question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Which of the enzyme of glycolysis is used ingluconeogenesis ? | [
"Glucokinase",
"PFK",
"Pyruvate kinase",
"Phosphotriose isomerase"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Phosphotriose isomerase Enzyme in gluconeogenesis Seven of the reactions of glycolysis are reversible and are used in the synthesis of glucose by gluconeogenesis. Thus, seven enzymes are common to both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis: (i) Phosphohexose isomerase; (ii) Aldolase; (iii) Phosphotriose isomerase; (iv) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase; (v) Phosphoglycerate kinase; (vi) Phosphoglycerate mutase; (vii) Enolase. Three of the reactions of glycolysis are irreversible and must be circumvented by four special reactions which are unique to gluconeogenesis and catalyzed by : (i) Pyruvate carboxylase, (ii) PEP carboxykinase, (iii) Fructose-1, 6- bisphosphatase, (iv) Glucose-6-phosphatase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In HLA system, the cluster of genes are located in | [
"Chromosome 6",
"Chromosome 21",
"X-Chromosome",
"Y-chromosome"
] | A | (Chromosome 6) (133-A)* Major histocompatibility complexes (MHC) also known as the HLA system (after human leucocyte antigen)This is a cluster of gene on chromosomes 6 that is responsible for immunological specificity* The proteins for which they code are attached to cell surfaces and act as "chaperones" for foreign antigens which have to be accompanied by HLA before they are recognized and engaged by the body's T-cells | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following nutritional assessment methods indicate inadequate nutrition, except: | [
"Hb < 11.5 g/dl during 3rd trimester of pregnancy",
"Increased 1-4 year moality rate",
"Bih weight < 2500 gm",
"Decreased weight for height"
] | A | Hemoglobin Ref: CURRENT Medical Diagnosis and Treatment, 2008, Page 677; Essential Pediatrics By O P Ghai, 6th Edition, Page 101; Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, 18th Edition, Page 228; Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th Edition, Pages 515-518 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Measles epidemic can be anticipated when proportion of suceptible children in a community | [
"20%",
"40%",
"60%",
"80%"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anthracosis is caused by - | [
"Silica",
"Iron",
"Coal dust",
"Cotton dust"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Coal dust * Anthracosis- Coal dust* Silicosis- Silica* Siderosis- Iron* Byssinosis- Cotton dust (textile industry)* Farmer's lung- Hay or grain dust (micropolyspora faeni)* Sequousis- Moldy red wood saw dust* Suberosis- Moldy cork dust* Detergent workers lung- Enzyme additives* Baggassosis- Sugarcane dust (thermoactinomyces sacchari) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements is false about Acyclovir- | [
"It inhibits DNA synthesis and viral replication",
"It is effective against influenza",
"It has low toxicity for host cells",
"Renal impairment necessitates dose reduction"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., It is effective against influenza Acyclovir o It is a deoxygunosine analogue - inhibits DNA synthesis by ? Inhibits herpes virus DNA polymerase competitively. Gets incorporated in viral DNA and stops lengthening of DNA strand. The terminated DNA inhibits DNA polymerase irreversibly. o It is preferentially taken up by the virus infected cells. Because of selective generation of the active inhibitor in the virus infected cells and its greater inhibitory effect on viral DNA synthesis, acyclovir has low toxicity for host cells. o It is active against herpes group of virus (HSV-l> HSV-2 > VZV = EBV. CMV is not inhibited). o Acyclovir is primarily excreted unchanged in urine, both by glomerular filtration and tubular secretion. Renal impairment necessitates dose reduction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A primigravida at 36 weeks of gestation repoed with central placenta pre with heavy bleeding per vaginum. The fetal hea sound is normal. The best management is :- | [
"Expectant management",
"Cesarean section",
"Induction & vaginal delivery",
"Steroids and wait 2 days prior to caesarean"
] | B | The best management in this case is Immediate C-section as patient is bleeding heavily. POG of 36 weeks indicates lungs maturity so no need to give steroids. Any delay in management would lead to haemmorhagic shock worsening maternal-fetal prognosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Helitrope rash is seen in ? | [
"Psoriasis",
"Dermatomyositis",
"DLE",
"Pemphigus"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dermatomyositis Cutaneous signs of dermatomyosits Gottron's papules: - lilac or violaceous papules on knuckle, dorsa of hands. Gottron's sign : - Violaceous erythema with edema over shoulder, arms, forearms. Heliotrope sign : - Violaceous erythema with edema over eyelids, periorbital region. Poikiloderma : - Atrophy of skin, hypopigmentaion, dilated blood vessels over trunk. Mechanic hand : - Symmetric hyperkeratosis along ulnar aspect of thumb and radial aspect of fingers. Shawl Sign : - Violaceous erythema extending from dorsolateral aspect of hands, forearms, and arms to shoulder & neck. Calcinosis cutis : - Calcium deposits in skin (in Juvenile variant). Miscellaneous signs : - Photosensitivity, vasculitis, panniculitis, Nail-fold telangiectasia. Extracutaneous involvement 1. Proximal myositis 2. Cardiomyopathy 3. Raynaud's phenomenon 4 Ahralgia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most common cause of meningoencephalitis in children – | [
"Mumps",
"Arbovirus",
"HSV",
"Enterovirus"
] | D | "Enteroviruses are the most common cause of meningoencephalitis" | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ECG in hyperkalemia classically shows:September 2009, 2010 | [
"Increase QRS duration",
"Shoened PR interval",
"Prominent U waves",
"Increased R wave amplitude"
] | A | Ans. A: Increase QRS duration | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the level of alcohol in blood beyond which person is condidered intoxicated ? | [
"40 mg%",
"80 mg%",
"120 mg%",
"140 mg%"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 140 mg% All individuals with a blood alcohol level of 140 mg% are considered intoxicated to the point where they cannot deal with unusual, emergency or non - customary problems. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neurophysiological defects due to damage of left hemisphere in left handed person includes | [
"Agraphia",
"Dyscalculia",
"Astereognosis",
"Anosognosia"
] | B | In left handed person, left hemisphere is the dominant or categorial hemisphere.
