instruction stringlengths 29 1.82k | input stringclasses 1
value | output stringlengths 14 22.5k |
|---|---|---|
Which of the following is not a second messenger: (A) c-AMP, (B) IP3, (C) Guanylyl cyclase, (D) Diacylglycerol (DAG | Answer is C. Ans. c. Guanylyl cyclase | |
Artery of 2nIi pharyngeal arch is -: (A) Maxillaiy artery, (B) Stapedial artery, (C) Subclavian artery, (D) Commoncarotid artery | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Stapedial artery Pharyngeal ArchMuscular ContributionSkeletal ContributionsNerveArteryCorresponding Pouch Structures1st (mandibular arch)Muscles of mastication, Anterior belly of the digastric,Mylohyoid,Tensor tympani.Tensor veli palatiniMaxilla, mandible (only as a model for mandible not... | |
What is the probable diagnosis in a patient with a dilated pupil not responsive to 1% pilocarpine: (A) Diabetic third nerve palsy, (B) Ade's pupil, (C) Uncal Herniation, (D) Pharmacological block | Answer is D. Refer Goodman and Gilman 12e 1777 Looking at the option one by one diabetic third nerve palsy: third Nerve Palsy due to any reason will result in mydriasis( because oculomotor people milk supplies constrictor pupillae). As only one nerve is destroyed and but the receptors remain intact , so it will respond... | |
Alcohol causes -: (A) Dilated cardiomyopathy, (B) HOCM, (C) Restrictive cardiomyopathy, (D) None | Answer is A. o Chronic Alcohol consumption is the most common cause of Toxic Dilated Cardiomyopathy.
‘Alcohol is the most common toxin implicated in chronic dilated cardiomyopathy.' - Harrison 18th/e p. 1961 | |
Colonic polyp with most malignant potential is -: (A) Juvenile polyp, (B) Hyperplastic polyp, (C) Pedunculated Adenomatous polyp, (D) Sessile Adenomatous polyp | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i .e., Sessile Adenomatous poly p o Adenomatous polyps have special clinical significance because only adenomatous polyps are clearly premalignant, and only a minority of these adenomatous lesions ever develop into a cancero Clinically, the probability of an adenomatous polyp becoming a cancer ... | |
Which is not true regarding Bernard soulier syndrome?: (A) Ristocetin aggregation is normal, (B) Aggregation with collagen and ADP is normal, (C) Large platelets, (D) Thrombocytopenia | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following is essential for tumor metastasis?: (A) Angiogenesis, (B) Tumorogenesis, (C) Apoptosis, (D) Inhibition of tyrosine kinase activity | Answer is A. Metastasis is a complex series of steps in which cancer cells leave the original tumor site and migrate to other pas of the body the bloodstream or the lymphatic system. One of the critical events required for metastasis is the growth of a new network of blood vessels, called tumor angiogenesis. | |
Which of the following glomerular disease is associated with Crescent formation?: (A) Minimal change disease, (B) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, (C) Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis, (D) Rapidly non progressive glomerulonephritis | Answer is B. The most common histological picture of Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is the presence of crescents in most of glomeruli. Crescents are formed by proliferation of parietal cells and by migration of monocytes and macrophages in the Bowman's space. The prognosis can be roughly related to the number o... | |
Agglutination test is -: (A) ABO incompatibility, (B) VDRL, (C) Weil-felix test, (D) FTA-ABS | Answer is C. Weil- Felix reaction for the diagnosis of typhus fever. - The Agglutination reaction is when a paiculate antigen is mixed with its antibody in the presence of electrolytes at a suitable temperature and pH, the paicles are clumped or agglutinated. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 10... | |
Which of the following vessels is involved in extradural haematoma?: (A) Middle meningeal artery, (B) Venous sinuses, (C) Bridging veins, (D) Middle cerebral artery | Answer is A. Ans. a (Middle meningeal artery). (Ref: B & L, Surgery, 25th/ 303).Extradural haematoma (EDH)# It is a neurosurgical emergency. An EDH is nearly always associated with a skull fracture and is more common in young male patients. The skull fracture is asso- ciated with tearing of a meningeal artery and a hae... | |
Man is intermediate host for -: (A) Malaria, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Filariasis, (D) Relapsing fever | Answer is A. option-1- Life Cycle of Plasmodium: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium species. Definitive host: Female Anopheles mosquitoes Intermediate host: Man. option- 2-Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and doesn't have secondary host. option-3- In Filariasis (W. bancrofti): man is definitive host. o... | |
Drug of choice for bleeding oesophageal varices is?: (A) Ethanolamine oleate, (B) Octreotide, (C) Propanolol, (D) Phytonadione | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Octreotide Among the given options, only octeride is used (otherwise vasopressine analogue terlipressine is the DOC). Has been explained in previous sessions. | |
