds to CD-2 Infliximab, Etanercept- are TNF-a inhibitor Efalizumab is a T-cell inhibitor binds to CD-11
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An infant presents with 15-20 watery stools since 9 days. Along with Zinc, what else should be given to the patient?
[ "ORS alone", "ORS and low lactose feed", "ORS with antibiotics", "ORS with probiotics" ]
A
This child is suffering from acute gastroenteritis (as duration is less than 14 days) Treatment of Acute Gastroenteritis in children: oral rehydration therapy (ORS), zinc supplementation, normal diet.
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Herring Breuer reflex is an increase in
[ "Duration of inspiration", "Duration of expiration", "Depth of inspiration", "Depth of expiration" ]
B
The Hering-Breuer inflation reflex, named for Josef Breuer and Ewald Hering, is a reflex triggered to prevent over-inflation of the lung. Pulmonary stretch receptors present on the wall of bronchi and bronchioles of the airways respond to excessive stretching of the lung during large inspirations. Ref: guyton and hall ...
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To avoid pocket formation distance between the finish line and alveolar crest should be:
[ "0.5 mm", "1 mm", "1.5 mm", "2.5 mm" ]
D
If the distance between finish line and the alveolar crest is less than 2mm, the restoration may lead to gingival. inflammation, loss of alveolar crest and pocket formation.
train
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In carcinoma gallbladder stage M1, which of the following lymph nodes are involved?
[ "Superior mesenteric lymph nodes", "Aoic lymph nodes", "Celiac lymph nodes", "Pancreatico-duodenal lymph nodes" ]
B
Aoic Lymph node is NOT a regional lymph node.Any metastases detected in these lymph nodes is categorized as distant metastases 8th AJCC (2017) TNM Classification of Carcinoma Gallbladder T1a Lamina propria invasion. T1b Muscular invasion. T2 Invade the perimuscular connective tissue. T2a: Invade the perimuscular connec...
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True about mucosa associated lymphoma -a) H. Pylori predisposesb) Chemotherapy sensitivec) Multiple lymphomasd) Stromal polyp
[ "ac", "ab", "ad", "bc" ]
B
null
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Most Common site of perilymph fistula is
[ "Round window", "Oval window", "Otic capsule", "Attic" ]
B
In this condition perilymph leaks into the middle ear. Footplate of stapes is fixed on oval window. It can occur as a complication of stapedectomy, or ear surgery when stapes is dislocated, and also from sudden pressure change in the middle ear. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE AND THROAT by PL DHINGRA - 6th Edition)
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Superficial Plamar arch is related to the?
[ "Distal end of fully extended thumb", "Distal end of fully flexed thumb", "Proximal end of the fully flexed thumb", "Proximal end of fully extended thumb" ]
A
Superficial palmar arch is a direct continuation of the ulnar aery. The curve of the arch lies across the palm, in level with the distal border of the fully extended thumb. The arch is completed by anastomosing with the superficial palmar branch of the radial aery.
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Signs of raised ICP in a 7 months old male baby can be all of the following except:
[ "Papilledema", "Bulging fontanelle", "Increase in head size", "Increasing irritability" ]
A
Ans. A. PapilledemaElevated ICP is a potentially devastating complication of neurologic injury. In children, increased ICP is most often a complication of traumatic brain injury; it may also occur in children who have hydrocephalus, brain tumors, intracranial infections, hepatic encephalopathy, or impaired central nerv...
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Behaviour therapy is useful in -a) Psychosisb) OCDc) Personality disorderd) Panic attacke) Anxiety
[ "bce", "abd", "bcde", "acde" ]
C
Most important use of behavioral therapy:- Phobia & OCD. Other uses are:- Other anxiety disorders (including panic), eating disorders, Autism, ADHD, some personality disorders, sexual dysfunctions, depression.