It damage leads to dyscalculia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following Complication is possible following excision of the Head of the Radius in children? | [
"Ulnar Nerve",
"Inferior Radio Ulnar joint instability",
"Posterior dislocation of the elbow",
"Carpal tunnel syndrome"
] | B | Inferior Radio-Ulnar joint instability Excision of the head of the radius in children results in proximal migration of the radius resulting in subluxation of the inferior radio ulnar joint and instability. ref : maheswari 9th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Magnesium deficiency is cause by- | [
"Prolonged aificial ventilation",
"Small bowel resection",
"Renal disease",
"Liver cirrhosis"
] | B | Excessive losses INADEQUATE INTAKE Starvation Malnutrition (esp. alcoholism) Parenteral alimentation GI- Prolonged vomiting/nasogastric aspiration Chronic diarrhoea/laxative abuse Malabsorption Small bowel bypass surgery Fistulae URINARY- Diuretic therapy (loop, thiazide) Alcohol Tubulotoxic drugs (gentamicin, cisplatin) Volume expansion (e.g. primary hyperaldosteronism) Diabetic ketoacidosis Post-obstructive diuresis Recovery from acute tubular necrosis Inherited tubular transpo defect (Bater's syndrome, Gitelman's syndrome Primary renal magnesium wasting) MISCELLANEOUS-Acute pancreatitis Foscarnet therapy Proton pump inhibitor therapy (prolonged) Hungry bone syndrome Diabetes mellitus. DAVIDSONS PRINCIPLES OF PRACTICAL MEDICINE 22ND EDITION PAGE NO-448 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50year old male presents with pain upper abdomen, Pruritus, jaundice and weight loss, elevated ANA, the likely diagnosis is | [
"Primary sclerosing cholangitis",
"Klatskin tumor",
"Secondary sclerosing cholangitis",
"Choledocholithiasis"
] | A | Clinical features More common in males, mean age at presentation is 40-45 years. About 75% of patients are symptomatic at presentation with evidence of cholestatic liver disease such as jaundice, Pruritus and fatigue Symptoms of bacterial cholangitis are uncommon. Condition is characterized by relapses & remissions with quiescent periods. Median survival from the time of diagnosis ranges from 10 to 12 years Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1508-1509 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ectopic rest of normal tissue is known as- | [
"Choristoma",
"Hamaoma",
"Pseudotumor",
"Lymphoma"
] | A | Choristomas, forms of heterotopia, are closely related benign tumors, found in abnormal locations. The two can be differentiated as follows: a hamaoma is an excess of normal tissue in a normal situation (e.g. a bihmark on the skin), while a choristoma is an excess of tissue in an abnormal situation (e.g. pancreatic tissue in the duodenum). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following produces pre-malignant lesions - | [
"Psoriasis",
"Erythema multiforme",
"Lichen planus",
"All of the above"
] | C | Ans is 'c' i.e. Lichen planus "Oral LP, particularly the erosive (ulcerative variant) is prone to develop SCC, the frequency being 0.8%. Long standing disease and concurrent use of tobacco are the risk factors for malignant transformation. Tongue is the most common site for malignancy, followed by buccal mucosa." - IADVL text book of dermatology 3rd/e p. 1074 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30-year-old male, Rajinder presents to OPD your office with fatigue, muscle weakness and headache. His blood pressure is 170/120 mm Hg and his hea rate is 100/min. Laboratory evaluation reveals hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and decreased plasma renin activity. On CT scan, a mass was noted on left suprarenal gland. Patient was prescribed a drug for few weeks and the symptoms subsided. Laboratory values and blood pressure returned to normal values. The likely drug given to this patient is? | [
"Clonidine",
"Propanolol",
"Hydrochlorothiazide",
"Spironolactone"
] | D | (Ref: KK Sharma 2/e p233) Mosty likely diagnosis in this patient is aldosterone secreting tumor (adenoma) leading to primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's Syndrome). Aldosterone excess will cause hypeension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and depressed renin. Aldosterone antagonists such as spironolactone or eplerenone can be used as medical therapy for Conn's syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Target strategies in preventing the HIV transmission include all the following except | [
"Education",
"Treatment of STD",
"Anti-retroviral treatment",
"Condoms"
] | C | Services offered through targeted interventions include : - Detection and treatment of STDs Condom distribution and condom promotion through social marketing Behavioural change communication Creating an enabling environment with community involvement and paicipation Linkage to integrated counselling and testing centres Linkage with care and suppo services for HIV positive HRGs Community organisation and ownership building Specific interventions to IDUs Specific interventions for MSM/TGs. Ref: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mark the FASLE statement related to tracheostomy | [
"Only indication for high tracheostomy is laryngeal carcinoma",
"Pneumothorax is complication of mid and low tracheostomy",
"In Vocal cord palsy and subglottic stenosis mid tracheostomy is planned",
"Most commonly performed tracheostomy is low-tracheostomy"
] | D | TYPE SITE INDICATION COMPLICATIONS High tracheostomy Above level of thyroid Isthmus (Between I & II tracheal Ring) Carcinoma larynx Perichondritis of cricoid cailage and subglottic stenosis Mid tracheostomy Through II or III ring, at level of thyroid Isthmus Elective indication Less chance of perichondritis, stenosis & pneumothorax Low tracheostomy Below the level of isthmus (Between III & IV Tracheal Ring) Laryngeal papilloma/ Permanent tracheostoma Pneumothorax Only indication for high tracheostomy is laryngeal carcinoma Vocal cord palsy and subglottic stenosis are planned for mid tracheostomy Most commonly performed tracheostomy is mid-tracheostomy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Emperical use of intravenous amphotericin is indicated in ? | [
"Candida",
"Blastomycosis",
"Non-responding febrile neutropenia",
"Larva migrans"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Non-responding febrile neutropenia Empirical use of i. v. AMB is often made in neutropenic patients whose fever is not responding to i. v. bactericidal antibiotics. Uses ? It is D.O.C. for Cryptococcosis - used along with Flucytosine Aspergillosis Mucormycosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true regarding fungal corneal ulcer: March 2009 | [
"Convex hypopyon",
"Commonly perforates",
"Hyphate margins",
"Satellite lesions are seen"
] | B | Ans. B: Commonly perforates Causative fungi: Filamentry fungi - include- Aspergillus, fusarium, cephalosphorium, curvuluria, penicillium. Yeast - Candida, Cryptococcus Mode of infection: Injury by vegetative materials (Common sufferers are field workers specially in harvesting season) Injury by animal tail Secondary fungal ulcer - is commonly found in immunosuppresed hosts. Patients who are suffering from dry eye, herpetic Keratitis, bullous keratopathy and Post-operative case of keratoplasty Fungi do not infect the cornea easily - they require trauma, immunological compromised state & tissue devitalization. Fungal corneal infections tend to spread deep into the corneal stroma, where the organisms are inaccessible to the usual diagnosis and therapeutic measure. Fungi even may penetrate an intact Descement's membrane into the anterior chamber. Clinical features: Pain Watering - reflex hyperlacrimation Photophobia - Stimulation of nerve ending Redness - Congestion of circum-corneal vessels, Dry eye, grayish white with elevated rolled out margins Feathery figure like extension surround the stroma under intact epithelium, Yellow line demarcation (sterile immune ring) known as Wessley's ring due to deposition of immune complex and inflammatory cell around the ulcer. Multiple small satellite lesions may present around the ulcer Hypopion - Big, thick, immobile, not sterile may be present Perforation - rarely Corneal vascularisation are conspicuously absent. Diagnosis: - Wet KOH - Direct smear immediately fixed with methyl alcohol. - Giemsa stain - Show ghosting of fungal wall and yeast budding is may be noted. - Gomori methanamine Silver technique - Delineate the hyphae as sharp black structure against a pale green background. - Gram stain - fungus can be seen directly - Periodic acid schiff (PAS) - Calco fluor white | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about long flexor tendons except: | [
"Flexor digitorum profundus is inserted to distal phalanx base",
"Flexor digitorum superficialis attached to the sides of middle phalanx",
"Damage to tendons involves formation of tenoma during repair",
"Good results if tendon sheath is damaged"
] | D | D | train | med_mcqa | null |
Molecular change in Lysosomal storage disorder is: | [
"Defective fusion of lysosomes and phagosomes",
"Increased synthesis of some substrates",
"Mutation of genes encoding lysosomal hydrolases",
"Membrane defect of lysosomes"
] | C | C i.e. Mutation of genes encoding lysosomal hydrolasesLysosomal storage diseases (LSD) are caused by mutations in genes encoding lysosomal hydrolasesQ responsible for breaking down of macromolecules, which results in accumulation of corresponsing substrate (macromolecule). ISDs are classified on the basis of accumulated substrate into sphingolipidosis, mucolipidosis, mucopolysaccharidoses, glycoproteinoses etc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anticholinesterases with effect on CNS is | [
