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Drug used for Buerger's disease:: (A) Xanthinol nicotinate, (B) Propranolol, (C) CCBs, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Xanthinol Nicotinate Xanthinol nicotinate (or xanthinol niacinate or complamina) is a vasodilatorQ. It is a combination of xanthinol and niacin (nicotinic acid) This vasodilator is used in the treatment of Raynaud's phenomenon and Buerger's disease. All other forms of pharmacologic treatment have been gene... | |
True about centchroman are all, EXCEPT :: (A) It is synthetic non -- steroidal contraceptive, (B) The only side effect is oligomenorrhoea, (C) Safe in liver disease, (D) Can be used as post -- coital pill | Answer is C. Safe in liver disease | |
Alcohol anti-craving agents are all, except: AIIMS 09: (A) Lorazepam, (B) Clonidine, (C) Acamprosate, (D) Naltrexone | Answer is A. Ans. Lorazepam | |
No effect on hea: (A) Chloroform, (B) Ether, (C) Methoxyflurane, (D) Halothane | Answer is B. B i.e. Ether | |
In type I hypersensitivity, the mediators is: (A) IgE, (B) IgG, (C) IgM, (D) IgC | Answer is A. (IgE) (161-AN 7th) (202-206-CP)Types of hypersensitivity reactions and their featuresType of reactionClinical syndromeMediatorsType I: IgE1. Anaphylaxis2. Atopy P. K. reactionIgE, histamine and other pharmacological agentsType II: Cytolytic and CytotoxicAntibody-mediated damage- thrombocytopenia-agranulocy... | |
Microvesicular type of fatty liver is Seen in the following except: (A) Acute fatty liver of pregnancy, (B) Alcoholic liver disease, (C) Reye's syndrome, (D) Phosphorus intoxication | Answer is B. Fatty liver disease means you have extra fat in your liver. You might hear your doctor call it hepatic steatosis. Heavy drinking makes you more likely to get it. Over time, too much alcohol leads to a buildup of fat inside your liver cells. This makes it harder for your liver to work. But you can get fatty... | |
Northern blot is used for identification of: (Repeat): (A) RNA, (B) DNA, (C) Protein, (D) Antibodies | Answer is A. Ans: A (RNA) Ref: Ananthanarayan R, Paniker CKJ. Textbook of Microbiology. 8th Edition. Hyderabad: Universities Press; 2009. Pg. 69Explanation:Southern blotting:The highly sensitive technique for identifying DNA fragments by DNA-DNA hybridisation is called Southern blotting, after EM Southern who devised i... | |
Snowman's heart sign on chest X-ray is seen in -: (A) Ebstein anomaly, (B) Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC), (C) Tetrology of Fallot, (D) Transposition of great vessels | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) o "Snowman" or "figure of 8" or "cottage loaf sign" is characteristic of supracardiac TAP VC.Cardiac configrationo "Boot-shaped" heart (cour en sabot)Fallot's tetralogyo "Egg on side" heart ("egg in cup" heart)Transposition of great arte... | |
Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy is initiated in which of the following phases of Acute Renal Failure:: (A) Initiation, (B) Maintenance, (C) Diuretic Phase, (D) Recovery Phase | Answer is B. Answer is B (Maintenance) Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy should be initiated during the Maintenance phase (Oliguric Phase) of Acute Renal Failure. Maintenance phase refers to the phase of Renal Failure in which the renal injury becomes established. It is also known as the Oliguric Phase. During this ... | |
True about montoux is -: (A) False negative in fulminant diseases, (B) If once done, next time it is always positive, (C) Results are given in terms of positive & negative, (D) Indurations given in terms of length & breadth | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., False negative in fulminant disease . A positive tuberculin test indicates hypersensitivity to tuberculoprotein, it may be due to : - Active infection - Subclinical infection - Past infection - BCG vaccination . In overwhelming tuberculosis (fulminant cases) due to depressed cellular immu... | |
Which of the following receptors is activated by acetylcholine and blocked by atropine.: (A) Nicotinic, (B) Muscarinic, (C) Alpha 1 and 2, (D) Beta 1 and 2 | Answer is B. None | |
Embolectomy should be done within: (A) 4 hours, (B) 6 hours, (C) 8 hours, (D) 10 hours | Answer is B. Embolectomy should be done within 6 hours as after 6 hours, irreverside changes occur. | |