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S shaped eyelid is seen in:
[ "Plexiform neurofibroma", "Hemangioma", "Aerio venious fistula", "Varix" ]
A
Ans. Plexiform neurofibroma
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All are contraindications to induce labor except
[ "IUGR", "Breech presentation", "Twin pregnancy", "Previous classical C-section" ]
A
Contraindications to labor induction: Active genital herpes Cervical cancer Malpresentation Prior vertical C-section.
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Commonest cause of hea failure in infancy is:
[ "Myocarditis", "Rheumatic fever", "Cardiomyopathy", "Congenital hea disease" ]
D
--> The most common cause of Congestive hea failure (CHF) in infants-- Congenital hea disease. OTHER IMPOANT ONE LINERS: --> MC congenital hea disease in children --> VSD --> MC congenital acyanotic hea disease in children --> VSD --> MC congenital hea diseases affected by infective endocarditis in children --> VSD -->...
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Baby with history of convulsion vaccine contraindicated is ?
[ "DPT", "Measles", "BCG", "Rubella" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., DPT
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Blow out fracture of orbit commonly produces
[ "Deviation of septum", "Retinal haemorrhage", "Fracture of nasal bones", "Fracture of floor of orbit" ]
D
(D) Fracture of floor of orbit # Blow out fracture of orbit; Intraorbital haemorrhages, proptosis, paralysis of extrinsic muscles and fracture of the floor of the orbit are not infrequent following a blunt injury to the orbital region> Proptosis develops due to reactive oedema and intra-orbital haemorrhage.> Partial or...
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Which of the following coagulation factor causes cross linking and stabilization of clot?
[ "Factor XIII", "Thrombin", "Factor VIII", "Factor IX" ]
A
Thrombin activates factor XIII (fibrin stabilizing factor) to factor XIIIa, which forms cross links and thereby stabilizes the clot.
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Egg shell calcification is seen in – a) Bronchiolitisb) Silicosisc) Ca. bronchusd) Sarcoidosise) Histoplasmosis
[ "abc", "bde", "ace", "bce" ]
B
null
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Acute lung injury in caused by all of the following except
[ "Aspiration", "Toxic gas inhalation", "Cardiopulmonary bypass with hea lung machine", "Lung contusion" ]
C
ARDS, most cases (>80%) are caused by a relatively small number of clinical disorders: severe sepsis syndrome and/or bacterial pneumonia (~40-50%), trauma, multiple transfusions, aspiration of gastric contents, and drug overdose. Among patients with trauma, the most frequently repoed surgical conditions in ARDS are pul...
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Which is the most common type of bronchiectasis?
[ "Cylindrical", "Varicose", "Cystic", "Irregular" ]
A
Most common type of bronchiectasis is the cylindrical type.
train
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Which occurs first in wound healing -
[ "Thin continuous epithelial cover appears", "Fibroblasts lay down collagen fiber", "Granulation tissue fills the wound", "Neutrophils line the wound edge" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Neutrophils line the wound edge
train
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Under light microscopy, an active synthetic cell demonstrates
[ "Flattened nucleus", "Open faced nucleus", "Close faced nucleus", "Vesicular nucleus" ]
B
null
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Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) causes
[ "Euvolemic hyponatremia", "Hypovolemic hyponatremia", "Hypervolemic hyponatremia", "Hypernatremia" ]
A
The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuresis (SIAD) is the most frequent cause of euvolemic hyponatremia. Glucocoicoid deficiency, Hypothyroidism, Stress, Drugs are other causes of euvolemic hyponatremia. Common causes of SIAD include pulmonary disease (e.g., pneumonia, tuberculosis, pleural effusion) and central nervous...