"Neostigmine",
"Pyridostigmine",
"Physostigmine",
"Edrophonium"
] | C | Refer kDT 6/e p 101 Because it enhances the transmission of acetylcholine signals in the brain and cancross the blood-brain barrier,physostigmine salicylate is used to treat anticholinergic poisoning (that is, poisoning by substances that interfere with the transmission of acetylcholine signaling, such as atropine, scopolamine, | train | med_mcqa | null |
In lesion of the right hypoglossal nucleus, the tip of the tonge on protrusion turns to: | [
"Left side because of paralysis of left side tongue mscles",
"Right side because of paralysis of right side tongue mscles",
"Right side because of the unopposed action of left geniglossus muscle",
"Left side because of the unopposed action of left geniglossus muscle"
] | C | Lesion of hypoglossal nucleus: Lesion of the hypoglossal nucleus, there is ATROPHY of the muscles of the IPSILATERAL one-half of the tongue. This is a lower motor neuron lesion. Upon closer examination, FASCICULATIONS (tiny, spontaneous contractions) can be seen. Both fasciculations and atrophy result from the loss of the normal innervation of the muscle by the lower motor neurons in the hypoglossal nucleus. Upon protrusion, the tongue will dete TOWARD the side of the lesion (i.e., same side). This is due to the unopposed action of the genioglossus muscle on the normally innervated side of the tongue (the genioglossus pulls the tongue forward). Ref: Snells Clinical anatomy, 6th Edition, Page 736, 737. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a inset repellent | [
"Allethrin",
"Neem oil",
"Garlic",
"None of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Echolalia is a recognised feature of : | [
"Catatonic schizophrenia",
"Anorexia nervosa",
"Alzheimer's disease",
"All"
] | A | A. i.e. Catatonic schizophrenia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Area of fundus seen with direct ophthalmoscope | [
"1 DD",
"2 DD",
"3 DD",
"4 DD"
] | B | Ans. 2 DD | train | med_mcqa | null |
Id reaction is associated with | [
"apthous ulcer",
"herpetic stomatitis",
"syphilis",
"candidiasis"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about endemic typhus | [
"Man is the only reservoir of infection",
"Flea is a vector of disease",
"A rash developing into an eschar is characteristics of the disease",
"Culture is diagnostic"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding Acute flaccid paralysis in National polio Eradication Programme- EXCEPT | [
"Acute flaccid paralysis in a child <15 years of age",
"All cases of AFP should be reported irrespective of diagnosis within 6 months of onset stool",
"| Two specimens collected within 14 days of paralysis onset and at least 24 hours apart",
"30 days follow up examination"
] | D | (30 days follow up examination) (182-Park 20th)60- days Follow Up Examination - is done between 60th and 90th day in certain categories of AFP cases to determine the presence /absence of residual paralysis. The presence of residual paralysis at this time is further evidence that the cause of paralysis is likely to be due to polio virus. The 60th day follow up should not be done before the 60th day of onset of paralysis* All cases with AFP should be reported and their stools must be collected within 14 daysIf it is not possible to collect stool specimens within 14 days the specimens should still be collected upto 60 days after onset of paralysis (Field Guide-child health division, Department of Family Welfare Ministry of Health & Family Welfare New Delhi 3rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
An example of "autoreceptors" in the CNS is: | [
"NMDA receptors for",
"Nicotinic receptors for acetyl chlorine",
"Alpha2 receptors for NE",
"GABA-C receptors in retina"
] | C | Autoreceptor is a presynaptic receptor; binding of the NT with autoreceptor inhibits fuher secretion of the transmitter. a2-receptor for NE is an example of autoreceptor. NMDA receptor for glutamate is a voltage + ligand gated channel. Nicotinic AChR is a non-specific cation channel. GABA-C receptors are found exclusively in the retina; they are ionotropic receptors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Floor of middle ear cavity is in relation with: | [
"Internal carotid artery",
"Bulb of the internal jugular vein",
"Sigmoid sinus",
"Round window"
] | B | (b) Bulb of the internal jugular vein(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 1983)The floor of middle ear cavity is a thin plate of bone separating the middle ear from jugular bulb below.Internal carotid artery is in relation to the anterior wall of middle ear.Sigmoid sinus is not related directly with middle ear cavity. It lies posterior to the mastoid antrum.Round window lies postero-inferiorly on the medial wall of middle ear. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a young female of reproductive age with regular menstrual cycles of 28 days, ovulation occurs around 14th day of periods. When is the first polar body extruded ? | [
"24 hrs prior to ovulation",
"Accompanied by ovulation",
"48 hrs after the ovulation",
"At the time of fertilization"
] | B | Most of the standard text books say the first polar body is expelled just before or shortly before ovulation.
Which does not mean that it is released 24 hours before ovulation.
While still in the ovary the ovum is in the primary oocyte stage. Shortly before it is released from ovaria follicle (i.e. shortly before ovulation), its nucleus divides by meiosis and a first polar body is expelled from the nucleus of the oocyte. The primary oocyte then becomes the secondary oocyte. In this process each of the 23 unpaired of chromosomes loses one of its partners which become the first polar body that is expelled. This leaves 23 unpaired chromosomes in the secondary oocyte. It is at this time that the ovum, still in the secondary oocyte stage is ovulated into the abdominal cavity
So, first polar body is released at the time of ovulation i.e. Option “b” | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about endometriosis is/are | [
"Endometrial sarcoma is most common",
"Premenstrual spotting absent",
"Most common in 3rd or 4th decade",
"True cyst"
] | C | Most common age group is between 30-45years
Abnormal menstruation seen in 20%
Menorrhagia is seen
If the ovaries are also involved polymenorrhea, epimenorrhagia may be pronounced
Maybe premenstrual spotting seen
Malignancy is rare, commonest being adenocarcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Congenital syphilis can be diagnosed by: | [
"IgM FTA BS",
"IgG FTA ABS",
"VDRL",
"TPI"
] | A | Ans. (a) IgM FTAbs "Newborn infant of mother with reactive VDRL or FTA-ABS shows (+) yetest irrespective of infection because of trans-placental transfer of maternal IgG antibody." As IgM antibody don't cross placenta, neonatal IgM antibody can be detected in cord or neonatal serum with the syphilis capita M or 195 IgM FTA-ABS test. Impoant points about Congenital syphilis: Transmission across placenta can take place any time, but lesion appear after 4 month of gestation. Earliest sign of congenital syphilis - Rhinitis, snuffles Residual stigmata of congenital syphilis - Hutchinson's teeth, Mulberry molars, Rhagades DOC of congenital syphilis - Penicillin G. Adequate treatment of the woman before the 6th week of pregnancy should prevent fetal damage. Among infants born alive only fulminant congenital syphilis is clinically apparent at bih. (Million. According to Harrison 18/e, p 1388 no commercially available IgM test is recommended for evaluation of infant with suspected congenital syphillis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gene involved in rett syndrome | [
"P53",
"MECP2",
"RB",
"BRCA"
] | B | Rett syndrome (T), originally termed cerebroatrophic hyperammonemia, is a rare genetic postnatal neurological disorder of the grey matter of the brain that almost exclusively affects females but has also been found in male patients. The clinical features include small hands and feet and a deceleration of the rate of head growth (including microcephaly in some). Repetitive stereotyped hand movements, such as wringing and/or repeatedly putting hands into the mouth, are also noted. People with Rett syndrome are prone to gastrointestinal disorders and up to 80% have seizures. They typically have no verbal skills, and about 50% of affected individuals do not walk. Scoliosis, growth failure, and constipation are very common and can be problematic. The signs of this disorder are most easily confused with those of Angelman syndrome, cerebral palsy and autism. Rett syndrome occurs in approximately 1:10,000 live female bihs in all geographies, and across all ethnicities. The syndrome was first described by Austrian neurologist Andreas Rett in 1966. While the disorder was identified scientifically, and could be reliably diagnosed, the causes remained unknown for decades. Huda Zoghbi demonstrated in 1999 that mutations in the gene MECP2 cause Rett syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are alkylating agents except: | [
"Cyclophosphamide",
"Lomustine",
"Busulfan",
"Zalcitabine"