Two or more oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid are most often positive in-: (A) Acute bacterial meningitis, (B) Multiple sclerosis, (C) Subarachnoid harmorrhage, (D) Polyneuropathy | Answer is B. Oligoclonal bands (OCBs) are bands of immunoglobulins that are seen when a patient's blood serum, or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is analyzed. They are used in the diagnosis of various neurological and blood diseases, especially in multiple sclerosis. The blood serum can be gained from a clotted blood sample.... | |
Iodine deficiency control programme ?: (A) Health education, (B) Water testing, (C) Foification of salt, (D) None | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Foification of salt Iodized salt (salt foified with iodine) is most economical, convenient and effective means of mass prophylaxis in endemic area. | |
All of the following are sexually transmited, Except-: (A) Candida albicans, (B) Echinococcus, (C) Molluscum contagiosum, (D) Group B streptococcus | Answer is B. None | |
All of the following methods are anti-larval measures, EXCEPT:: (A) Intermittent irrigation, (B) Paris green, (C) Gambusia affinis, (D) Malathion | Answer is D. Malathion is used primarily for killing adult mosquitoes. It is not recommended as a larvicidal agent Fenthion, Chlorpyrifos and abate are preferred as larvicides. Water management such as intermittent irrigation constitutes a proven method of larval control. Paris green or copper acetoarsenite is a stomac... | |
IPC 82 states that: child cannot be punished under what age -: (A) 5yrs, (B) 8yrs, (C) 7yrs, (D) lOyrs | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 7yrs o Section 82 I.P.C.: Criminal responsibility is any act which is done by a child under seven years of age is not an offence.Section of IPCRelated with82A child under the age of seven is incapable of committing an offence. This is so because action alobe does not amount to guilt unles... | |
Treatment of choice for generalized anxiety disorder is?: (A) Benzodiazepines, (B) Neuroleptics, (C) Beta blockers, (D) Barbiturates | Answer is A. Ans is 'a' i.e. Benzodiazepines Treatment of generalized anxiety disorderA Benzodiazepines are the drug of choice. Drugs in this group are diazepam, Lorazepam, Alprazolam, Oxazepam, chlordiazepoxide.B. Other drugs used are buspirone; TCA (amptriptyline, imipramine, clomipramine, desipramine); SSRIs (Fluoxe... | |
Which of the following agents may precipitate bronchospasm in patients with reactive airway disease?: (A) Midazolam, (B) Etomidate, (C) Methohexital, (D) Propofol | Answer is C. Methohexital is an ultra-sho-acting barbiturate that provides sedation and amnesia for sho, invasive procedures. Barbiturate administration may precipitate bronchospasm in patients with moderate to severe reactive airway disease, thus limiting its use in those patients. There is some evidence that ketamine... | |
Vegetations below the AV valves are present in -: (A) Libman-Sacks endocarditis, (B) Chronic rheumatic carditis, (C) Acute rheumatic carditis, (D) Non thrombotic endocarditis | Answer is A. None | |
"Chemical pregnancy" means :: (A) Negative beta HCG and absent gestational sac, (B) Positive beta HCG and present gestational sac, (C) Positive beta HCG and absent gestational sac, (D) Negative beta HCG and created sac margin | Answer is C. Positive beta HCG and absent gestational sac | |
Which of the following Biomedical wastes cannot be disposed off in yellow bags?: (A) Reactive chemical wastes, (B) Radiographic wastes, (C) PVC, (D) Human anatomical wastes | Answer is A. Yellow color bags are used for disposal of: BMW Cat 1: Human anatomical wastes BMW Cat 2: Animal wastes BMW Cat 3: Microbiological and biotechnology waste BMW Cat 6: Soiled waste Container/bags are not required for disposal of BMW Cat 8: Liquid waste BMW Cat 10: Chemical waste BMW Cat 3: (if disinfected lo... | |
Which of the following bacteria contains mycolic acid in the cell wall: (A) Escherichia, (B) Mycoplasma, (C) Mycobacteria, (D) Staphylococcus | Answer is C. Mycobacterium are slender rods that sometimes show branching, filamentous forms resembling fungal mycelium. In liquid cultures, they form a mould like a pellicle. they do not stain readily, but once stained, resist decolourisation with dilute mineral acids, due to the presence of mycolic acid in their cell... | |
Child criteria doesnt include: (A) Encephalopathy, (B) ALT, (C) Ascites, (D) Albumin | Answer is B. Variables in Child-Turcotte-Pugh scoring system Serum albumin Bilirubin Prothrombin time Ascites Encephalopathy Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1436 | |
Which of the following will be detected in flow cytometry?: (A) Polycythemia, (B) Thrombocytosis, (C) Leukocytosis, (D) Neutrophilia | Answer is C. Flow cytometry is an extremely useful investigational tool that allows simultaneous multiparametric analysis of the physical characteristics defining WBC types using the principles of light scattering, excitation, and fluorochrome emission. As such, it can allow for the rapid identification and quantificat... | |