Adverse effect of clozapine:: (A) Hypeension, (B) Sialorrhea, (C) Extrapyramidal S/E, (D) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome | Answer is B. B i.e. Sialorrhea | |
Rough and Irregular surface produced on the impression is because of?: (A) Improper application of pressure during impression making, (B) Air incorporated during mixing, (C) Too rapid polymerization, (D) Presence of moisture in impression area | Answer is C. None | |
A 58 year old male presents with fatigue, abdominal pain and bloody stools. Colonoscopy reveals a mass in the descending colon. For surgical removal of the mass, ligation of which of the following arteries is required?: (A) Superior mesenteric artery, (B) Inferior mesenteric artery, (C) External iliac artery, (D) Inter... | Answer is B. Answer: b) Inferior mesenteric artery (SABISTON 19th ED, P-1299; SCHWARTZ 10TH ED, P-1187)Left Colectomy.For lesions or disease states confined to the distal transverse colon, splenic flexure, or descending colon, a left colectomy is performed.The left branches of the middle colic vessels, the left colic v... | |
All of the following statements regarding Clostridium perfringens are true, EXCEPT:: (A) It is the commonest cause of gas gangrene, (B) It is normally present in human faeces, (C) The principal toxin of C. perfringens is the alpha toxin, (D) Gas gangrene producing strains of C. perfringens produce heat resistant spores | Answer is D. Spores of clostridium perfringens are killed within 5 minutes by boiling, it is also killed by autoclaving at 121 degree Celsius for 15 minutes. But spores of clostridium perfringens which produce food poisoning are heat resistant. Clostridium perfringens produces multiple exotoxins and is classified into ... | |
The cardiac jelly formed around the heart tube during early development, contributes to the formation of:: (A) Pericardium, (B) Mesocardium, (C) Myocardium, (D) Endocardium | Answer is D. Ans. is D. The most appropriate answer to this question is actually endocardial cushion. | |
True about HIV epidemiology -: (A) Children rarely affected, (B) <10% of HIV infected person progress to AIDS, (C) Southern africa have 72% of total global burden, (D) Seminal secretion is more infectious than vaginal secretion | Answer is A. Key facts about Epidemiology of HIV infection Reservoir: Cases and carriers Source: Virus is in greatest concentration in blood, seen and CSF (Lower concentrations in tear, saliva, breast milk, urine, cervical and vaginal secretions) Children under 15 years make only 3% cases Basic modes of transmission Se... | |
who gave the stage of trust versus mistrust: (A) seligman, (B) erikson, (C) lorenz, (D) bleuler | Answer is B. ERIC ERIKSON ERIC ERIKSON gave the psychosocail stages of development There are 8 psychosocial stages A person has to succesfully pass one stage to move to the next stage If he gets arrested in one stage he may develop some disorders Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pf no. 485 | |
Which of the following statements about Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is not true ?: (A) Foam cells are seen, (B) Associated with tuberculosis, (C) Yellow nodules are seen, (D) Giant cells may be seen | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Associated with tuberculosisXanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis o Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is a chronic infective condition of the kidney associated with chronic bacterial infection.o The most common organism implicated in causation is proteus followed by E coli (not tuberculosis... | |
A 1.5 year old female is brought to the clinic with complaints of excessive enlargement of head, intolerance to feeds and severe malnourishment. MRI imaging was suggestive of a medulloblastoma causing obstructive hydrocephalus. Which of the following is an example of irrational manattem,-the patient?: (A) Craniotomy an... | Answer is D. Ans. d. Radiotherapy 35-40 Gy was given to the whole craniospinal axis | |
Polysaccharides are: (A) Polymers, (B) Acids, (C) Proteins, (D) Oils | Answer is A. Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides. They are of two types- homopolysaccharides that contain a single type of monosaccharide (e.g., starch, insulin, cellulose) and heteropolysaccharides with two or more different types of monosaccharides (e.g., heparin, chondroitin sulfate).. Ref: Biochemistry ... | |