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In hemodialysis associated amyloidosis, which of the following is seen
[ "Transthyretin", "B, microglobulin", "SAA", "azmicroglobulin" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., B2 microglobulin
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Helicine a ery are branch of
[ "Deep aery of penis", "Femoral aery", "External pudendal aery", "None of the above" ]
A
BD CHAURASIA S HUMAN ANATOMY SIXTH edition Vol 2 Pg 221 The deep aery of penis runs in the corpus cavernosum.It breaks up into aeries that follow a spiral course and are there called helicine aery
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Type of anaemia caused by pulmonary TB -
[ "Iron-deficiency", "Megaloblastic", "Sideroblastic", "Microcytic Hypochromic anaemia" ]
D
null
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Decoction is used in CHF associated with
[ "HOCM(hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy)", "High output failure", "Atrial fibrillation with high ventricular rate", "All of the above" ]
C
Ref-Katzung 11/e p219 Digital should be for patients Who remain symptomatic even on diuretics and ACE inhibitor With hea failure who are in atrial fibrillation and acquire ventricular rate control NOTE: digitals is contraindicated in HOMC and higher output cardiac failure
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Serum amylase level is raised in A/E
[ "Blocked salivary duct", "Ruptured ectopic", "Appendicitis", "Pancreatitis" ]
C
null
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Which of the following are AFB positive with 5% sulphuric acid -
[ "M. avium", "M. leprae", "M. tuberculosis", "Nocardia" ]
B
Procedure : 1. The smear is stained by a strong solution of carbon fuchsin with the application of heat 2. It is then decolorized with 20% SULPHURIC ACID and counterstained with a contrasting dye such as methylene blue 3. The acid-fast bacteria retain the fuchsin color while others take the counterstain Mycobacterium l...
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Long term ingestion of steroids lead to all of the following except
[ "Avascular necrosis of Head of femur", "Cataract", "Glaucoma", "Growth retardation" ]
C
Refer KDT 7th/293 Glaucoma occurs on long term topical use, not due to ingestion
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Chronic cough is a side effect of-
[ "Captopril", "Domperidone", "Cimetidine", "Celecoxib" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Captopril o Captopri i is an ACE inhibitor and chronic cough is a known side effect of ACE inhibitors.Adverse effects of ACE inhibitorHypotensionCoughAngioedmaTeratogenecityAcute renal failureHyperkalemiaRashes, UrticariaDysguesiaGranulocytopenia o Dysguesia is reversible loss or alteration of taste s...
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Best vein for total parenteral nutrition is:
[ "Subclan vein", "Femoral vein", "Brachial vein", "Saphenous vein" ]
A
Best vein for total parenteral nutrition is: subclan vein > internal jugular vein > femoral vein
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Commonest complication of diabetes, complicating pregnancy is :
[ "VSD", "ASD", "Sacral agenesis", "Anencephaly" ]
A
VSD
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Drug used for smoking cessation is:
[ "Vareniciline", "Acamprosate", "Naloxone", "Sildenafil" ]
A
Ans. (A) Vareniciline(Ref: Goodman and Gilman 13th/e p437-438)Anti-Smoking drugsVareniciline: It is a direct acting nicotinic agonist having selectivity for a4b2 isoform of NN receptors. It can be used orally and has a half life of 14-20 hours. Its adverse effects include headache, nausea and sleep disturbances.Nicotin...
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A 26-year-old woman has an amenorrhea,followed by uterine bleeding, pelvic pain, and pelvic mass. Her obstetrician performed a thorough examination, and the patient was diagnosed as having an ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following organs is most likely to provide a normal site of feilization?
[ "Fundus of the uterus", "Ampulla of the uterine tube", "Fimbriae", "Infundibulum of the uterine tube" ]
B
Feilization occurs in the ampulla of the uterine tube, therefore it is also the most likely site of implantation of an ectopic gestation
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Which of the following induces apoptosis in a cell -
[ "Oleic acid", "Glucocoicoids", "Isoprenoids", "Myristic acid" ]
B
. Glucocoicoids
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Barr body is absent in female having
[ "46 XX genome", "45 X0 genome", "47 XXX", "All of the above" ]
B
Barr body is absent in those with genotype 45 XO . For a brr body to be present a minimum of 2 x chromosomes should be there . No of Barr body = no of x chromosomes - 1. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
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Absolute lymphocytosis seen in
[ "SLE", "Typhoid", "IMN", "Brucellosis" ]
C
.