Base of the skull fracture presents with involvement of the petrous temporal bone, which of the following important sign:: (A) Subconjunctive haematoma, (B) CSF rhinorrhoea, (C) Raccon eyes, (D) Battle sign | Answer is D. (Battle sign) (595-Baily & Love 24th) (302-B &L 25th)Base of Skull Fractures* Anterior fossa fracture - May open into the frontal or ethmoid air sinuses or run across the cribriform plate.* Presents with sub conjunctival hematoma, anosmia, epistaxis, nasal tip anaesthesia, CSF-rhinorrhea and occasionally c... | |
Which of the following pubeal events in girls is not estrogen dependant: (A) Menstruation, (B) Vaginal cornification, (C) Height spu, (D) Hair growth | Answer is D. Functions of estrogen Estrogen changes the vaginal epithelium from cuboidal to stratified type,which is more resistant to trauma and infection Marked proliferation of endometrial stroma and greatly increases the development of the endometrial glands - Menstruation Development of the stromal tissue of breas... | |
A pathologist is observing a slide. He repos seeing perineural invasion. In which one of the following perineural invasion is most commonly seen?: (A) Adenocarcinoma, (B) Adenoid cystic carcinoma, (C) Basal Cell Adenoma, (D) Squamous cell carcinoma | Answer is B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma | |
All of the following investigations are used in FIGO staging of carcinoma cervix except ?: (A) CECT, (B) Intravenous pyelography, (C) Cystoscopy, (D) Proctoscopy | Answer is A. CECT According to the FIGO guidlines for clinical staging of cervical carcinoma, diagnostic studies include :-Intravenous urography (pyelography). - Cystoscopic examination of bladder and urethra Proctosigmoidoscopic study - Barium enema Colposcopic study of the vagina and vaginal formices in early stage d... | |
True regarding febrile convulsion –: (A) Carbamazepine is good drug to treat it, (B) Patient with family h/o F.C. have increased incidence of recurrence, (C) Longterm neurological deficits are common, (D) Usually last for short while | Answer is B. Types of febrile convulsions
Febrile convulsions may be of two types.
Simple benign
Atypical complex
1. Simple benign febrile convulsions
More common
Last less than 10 minutes
Convulsions are generalized
No post ictal neurological ... | |
Uterine-cervix ratio up to 10 years of age:: (A) 3:02, (B) 2:01, (C) 3:01, (D) 1:02 | Answer is D. The relationship of the length of the cervix and that of the body of uterus varies with age. | |
Which of the following is produced in the lipoxygenase pathway?: (A) Thromboxane, (B) Leukotrienes, (C) Prostaglandin, (D) Prostacyclin | Answer is B. Thromboxane A2, prostacyclin, and prostaglandins are formed by the cyclooxygenase pathway whereas leukotrienes are formed by the lipooxygenase pathway.Ref: Textbook of medical physiology by N Geetha, 2nd edition, page no. 103 | |
Apparent volume of distribution (aVd) is more than total body fluid if drug is:: (A) Poorly soluble, (B) Sequestered in tissues, (C) Slow elimination, (D) Poorly plasma protein bound | Answer is B. None | |
Deleterious effect of ultrasound on small organism is:: (A) Ionisation, (B) Vacoulation, (C) Cavitation, (D) Disintegration | Answer is C. Ans. Cavitation | |
Hemophia A due to deficiency of ?: (A) Factor VIII, (B) Factor IX, (C) Factor X, (D) Factor XI | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Factor VIII Hemophila A :? Hemophilia A is due to deficiency of factor VIII. Hemophilia A is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. Factor VIII is an intrinsic pathway component required for activation of factor X. Clinical manifestations are due to defect in coagulation system :- Larg... | |
V/Q ratio at the base of lung-: (A) 1, (B) 3, (C) 0.6, (D) 1.8 | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 0.6 o Overall V/Q ratio of lung-0.8o V/Q ratio at apex-3.0 (maximum)o V/Q ratio at base-0.6 (Least) | |
A 70 year old man develops pneumonia and septicemia. Patient goes into renal failure and has a BP of 70/50 mm of Hg. Drug that should be used to maintain BP is:: (A) Adrenaline, (B) Ephedrine, (C) Phenylephrine, (D) Nor epinephrine | Answer is D. Answer is D (Norepinephrine) The patient in question is presenting with features of septic shock. Dopamine is the initial recommended vasopressor agent to maintain blood pressure but is not provided amongst the options. Patients who remain hypotensive despite dopamine should he adminstered norepinephrine a... | |
To be defined as a ganglioside,a lipid substance isolated from nervous tissue must contain: (A) NANA,hexose,fatty acid,glycerol, (B) NANA,hexose,fatty acid,phosphorycholine, (C) NANA,sphingosine,ethanolamine, (D) NANA,hexose,sphingosine,long chain fatty acid, | Answer is D. Gangliosides are the complex glycosphingolipids derived from glucosylceramide that contain in addition one or more molecules of sialic acid. Neuraminic acid is the principal sialic acid found in human tissues. Gangliosides are present in nervous tissue in high concentration.They help in cell-cell recogniti... | |
