question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
In competitive inhibition the relation Km and Vmax is one of the following - | [
"Km and Vmax are the same",
"Km increases and Vmax is the same",
"Km decreases and Vmax increases",
"Km and Vmax decreases"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Km increase and Vmax is the same Competitive inhibition-Km is high Vmax is sameNon Competitive inhibition-Vmax lowered Km unaltered Type of inhibitorKmVmaxReversible inhibbitor o CompetitiveIncreasedNo effecto Non-competitiveNo effectDecreasedo UncompititiveDecreasedDecreasedIrrversible inhibitor (same as reversible competitive)No effectDecreased | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45yr old man presented to the OPD dysphagia to both solid and liquids Esophageal manometry was performed = it revieled premature contraction with >20 % wet swallows and abnormally increased Lower esophageal pressure of >450mm hg | [
"Type 1 achalasia",
"Type 2 achalasia",
"Type 3 achalasia",
"Jackhammer esophagus"
] | C | ref : bailey and love 27th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child comes with a circular 3cm x 3cm scaly patchy hair loss with itching in the lesions. The investigation of choice is | [
"Split skin smear",
"KOH mount",
"Gram stain",
"Tzanck smear"
] | B | Itchy lesions over head with hair loss likely suggestive of Tinea capitis and KOH mount of hairs is the investigation of choice. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tryptophan is required for synthesis of which vitamin? | [
"Folic acid",
"Thiamine",
"Niacin",
"Riboflavin"
] | C | Tryptophan is required for the synthesis of Niacin. In the major pathway, kynureninase is an enzyme dependent on pyridoxal phosphate (enzyme 2, Fig.17.8). Therefore, in vitamin B6 deficiency, the pathway is blocked at this level. This leads to niacin deficiency and manifestations of pellagra. 7. Quinolinate phosphoribosyl transferase is the rate-limiting enzyme in the conversion of niacin to NAD+. About 60 mg of tryptophan is equivalent to 1 mg of niacin. Reference: Vasudevan Textbook of Biochemistry pg no. 211, 395 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Measles vaccination is given at the age of: | [
"Birth",
"9 months",
"1 1/2 yrs",
"2 months"
] | B | Ans: b (9 months)Ref Park, 20th ed. Pg. 113Another simple questionJust go through the Indian National Immunization Schedule.National immunization schedule(a) For infants At birth BCG and OPV - 0 dose At 6 weeks BCG (if not given at birth) DPT-1 and OPV- lAt 10 weeks DPT-2 and OPV-2At 14 weeks DPT-3 and OPV-3at 9 months measles(b) At 16-24 months-DPT and OPV(c) 5- 6 years-DT The second dose of DT should be given at an interval of one month if there is no clear history or documented evidence of previous immunization with DPT.(d) At 10 and 16 years- TT. The second dose of TT should be given at an interval of one month if there is no clear history or documented evidence of previous immunization with DPT, DT, or TT vaccines(e) For pregnant women-early in pregnancy- TT-1 or Booster one month after TT-1, TT-2 should be given | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with 37 weeks of gestation, came to hospital without antenatal check-up and presented with onset of labor. On examination, the mother is hep B positive, what management should be given to neonate? | [
"Hep b vaccine only",
"Hep B vaccine+ IG",
"First IG then HEP B vaccine after 1 month",
"Only IG"
] | B | Infants of HBsAg-positive mothers should receive Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) immunoprophylaxis at bihand Hepatitis B vaccine at one week (HBV),Then one month and six months after bih. Administration of HBV vaccine along with HBIG does not diminish the immunologic response to the vaccine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Renal TB mode of infection | [
"Direct from bowel",
"Ascending",
"Hematogenous",
"Lymphatic"
] | C | Answer- C. HematogenousGenitourinary tuberculosis is always secondary to pulmonary infection, though in many cases, the primary focus has healed or is quiescent.Infection occurs the hematogenous route | train | med_mcqa | null |
The major storage and circulatory form of vitamin D is:- | [
"25-hydroxycholecalciferol",
"1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol",
"Cholecalciferol",
"Calcitriol"
] | A | Cholecalciferol is first hydroxylated at 25th position to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol (25-OH o3) bv a specific hydroxylase present in liver. 25-OH D3 is the major storage and circulatory form of vitamin D.
Reference: Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-125 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Menkes disease is due to deficiency of: | [
"Selenium",
"Copper",
"Chromium",
"Manganese"
] | B | Ans. (b) CopperRef: Harrison's 20th ed. P 2318Menkes Kinky Hair Syndrome* X-Linked metabolic disturbance of copper metabolism* Characterized by:# Mental retardation# Hypocupremia# Decreased circulating ceruloplasmin* Due to mutation in ATP7-A gene (copper transporting gene)* Cause of death: Dissecting aneurysm or cardiac rupture (usually <5 years of age)* Wilson's disease: Copper accumulation in liver, brain; due to mutation in ATP7-B gene.* Acrodermatitis enteropathica: AR condition. Due to zinc deficiency* Chromium potentiates the action of insulin and improves lipid profile* Keshan disease: Endemic cardiomyopathy, due to dietary deficiency of selenium* Kashin-Beck disease/Selenosis: Chronic ingestion of large amount of selenium. Characterized by hair loss and nail brittleness, garlic breath odor, rash, myopathy etc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
After normal vaginal delivery, breast feeding can be started - | [
"Immediately",
"2.5-4 hours",
"4-6 hours",
"1.5-2.5 hours"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Immediately * Breastfeeding should ideally start soon after baby is born. A baby is usually alert after birth and will spontaneously seek the breast if left undisturbed in skin-to-skin contact with their mothers body. Research suggests that a mother should allow her baby to feed when the baby shows it is ready. This may be before they are weighed, bathed and dressed.* WHO recommends that mothers initiate breastfeeding within one hour of birth.* Babies should be placed in skin-to-skin contact with their mothers immediately following birth for at least an hour and mothers should be encouraged to recognize when their babies are ready to breastfeed, offering help if needed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In census literacy rate is assessed by - | [
"Attended literacy classes for one year",
"Ability to write signature",
"Ability to read and write",
"Ability to read newspaper"
] | C | The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO) has drafted a definition of literacy as the "ability to identify, understand, interpret, create, communicate, compute and use printed and written materials associated with varying contexts. Literacy involves a continuum of learning in enabling individuals to achieve their goals, to develop their knowledge and potential, and to paicipate fully in their community and wider society." The National Literacy Mission defines literacy as acquiring the skills of reading, writing and arithmetic and the ability to apply them to one's day-to-day life. The achievement of functional literacy implies (i) self-reliance in 3 R's, (ii) awareness of the causes of deprivation and the ability to move towards amelioration of their condition by paicipating in the process of development, (iii) acquiring skills to improve economic status and general well being, and (iv) imbibing values such as national integration, conservation of environment, women's equality, observance of small family norms. The working definition of literacy in the Indian census since 1991 is as follows Literacy rate Also called the "effective literacy rate"; the total percentage of the population of an area at a paicular time aged seven years or above who can read and write with understanding. Here the denominator is the population aged seven years or more Crude literacy rate The total percentage of the people of an area at a paicular time who can read and write with understanding, taking the total population of the area (including below seven years of age) as the denominator. Ref: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Literacy_in_India | train | med_mcqa | null |