] | D | ANTICANCER DRUGS: CLASSI FICATION A. Drugs acting directly on cells (Cytotoxic drugs) 1. Alkylating agents Nitrogen mustards: Mechlorethamine (Mustine HCl) Cyclophosphamide, Ifosfamide, Chlorambucil, Melphalan Ethylenimine : Thio-TEPA Alkyl sulfonate : Busulfan Nitrosoureas :Carmustine (BCNU), Lomustine (CCNU) Triazine :Dacarbazine (OTIC) 2. Antimetabolites Folate antagonist:Methotrexate (Mtx) Purine antagonist:6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP), 6-Thioguanine (6-TG), Azathioprine, Fludarabine Pyrimidine antagonist:5-Fluorouracil (5-FU), Cytarabine (cytosine arabinoside) 3. Vinca alkaloids:Vincristine (Oncovin), Vinblastine 4. Taxanes :Paclitaxel, Docetaxel 5. Epipodophyllotoxins:Etoposide 6. Camptothecin analogues:Topotecan, Irinotecan 7. Antibiotics: Actinomycin D (Dactinomycin) Doxorubicin Daunorubicin (Rubidomycin) Mitoxantrone Bleomycins, Mitomycin C 8. Miscellaneous:Hydroxyurea, Procarbazine, L-Asparaginase, Cisplatin Carboplatin Imatinib B. Drugs altering hormonal milieu 1 . Glucocoicoids: Prednisolone and others 2. Estrogens: Fosfestrol,Ethinylestradiol 3. Selective estrogen receptor modulators : Tamoxifen, Toremifene 4.Selective estrogen receptor down regulators: Fulvestrant 5. Aromatase inhibitors: Letrozole, Anastrozole,Exemestane 6. Antiandrogen: Flutamide,Bicalutamide 7. 5-alpha reductase inhibitor: Finasteride,Dutasteride 8. GnRH analogues: Nafarelin,Triptorelin 9. Progestins: Hydroxyprogesterone acetate, etc. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:819,820 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The quantity of hormone released by Progestase per day is? | [
"25 ug",
"45 ug",
"65 ug",
"85 ug"
] | C | Progestase is a commonly used IUCD which carries 38 mg of progesterone in silicone oil reservoir. It releases 65 ug of hormone per day. It acts by forming a thick plug of mucus at the cervical os which prevents penetration by the sperm. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 18th edition, p227. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Modified nucleotide is seen in ? | [
"tRNA",
"rRNA",
"hnRNA",
"mRNA"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., tRNAA modified base is one that has been modified after nucleic acid chain has been formed. These bases are modified by methylation, reduction, acetylation or glycosylation.In t-RNA there are many modified bases, e.g. dihydrouridine, ribothymidine, pseudouridine, and 7-methylguanosine.In DNA, the most common modified base is 5-methylcytosine.Other impoant modified bases are acetylcytosine and dimethyladenine.Transfer RNA (t RNA) The function of tRNA is to transpo amino acids in an activated form from cytosol to ribosome for protein synthesis. 10-20% bases of tRNA may be modified and known as modified or unusual basese. A modified base is one that has been modified (altered) after nucleic acid chain has been formed, i.e. modified base is altered purine or pyrimidinee, e.g. ?Dihydrouridine (D)deg in which one of the double bonds of the base is reduced.Ribothymidine (T) in which methyl group is added to uracil to form thymine. Thus, tRNA is the only RNA that can contain thyminee though only some times.Pseudouridine (w) in which uracil is attached to ribose by a carbon-carbon bond rather than a nitrogen bond.t-RNA molecule get folded into a structure that appears like a clover leafe. There are four arms.1. Acceptor arm : It consists of a base paired stem that terminates in the sequence CCA at the 3' end. This is the attachment site for amino acids.2. D arm - It contains the base dihydrouridine (D).3. Anticodon arm - It contains anticodone that base pairs with the codon of coming mRNA. Anticodon has nucleotide sequence complementary to the codon of mRNA and is responsible for the specificity of the t RNA. 3) Tyr C arm : It contains both ribothymidine (T) and pseudouridine (v).Proteins are synthesized from 20 amino acids. For each of these amino acids, there is at least one specific tRNA. For some amino acids, there may be more than one species oft RNA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
F factor integrates with bacterial chromosome to form - | [
"HFr",
"F+r",
"F-",
"F"
] | A | Factor: The F factor is the transfer factor that contains the genetic information necessary for the synthesis of sex pilus and for self-transfer but is devoid of other identifiable genetic markers such as drug resistance. Cells carrying the F factor have no distinguishing feature other than their ability to mate with F - cells and render them F+. he F factor is actually an episode and has the ability to exist in some cells in the integrated data or inseed into the host chromosome. Such cells are able to transfer the chromosomal gene to recipient cells with high frequency and are known as Hfr cells. following conjugation with an Hfr cell an F- only rarely becomes F+ though it receives chromosomal genes from the donors. REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:65 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following test is used for the diagnosis of Giardia lamlia infection? | [
"Enterotest",
"Casoni's test",
"Parasite F test",
"Napier's test"
] | A | Enterotest In this test patient is asked to swallow a gelatin capsule which contains a nylon thread at one end.The free end of the nylon thread is attached to the cheek of the patient.The capsule passes through the stomach to the duodenum.In the stomach ,the capsule is dissolved and thread remains in the duodenum and jejunum.After 2 hours the thread is withdrawn and placed in a tube containing saline and mechanically shaken.The centrifuged deposits of the saline is examined microscopically for motile trophizoites of G.lamblia.(refer pgno:32 baveja 3 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is difficult to visualize or examine on Indirect laryngoscopy | [
"True vocal cord",
"Anterior commissure",
"Epiglottis",
"False vocal cord"
] | B | Structures seen in Indirect Laryngoscopy: Ref- Dhingra 6th edition, page 384. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The milestones achieved at 13 months in children are all except - | [
"Index finger approach",
"Walking",
"Casting",
"Single words"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Casting | train | med_mcqa | null |
AVN is seen in: | [
"Navicular fracture",
"Talus fracture",
"Calcaneal fracture",
"Cuboid fracture"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Talus fracture Fracture through neck of femur, neck of talus and waist of Scapho d can lead to AVN | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child with increased conjugated bilirubin develops seizures and cataract the probable diagnosis is – | [
"Tyrosenemia",
"Fructosemia",
"Galactosemia",
"Glycogen storage disorder"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Selective pressure impression technique indicated in | [
"Firm healthy mucosa covering over the ridge",
"Flabby ridges",
"Knife edge with movable mucosa",
"When sharp bony spicules are present in the ridge"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The condylar guidance of an articulator is dependent on: | [
"The depth of the glenoid fossa",
"The vertical overlap of the incisors",
"The cuspal inclines",
"The inclination of the articular eminence"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are common features of haemorrhoids except: March 2012 | [
"Pain",
"Anal irritation",
"Prolapse",
"Bleeding"
] | A | Ans: A i.e. Pain Manifestations of haemorrhoids Pain is not commonly associated with the bleeding & its presence should make the clinician ale to the,possibility of another diagnosis; however pain may result from congestion of pile masses belc4 a hypeonic sphincter In addition to the main symptoms of pain & prolapsed, patients may complain eif anal irritation Bleeding is the principal & earliest symptom. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cold abscess is related to | [
"Periapical pathology",
"Mycobacterium tuberculosis",
"Streptococcus viridans",
"None of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The triad of DM, gall stones and steatorrhoea associated with which one of the fo "J'" tumours? | [
"Gastrinomas",
"Somatostatinom",
"Vipomas",
"Glucagonomas"
] | B | Somatostatinoma is a tumor of the delta cells of the endocrine pancreas that produces somatostatin. Increased levels of somatostatin inhibit pancreatic hormones and gastrointestinal hormones. Thus somatostatinomas are associated with mild diabetes mellitus (due to inhibition of insulin release), steatorrhoea and gallstones (due to inhibition of cholecystokinin release), and achlorhydria (due to inhibition of gastrin release). Somatostatinomas are commonly found in head of pancreas. Only ten percent of somatostatinomas are functional tumours and 60-70% of tumours are malignant. Nearly two thirds of patients with malignant somatostatinomas will present with metastatic disease. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 840 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of rheumatoid arthritis include- | [
"Gold",
"Corticosteroids",
"Aspirin",
"All"
] | D | NSAIDS: - Aspirin - Coxibs
DMARD - Methotrexate (Best DMARD) - Gold - D- Penicillamine - Antimalarials - Sulfasalazine - Leflunamide (Inhibits T cell proliferation) - Glucocorticoid
Anticytokines - Etanercept (TNF Type II receptor blocker) - Infliximab (Monoclonal ab to TNF) - Adalimumab (Fully human abs to TNF) - Anakinra (IL - 1 receptor antagonist)
Immunosuppressive drugs - Azathioprine - Cyclosporine - Cyclophosphamide | train | med_mcqa | null |
Purpose of sentinel surveillance is | [
"To know total number of cases",
"Health planning",
"Prevention of disease",
"To know natural history of disease"
] | A | A method for identifying the missing cases and there by supplementing the notified cases is required. This is known as sentinel surveillance. The sentinel data is extrapolated to entire population to estimate the disease prevalence in entire population | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is/are example of Serial extraction: | [
"Dewel's method.",
"Tweed's method.",
"Nance method.",
"All of the above."