A 25 years old female complains of recurrent rhinitis, nasal discharge and bilateral nasal blockage since one year. She has the history of asthma and allergy. On examination, multiple ethmoidal polyps are noted with mucosal thickening and impacted secretions in both the nasal cavities. A biopsy is taken and the materia... | Answer is A. Aspergillus shows typical dichotomous branching at an angle of approximately 45degrees. Candida shows pseudohyphae. Rhizopus and mucor shows nonseptate hyphae. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition | |
Blood for acid base gas (ABGO analysis in a bottle containing heparin can cause decreased value of -: (A) pCO2, (B) HCO2, (C) pH, (D) pO2 | Answer is C. None | |
Boerhaave syndrome is due to:: (A) Burns, (B) Vomiting, (C) Stress, (D) Acid ingestion | Answer is B. Ans. (b) vomitingRef Bailey and Love 27th edition, Page 1073* Vomiting against closed Glottis leads to Boerhaave syndrome.* Vomiting against closed LES leads to Mallory Weiss tear. | |
In anemia the concentration of 2,3 DPG is: (A) Decreased, (B) Increased, (C) A or B, (D) Not changed | Answer is B. None | |
The primary reason for replacing teeth destroyed due to
nursing bottle syndrome is: (A) Speech and esthetics, (B) Form and function, (C) Incising and mastication, (D) Arch perimeter requirements in the transitional dentition | Answer is A. None | |
Characteristic histopathology finding in Whipples disease is ?: (A) PAS positive macrophages and rod shaped bacilli in lamina propria, (B) Shoened thickened villi with increased crypt depth, (C) Blunting and flattening of mucosal surface and absent villi, (D) Mononuclear infiltration at base of crypts | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., PAS positive macrophages and rod shaped bacilli in lamina propriaThe hallmark of Whipple's disease is a small intestinal mucosa laden with distended macrophages in the lamina propria- the macrophages contain periodic acid-schiff (PAS) positive granules and rod shaped bacilli by electron m... | |
In which of the following conditions uniform dilation of esophagus is seen: (A) Scleroderma, (B) Trypanosoma cruzi infection, (C) Dermatomysitis, (D) BD | Answer is D. In Trypanosoma cruzi infection& dermatomyositis uniform dilatation of oesophagus is seen Esophageal dilatation is a therapeutic endoscopic procedure that enlarges the lumen of the esophagus. ...Complications of esophageal dilatation include the following: Odynophagia, or painful swallowing. Hematemesis, or... | |
Mechanism of action of vincristine in the treatment of ALL is:: (A) Inhibition of topoisomerase II to cause breaks in DNA strands, (B) Alkylation and cross linking DNA strands, (C) Inhibition of DNA mediated RNA synthesis, (D) Inhibition of polymerization of tubulin to form microtubules | Answer is D. Vinca alkaloids like vincristine and vinblastine act by inhibiting the formation of mitotic by spindle inhibiting polymerization of tubulin. These drugs are selective for M phase of cell cycle. | |
All are true about ketone bodies except: (A) Acetoacetate is primary ketone body, (B) Synthesized in mitochondria, (C) Synthesized in liver, (D) HMG CoA reductase is the rate-limiting enzyme | Answer is D. KETOSIS Under ceain metabolic conditions associated with a high rate of fatty acid oxidation, liver produces considerable quantities of compounds like acetoacetate and bbb-OH butyric acid, which pass by diffusion into the blood. Acetoacetate continually undergoes spontaneous decarboxylation to produce acet... | |
Pseudoparalysis in an infant is suggestive of ?: (A) Acute Rheumatic fever, (B) Vitamin B6 deficiency, (C) Vitamin E deficiency, (D) Vitamin C deficiency | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Vit C deficiencyPseudoparalysis o A voluntary restriction of motion because of pain, incordination or other cause, but not due to actual muscular paralysis.Causes of pseudoparalysisScurvy (vitamin C deficiency) o OsteomyelitisSeptic (ahritis) o Congenital syphilis | |
The coronoid process:: (A) Limits the extension of maxillary posterior teeth setting, (B) Limits the thickness of the distobuccal flange of the upper complete denture, (C) Limits the thickness of the distobuccal flange of the lower complete denture, (D) Determines PPS | Answer is B. None | |
Greater than 30 g of fat is excreted in feces per day. The cause is: (A) Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, (B) Rapid transient diarrhea, (C) Small intesitnal disease, (D) Normal | Answer is A. (A) Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency # Steatorrheal causes:> Intraluminal maldigestion (pancreatic exocrine insufficiency, bacterial overgrowth, bariatric surgery, liver disease)> Mucosal malabsorption (celiac sprue, Whipple's disease, infections, abetalipoproteinemia, ischemia)> Postmucosal obstruction (... | |
A young girl has had repeated infections with Candida albicans and respiratory viruses since she was 3 months old. As part of the clinical evaluation of her immune status, her responses to routine immunization procedures should be tested. In this evaluation, the use of which of the following vaccines is contraindicated... | Answer is A. Recurrent severe infection is an indication for clinical evaluation of immune status. Live vaccines, including BCG attenuated from M. tuberculosis, should not be used in the evaluation of a patient's immune competence because patients with severe immunodeficiencies may develop an overwhelming infection (di... | |