The wall absent in class V lesion | [
"Axial wall",
"Mesial",
"Distal",
"Pulpal wall"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for stab injury caecum ? | [
"Caecostomy",
"Ileo-transverse anastomosis",
"Transverse colostomy",
"Sigmoid colostomy"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., ileo-transverse anastomosis These options mentioned in the question are of the year 1989; no longer seems to be valid. The management of Colonic injuries in latest edition of Schwaz is: Currently 3 methods for managing the colonic injuries are used? a. Primary repair (it includes lateral suture repair or resection of the damaged segment with reconstruction by ileocolostomy or colocolostomy) b. End colostomy c. Primary reapir with diveing ileostomy Various trials have proven that the Primary repair is safe and effective in viually all patients with penetrating wounds. Schwaz writes- "Numerous large retrospective and several prospective studies have now clearly demonstrated that primary repair is safe and effective in viually all patients with penetrating wounds. Colostomy is still appropriate in a few patients, but the current dilemma is how to select which patients should undergo the procedure. Currently, the overall physiologic status of the patient, rather than local factors, directs decision making. Patients with devastating left colon injuries requiring damage control are clearly candidates for temporary colostomy. Ileostomy with colocolostomy, however, is used for most other high-risk patients." | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following conditions will influence the diagnostic quality of x-rays? | [
"kVp",
"Milliampere-seconds",
"Filtration",
"All of the above"
] | D | The three main conditions that will influence the diagnostic quality of X-rays are kVp, milliampere - seconds and filtration. Consistent radiographs require same image quality which in turn depend on these three factors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Congenital heart disease is most likely in the newborn of mothers suffering from all except: | [
"Systemic lupus erythematosus",
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Diabetes in pregnancy,",
"Congenital heart disease of the mother"
] | B | Lets analyse each option separately
“Fetal congenital cardiac disease is increased by 3–10% if either of the parents have congenital heart lessons.”
Dutta 7/e, p 276. (so option d is correct)
“Neonatal lupus syndrome is due to crossing of maternal lupus antibodies (anti-Ro or anti-La) to the fetus causing hemolytic anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia. Isolated congenital heart block is present in about one-third of cases. An apparently healthy woman delivering a baby with congenital heart block should be observed for the development of SLE.”
Dutta 7/e, p 293 (i.e. option a is correct)
Matenal diabetes we all know leads to fetal heart disease (Dutta 7/e, p 284), so our answer by exclusion is rheumatoid arthritis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The penicillin G preparation with the longest duration | [
"Benzathine penicillin",
"Sodium penicillin",
"Potassium penicillin",
"Procaine penicillin"
] | A | Penicillin G due to it's rapid tubular secretion, it is very sho acting. It's duration of action is increased with probenecid which compete with penicillin at tubular pump. Procaine penicillin G and benzathine penicillin G are administered IM and serve as depot forms. They are slowly absorbed into the circulation and persist at low levels over a long time period. Specially Benzathine penicillin G has longest duration of action. Penicillin G are not effective orally as it is acid labile. Penicillin which are acid stable are : - V : Penicillin V- O: Ofloxacillin- D: Dicloxacillin- K: Cloxacillin- A: Amoxicilin/Ampicillin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Black dot ring worm is caused by - | [
"Microsporum",
"Trichophyton",
"Epidermophyton",
"Candida"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Trichophyton o Black dot lesions are seen in Tinea capitis.o The hairs are broken at the level of the skin surface producing a picture of black dots in an area of alopecia,o T. tonsurans is the chief cause of "black dot1' tinea capitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug that inhibits cell wall synthesis is ? | [
"Tetracyclines",
"Penicillins",
"Aminoglycosides",
"Chloramphenicol"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following pain is not referred to ear? | [
"Pharynx",
"Teeth",
"Angle of TM joint",
"Vestibule of nose"
] | D | ANSWER: (D) Vestibule of noseREF: Dhingra's 4th ed p.144The ear is supplied by Vth (auriculotemporal), IX th (tympanic br.) and X th (auricular br.) nerve and C2 (lesser occipital), C3 and C4 (greater auricular)Pain may be referred to ear from one of the following:I. Via Vth nerve:Dental: caries , molar impaction and dental abscessOral: benign or malignant ulcerative lesions of oral cavityT-M joint disordersSphenopalatine neuralgiaII. Via IXth nerve:Oropharynx : lesions of tonsils , soft palate and the pillarsBase of tongueElongated styloid processIII X th nerve:Malignant or ulcerative lesions of the larynx. Laryngopharynx , esophagus , epiglottis , valecullaIV. C2, C3 C4:Cervical spine disorders | train | med_mcqa | null |
38 weeks primi in early labour with transverse presentation, TOC is : | [
"Allow for cervical dilatation",
"Internal podalic version",
"LSCS",
"Forceps"
] | C | Ans. is c i.e. LSCS | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to Bismuth classification, type IV cholangiocarcinoma involves: | [
"Common hepatic duct",
"Bifurcation only",
"Bifurcation and bilateral secondary intrahepatic duct",
"Bifurcation and unilateral secondary intrahepatic ducts"
] | C | Bismuth-Corlette Classification of Hilar Cholangiocarcinoma Type Criteria I Tumor confined to hepatic duct, not involving the main biliary confluence II Tumor involving the main biliary confluence but not extending to the right or left ducts IIIa Tumor extending upto the right secondary biliary confluence IIIb Tumor extending upto the left secondary biliary confluence IV Tumor extending bilaterally to the secondary biliary confluence Most common site of cholangiocarcinoma is Hilum | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs used in ADHD are - | [
"Atomoxetine",
"Methylphenidate",
"Dextro-amphetamine",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Atomoxetine; 'b' i.e., Methyphenidate; 'c' i.e., Dextro-amphetamine | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20 year old male presented with chronic constipation, headache and palpitations. On examination he has marfanoid habitus, neuromas of tongue, medullated corneal nerve fibers and nodule of 2x2 cm size in the left lobe of thyroid gland. This patient is a case of: | [
"MEN 1A",
"MEN 1B",
"MEN IIA",
"MEN IIB"