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hemophia A due to deficiency of ? | [
"Factor VIII",
"Factor IX",
"Factor X",
"Factor XI"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Factor VIII Hemophila A :? Hemophilia A is due to deficiency of factor VIII. Hemophilia A is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Factor VIII is an intrinsic pathway component required for activation of factor X. Clinical manifestations are due to defect in coagulation system :- Large post traumatic ecchymoses or hematoma. Prolonged bleeding after a laceration or any form of surgical procedure. Bleeding into weight bearing joints. Petechiae are characteristically absent (in contrast to platelet dysfunction where bleeding occur from small vessels of skin and mucous membrane, e.g., petechiae). Laboratory findings :- T PTT Normal PT Normal BT Normal platelet counts Remember Hemophilia B (christmas disease) is due to deficiency of factor IX. Hemophilia B has clinical features and laboratory findings similar to hemophilia A. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true regarding anthrax | [
"M' Fadyean reaction shows capsule",
"Human are usually resistant to infection",
"Less than 100 spores can cause pulmonary infection",
"Gram stain shows organism with bulging spores"
] | A | M' Fadyean's reaction: When blood films containing anthrax bacilli are stained with polychrome methylene blue for a few seconds and examined under a Microscope, amorphous purplish material is noticed around the bacilli. This represents the capsular material and is characteristic of the anthrax bacilli. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 251 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Edmund Locard is known for his - | [
"System of personal identification using the body measurement",
"Finger print study",
"Formula for estimation of stature",
"Theory of exchange"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Plantar flexion is brought about by which of these muscles - | [
"Plantaris",
"Tibialis posterior",
"Soleus",
"All the above"
] | D | Plantar flexion is brought about muscles of calf Muscle of calf Nerve supply Function Gastrocnemius Tibial nerve Plantar flexion Soleus Plantar flexion Plantaris Functional impoance is transplantation. Tibialis posterior Plantar flexion, inversion of foot Flexor digitorum longus Flexion of phalanges, plantar flexion Flexor hallucis longus Flexion of big toe, plantar flexion Popliteus Lateral rotation of femur on tibia prior to flexion | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient present to emergency with pinpoint Pupil,salivation, lacrimation, tremors and red tears. Plasma chlolinesterase level was 30% of normal. Most probable diagnosis is | [
"Organophosphate poisoning",
"Datura poisoning",
"Opioid poisoning",
"Pontine hemorrhage"
] | A | These are characteristic features of anti-cholinestearse(organophosphate and carbamate) poisoning. Features of Organophosphate poisoning: Muscarinic symptoms: Pin point pupil, salivation,lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastrointestinal distress, vomiting, bronchospasm, bradycardia Nicotinic symptoms: Fasciculations and fibrillations of muscle, tachycardia, tachypnea CNS symptoms: Temors, giddiness, ataxia, coma Red tears: Due to accumulation of porphyrin in the lacrimal glands Ref-Katzung 12/e p110 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which finding would be present following selective destruction of sertoli cells? | [
"Increased plasma testosterone levels",
"Increased plasma inhibin levels",
"Increased plasma luteinizing hormone (LH) levels",
"Increased plasma follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels"
] | D | Sertoli cells are stimulated by follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) to secrete the hormone inhibin. Inhibin is a polypeptide hormone with a structure that is similar to that of insulin (i.e., an A chain and a B chain connected by two disulfide bonds). Its physiologic function is to selectively suppress pituitaty release of FSH. Therefore, if Sertoli cells are destroyed, plasma levels of inhibin would decrease and plasma levels of FSH would increase as a result of loss of feedback inhibition. Luteinizing hormone (LH) is suppressed by testosterone of Leydig cell origin. Selective destruction of Sertoli cells with Leydig cells left intact would have no effect on circulating levels of testosterone or LH. Finally, Sertoli cells are vital for normal spermatogenesis. The spermatozoa mature within the folds of the Sertoli cells, which provide maturational factors that are required for spermatogenesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phosphorylase b is maintained in an inactivated state by | [
"ATP",
"cAMP",
"Calcium",
"Insulin"
] | D | Question is repeasted | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is most common side effect of inhaled beclometh- asone dipropionate: | [
"Pneumonia",
"Oropharyngeal candidiasis",
"Atrophic rhinitis",
"Pituitary adrenal suppression"
] | B | Ans. (b) Oropharyngeal candidiasis* Most of the side effects of steroids are mainly hoarseness, orophyrangeal candidiasis, decreased growth in children with adrenal suppression.* The plausible explanation is that since these drugs are inhaled, they avoid the first pass metabolism that orally administered steroids undergo and hence have preponderance to cause the usual manifestations of steroid toxicity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most faceted gallstones are formed in the | [
"Liver",
"Gall bladder",
"Common in bile duct",
"Spiral valves of Heister"
] | B | (B) Gall bladder # Pigment stones are seen in patients with haemolysis in which bilirubin production is increased.> Examples are hereditary spherocytosis, sickle cell anaemia, thalassaemia, malaria and mechanical destruction of red cells by prosthetic heart valves.> Pigment stones are found in the ducts of patients with benign and malignant bile duct strictures.> Pigment stones in Oriental countries are associated with infestations of the biliary tree by Clonorchis sinensis and Ascaris lumbricoides.> Escherichia coli is often found in the bile of these patients. This bacterium produces the enzyme t3-glucuronidase which converts the bilirubin into its unconjugated insoluble form.> These stones are often present throughout the biliary tree including the intrahepatic ducts. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The presentation of Asherman syndrome typically involves: | [
"Hypomenorrhea",
"Oligomenorrhea",
"Menorrhagia",
"Metrorrhagia"
] | A | A: hypomenorrhea | train | med_mcqa | null |
PDA true is all except - | [
"More common in preterm baby",
"Left to right shunt",
"Acyanotic congenital heart disease",
"More common in term baby"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., More common in term baby o During fetal life, most of the pulmonary arterial blood is shunted through the ductus arteriosus into the aorta .o Functional closure of the ductus normally occurs soon after birth, but if the ductus remains patent when pulmonaiy vascular resistance falls, aortic blood is shunted into the pulmonary1 artery,o The aortic end of the ductus is just distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery', and the ductus enters the pulmonary artery' at its bifurcation.o Female patients with PDA outnumber males 2:1.o PDA is also associated with maternal rubella infection during early pregnancy.o It is a common problem in premature infants, where it can cause severe hemodynamic derangements and several major sequelae | train | med_mcqa | null |