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Which among the following class of antibiotics are relatively safer to use in patients on Warfarin therapy-
[ "Cephalosporins", "Imidazoles", "Penicillins", "Macrolides" ]
C
Newer Cephalosporins (Cefamandole, Moxalactum, and Cefoperazone) cause hypoprothrombinemia. Thus, when anticoagulants are given with cephalosporins they have an additive anticoagulant action. * Imidazoles like ketoconazole and fluconazole affect hepatic drug metabolism and lead to raised plasma level of warfarin. * Mac...
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Stillbirth is birth of a dead newborn child after_____ completed weeks of gestation-
[ "20", "28", "37", "40" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 28 * Stillbirth is the birth of a newborn after 28th completed week (weighing 1000 gms or more) when the baby does not breathe or show any sign of life after delivery. It includes both fresh & macerated (antepartum) deaths
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A newborn was given a drug in neonatal ICU, but then was found in respiratory distress. The likely drug is ?
[ "Morphine", "Naloxone", "Salbutamol", "Soda-bicarb" ]
A
Opioids like fentanyl, codeine, pethidine, morphine causes respiratory distress in neonates. Naloxone is the antidote for opioid used in cases of respiratory depression. Salbutamol is a bronchodilator (sho acting selective beta-2 adrenergic agonist) used as an antiasthma agent. Sodium bicarbonate is a micronutrient use...
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Palivizumab, a monoclonal antibody is used for the prophylaxis of:
[ "Human metapneumovirus", "Para-influenza virus type 2 and 4", "Influenza virus", "Respiratory syncytial virus" ]
D
Ans. (D) Respiratory syncytial virus(Katzung 13th/863)Palivizumab is a monoclonal antibody produced by recombinant DNA technology. It is used in the prevention of respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infections.
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Cochlear aqueduct -
[ "Connects internal ear with subarachnoid space", "Connects cochlea with vestibule", "Contains endolymph", "Same as Scala media" ]
A
Cochlear aqueduct connects scala tympani with the subarachnoid space. This is the reason why otitis media can lead to meningitis
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Hormone responsible for decidual reaction and Arias stella reaction in ectopic pregnancy is :
[ "Oestrogen", "Progesterone", "HCG", "HPL" ]
B
Arias stella reaction Arias stella reaction is characterized by adenomatous change of the endometrial glands. Cells loose their polarity, have hyperchromatic nucleus, vacuolated cytoplasm and occasional mitosis. The reaction is seen in ectopic pregnancy (in 10 – 15% cases) and indicates blightening of conceptus be it ...
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Gingival abscess involves
[ "Marginal", "attached", "inter dental", "marginal & interdental" ]
D
null
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A 25 year old lady presents with a unilateral cataract. There is no history of trauma, pain, redness of eyes or steroid usage. What is the likely cause?
[ "Age related cataract", "Complicated Cataract", "Fuchs Heterochromic Iridocyclitis", "Diabetic cataract" ]
C
The best answer would be fuchs heterochromic iridocyclitis Fuchs' 'heterochromic iridocyclitis' is a chronic non-granulomatous type of low grade anterior uveitis typically associated with early cataract formation. It typically occurs unilaterally in middle-aged persons. The disease is characterized by: Heterochromia of...
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The cecum is found to be placed below the stomach and is middine. which of the following abnormally must have taken place while rotation of gut?
[ "Malrotation", "Non rotation", "Reverse rotation", "Mixed rotation" ]
D
Cecum - sub pyloric in mixed rotation.
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Which of the following liver disorders is a complication associated with oral contraceptives?
[ "Drug-induced hepatitis with fatty change", "Cholangiocarcinoma", "Cavernous hemangiomas", "Intrahepatic cholestasis" ]
D
Oral contraceptives produce an intrahepatic cholestasis that is unpredictable (not related to the dose). The incidence of liver cell adenomas is also increased as a result of oral contraceptive use. These vascular tumors have a tendency to rupture during pregnancy, paicularly those in a subcapsular location. A purpoed ...