] | D | This patient with complaints of headache and palpitations is suggestive of pheochromocytoma. Constipation could be due to hyercalcaemia secondary to hyperparathyroidism. This along with features of marfanoid habitus and mucosal neuromas all indicate that he is suffering from MEN 2B. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid in MEN 2B develops earlier and is more aggressive than in MEN 2A. Metastatic disease can occur before 1 year of age, and death may occur in the second or third decade of life. Pheochromocytoma occurs in more than half of MEN 2B patients. Hypercalcemia is rare in MEN 2B. The mucosal neuromas and marfanoid body habitus are the most distinctive features and are recognizable in childhood. Neuromas are present on the tip of the tongue, under the eyelids, and throughout the gastrointestinal tract and are true neuromas. Children with these neuromas in GIT presents with intermittent colic, pseudo obstruction, and diarrhea. Ref: Harisson's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 351. | train | med_mcqa | null |
ED50 is used for determining: | [
"Potency",
"Efficacy",
"Safety",
"Toxicity"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A research physiologist is performing an experiment in which he stimulates sympathetic cholinergic neurons. Which of the following responses is expected? | [
"Bradycardia",
"Bronchoconstriction",
"Diaphoresis",
"Increased gastrointestinal motility"
] | C | The vast majority of sweat glands in the body are innervated by sympathetic cholinergic neurons. Sympathetic cholinergic neurons are sympathetic postganglionic neurons that happen to release acetylcholine instead of norepinephrine. Bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, and increased gastrointestinal motility would all result from stimulating parasympathetic cholinergic neurons. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 16-years old boy presents with acute onset pain in the left testis. The following statements about his management are true except: | [
"The patient should be prescribed antibiotics and asked to come after a week",
"Colour flow Doppler will be very useful in diagnosis Doppler is not available",
"Scrotal exploration should be done without delay if Doppler is not available",
"If left testis is not exploration, patient should undergo left Orchid... | A | Ans. (a) The patient should be prescribed antibiotics and asked to come after a week* Our aim in this case is to differentiate orchitis from torsion.* So we can't just like that send him home without confirming there is no torsion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following disease, the overall survival is increased by screening procedure- | [
"Prostate Ca",
"Lung Cancer",
"Colon Ca",
"Ovarian Ca"
] | C | Schwaz says "Because the majority of Colorectal cancers are thought to arise from Adenomatous polyps, preventive measures focus upon identification and removal of these premalignant lesions. In addition, many cancers are asymptomatic and screening may detect these tumors at an early and curable stage American cancer society Recommendations for early detection of cancer in Average - Risk, Asymptomatic individuals Cancer site - Colorectal Population to be screened - Men and women aged >= 50 years Test or procedure - Fecal occult blood test(FOBT( or fecal immunochemical test (FIT( Flexible sigmoidoscopy FOBT and Flexible sigmoidoscopy Double - Contrast barium enema (DCBE) Colonoscopy Frequency Annual, staing at age 50 Every 5 years, staing at age 50 Annual FOBT, (or FIT) and flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years, staing at age 50 DCBE every 5 years, staing at age 50 Colonoscopy every 10 years, staing at age 50 Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pgno : 481 Schwaz 10th edition Pgno : 298 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cephalic index helps in identification of: | [
"Race",
"Stature",
"Sex",
"Weight"
] | A | From measuring cephalic index, race can be determined in 85-90% of cases. Mainly three types of races are there: Caucasian (white): Skull rounded, orbits triangular, nasal apeure elongated, palate triangular, upper and lower limbs normal in propoion to body. Mongolian (yellow): Skull square, orbits rounded, nasal apeure rounded, palate rounded, upper and lower limbs smaller. Negro (black): Skull narrow and elongated, orbits square, nasal apeure broad, palate rectangular, upper and lower limbs longer. Ref: Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 53. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Casals Necklace pattern is seen in | [
"Thiamine deficiency",
"Riboflavin deficiency",
"Niacin deficiency",
"All of the above"
] | C | (C) Niacin deficiency # Casal collar or Casal Necklace is a clinical sign in which there is an erythematous pigmented skin rash in the distribution of a broad collar (dermatomes C3 and C4). It is seen in patients with pellagra. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Auto immune polyglandular syndrome - 1 includes all except? | [
"Autoimmune thyroiditis",
"Addison disease",
"Mucocutanneous candidiasis",
"Hypoparathyroidism"
] | A | Major criteria for Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome - 1 :
Mucocutaneous candidiasis.
Hypoparathyroidism.
Addison disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lymphocyte phenotype test done for? | [
"Agammaglobinemia",
"SCID",
"Sepsis",
"Acute leukemia"
] | B | Ans. (b) SCID(Ref: HENRY'S Clinical Diagnosis and Management by Laboratory Methods; 22ned ed/ pg 944-945)Lymphocyte phenotyping for assessing immune deficiency includes CD3 (pan T cell), CD4 (T helper subset), CD8 (T cytotoxic/suppressor subset), CD 19 (pan B cell), CD 16/56 (pan NK cell) and other cell surface markers as required based on clinical data. This analysis is indicated in diagnosis and monitoring of immunodeficiencies and immunotherapy in children and adults | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is most common and malignant neuroendocrine tumour of pancreas? | [
"Gastrinoma",
"Glucagonoma",
"Insulinoma",
"VIPoma"
] | C | Answer- C. InsulinomaInsulinomas are the most common pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, but only l0% are malignant.Gastrin-producing tumor (gastrinoma) are the most common malignant pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
At which level sound is painful - | [
"100-120dB",
"80-85dB",
"60-65dB",
"20-25dB"
] | A | Intensity
Whisper - 30 dB
Normal conversation - 60 dB
Shout - 90 dB
Discomfort of ear - 120 dB
Pain in ear -130 dB
Ref. Dhingra, 6/e, p 19 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Emporiatrics deals with the health of the - | [
"Farmers",
"Travellers",
"Industrial workers",
"Mine workers"
] | B | Travel medicine or emporiatrics is the branch of medicine that deals with the prevention and management of health problems of international travelers. Travel health advice is primarily aimed at prevention, and is therefore offered before travel. It includes steps taken before travel like Medical examinations and screening, Psychological preparation, Provision of a medical kit, First aid training, Preventive measures for prevention of thermal injury, Insure and plan for aeromedical evacuation and repatriation, Advice regarding accidents and related hazards, Special provisions for specific travel hazards and Protection against tropical diseases. Ref - Davidson 23rd edition pg 1010 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following is an activator of LCAT | [
"Apo AI",
"Apo E",
"Apo B 48",
"Apo B 100"
] | A | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
EEG in a male fully awake with eyes closed, electrodes placed at occipital position will record | [
"a waves",
"ss waves",
"g waves",
"d waves"