All of the following are in the superficial perineal space of the male EXCEPT the: (A) Bulb of the penis, (B) Crus of the penis, (C) Bulbourethral gland, (D) Bulbospongiosus muscle | Answer is C. The bulbourethral (Cowper's) gland is in the deep penineal space within the urogenital diaphragm. The duct from the gland leaves the deep perineal space, enters the superficial penineal space, and then enters the urethra. Because the gland is in the deep perineal space within a tightly confined area, infec... | |
A 62-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with dull, diffuse abdominal pain. A CT scan reveals a tumor at the head of the pancreas. The abdominal pain is mediated by afferent fibers that travel initially with which of the following nerves?: (A) Greater thoracic splanchnic, (B) Intercostal, (C) Phrenic, (D) Vagus | Answer is A. The afferent fibers mediating the pain from the head of the pancreas run initially with the greater thoracic splanchnic nerves. The greater splanchnic nerves arise from sympathetic ganglia at the levels of T5 to T9 and innervate structures of the foregut and thus the head of the pancreas. Running within th... | |
Advantage of Minimal access surgery: (A) Heat loss, (B) Better Hemostasis control, (C) Improved vision, (D) In wound pain | Answer is C. The core principles of minimal access surgery (independent of procedure or device) can be summarized by the acronym I-VITROS: * Insufflate/create space - to allow surgery to take place in the minimal access setting * Visualise - the tissues, anatomical landmarks and the environment for the surgery to take ... | |
Pinch purpura is diagnostic of –: (A) Systemic primary amyloidosis, (B) Secondary systemic amyloidosis, (C) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, (D) Drug induced purpura | Answer is A. In primary systemic amyloidosis amyloid deposition occurs in the wall of the blood vessels, this leads to an increase in skin fragility. As a result, petechiae and purpura develop in clinically normal skin as well as in lesional skin following minor trauma. Therefore the skin lesions in case of primary sys... | |
The mode of action of Lanatoprost in glaucoma:: (A) Increasing trabecular outflow, (B) Releasing pupillary block, (C) Decreasing aqueous humour formation, (D) Increasing uveoscleral outflow | Answer is D. Lantanoprost is prastoglandin in nature and decrease the intraocular pressure by increasing uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humour. It is very good adjunctive therapy along with betablockers, dorzolamide and pilocarpine. Ref: A.K KHURANA (2005), Chapter 9, "Glaucoma", In the book, "Opthalmology", 3rd Editio... | |
Gelle&;s test is done in: (A) Otosclerosis, (B) Serous otitis media, (C) Traumatic deafness, (D) Senile deafness | Answer is A. Gelle's test: It is also a test of bone conduction and examines the effect of increased air pressure in ear canal on the hearing. Normally, when air pressure is increased in the ear canal by Siegel's speculum, it pushes the tympanic membrane and ossicles inwards, raises the intralabyrinthine pressure and c... | |
Factor responsible for Cardiac Hyperophy is?: (A) ANF, (B) TNF alpha, (C) c-myc, (D) TGF beta | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., c-myc | |
Most common cause of gangrene of foot of a 30 year old farmers who is a chronic smoker: (A) Atherosclerosis, (B) Raynaud's disease, (C) Thromboangiitis obliterans, (D) Myocardial infarction | Answer is C. All four can cause gangrene (Myocardial infarction can cause gangrene by thromboembolism) Lets see, each option one by one. Raynauds disease Is ds of young women* (F:M ratio is 5:1) commonly the upper limbs* are affected specially the fingers (the thumb is generally escaped) The disease is characterized by... | |
Following features are true about lipid insoluble beta blockers except?: (A) Do not cross blood brain barrier, (B) Have good membrane stabilizing effect, (C) Incompletely absorbed orally, (D) Are long acting | Answer is B. Ans. is `b' i.e., Have good membrane stabilizing effect Lipid insolubile drugs have following features ? Do not cross Blood Brain Barrier and therefore produce no CNS effects. Have good renal excretion Have no membrane stabilizing activity Are incompletely absorbed orally Are long acting Are effective in n... | |
Sideroblastic anemia is seen in chronic poisoning of: (A) Lead, (B) Arsenic, (C) Copper, (D) Mercury | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Lead(Ref: Wintrobe's 12th/pg837)Sideroblastic anemia is seen in:*. Alcoholism*. Lead poisoning*. Drugs (isoniazid, pyrazinamide, chloramphenicol)*. Copper deficiency (zinc ingestion, copper chelation, nutritional, malabsorption)*. Hypothermia | |
"Lift off' and "Belly Press" tests are done to examine which of the following rotator cuff muscle?: (A) Teres Minor, (B) Supraspinatus, (C) Subscapularis, (D) Infraspinatus | Answer is C. Ans. C. SubscapularisSubscapularis muscle is responsible for extremes of internal rotation, which can be tested with belly press and lift off test. | |