M.C. complication of mumps in children is | [
"Aseptic meningitis",
"Pancreatitis",
"Pneumonia",
"Encephalitis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Under HBNC, remuneration not given to ASHA for: | [
"Institutional delivery",
"Registration of birth",
"Giving first dose of OPV and DPT",
"Measuring birth weight of neonates"
] | D | Ans. d. Measuring birth weight of neonates (Ref: Park 23/e p449, 20/e p822, 385, 379-380)ASHA doesn't receive financial remuneration for measuring the birth weight of neonates.Under HBNC, the ASHA will be paid Rs 250/- for the care of the mother and the new born.She will be conducting:Six visits in case of institutional delivery (Days 3, 7, 14. 21, 28 and 42)Seven visits in case of home delivery (Days 1. 3, 7, 14, 21, 28 and 42)ASHA doesn't receive financial remuneration for measuring the birth weight of neonates.Activity of ASHAIncentive rateJSY delivery in PHC or any recognized hospital (Tribal and Non-Tribal Areas)Rs. 350/-for Tribal areas and Rs. 200/- per delivery (with conditions of JSY) for Non-Tribal areasChild Immunization (Age 0 to 1 years)Rs. 150/-Child Immunization (Age 1 to 2 years)Rs. 50/-Birth InformationRs. 20/- per Birth informationRegistration of Birth with certificationRs. 30/- per Birth registration and certificationPulse PolioRs. 95/- for under Pulse polio both attendancePulse PolioRs. 75/- pulse polio IPPl (4 days)JSY delivery in PHC or any recognized hospital (Tribal and Non-Tribal Areas)QRs. 350/-for Tribal areas and Rs. 200/- per delivery (with conditions of JSY) for Non-Tribal areasMotivation of BPL/SC/ST beneficiary for tubectomyRs. 150/-per operationMotivation of any beneficiary for vasectomyRs. 200/-per operationCompletion of DOTS (RNTCP) Radical treatment of malaria + caseRs. 250/Case completed.Radical treatment of malaria + caseRs. 5/-if patient send for BS Rs. 20/- Pf case. Rs. 50/- Pv caseLeprosy treatmentRs. 100/-newly detected case. Rs. 400/-MB case completing treatment, Rs. 200/- PB case completing treatmentControl of epidemic (outbreak)Rs. 100/- for giving first hand information of outbreakControl of epidemic (dehydrated)Rs. 50/-per case for timely referral of dehydrated patient to RH/DHConfirming HIV positive status of pregnant mothers Administration of ARVRs. 100/-Prophylaxis to mother and baby at the time of delivery and determining HIV status of the child at the intervals of 6 weeks, 6 months and 18 monthsRs. 500/-Per month Immunization at Village LevelRs. 75/-Quarterly Meeting of ASHA on Immunization (Yearly 4)Rs. 75/-Child ImmunizationQ (Age 0 to 1 years)Rs. 150/-Child Immunization (Age 1 to 2 years)Rs. 50/-Motivation of community for toilet constructionRs. 50/-toilet constructBirth informationQRs. 20/- per Birth informationRegistration of Birth with certificationQRs. 30/- per Birth registration and certificationDeath Information of Age group 0 to 5Rs. 75/- per informationDeath certificate of Age group 0 to 5Rs. 50/- per certificateInformation of women death for the age group between 15 to 49 yearsRs. 50/-Pulse PolioQRs. 95/- for under Pusle polio both attendancePulse PolioQRs. 75/- pulse polio IPPI (4 days)Cataract operations IECRs. 75/- patient for IECCataract operations transportRs. 100/- patient for transport of patientAccredited Social Health Activist (ASHA)Launched as part of National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) to strengthen primary health care at village levelASHA will be a health activist in the community who will create awareness on healthThe general norm of selection will be one ASHA for 1000 populationSelection of ASHAMust be resident of the villageA woman (married/widowed/divorced) in the age group of 25-40 yearsShould have received formal education upto class VIIIShould have good communication skills and leadership qualitiesUnder HBNC, the ASHA will be paid Rs. 250/- for the care of the mother and the new born. She will be conducting:Six visits in case of institutional delivery (Days 3,7.14,21,28 and 42)Seven visits in case of home delivery (Days 1,3,7,14,21.28 and 42)The payment will be made subject to:Ensuring that birth weight is recorded in the Maternal and Child Protection cardEnsuring that the newborn is immunized with BCG, first doses of DPT and OPV and entered in MCP cardEnsuring birth registrationBoth mother and newborn are safe until the 42nd day of deliverMonitoring and evaluation of ASHAProcess indicators* Number of ASHAs selected by due process* Number of ASHAs trained* Percentage of ASHAs attending review meeting after one yearOutcome indicators* Percentage of newborns who were weighed and families counseledQ* Percentage of deliveries with skilled assistanceQ* Percentage of institutional deliveriesQ* Percentage of completely immunized children in the 12-23 months age groupQ* Percentage of unmet need for spacing contraception among people below the poverty line* Percentage of people who received chloroquine within first week in a malaria endemic areaImpact indicators* Infant mortality rateQ* Child malnutrition ratesQ* Number of cases of tuberculosis or leprosy reported as compared to the previous yearQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice for varicose veins: March 2012, March 2013 | [
"Duplex ultrasound imaging",
"Standard Doppler examination",
"Varicography",
"Venography"
] | A | Ans: A i.e. Duplex ultrasound imaging Investigation of varicose veins Many now believe that all patients with varicose veins should undergo an assessment by duplex scan Standard Doppler examination is not an accurate method of establishing incompetence of the lesser saphenous incompetence. In all cases of sho saphenous incompetence a fuher investigation is desirable; this is usually carried out by duplex scanning Varicography is an extremely useful investigation in patients with recurrent varicose veins or those with complex anatomy Venography is not used as a standard investigation in patients with varicose veins but is useful if the duplex scan indicates, but cannot confirm, the presence of post-thrombotic change. | train | med_mcqa | null |
After digestion by restriction endonucleases, DNA strands can be joined again by | [
"DNA polymerase",
"DNA ligase",
"DNA topoisomerase",
"DNA gyrase"
] | B | In mammals, after many Okazaki fragments are generated, the replication complex begins to remove the RNA primers, to fill in the gaps left by their removal with the proper base-paired deoxynucleotide, and then to seal the fragments of newly synthesized DNA by enzymes referred to as DNA ligases. DNA ligase Seals the single strand nick between the nascent chain and Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.Ref.: Harpers Illustrated Biochemistry; 30th edition; page no: 383 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radiological sign of spondylolysis? | [
"Napoleon's hat sign",