] | A | In adult humans who are awake but at rest with mind wandering and the eyes closed, the most prominent component of the EEG is a fairly regular pattern of waves at a frequency of 8-13Hz and amplitude of 50-100uV when recorded from the scalp. This pattern is the alpha rhythm. It is most marked in the parietal and occipital lobes and is associated with decreased levels of attention. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition ; pg :235 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Loud P2 is found in ? | [
"Pulmonary HTN",
"MS",
"MR",
"Aoic incompetence"
] | A | Answer- A. Pulmonary HTNPulmonary hypeension unless proved otherwise.Eisenmenger's syndrome due to ASD, VSD, PDA.Multiple pulmonary thrombi | train | med_mcqa | null |
Herpes zoster oticus is caused by- | [
"Herpes virus type I",
"Herpes virus type 2",
"Herpes virus type 3",
"Herpes virus type 4"
] | C | Ans. C. Herpes virus type 3Herpes Zoster oticus or Ramsay - Hunt syndrome is caused by varicella (herpes) Zoster virus also know as Human herpes virus type-3. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Structure not enclosed by carotid sheath - | [
"Internal carotid artery",
"Vagus",
"Cervical sympathetic chain",
"Internal jugular vein"
] | C | Carotid sheath contains ICA, IJV and vagus nerve. In upper part of sheath there are IX, XI, XII nerves also. | train | med_mcqa | null |
About ICF, true is | [
"14 L",
"20 % of body weight",
"28 L",
"33% of body weight"
] | C | Intracellular Fluid (28L)- 40% Body Weight- 67% TBW. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are seen in morphine poisoning except: | [
"Cyanosis",
"Pinpoint pupil",
"Hypeension",
"Respiratory depression"
] | C | Hypotension is a feature and not hypeension Features of Morphine Poisoning: Euphoria - Initial euphoria followed by period of sedation (nodding off) - Lethal - respiratory depression Slow respiration, hypothermia, hypotension bradycardia, cyanosis, pin point pupil, cyanosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
About chronic hepatitis B , all are true, EXCEPT: | [
"90 % chance for chronic infection if infected at bih.",
"Mild chronic hepatitis B has 5 year survival 97 %",
"Adult infection is usually symptomatic",
"Chronicity if infected in adult age is about 10 %"
] | D | Chronic hepatitis B: 1. Infection at bih is clinically silent but carries a 90% chance of chronic infection. 2. Infection in young adulthood is clinically apparent acute hepatitis but a risk of chronicity of only approximately 1%. 3. A 5-year survival rate of 97% for patients with mild chronic hepatitis B, 86% for moderate to severe chronic hepatitis B, and only 55% for patients with chronic hepatitis and postnecrotic cirrhosis. Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page-2567. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 69-year-old man is informed that the cause of his dysphagis is a benign lesion. The barium swallow is shown in (Figure below). What should he be told regarding benign tumors and cysts of the esophagus?Leiomyoma of esophagus. Note smooth rounded density causing extrinsic compression of esophageal lumen | [
"They occur more commonly than malignant tumors.",
"They are symptomatic at an early age.",
"Diagnosis is best confirmed on chest x-ray.",
"Leiomyoma is the most common benign tumor encountered in the esophagus."
] | D | Leiomyoma is the most common benign tumor encountered in the esophagus. Malignant transformation is thought to be rare. Less than 10%. of alimentary tract leiomyomas are found in the esophagus. They are composed of spindle cells and grow slowly and may progressively cause obstructive symptoms. Leiomyomas are not referred to as a benign GIST. Other benign lesions are congenital or acquired cysts, adenomatous polyps, papillomas, lipomas, neurofibromas, and hemangiomas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Millennium development goal targets to reduce MMR in 2015 by: (2014 Feb REPEAT) | [
"0.25",
"0.75",
"0.5",
"1"
] | B | Ans: B (0.75) Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 22nd edition, pg: 835Explanation:Millennium Development Goals (MDGs)MDGs are eight goals to be achieved by 2015 that respond to the world's main development challenged.It was adopted in 2000.MDG was set by UN.Indicators were compared from 1990 to 2015.There are totally, 8 goals, 21 quantifiable targets and 60 indicators.Out of these, 3 goals, 8 targets and 18 indicators are directly related to health.8 MDGs are:Goal 1: To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger.Goal 2: To achieve universal primary education.Goal 3: To promote gender equality and empowering women.Goal 4: To reduce child mortality rates.Goal 5: To improve maternal health.Goal 6: To combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases.Goal 7: To ensure environmental sustainability.Goal 8: To develop a global partnership for development.Some Important Health Related MDGsGoatsTargetDescriptionGoal 4 (To reduce child mortality rates!Target 4. AReduce the Under five mortality rate by two thirds (2/3rd or 66.6%) between 1930 to 2015Goal 5 (To improve maternal health)Target 5. AReduce the maternal mortality rate (MMR) by three quarters (3/4th or 0.75) between 1930 - 2015Target 5. BAchieve Universal access 1o reproductive hearth by 2015 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of hypernatremia? | [
"Primary hypodipsia",
"Carcinoid syndrome",
"Renal losses",
"Sweating"
] | A | Elderly individuals with reduced thirst and/or diminished access to fluids are at the highest risk of developing hypernatremia. Patients with hypernatremia may rarely have a central defect in hypothalamic osmoreceptor function, with a mixture of both decreased thirst and reduced AVP secretion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pain during injection occurs with all Except | [
"Propofol",
"Thiopentone",
"Ketamine",
"Etomidate"
] | C | Ketamine is the only intravenous inducing agent that does not cause pain on injectionAgentPain on iv injectionThiopentoneMethohexitonePropofolEtomidateKetamine+/0++++++0 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which layer of epidermis is underdeveloped in the VLBW infants in the initial 7 days: | [
"Stratum germinativum",
"Stratum granulosum",
"Stratum lucidum",
"Stratum corneum"
] | D | D i.e. Stratum corneum | train | med_mcqa | null |
Total claw hand is seen in the paralysis of:September 2005 | [
"Ulnar and median nerve",
"Ulnar nerve",
"Median nerve",
"Radial nerve"
] | A | Ans. A: Ulnar and median nerveClaw hand deformity is manifested by flattening of the transverse metacarpal arch and longitudinal arches, with hyperextension of MCP joints and flexion of the PIP and DIP joints;This deformity is produced by imbalance of the intrinsic & extrinsics:i. Intrinsic muscles must be markedly weakened or paralyzed to produce claw deformity;Long extensor muscles hyperextend the MCP joint, & long flexor muscles flex the PIP and DIP joints; weakness of thelong flexors (as in high palsy) actually decreases claw fingers;In ulnar nerve palsy, only the medial two fingers develops clawing while all the four fingers develop clawing in combined median and ulnar nerve palsy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In diffuse calcification of pancreas calcium lies in? | [
"Acinar tissues",
"Interstitium",
"Pancreatic ducts",
"Any where"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Anywhere | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is true about synol joint ? | [
"Stability is inversely propoional to mobility",
"Hyaline cailage covers aicular surface of all synol joints.",
"Metacarpo-phalangeal joint is a hinge joint",
"\"Cailage usually divides the joint into two cavities\"."