Superior Gluteal Nerve supplies ail except:: (A) Gluteus Minimus, (B) Gluteus Medius, (C) Gluteus Maximus, (D) Tensor Fascia Lata | Answer is C. Ans. C. Gluteus MaximusThe superior gluteal nerve arises from the sacral plexus in the pelvis and is formed by the dorsal branches of the ventral rami of L4, L5; S1. It enters the gluteal region through the greater sciatic notch above the piriformis in company with superior gluteal artery. Here it curves u... | |
Placental abnormality related to PPH is?: (A) Placenta accreta, (B) Placenta percreta, (C) Retained placental, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the abovePlacenta: morbidly adherent placenta (accrete, percreta), paially or completely separately separated placenta but with retained bits of placental tissue leads to PPH. | |
What is the amount of time required by erupting premolar to move through 1 mm of bone as measured on a bite-wing radiograph?: (A) 3-4 months, (B) 4-5 months, (C) 5-6 months, (D) 6-7 months | Answer is B. None | |
Best method to show trend of events with passage of time is?: (A) Line diagram, (B) Bar diagram, (C) Histogram, (D) Pie chart | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Line diagramREF: Park 20th edition page 747 &748, style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 0 8px; text-indent: 0; text-align: left">"Line diagrams are used to show the trend of events with passage of time"PictographA pictograph uses an icon t... | |
More resistance in expiration is due to:: (A) Increased compression of airway, (B) Due to change from linear to turbulent flow, (C) Saturation with moisture, (D) Increased rate of flow during expiration | Answer is A. A i.e. Increased compression of airways | |
Antihypertensive may act by blocking all of following except:: (A) Alpha–adrenoceptors, (B) ATP dependent K+ channels, (C) Nor adrenaline release, (D) Beta adrenoceptors | Answer is B. None | |
Temporal pallor in optic disc seen in all except: (A) Optic neuritis, (B) Compression of optic nerve, (C) Leber's hereditary optic neuritis, (D) Glaucoma | Answer is D. Optic atrophy, pallor of the optic nerve head, is a sign found in patients with visual loss due to pathology of the optic nerve or retinal ganglion cells. ... It refers topallor of the optic disc which results from irreversible damage to the retinal ganglion cells and axons. It is commonly seen in Optic ne... | |
Anti glaucoma drug that act by increasing uvea scleral outflow is?: (A) Latanoprost, (B) Timolol, (C) pilocarpine, (D) Dorzolamide | Answer is A. REF : KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED | |
The major vitamin deficiency in Wernicke's encephalopathy is :: (A) B1, (B) B2, (C) B6, (D) B12 | Answer is A. Wernicke's disease is a common and preventable disorder due to a deficiency of thiamine. Alcoholics account for most cases, but patients with malnutrition due to hyperemesis, starvation, renal dialysis, cancer, AIDS, or rarely gastric surgery are also at risk. The characteristic clinical triad is that of o... | |
Commonest fungal infection of female genitalia in diabetes?: (A) Cryptococcal, (B) Madurmycosis, (C) Candida, (D) Aspergillosis | Answer is C. Candida is the commonest infection of female genital tract in diabetes. Candida species are normal commensals of the mouth, GI tract, vaginal mucosa and in the patients with an indwelling catheter. Diabetes is paicularly associated with increased susceptibility to vaginal infections. | |
Who among the following has contributed to the development of neuro-otology and is considered as the father of 'nen ro-otology'?: (A) Julius Lampa, (B) John J. Shea Jr, (C) William F. House, (D) Hales Main | Answer is C. Ans. c. William F. House (Ref www.audiology.org For the pioneering work in the field of neuro-otology, William F. House considered as 'Father of Neuro-otology'. William F. House considered as 'Father of Neuro-otology' because of his pioneering development approaches for the removal of acoustic tumors and t... | |
Drugs causing macular toxicity when given intravitreally-: (A) Gentamycin, (B) Vancomycin, (C) Dexamethasone, (D) Ceftazidime | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gentamycino Intravitreal aminoglycosides (gentamycin, amikacin) are a reported cause of macular toxicity.o Aminoglycosides induced macular toxicity is thought to be partially due to the gravity-induced settling of drugs on the macula in supine position.o This may result in a higher concen... | |
Fatty liver is caused by all except: (A) DM, (B) Tetracycline, (C) Starvation, (D) Excess iron intake | Answer is D. Fatty change in the liver may result from one of the two types of causes: 1.Conditions with excess fat: i) Obesity ii)Diabetes mellitus iii)Congenital hyperlipidaemia 2.Liver cell damage: i) Alcoholic liver disease (most common) ii)Starvation iii)Protein calorie malnutrition iv)Chronic illnesses (e.g. tube... | |