"'Scottish dog with collar' sign",
"Winking owl sign",
"'Cap' sign"
] | B | Ans BIn spondylolysis on oblique view scotty dog with collar is seen while in spondylolisthesis inverted napoleon hat sign (AP view L5 over S1) and scotty dog with broken neck sign (oblique view) are seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Least common complication of peptic ulcer | [
"Gastric Outlet Obstruction",
"Bleeding",
"Perforation",
"Epigastric Pain"
] | A | (A) Gastric Outlet Obstruction # GASTRIC OUTLET OBSTRUCTION:> The two common causes of gastric outlet obstruction are gastric cancer (see below) and pyloric stenosis secondary to peptic ulceration.> Previously the latter was more common. Now, with the decrease in the incidence of peptic ulceration and the advent of potent medical treatments, gastric outlet obstruction should be considered malignant until proven otherwise, at least in the West. The term pyloric stenosis is normally a misnomer.> The stenosis is seldom at the pylorus. Commonly, when the condition is due to underlying peptic ulcer disease, the stenosis is found in the first part of the duodenum, the most common site for a peptic ulcer.> True pyloric stenosis can occur due to fibrosis around a pyloric channel ulcer. However, in recent years the most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction has been gastric cancer. In this circumstance the metabolic consequences may be somewhat different from those of benign pyloric stenosis because of the relative hypochlorhydria found in patients with gastric cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following can be the complications of a Malunited Colles fracture, EXCEPT: | [
"Carpal tunnel syndrome",
"Rupture of flexor pollicis longus tendon",
"Reflex sympathetic dystrophy (RSD)",
"Frozen hand shoulder syndrome"
] | B | olles fracture refers to a fracture dislocation of the inferior radioulnar joint. It is associated with a classical dinner fork deformity. This fracture is associated with all the complications mentioned in the question except the rupture of flexor pollicis tendon. Secondary to colles fracture there is a rupture of extensor pollicis tendon. This occur due to the attrition of the tendon as it glides over the sharp fracture surfaces. It usually occurs 4-6 weeks after the fracture. Ref: Text and Atlas of Complications of Fractures By John Ebneza, Page 50. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following liver metastasis appear hypoechoic on Ultrasonography – | [
"Breast cancer",
"Colon cancer",
"Renal cancer",
"Mucinous adenocarcinoma"
] | A | Metastases from Breast Cancer are typically hypo-echoic (Echopoor) on Ultrasonography.
Metastases from carcinoma colon and renal cell carcinoma are typically hyper-echoic (or echogenic) while metastasis from mucinous adenocarcinoma typically appears 'calcified'. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding metamorphopsia: March 2012 | [
"Age related change",
"Associated with diseases affecting macula",
"Occurs when too much light shines into eyes",
"Interpreted by brain as 'flashes'"
] | B | Ans: B i.e. Associated with diseases affecting macula | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are effective in the treatment of Candida albicans fungemia except: | [
"Amphotericin B",
"Caspofungin",
"Terbinafine",
"Voriconazole"
] | C | All patients with Candida fungemia should be treated with systemic antifungals. Terbinafine (non-competitive inhibitor of squalene epoxide) is an agent used for dermatophyte infection. Fluconazole has been shown to be an effective agent for candidemia. Voriconazole is also active against Candida albicans but has many drug interactions. Caspofungin and other Echinocandins are gaining popularity due to their broad efficacy against most yeast isolates and better side-effect profile. Amphotericin B is effective in fungemia. S/E: rigors, electrolyte wasting, and renal insufficiency. Newer lipid formulations mitigate these effects to varying extents. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following types of cardiac arrest is DC counter shock the only definitive treatment? | [
"Asystole",
"Electromechanical dissociation",
"Ventricular fibrillation",
"All of the above"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common presentation of a child with Wilms' tumor is ? | [
"As asymptomatic abdominal mass",
"Haematuria",
"Hypeension",
"Hemoptysis due to pulmonary secondary"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., As asymptomatic abdominal mass Presentation of Wilm's tumor : o Asymptomatic abdominal mass (most common) o Heamaturia (10-25%) o Abdominal pain (30%) o Fever (20%) o Hypeension (25%) o Anorexia and vomiting | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hormone responsible for BP regulation after a fall due to blood loss. | [
"ADH",
"ANP",
"Epinephrine",
"Aldosterone"
] | A | Ans. is'a' i.e., ADH o Blood pressure is regulated by following mechanisms.A) Short term regulation# These mechanisms act immediately and correct the blood pressure quickly. These arei) Baroreceptor reflex: Works during BP range 70-150 mmHg.ii) Chemoreceptor reflex: Works when BP below 80 mmHg.iii) CNS ischemic response: This the only hope of survival when BP is below 40 mmHg.iv) Hormonal release: These are -a) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) : Increases water reabsorption in kidney.b) Angiotensin II: Causes vasoconstriction.B) Long term regulation# This is the mechanism which takes long time for regulation. This mechanism is present in kidneys. This mechanism adjusts the BP by adjusting volume of extracellular fluid and blood.# Mechanisms arei) Pressure diuresis.ii) Pressure natreuresis.iii) Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.Important facto Angiotensin II is involved in short term regulation.o But, full RAA system is involved in long term regulation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Components of epithalamus include all except | [
"Habenula",
"Striae medullaris",
"Striae terminalis",
"Pineal gland"
] | C | Epithalamus consists of
Dorsal segment of diencephalon
Habenula
Striae medullaris
Pineal gland | train | med_mcqa | null |
Validity, if a test is ? | [
"Precise",
"Reproducible",
"Repeatable",
"Accurate"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Accurate Validity (Accuracy) The validity of a test is the extent to which it accurately measures which it purpos to measure. In other words its the ability to show which individuals have the disease in question and which do not. Validity has two components - sensitivity & specificity. To be truly valid, a test should be highly sensitive, specific and unbiased. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not true about innate immunity | [
"Not influenced by hormones",
"Dependent on genetic constitution",
"Identical twins have same degree of resistance",
"Not influenced by exposure to antigen"
] | A | Innate immunity is influenced by hormones: Endocrine disorders like diabetes are associated with enhanced susceptibility to infection due to altered innate immunity.
Innate immunity is dependent on genetic constitution of the individual. Homogenous identical twins exhibit similar degree of innate immunity.