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In the clinical evaluation, the most significant, finding of the parotid mass may be accompanying
[ "Rapid progressive painless enlargement", "Nodular consistency", "Supramental and preauricular lymphadenopathy", "Facial paralysis" ]
D
null
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A 39-year-old woman complains of developing painful pale fingers on cold exposure for the past 5 years. Recently, she has noticed swollen fingers and tight skin, which limit flexion and extension. She also has new abdominal symptoms that are bothersome. On examination, the skin on the fingers is smooth and shiny with a...
[ "esophagus", "stomach", "duodenum", "ileum" ]
A
This patient has scleroderma and esophageal symptoms are present in more than 50% of patients. They are due to the reduced tone of the gastroesophageal sphincter and dilation of the distal esophagus. Gastric and small intestinal motility problems can also occur. Vascular ectasia in the GI tract can result in bleeding.
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Rx of choice in chronic alcoholic with normal RES, normal BUN, but altered sensorium -
[ "Vit. B, injection IM", "Dextrose 50%", "Dextrose 10%", "Normal saline" ]
A
chronic alcoholism causes deficiency of vitamin b which causes altered sensorium Alcoholic patients with chronic thiamine deficiency also may have central nervous system (CNS) manifestations known as Wernicke's encephalopathy, which consists of horizontal nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia (due to weakness of one or more extra...
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Which of the following is the longest acting oral anticoagulant -
[ "Bishydroxycoumarin", "Warfarin", "Acenocoumarol", "Phenindione" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bishydroxycoumarin o Bishydroxycoumarin (Dicumarol) is the longest acting oral anticoagulant.o Ethylbiscoumacetate is the shortest acting anticoagulant.Pharmacokinetic and adverse effect profile of orla anticoagulantsDrugt 1/2 (hour)Duration of action (days)Dose (mg)Adverse side effects (other than bl...
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In gestational trophoblastic disease, metastases most commonly occur to:
[ "Brain", "Liver", "Lungs", "Bone" ]
C
Ans-C Lungs Shaw 15th/259 Hydatidiform moles are abnormal pregnancies characterized histologically by aberrant changes within the placenta. Specifically, the chorionic villi in these placentas show varying degrees of trophoblastic proliferation and edema of the villous stroma. They are of two types: partial and complet...
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Which crystalloid has osmolality nearest to serum osmolality-
[ "Ringer's lactate", "Normal saline", "5% dextrose", "DNS" ]
A
Crystalloid pH mOsm/L Na+ CI- Ca2+ Lactate- K+ Mg2+ Gluconate- Acetate- NS (0.9% Saline) 5.6 (4.5 - 7.0) 308o 154o 154 LR 6.6 (6.0 - 7.5) 274 130 109 3 28 4 Normosol 7.4 (6.5-7.6) 295 140 98 5 3 23 27 ringers lactate has osmolality nearest to plasma osmolality
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Chlorine demand of water determined by –
[ "Horrock's apparatus", "Chloronometre", "Berkefield filter", "Doble Pot" ]
A
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Which of the following drugs require therapeutic drug monitoring?
[ "Metformin", "Propranolol", "Warfarin", "Phenytoin" ]
D
* Therapeutic drug monitoring is adjustment of dose of the drug according to its plasma concentration. It is required for A Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin) Drug Digitalis Possessing Phenytoin (anti-epileptics) Low Lithium Therapeutic Tricyclic antidepressants Index Immunomodulators (e.g. cyclosporine)
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Which of the following embryologic structures give rise to the upper three fouh of vagina?
[ "Mullerian duct", "Urogenital sinus", "Sinovaginal bulb", "Wolfian duct" ]
A
Upper three quaer of the vagina is developed from the fusion of the paramesonephric (mullerian) duct. Lower one fouh is developed by the canalisation of the sinovaginal bulbs which form by the proliferation of the urogenital sinus. Structures developing from mullerain duct are:Fallopian tubesUterus and cervixUpper thre...