Urination in the human subject is decreased by: (A) Nicotinic agonists, (B) AChase inhibitors, (C) muscarinic agonists, (D) muscarinic antagonists | Answer is D. ANTICHOLINERGIC DRUGS (Muscarinic receptor antagonists, Atropinic, Parasympatholytic) Smooth muscles:- All visceral smooth muscles that receive parasympathetic motor innervation are relaxed by atropine (M3 blockade). Tone and amplitude of contractions of stomach and intestine are reduced; the passage of ch... | |
Intraepidermal lgG deposition is seen in: (A) Pemphigus, (B) Bullous pemphigoid, (C) Herpes genitalis, (D) SLE | Answer is A. Pemphigus | |
More resistance in respiration is due to which of the following?: (A) Saturation with moisture, (B) Increased rate of flow during expiration, (C) Increased compression of airway, (D) Due to change from linear to turbulent flow | Answer is C. More resistance in respiration is seen in bronchial construction Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:333,334,335 | |
A patient presented with fever, cervical lymphadenopathy and night sweats four weeks after unprotected sexual contact. Next investigation: (A) p24, (B) ELISA, (C) CD4, (D) HIV PCR | Answer is A. Ref: PubMed* This is a possible suspicion of HIV infection.* p24 antigen is a viral protein that makes up most of the viral core.* Serum concentrations of p24 antigen are high in the first few weeks after infection; tests sensitive to p24 antigen are therefore useful for diagnosing very early infection whe... | |
Apical root fracture in an anterior tooth is treated by:: (A) Extraction, (B) Splinting for 2-3 months, (C) Endodontic treatment, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. A tooth with its root fractured in its apical third has an excellent prognosis because the pulp in the apical fragment usually remains vital, and the tooth may remain firm in its socket.
A mobile tooth should be splinted.
If the pulp in the coronal fragment remains vital and the tooth is stable, with or ... | |
Neonatal Jaundice first time appears in the 2nd week not a cause is –: (A) Galactossemia, (B) Rh Incompatibility, (C) Hypothyroidism, (D) Breast milk Jaundice | Answer is B. None | |
Optical media are clear in:: (A) Cavernous sinus thrombosis, (B) Orbital cellulitis, (C) Both of the above, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Ans. Both of the above | |
A male was brought unconscious to the hospital with external injuries. CT shows no midline shift, but basal cisterns were full (compressed) with multiple small haemorrhage. The most probable diagnosis is:: (A) Brain contusion, (B) Diffuse axonal injury, (C) Subdural hemorrhage, (D) Multiple infarct | Answer is B. B i.e. Diffuse axonal injuries Diffuse axonal injuries (DAI) - shearing injuries caused by sudden rotational or accelerating / decelerating forces. Patient typically lose consciousness at the time of impactQ. On CT small petechial hemorrhages are seenQ | |
The patient is delivered by cesarean section under general anesthesia.The baby and placenta are easily delivered, but the uterus is noted to be boggy and atonic despite intravenous infusion of Pitocin. All of the following are appropriate agents to use next except: (A) Methylergonovine (Methergine) administered intramu... | Answer is D. Methylergonovine, prostaglandin F2α, prostaglandin E1 (Misoprostil), and prostaglandin E2 (Hemabate)are all uretotonic agents than can be used in situations where there is a postpartum hemorrhage due to uterine atony.
Terbutalinewould be contraindicated in this situation because it is a tocolytic that is u... | |
Unwinding Enzyme in DNA synthesis:: (A) Helicase, (B) Primase, (C) DNA Polymerase, (D) Transcriptase | Answer is A. Ans. A. Helicase(Ref: Harper 31/e page 364)Classes of proteins involved in DNA replicationProteinFunctionDNA polymerasesDeoxynucleotide polymerizationHelicasesProcessive unwinding of DNATopoisomerasesRelieve torsional strain that results from helicase-induced unwindingProteinFunctionDNA primaseInitiates sy... | |
Most common pa of larynx involved in Tuberculosis is: (A) Anterior, (B) Posterior, (C) Middle, (D) Anywhere | Answer is B. Tubercular laryngitisThe disease affects the posterior third of larynx more commonly than anterior paThe pas affected in descending order of frequency are:- i) Interarytenoid fold, ii) Ventricular band, iii) Vocal cords, iv) EpiglottisRef: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 329... | |
Which bacteria has Ampitrichous flagella: (A) V cholerae, (B) Spirillum minus, (C) Listeria, (D) Alcaligenes faecalis | Answer is D. Mono - trichous - V.cholerae
Ampitrichous - Alcaligenes faecalis
Lophotrichous - Spirillum minus
Peritricous - E.coli, proteus, Listeria | |
Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by: (A) EIEC, (B) Shigella, (C) Salmonella, (D) Cholera | Answer is B. Shigella dysenteriae type 1 causes toxemia due to the production of exotoxin.the complication includes polyneuritis, ahritis, conjunctivitis, parotitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's;10th edition; Pg:293 | |