] | A | A i.e. Stability is inversely propoional to mobility | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wine Glass appearance on T2W-MRI BRAIN is seen with? | [
"Metachromatic Leukodystrophy",
"Canavans Disease",
"Creutzfeld Jacob Disease",
"Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis"
] | D | Wine Glass Sign on MRI Brain *T2-weighted imaging, black arrow shows hyperintensity in the posterior bilateral internal capsule and b/l coicospinal tracts with classical wine glass appearance in ALS/Lou Gehrig's disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum potassium ions secretion is seen in | [
"Saliva",
"Gastric secretions",
"Jejunal secretions",
"Colonic secretions"
] | A | Saliva Maximum potassium secretion are: (1) Colon & rectum = 85 meq/l (2) Saliva = 25 meq/l (3) Others = 5 meq/l Now if we look at the total secretions: Colonic secretions = 200 ml/day so Potassium = 17 meq/day Salivary secretions = 2 litres/day so potassium = 50 meq/day Others = 5-6 litres/day so potassium = 25-30 meq/day But since colon excretes body fluids and saliva secretes body fluids: Max daily potassium secretion is Saliva Max daily potassium excretion is Colon. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 400,401,402 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is passing stones recurrently in urine for past few years. All are due to be restrlcted in diet except- | [
"Protein restriction",
"Calcium restriction",
"Salt restricted diet",
"Phosphate restriction"
] | B | The inverse relationship between low dietary calcium intake and an increase in stone formation is likely due to a secondary increase in urinary oxalate. While urinary calcium levels decreased in both groups, urinary oxalate levels increased in men on the low calcium diet and decreased in men on the normal calcium diet Ref Harrison20th edition pg 277 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about conductive deafness except ? | [
"Rinne's test is negative",
"Absolute bone conduction is normal",
"Weber is lateralized to poorer ear",
"There is decay in threshold tone"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., There is decay in threshold tone | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior capsular cataract is treated by which laser? | [
"Argon laser",
"CO2 laser",
"Excimer",
"Nd YAG"
] | D | Ans. (d) Nd YAGRef: Khurana 4/ey p 431 | train | med_mcqa | null |
An infant present with an omphalocele at bih. Which of the following applies to this condition? | [
"It is also seen in patients with congenital aganglionic megacolon",
"It results from herniation at the site of regression of the right umbilical vein",
"It is caused by a failure of recanalization of the midgut pa of the duodenum",
"It is caused by failure of the midgut to return to the abdominal cavity afte... | D | Omphalocele is a ventral body wall defect caused by failure of physiologically herniated loops of bowel to return to the body cavity in the 10th week, congenital aganglionic megacolon is Hirschsprung disease Gastroschisis is a ventral body wall defect, failure of recanalization of the midgut pa of the duodenum leads to duodenal atresia Ref: Gray's 39e/p-1289 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is first external sign of decomposition of dead body - | [
"Decomposition of liver and intestine",
"Greenish discoloration over right iliac fossa",
"Greenish discoloration over dependent pas",
"Blood stained froth from mouth"
] | B | The first external sign of putrefaction in body is greenish discolouration over right iliac fossa, caecum where the contents are more fluid and full of bacteria. Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27 th edition pg. 82. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 70-kg young athlete was planned for surgery. During anaesthesia, vecuronium was not available, so repeated doses of succinylcholine was given intermittently up to 640 mg. During recovery, patient was not able to spontaneously respire and move limbs. What is the cause? | [
"Pseudocholinesterase deficiency",
"Phase II blockade",
"Muscle weakness due to repeated fasciculations",
"Undiagnosed muscular dystrophy"
] | B | Ans. (B) Phase II blockade(Ref: Wiley 7/384-586, Lee 12/223)Succinylcholine produces a characteristic depolarizing block that is associated with absence of fade in response to train-of-four and titanic stimulation, the absence of post-tetanic facilitation and increased block in the presence of anticholinesterase drugs. The type of block may change into a non-depolarizing type following prolonged administration of the drug (phase II block). Transition from a depolarizing to phase II block is gradual and usually occurs after administration of 7-10 mg/kg of succinylcholine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a usual feature of right middle cerebral aery territory infarct : | [
"Aphasia.",
"Hemiparesis",
"Facial weakness",
"Dysahria"
] | A | Answer is A (Aphasia): Aphasia is a manifestation of dominant parietal lobe involvement. Dominant hemisphere is right handed person is left hemisphere and thus a right middle cerebral aery infarct indicates 'Non Dominant Paial Lobe' involvement. Apahsia will not be a manifestation because an infarction in middle cerebral aery distribution on the right side affect the non dominant parietal lobe (kit parietal lobe). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Three point relationship is lost in all, EXCEPT | [
"Fracture of lateral epicondyle",
"Fracture of medial epicondyle",
"Posterior dislocation of elbow",
"Supracondylar fracture of humerus"
] | D | D i.e. Supracondylar | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most common oral infection in diabetes mellitus? | [
"Candida",
"Aspergillus",
"Streptococcus",
"Staphylococcus"
] | A | Individuals with DM have a greater frequency and severity of infection. It is due to abnormalities in cell-mediated immunity and phagocyte function associated with hyperglycemia, as well as diminished vascularization. Hyperglycemia aids the colonization and growth o f a variety of organisms . Most commonly by Candida and other fungal species. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gillette's space is | [
"Retropharyngeal space",
"Peritonsillar space",
"Parapharyngeal space",
"None"
] | A | Retropharyngeal space, situated behind the pharynx and extending from the base of the skull to the bifurcation of the trachea. Space is divided into two lateral compaments (spaces of Gillette) by a fibrous raphe. Each lateral space contains retropharyngeal nodes which usually disappear at 3-4 years of age. Parapharyngeal space communicates with the retropharyngeal space. Infection of retropharyngeal space can pass down behind the oesophagus into the mediastinum. (Ref: Diseases of ear, nose and throat, PL Dhingra, 7thh edition, page no. 299) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Haematocrit is the ratio of: | [
"WBC to whole blood",
"Platelets to whole blood",
"RBCs to whole blood",
"Total blood cells to plasma"
] | C | Haematocrit (also known as packed cell volume) is the volume percentage (%) of red blood cells in blood. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Presently, classification of psychiatric illness is done by: | [
"DSM-V",