Innate immunity is nonspecific, it is not influenced by exposure to antigen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Where does capacitation of sperms occur in the reproductive tract? | [
"Epididymis",
"Vas deferens",
"Vagina",
"Uterus"
] | D | After ejaculation into the female, spermatozoa move up the uterus to the isthmus of the uterine tubes where they slow down and undergo capacitation. Capacitation involves two components : increasing the motility of spermatozoa and facilitating their preparation for the acrosome reaction. From the isthmuses the capacitated spermatozoa move rapidly to the tubal ampullas, where feilization takes place. Spermatozoa attain progressive motility in the epidydimis. It involves activation of a unique set of proteins from the CatSper family, which are localized to the principal piece of the sperm tail. Ejaculation of the spermatozoon involves contractions of the vas deferens mediated in pa by P2X receptors, ligand-gated cation channels that respond to ATP. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24th Edition, Chapter 23 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tryptophan is: | [
"Non polar, essential and pure glucogenic",
"Polar, essential and both glucogenic & ketogenic",
"Polar, non-essential, both glucogenic & ketogenic",
"Non polar, essential, both glucogenic & ketogenic"
] | D | Ans. D. Non polar, essential, both glucogenic & ketogenicTryptophan is a non-polar, heterocyclic amino acid. It acts as glucogenic as well as ketogenic amino acid. It is an essential amino acid as it helps in the formation of Niacin (active form NAD) and serotonin and melatonin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 48-year-old woman has a lower back pain and hypoesthesia in the left S1 dermatomal distribution (left calf and lateral left foot). What is the most likely cause? | [
"A lesion at the right L4-L5 interspace",
"Pathology where the nerve exits the spinal canal immediately above the pedicle of S3 veebra",
"A herniated nucleus pulposus",
"Compression by the L5 lamina"
] | C | Thoracic, lumbar, and sacral nerves exit off the spinal canal immediately below the pedicle of the corresponding numbered veebra. The left S1 root, for example, passes immediately dorsal to the L5-S1 disc where it can be susceptible to compression by a herniated nucleus pulposus. The root then swings laterally to exit immediately caudal to the left L5 pedicle. For a correlation between level of disc herniation and the root affected, see the table below. Level of Herniation Root Affected L1-L2 L2 L2-L3 L3 L3-L4 L4 L4-L5 L5 L5-S1 S1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is seen in both apoptosis and necrosis: | [
"Both may be physiological",
"Both may be pathological",
"Inflammation",
"Intact cell membrane"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding leflunomide in pregnancy all are true except | [
"Cause hydrocephalus and skeletal anomalies in fetus",
"Pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor",
"Its active metabolite can be detected in plasma for upto 2 years after dis continuation",
"Used to treat Rheumatoid arthritis in pregnancy"
] | D | Leflunomide, is used to treat Rheumatoid arthritis, but is contraindicated in pregnancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are essential features of attention deficit hyperactive disease (AD ) except – | [
"Lack of concentration",
"Impulsivity",
"Mental retardation",
"Hyperactivity"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Small cuff size will lead to? | [
"Falsely increased BP",
"Falsely low BP",
"No effect on BP",
"Fluctuating BP"
] | A | a. Falsely increased BP(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2164)In older children, a mercury sphygmomanometer with a cuff that covers approximately two-thirds of the upper part of the arm or leg may be used for blood pressure measurement. A cuff that is too small results in falsely high readings, whereas a cuff that is too large records slightly decreased pressure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is characteristic of a single exposure common vehicle outbreak ? | [
"Frequent secondary cases",
"Severity increases with increasing age",
"Explosive",
"Cases occur continuously beyond the longest incubation period"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Explosive | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old woman treated for many years for gastroesophageal reflux develops dysphagia and weight loss. Previous esophagoscopy has revealed cellular atypia. An esophagoscopy is about to be performed. What is it most likely to reveal? | [
"Leiomyoma arising from the long esophageal muscular layer",
"Squamous cell carcinoma arising from esophageal mucosal lining",
"Adenocarcinoma originated from islands of Barrett's esophagus",
"Adenocarcinoma extending from the stomach"
] | C | Adenocarcinoma, originated from islands of Barrett's esophagus, is today the most common cancer of the esophagus in the United States. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Test to detect maternal sensitization - | [
"Direct coombs test",
"Indirect coombs test",
"Both",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Indirect coombs test | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intrauterine exposure of diethylstilboestrol is associated with - | [
"Squamous cell carcinoma of cervix",
"Adenocarcinoma of endometrium",
"Clear cell adenocarcinoma of vagina",
"Sarcoma of uterus"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Richest source of Vitamin D - | [
"Milk",
"Egg",
"Halibut liver oil",
"Butter"
] | C | Halibut liver oil contain 500-10,000 Microban per 100g . egg contain - 1 . 25microgram, Milk 0.1micrigram per 100g.REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 617 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cancer which most commonly metastasizes to jaw bone is: | [
"Breast",
"Prostatic",
"Lung",
"Kidney"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice for spinal tuberculosis | [
"X-ray",
"CT-Scan",
"Open biopsy",
"MRI"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., MRI Investigations in musculoskeletal system Investigation of choice for AVN Hip MR1 Best initial test for osteomyelitis -9 Plain x-ray Best second line test for osteomyelitis (if there is high clinical suspician and x-ray is negative) --> MRI Most accurate diagnostic test for osteomyelitis Bone biopsy and culture. Best view for scaphoid fracture --> Oblique (scaphoid) view of wrist. Best view for C1-C2 veebrae & junction -* Open mouth odontoid (Pegs) view. Investigation of choice for ACL & PCL injury MRI Investigation of choice to detect calcification --> CT scan Investigation of choice for prolapsed interveebral disc --> MRI Investigation of choice for spinal tuberculosis -4 MRI Investigation of choice for traumatic paraplagia --> MRI Gold standard and investigation of choice for osteoporosis --> Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vasomotor reversal of dale is demonstrated by | [
"Fall in blood pressure by high dose intravenous Ach",
"Increase in blood pressure following administration of IV propranolol",
"Fall in blood pressure by ganglionic blocker",
"Fall in blood pressure by adrenaline pretreated with phentolamine"
] | D | Ans. (d) Fall in blood pressure by adrenaline pretreated with phentolamine(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.353)If the subject is given a blocker and then if epinephrine is injected, vasodilation and decrease in BP is seen. This effect is called "Vasomotor reversal of Dale" | train | med_mcqa | null |
Penicillin would be LEAST effective in treating: | [
"Syphilis",
"Streptococcal pharyngitis",
"Pneumococcal pneumonia",
"Mycoplasma pneumonia"
] | D | Mycoplasma organisms do have a cell wall and are therefore resistant to penicillin. Other forms of bacteria that lack a cell wall are spheroplasts and protoplasts, which are formed from gram-negative and gram-positive bacteria, respectively, through the action of penicillin or by other procedures that remove the cell wall or interfere with its formation. The other organisms listed in the question are all susceptible to the action of penicillin. Tetracyclines, erythromycin and the aminoglycosides are effective antibiotics for the treatment of mycoplasmal infections. Ref: Infection and Immunity By Huw Davies, D. H. Davies, Page 34 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A farmer visiting a orchard gets unconscious, excessive salivation, constricted pupils and fasciculation of muscles, treatment started with- | [
"Atropine",
"Neostigmine",
"Physostigmine",
"Adrenaline"
] | A | The farmer in question is having organophosphate poisoning, for which atropine is the drug of choice. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bullet which disintegrates into fragments on hitting the target is | [
"Dum dum bullet",
"Yawning bullet",
"Fangible bullet",
"Tandem bullet"
] | C | Ans: c (Fangible bullet) Ref: Reddy, 27th ed, p. 202Fangible bullets are those which disintegrates into fragments on impact.Ricochet bullets - are those which before striking the object aimed at, strikes some intervening object first and then after rechochetting and rebounding from there into the object.Yaw ning bullet - It is a bullet traveling in an irregular fashion instead of traveling nose onTumbling bullet - It is a bullet that rotates end on end during its motion.Tandem bullet or Piggyback bullet - When unused or old weapon is fired, the bullet may fail to come out from the muzzle but when it is fired again the second bullet may go off carrying the lodged bullet with it and both the bullets may enter the body through the same entrance wound.Duplex or Tandem Catridge - This is used in military rifles and contains 2 bullets which enter the target at different points.Souvenir bullets - These are bullets which are retained in the body for a long time and usually a dense fibrous capsule surrounds it.Dum Dum bullet- Hollow bullets which on impact, breaks down and thus dissipate more force of impact.Gutter wound - Bullets may graze or rubs the top and sides of the cranium without entering it.The affected area of the skull shows an oval or elongated gutter like depression known as the gutter wound. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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