Liposomal amphotericin B has the following advantage over conventional amphotericin B:: (A) Lesser nephrotoxicity, (B) Lesser cost, (C) Absense of infusional toxicity, (D) Once a week administration | Answer is A. Amphotericin B (AMB): It is obtained from Streptomyces nodosus. Chemistry and mechanism of action The polyenes possess a macrocyclic ring, one side of which has several conjugated double bonds and is highly lipophilic, while the other side is hydrophilic with many OH groups. A polaraminosugar and a carboxy... | |
Which of the following is false regarding neoplastic compressive myelopathy?: (A) Most neoplasms are subdural in origin, (B) Thoracic spine is most commonly involved, (C) Tumor does not cross the disk space to involve adjacent veebral body, (D) Prognosis is poor when motor deficits are established for > 48 hours | Answer is A. Any malignant tumour can metastasise to spinal columns, paicularly tumours of breast, lung, prostate, kidney, lymphoma and myeloma. The most common site is the thoracic spinal column. Most neoplasms are epidural in origin, resulting from metastases to adjacent veebral body. Unlike infections of the spinal ... | |
In which of the following patients would enalapril be the best first line agent for high blood pressure control ?: (A) A 62 year old man with renal artery stenosis, (B) A 32 year old pregnant female, (C) A 41 year old woman with hyperkalemia, (D) A 56 year old diabetic woman | Answer is D. None | |
An eight year old child has active white spot lesions on his teeth and gives a history of having sugar containing snacks and beverages more than 3 times in between meals. In which category can we classify this child: (A) High Risk, (B) Moderate Risk, (C) Low Risk, (D) None | Answer is A. Caries-Risk Assessment Form for Children 6 Years Old or Younger | |
Which of the following generations of amalgam exhibit highest nobility?: (A) 3rd generation amalgam, (B) 4th generation amalgam, (C) 5th generation amalgam, (D) 6th generation amalgam | Answer is D. The set amalgam exhibits the highest nobility of any previous amalgam and has been the most recent 6th generation of amalgam to be developed.
Reference: Marzouk Operative dentistry, pg-106 | |
A patient of Schizophrenia was staed on neuroleptics, his psychotic symptoms began to improve however he developed sadness, would talks less to others, would mostly remain to bed. This presentation could be caused by all of following except:: (A) Parkinsonism, (B) Major depression, (C) Negative symptoms are still persi... | Answer is D. This question is basically asking for the differential diagnosis of symptoms of ' sadness of mood, talking less and staying on the bed" in a patient of schizophrenia who has been staed on antipsychotics. 1. The sadness of mood and decreased interaction can be of course due to depression 2. Negative symptom... | |
The location of schatzki&;s ring is: (A) Lower end of pharynx, (B) Upper end of esophagus, (C) Lower end of esophagus, (D) Antrum of stomach | Answer is C. SCHATZKI'S RING It occurs at the junction of squamous and columnar epithelium at the lower end of oesophagus and has also been called lower oesophageal ring. Usually seen in patients above 50 years of age. Cause is unknown. Symptomatic patients complain of intermittent dysphagia and some may even present w... | |
Prolactin:: (A) Has somatotropic activity., (B) It flow can cause infertility in women., (C) Can suppress menstrual cycle in lactating women., (D) Levels are increased by dopamine. | Answer is C. Prolactin, though structurally related to growth hormone does not share its somatotropic activity. Dopamine binds to the lactotropes and inhibits the synthesis and release of prolactin. Hyperprolactinemia suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, causes infertility in women and suppresses the nor... | |
Triplet repeats in Fragile X -syndrome is?: (A) CTG, (B) CGG, (C) CAG, (D) GAA | Answer is B. DISORDER TRIPLET REPEATS Fragile X syndrome CGG Friedreich ataxia GAA Myotonic dystrophy CTG Huntington disease CAG Ref: Nelson, 18th Edition, Pages 135, 499 | |
Left Kidney is preferred for transplantation because: (A) Longer renal Vein, (B) Higher location, (C) Ease of surgery due to anatomical relations, (D) To prevent damage to liver | Answer is A. The left kidney is preferred because of implantation advantages associated with a longer renal vein making anastomosis easier Also know, procurement of kidney, In a brainstem dead donor, the organ to be procured should be preserved to maintain its functional integrity. For this purpose the organ should be ... | |
Cesarean section is absolutely indicated in :: (A) Previous H/0 LSCS, (B) Type IV placenta pre, (C) Type II placenta pre, (D) Past H/o hysterotomy | Answer is B. Type IV placenta pre | |
In a dead body recovered from an open field, the below finding is seen. What could be the time since death:: (A) 24- 36 hrs, (B) 3- 5 days, (C) 5-10 days, (D) More than 2 weeks | Answer is B. Ans. (B). 3 - 5 daysPeeling of skin is a sign of decomposition.Skin slippage is noted on 2 -3 days,Degloving & destocking type of peeling -3-5 days.This type of change is also seen in drowning.The degloved skin can be preserved in formalin and used for fingerprint analysis. |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.