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In patients with osteoahritis of knee joint, atrophy occurs most commonly in which muscle :
[ ">Qudriceps only", ">Hamstrings only", ">Both (a) and (b)", ">Gastrocnemius" ]
A
Quadriceps only Met Maheshwari 3/e, p 253;Apley's 8/e, p 472] In osteoahritis of knee joint, the quadriceps muscle is usually wasted.
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The best site for intramuscular injection is -
[ "Deltoid", "Anterolateral pa of thigh", "Upper outer segment of buttocks", "Upper inner segment of buttocks" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Upper outer segment of buttocks
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All are features of cushlngs disease except -
[ "Central obesity", "Episodic hypeension", "Easy bruising", "Glucose intolerance" ]
B
diastolic hypeension occurs in Cushing's syndrome ( Harrison 17 pg 2256)
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The characteristic facies of the following may resemble that of Downs syndrome:
[ "Rhizomelic chondrodysplasia", "Infantile Refsum disease", "Zellweger syndrome", "Neonatal adreno leukodystrophy" ]
C
(C) Zellweger syndrome# ZELLWEGER SYNDROME: Children demonstrate facial dysmorphology with a prominent forehead, large anterior fontanellae, epicanthal folds, micrognathia, high arched palate, and deformed ear lobes.> Characteristic Zellweger syndrome facies may resemble that of Downs syndrome.> Other features include ...
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Treatment of choice for Warthin's Tumor
[ "Superficial parotidectomy", "Enucleation", "Radiotherapy", "Injection of a sclerosant agent" ]
A
The treatment of all benign tumors of the parotid gland is superficial parotidectomy.
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Which of the following features are of naso alveolar cyst
[ "An ovoid shaped radiolucency above the lateral incisor and canine teeth", "Erosion of base above lateral incisor and canine teeth", "An inverted funnel shaped radiolucent lesion above the roots of lateral incisor and canine teeth", "A pear shaped radiolucent Lesion between roots of lateral incisor and canine...
B
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Not true about development of ovary
[ "Develops in genital ridge", "Sex cords are derived from coelomic epithelium", "Oocytes are mesodermal in origin", "At bih ovary contains 2 million follicles" ]
C
Oocytes develop from the primordial germ cells, which themselves are derivatives of epiblast. Ref: Gray's 39e/p-1289
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A 65 year old male smoker presents with gross total painless hematuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
[ "Cystolithiasis", "Carcinoma prostate", "Carcinoma of urinary bladder", "Benign prostatic hyperplasia" ]
C
Patient in the question is 65 years old and is a smoker, both these factors predispose to the development of bladder carcinoma. And he is presenting with painless hematuria which is by far the most common symptom and indicator of bladder carcinoma until proven otherwise. Ref: Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, ...
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Drug of choice in Obsessive compulsive disorder is -
[ "Imipramine", "Fluoxetine", "Alprazolam", "Chlorpromazine" ]
B
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Vigabatrin acts through -
[ "decreasing GABA uptake at synaptic cleft", "Increasing GABA uptake at synaptic cleft", "GABA transaminase inhibitor", "GABA transacetylase inhibitor" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., GABA transaminase inhibitor Vigabatrin (g vinyl GABA)* It is a newer anti - convulsant which is an inhibitor of enzyme GABA transaminase; it thus increases GABA concentration at synapse.* It is mainly used in patients with refractory epilepsy visual field defects and behavioural changes restricts its ...
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Impoance of lepromin test are all except:
[ "Only has epidemiological significance", "Prognostic value", "Tells about immunity status of leprosy patients", "Differentiate between different types of leprosy" ]
A
Answer: (a) Only has epidemiological significance (Ref: Park 23rd/320-21; Community Medicine with Recent Advances by Suryakantha 4th/539-40The test has predictive value as well. It gives an indication of the risk of the disease among contacts of open cases.The test has an epidemiological value as well. It indicates the...