"ICD-10",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | C | Ans. C: Both of the aboveThe modern era in the classification of mental diseases began towards the end of the 18th century during the French Revolution with the concepts and humane practices of figures such as Philippe Pinel (1745-1826).William Cullen (1710-90) tried to subsume under the heading of 'neurosis' all forms of mental disorder including such conditions as tetanus, epilepsy, vesania, and a rough description of psychosis, but his concepts soon proved over-inclusive. The term 'psychosis' was first formulated by Ernst von Feuchtersleben (1806-49) in his Principles of Medical Psychology. At present, there are two major classifications in Psychiatry, namely ICD-10 (1992) and DSM-V(2013) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In congenital diaphragmatic hernia all are seen except? | [
"Common on left side",
"Abdominal distension",
"Can be detected antenatally",
"Hea beat shifted to right"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Decreased venous return | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 55-year-old known smoker for 25 years presents with a low pitched voice. Endoscopy shows a mass limited to the vocal cord on the left. A biopsy is suggestive of laryngeal cancer type T1N0. Treatment of choice would be - | [
"Vertical partial hemilaryngectomy",
"Radiotherapy",
"Chemotherapy",
"Total laryngectomy with cervical lymph node dis section"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Radiotherapy Treatment of glottic cancero Stage-dependent treatment include:-i) Carcinoma in situ (CIN):- Best treated by transoral endoscopic CO2 laser. If the laser is not available stripping of vocal cord is done and the tissue is sent for biopsy. If the biopsy shows invasive carcinoma, radiotherapy is given otherwise regular follow up is done?ii) T1 carcinoma:- Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice. Surgery is used only after they recur.# T1 carcinoma with extension to anterior commissure:- The treatment of choice is radiotherapy. If it is unavailable, frontolateral partial laryngectomy is done with regular follow up. If it fails, total laryngectomy is performed.# T1 Ca with extension to arytenoid:- Treatment is same as above but surgery is preferrediii) T2 carcinoma:- Treatment depends on- i) Mobility of vocal cords, and ii) Involvement of anterior commissure and/or arytenoid:a) If the mobility of the cord is not impaired (cord is mobile) and anterior commissure and/or arytenoid not involved.# Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice. In case of recurrence total laryngectomy or partial vertical laryngectomy is doneb) If the mobility of cord is impaired or anterior commissure and/or arytenoid involved:- Voice preserving conservative surgery such as vertical hemilaryngectomy or frontolateral laryngectomy is done. Total laryngectomy is done if there is recurrence on follow up.iv) T3 and T4 carcinoma:- Total laryngectomy is the treatment of choice; combined with neck dissection if the nodes are palpable. More advanced lesions are treated by combined therapy, i.e., surgery with postoperative radiotherapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Testicular aery is a branch of - | [
"Abdominal aoa",
"Common iliac aery",
"External iliac aery",
"Internal iliac aery"
] | A | Testicular aery is direct branch of abdominal aoa. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Special transmembrane proteins which make up gap junctions is called as | [
"Cadherins",
"Occludins",
"Connexons",
"Claudins"
] | C | Communicating junctions (gap junctions) mediate the passage of chemical or electrical signals from one cell to another. The junction consists of a dense planar array of 1.5- to 2-nm pores (called connexons) formed by hexamers of transmembrane proteins called connexins. These pores permit the passage of ions, nucleotides, sugars, amino acids, vitamins, and other small molecules; the permeability of the junction is rapidly reduced by lowered intracellular pH or increased intracellular calcium. Gap junctions play a critical role in cell-cell communication.Ref: Robbin&;s; 9th edition; Chapter 1; The Cell as a Unit of Health and Disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the maximum permissible limit of daily exposure to noise level without causing damage to hearing? | [
"80 dB",
"85 dB",
"90 dB",
"95 dB"
] | B | Exposure to noise above 160 dB cause ruptures of the tympanic membrane. dB is unit of intensity of sound. For frequency unit is Hz Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 742 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Procalcitonin is used as a marker for? | [
"Sepsis",
"Medullary carcinoma of thyroid",
"Vitamin D resistant rickets",
"parathyroid adenoma"
] | A | Answer is option 1, sepsis Prompt diagnosis and treatment with appropriate antimicrobial chemotherapy is of paramount impoance to reduce morbidity and moality associated with sepsis. Inflammatory markers currently in use, such as C-reactive protein (CRP) do not reliably differentiate between the systemic inflammatory response and sepsis. Procalcitonin (PCT), a precursor of calcitonin, is a 116 amino acid protein that has been proposed as a marker of disease severity in conditions such as septicaemia, meningitis, pneumonia, urinary tract infection (UTI) and fungal and parasitic infection. Ref : | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gardener's syndrome is a rare hereditary disorder involving the colon. It is characterized by: | [
"Polyposis colon, cancer thyroid, skin tumours",
"Polyposis in jejunum, pituitary adenoma and skin tumours",
"Polyposis colon, osteomas, epidermal inclusion cysts and fibrous tumours in the skin",
"Polyposis of gastrointestinal tract, Cholangiocarcinoma and skin tumours"
] | C | Gardner's syndrome is a hereditary disorder characterized by adenomatous polyposis of large intestine in association with osteomas, epidermoid cysts, fibrous tumors of skin and congenital hyperophy of retinal pigment epithelium. Ref: Intestinal Polyps and Polyposis: From Genetics to Treatment and Follow-up By Gian Gaetano Delaini, Page 60 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a classic symptom associated with delirium tremens? | [
"Tremor",
"Coarse nystagmus",
"Clouding of consciousness",
"Vivid hallucinations"
] | B | Vivid hallucinations, Clouding of consciousness and Vivid hallucinations are the classic triad of symptoms of delirium tremens. The symptoms peak at 72-96 hours (3-4 days). Death occurs in 5% of the cases. Autonomic disturbance, ataxia, insomnia, poor attention span, insomnia and dehydration are also symptoms of DT. Coarse nystagmus and ophthalmoplegia are symptoms of Wenicke's enchephalopathy. Ref: A Sho Text Book of Psychiatry by Niraj Ahuja, 2006, Page 41 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are surface anaesthetics except - | [
"Lignocaine",
"Bupivacaine",
"Procaine",
"Cinchocaine"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bupivacaine o Topical anaesthesia (surface anaesthesia) is produced by topical application of local anaesthetics to mucous membrane or abraded skin. o Surface anaesthetics are Dibucaine (Cinchocaine) Lignocaine Benoxinate Oxethazaine Prilocaine Tetracaine (Amethocaine) Cocaine Benzocaine Butamben o Procaine has very less potent surface anaesthetic action (1/10) --> not used as surface anaesthetic. o But amongst the given options best answer is bupivacaine, it does not have surface anaesthetic action. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Targeted critical agents used in a bioterrorist event are except? | [
"Junin virus",
"Ricinus communis",
"Bacillus cereus",
"Coxiella burnetii"
] | C | Ans. C. Bacillus cereusAgents of bioterrorisma) Ricinus communisb) Bacillus anthracisc) Coxiella burnetiid) Yersinia pestise) Small poxf) Viral hemorrhagic fevers -Junin virus | train | med_mcqa | null |
If a new sputum smear positive patient of tuberculosis continues to be smear positive at the end of intensive phase of category I treatment under DOTS, fuher management of this patient would be to - | [
"Sta category I treatment again",
"Treat. him as failure and sta category II treatmenet under DOTS",
"Continue the intensive phase or treatment for one more month",
"Sta continuation phase under category I"
] | C | <p> Patients in category I &II , who have a positive sputum smear at the end of the initial intensive phase , receive an additional month of intensive phase treatment. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:188. <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
HMP shunt occurs in all organs except | [
"Liver",
"Adipose tissue",
"RBC",
"Brain"
] | D | The organs in which HMP pathway occurs are those which are actively concerned with lipid synthesis, like the adipose tissue, kidney, lactating mammary gland, liver, RBC, thyroid, and gonads. It takes place in the cytosol.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 131 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following group of drugs can cause Cystoid macular edema? | [
"Prostaglandin F2a analogue",
"Prostaglandin E2 analogues",
"Oral corticosteroids",
"a blockers"
] | B | Ans. (b) Prostaglandin E2 analoguesRef: Becker-Shaffer Glaucoma 8/e, p. 400Drugs causing Cystoid macular edema* Benzylalkonium chloride* Timolol* Dinoprostone (PGE2 analogues) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most abundant extracellular ion? | [
"Calcium",
"Potassium",
"Sodium",
"Chloride"
] | C | Sodium is the most abundant extracellular ion, whereas potassium is the most abundant intracellular ion. Phosphate is the most abundant intracellular anion and chloride is the most abundant extracellular anion. Ref: Human anatomy and physiology By Elaine N. Marieb, Katja Hoehn, 2010, Page 625; Guyton's physiology 11th edition page 46, 358. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most common tumours of hea? | [
"Myxoma",
"Lipoma",
"Rhabdomyoma",
"None of the above"
] | A | Myxomas are the most common primary tumor of the hea in adults.They are benign neoplasms often associated with clonal abnormalities of chromosomes 12 and 17 that are thought to arise from primitive multipotent mesenchymal cells. Although they may arise in any of the four chambers, about 90% are located in the atria with a left-to-right ratio of approximately 4:1. Ref: Robbins 8th edition Chapter 2. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 26-year-old woman with a past history of seizure disorder is admitted to the medical ICU with status epilepticus. Due to continued seizures, she is placed in a barbiturate coma. As pa of suppoive measures, she is intubated, placed on a mechanical ventilator, and given IV fluids through a central line. She remains stable overnight. In the morning, however, the respiratory therapist repos that she has had excessive mucopurulent secretions throughout the night and that her peak and plateau airway pressures have risen 20 cm. She is febrile with a temperature of 100.2degF the next morning. CXR is shown.An impoant step in management of this patient would be | [
"Chest tube placement",
"Thoracotomy",
"Fiberoptic bronchoscopy, antibiotic therapy, and chest physiotherapy",
"Abrupt cessation of barbiturates"
] | C | This x-ray shows homogeneous opacity in the right upper lobe with a marked shift of the horizontal fissure. No air bronchograms are seen. This is consistent with right upper lobe atelectasis. There is a small bump near the hilum in the curve of the minor fissure that may represent a proximal mass. The clinical history as well as the homogeneous density seen in the right upper lobe are consistent with right upper lobe atelectasis. Complications of central line placement may include lung contusion or hemothorax, but the x-ray findings usually show an expanding density. The clinical history with seizure disorder, the subsequent intubation, and the excessive secretions suggest that a mucus plug is probably causing right upper lobe atelectasis. In view of this, the next step in immediate management would be to begin aggressive chest physical therapy, or a bronchoscopy could help dislodge the mucus plug and clear the right upper lobe bronchus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which disease is caused by anti - phospholipase 2 antibody: | [
"MPGN",
"Membrabous glomerulopathy",
"FSGN",
"Minimal Change Disease"
] | B | Membranous glomerulopathy:- MC nephrotic syndrome in elderly patient. Subepithelial Immune complex deposition on IF Spike and dome appearance on EM Cause by Anti phospholipase 2 receptor Antibody FSGS:- MC nephrotic syndrome in adult No immune complex deposition, -ve Immunofluorescent Effacement of foot processon EM. Minimal Changes:- MC nephrotic syndrome is children No Immune complex deposition, -ve IF Effacement of foot process on EM. MPGN :- Nephrotic syndrome involving mesangial and increase proliferation of capillary loop. Train tract appearance on H/E due to thick glomerular basement membrane. Immune complex deposition (Granular IF) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Size of the bur for preparing lingual rest seat for a RPD is | [
"1/10 inch",
"1/4 inch",
"1/2 inch",
"1 inch"
] | B | To prepare the lingual rest in enamel, a safe side 1/4 inch diamond disk should be used.
Occlusal rest seats in sound enamel may be prepared with diamond points of approximately the size of No. 6 and round burs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most commonly involved ossicle in CSOM is | [
"Malleus",
"Incus",
"Stapes",
"All the above"
] | B | Ossicular necrosis is one of the sequale of CSOM. Most commonly, long process of incus gets necrosed. Sometimes, stapes superstructure also gets necrosed. This increases the conductive hearing loss to more than 50 dB Ref: Diseases of ENT by Dhingra 6th edition Pgno : 73 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The V wave of jugular venous pulses is produced due to: | [
"Atrial systole preceding tricuspid valve closure",
"Descent of the tricuspid valve ring",
"Closure of tricuspid valve",
"Passive filing of atrium during ventricular systole"
] | D | d. Passive filling of atrium during ventricular systole(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2164-2169)Normal waves in jugular venous pulseName ofwaveUnderlying causea waveAtrial contractionc waveTransmission of carotid arterial impulse through jugular veins or by bulging of tricuspid valve cusps into right atrium in early systole.v waveFilling up of Right atrium in late systole and early diastole.x waveAtrium relaxes and tricuspid valve moves downwardy waveFilling of ventricle after tricuspid opening | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following type of turret (golden and silver) are used for? | [
"Forming rectangular arch wire",
"Forming round arch wire",
"Forming square arch wire",
"All of the above"
] | A | TURRET – GOLD
It is used for forming rectangular arch wires with torque adjustments: 0o – 7o – 10o – 13o – 16o.