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The structural abnormality of chromosome in which one arm is lost and remaining arm is duplicated is called:
[ "Ring chromosome", "Isochromosome", "Translocation", "Mutation" ]
B
b. Isochromosome(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 590', Ghai 8/e p 637)Iso-chromosome results when 1 arm of a chromosome is lost and the remaining arm is duplicated or when the axis of division occurs perpendicular to the normal axis of division.
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Functional bracing is now the gold standard in the nonoperative management of which fractures?
[ "Fracture shaft humerus", "Fracture of both bones of the forearm", "Fracture shaft tibia", "Fracture shaft Femur" ]
A
FUNCTIONAL BRACINGprinciple-it relies on the hydrostatic splintage of the fracture due to contraction of muscles in a tight compament it has now become the gold standard of conservative management of humerus fractures(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 81)
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Coral red colour on Wood's lamp is seen in?
[ "Rversicolor", "Amyloidosis", "Melasma", "Erythrasma" ]
D
ANSWER: (D) ErythrasmaREF: Rook's 8th ed P. 30.11Repeat Dermatology 2013 Session 1
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CO2 level in kPa above which brain stem death is confirmed ?
[ "1", "9", "5", "6.5" ]
D
Answer- D. 6.5At the end of a period of observation, typically several minutes, aerial Pco2 should be at least > 6.6-8.0 kPa (50-60 mmHg) for the test to be valid.Apnea is confirmed if no respiratory effo has been observed in the presence of a sufficiently elevated Pco2.
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Which among the following can be used in burns granulation tissue after eschar separation
[ "Silver sulfadiazine", "Silver Nitrate", "Povidone Iodine", "Sulfamylon" ]
C
Povidone Iodine can be used on granulation tissue after eschar separation in burns.
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A patient with tuberculosis develops bright orange-red urine and calls his physician in a panic because he is afraid he is bleeding into the urine. The patient has no other urinary tract symptoms. Which of the following medications is most likely to produce this side effect?
[ "Ethambutol", "Isoniazid", "Pyridoxine", "Rifampin" ]
D
While not of major medical concern, urine color changes as a result of medications can be very distressing to patients. These changes are consequently woh learning so that you can warn patients when you prescribe the medicine. Rifampin is a safe drug that is used both for prophylaxis and for active tuberculosis therapy...
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Effect of PIH on GFR is:
[ "GFR Increase", "Decreases GFR", "GFR remains the same", "GFR can increase or decrease" ]
B
The changes are conspicous in the glomerulus which becomes enlarged.(Glomerular Endotheliosis) Endothelial cells swell up and fibrin like deposits occur in the basement membrane. Lumen may be occluded. Interstitial cells between the capillaries proliferate. There is associated spasm of the afferent glomerular aerioles....
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Which of the following statement about bradykinin is true
[ "Causes pain", "Causes bronchodilation", "Causes vasoconstriction", "Decreases vascular permeability" ]
A
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Most common type of phagus in twins?
[ "Craniophagus", "Pygophagus", "Thorachophagus", "Ischiophagus" ]
C
c. Thorachophagus(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 820)Conjoined twins (Also called Siamese twins)Result from relatively late monovular separation; Types depending on the site of connections are: thoraco-omphalopagus (28% of conjoined twins), thoracopagus (18%), omphalopagus (10%), craniopagus (6%) & incomplete duplication (10%)
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Features of rheumatic carditis are all except -
[ "Aschoff nodule", "Lymphatic infiltration", "Myocardial fibrosis", "Intramyocardial microemboli" ]
D
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Tuberculin test is positive if induration is -
[ "> 2mm", "> 5mm", "> 7mm", "> 10mm" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., > 10mm TUBERCULIN TESTo Skin testing (tuberculin test) is most widely used screening test for M. tuberculosis infection,o There are three main tests currently in use :Methodo Tuberculin reaction consists of erythma and induration. Since erythma is some times difficult to measure, induration alone is m...
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