It is used for use only with wire = .018”
TURRET – SILVER
It is used for forming rectangular arch wires with torque adjustments: 0o – 7o – 10o – 13o – 16o.
It is used for use only with wire = .022”
NOTE: GREEN TURRET is used for forming round arch wire. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following Lipidoses are inherited as Autosomal Recessive Except | [
"Fabry",
"Krabbe",
"Gaucher",
"Taysachs"
] | A | FABRY DISEASE This disease is an X-linked inborn error of glycosphingolipid metabolism caused by the absent or markedly deficient activity of a-galactosidase A (a-gal A).Reference: Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics; 20th edition; Chapter 86; Defects in Metabolism of Lipids | train | med_mcqa | null |
The characteristic "sulfur grains"of actinomycosis are composed chiefly of | [
"Organisms",
"Neutrophils and monocytes",
"Monocytes and lymphocytes",
"Eosinophils"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Culture media used for diagnosis of EHEC 0157 : H7 is: | [
"O7 culture",
"Sorbitol MacConkey media",
"XLD Agar",
"Deoxycholate Media"
] | B | Non- DNA- dependent methods are used for routine diaggnosis of EHEC 0157: H7. This serotype is suggested by isolation of an E-coli that fails to fermant sorbitol on MacConkey sorbitol; latex aggulination confirms. Ref: Kliegman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton (2008), "Nelson textbook of Pediatrics", Chapter 197, "Escherichia coli", Volume 1, Page 1196; Textbook of Microbiology By Ananihnarayanan, 7th Edition, Page 279; Medical Microbiology By Jawetz, 24th Edition, Page 254; Current Diagnosis and Treatment in Infectious Diseases, 11th Edition, Page 550 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are seen is tumor lysis syndrome except: (Repeat) | [
"Hypercalcemia",
"Hypocalcemia",
"Hyperphosphatemia",
"Hyperkalemia"
] | A | Ans: A (Hypercalcemia) Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edition, pg 2274Explanation:Refer Medicine 2(H3 question explanationTumor lysis Syndrome ( TLS)Characteristic biochemical changes in Tumor lysis SyndromeHyperuricemiaHyperkalemiaHypocalcemiaHyperphosphatemiaAcidosisAcute renal failure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features seen in Chronic Pancreatitis except ? | [
"Chronic persistent pain",
"Diarrhoea, Steatorrhoea",
"Calcification",
"Paralytic ileus"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Paralytic ileus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Griseofulvin is used in – | [
"Tinea capitis",
"P. versicolor",
"Candidiasis",
"ALL"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following are true about case control study except- | [
"Retrospective study",
"Risk factor is present but not outcome",
"Both outcome and risk factors have occured",
"There is not risk to people in study"
] | B | Case control studies often retrospective studies are common first approach to test causal hypothesis. In recent years, case control study has emerged as a permanent method of epidemiological investigation. Both exposure and outcome has occurred before the study. Study proceeds backwards from effect to cause. It uses a control or comparison group to suppo or refute an inference Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 79 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bronchiectasis means..............of bronchi - | [
"Inflammation",
"Dilatation",
"Cavitation",
"All"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dilatation Bronchiectasis Bronchiectasis is a disease characterized by permanant dilatation of bronchi and bronchioles caused by destruction of the muscle and elastic tissue, resulting from or associated with chronic necrotizing infections. Bronchiectasis is associated with ?Congenital conditions Cystic fibrosis o Primary ciliary dyskinesia (Kaagener syndrome) o Intralobar sequestration of the lung. Post infectious necrotizing pneumonia o Bacteria --> M. Tuberculosis, staph. aureus. H. influenzae, Pseudomonas. o Viruses Adenovirus, HIV, influenza virus. o Fungus --> Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. Bronchial obstruction ---> Tumor, foreign body, mucus impaction. Other conditions --> RA, SLE, IBD, post-transplantation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ultrasonic sound waves employed in ultrasound machine for medical sonography have the frequency of - | [
"2 – 20 MHz",
"Less than 1 MHz",
"20 – 20, 000 Hz",
"Greater than 100 MHz"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a triple negative breast cancer - | [
"Colloid Cancer",
"Secretory cell cancer",
"Acinic Cell Carcinoma",
"Mucinous Carcinoma"
] | B | Answer- B. Secretory cell cancerUpon histologic examination, triple-negative breast tumors mostly fall into the categories of secretory cell carcinoma or adenoid cystic types (both considered less aggressive); medullary cancerc and grade 3 invasive ductal carcinonas with no specific subtype; and highly aggressive metastatic cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs may cause thrombocytopenia - | [
"Ticlopidine",
"Clopidogrel",
"Abciximab",
"Aspirin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ticlopidine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sho term memory conversion to long-term memory takes place in | [
"Hypothalamus",
"Thalamus",
"Hippocampus",
"Amygdala"
] | C | Sho-term memory lasts seconds to hours during which processing in the hippocampus and elsewhere lays down longterm changes in synaptic length.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:290. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The hardness of Hard water (in mg/L) is | [
"<50",
"50-100",
"150-300",
">300"
] | C | (PARK TB 25rd edition pg 787) Hardness is the soap destroying power of water. Level of hardness is expressed in terms of milliequivalents per litre where one milliequivalent is equal to 50mg calcium carbonate in one litre of water. The level of hardness of hard water is equal to 3-6mEq/L or 150-300 mg/L. CLASSIFICATION LEVEL OF HARDNESS (mEq./L) LEVEL OF HARDNESS (mg/L) soft water <1 <50 moderately hard 1-3 50-150 hard water 3-6 150-300 very hard >6 >300 | train | med_mcqa | null |
24 yr old woman walking up experiences pain in heel which decreases on walking down. X-ray shows bone spur. Diagnosis ? | [
"Plantar fasciitis",
"Calcaneal exostosis",
"Osteomyelitis of calcaneum",
"Achillis tendinitis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Achillis tendinitis Heel pain when walking up hill or up stairs is typical of Achillis tendinitis. Other three options can also cause heel pain, but pain in these conditions has no relation to going up or down. It is consitent throughout. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the interleukins is responsible for endogenous pyrexia in a young lady admitted on the medical ward? | [
"IL1",
"IL6",
"INF gamma",
"IFN alpha"
] | A | IL1 also konwn as endogenous pyrogen causes fever by inducing the production of prostaglandin E2 which acts on the hypothalamus and induce a fever like reaction. IL 1 is produced by macrophages. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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