Which of these need both V and X factors-a) Hemophilus influenzaeb) H. ducreic) H. paraphrophilusd) H. aegyptiuse) H. haemolyticus: (A) ade, (B) bde, (C) abd, (D) ad | Answer is A. None | |
What is seen in neurogenic shock ?: (A) Bradycardia and hypotension, (B) Tachycardia and hypotension, (C) Bradycardia and hypetension, (D) Tachycardia and hypetension | Answer is A. Neurogenic shock is a distributive type of shock resulting in low blood pressure, occasionally with a slowed hea rate, that is attributed to the disruption of the autonomic pathways within the spinal cord. It can occur after damage to the central nervous system, such as spinal cord injury and traumatic bra... | |
Combined oral pills protect the woman against all except -: (A) Menorrhagia, (B) Benign breast disease, (C) Pelvic inflammatory disease, (D) Venous thromboembolism | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Venous thromboembolism | |
Poor prognostic indicator in ALL -: (A) Age < 2 year, (B) TLC 4000-10,000, (C) Presence of testicular involvement at presentation, (D) Presence of blasts in peripheral smear | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Age < 2 year | |
Plasma ceruloplasmin alpha 2 globulin is a: (A) alpha 1 globulin, (B) alpha 2 globulin, (C) beta 1 globulin, (D) beta 2 globulin | Answer is B. None | |
Vogt Koyanagi Harada syndrome is -: (A) Cataract, (B) C.N.S. tumour, (C) Uveitis, (D) Polycystic kidney | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., UveitisClinical manifestations of Vogt Kavanadi Harada syndromeOccular involvementC.N.S. involvementAuditory manifestationCutaneous manifestationOccular involvementB/L panuveitis ino Meningismuso Hearing losso VitiligoB/L panuveitis inassociation with serouso Headacheo Tinnituso Alopeciaa... | |
Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus?: (A) Echogenic foci in hea, (B) Hyperechogenic bowel, (C) Choroid plexus cysts, (D) Nuchal edema | Answer is D. Ans. Nuchal edema | |
Cyanide affects respiratory chain by: (A) Non-competitive reversible inhibition, (B) Competitive reversible inhibition, (C) Suicide irreversible inhibition, (D) Non-competitive irreversible inhibition | Answer is D. The toxicity of cyanide is due to its inhibitory effect on the terminal cytochrome which brings cellular respiration to a standstill. The inhibitor usually binds to a different domain on the enzyme, other than the substrate binding site. Since these inhibitors have no structural resemblance to the substrat... | |
Presence of it indicates remote contamination of water: (A) Streptococci, (B) Staphalococci, (C) Clastridium pertringes, (D) Nibrio | Answer is C. None | |
Mercury affects which part of the kidney -: (A) PCT, (B) DCT, (C) Collecting duct, (D) Loop of Henle | Answer is A. Ans. (a) PCT(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 928; 8th/pg 938)Nephrotoxic AKI*Caused by Gentamicin, radiographic contrast agents, heavy metals (eg mercury), organic solvents (eg CCl4 ).*Extensive necrosis along mainly proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) & ascending limb of Henle's loop.*On histologic examination, non-spec... | |
A 30 year old lady is to undergo surgery under intravenous regional anesthesia for her left 'trigger finger'. Which one of the following should not be used for patient?: (A) Lignocaine, (B) Bupivacaine, (C) Prilocaine, (D) Lignocaine + ketorolac. | Answer is B. B i.e. Bupivacaine | |
One primary oocyte forms how many ovum/ova: (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 3, (D) 4 | Answer is A. Observe that whereas one primary spermatocyte gives rise to four spermatozoa, one primary oocyte forms only one ovumHuman embryology Inderbir Singh&;s Tenth edition Pg 23 | |
The age by which most of the normal babies know their gender is: (A) 1 year, (B) 2 years, (C) 3 years, (D) 4 years | Answer is C. <p>. Developmental milestones:- GROSS MOTOR DEVELOPMENT: 2 months: Holds head in plane of rest of the body when held in ventral suspension. In prone position in bed, the chin lifts momentarily. 3 months:lift head above the plane of the body. Head control stas by 3 months and fully developed by 5 months. 4 ... | |
True about nucleosome: (A) Use only one type of histone protein, (B) Each complex is separated from each other by non histone proteins, (C) Regular repeating structure of DNA & histone proteins, (D) Reflect small nucleus | Answer is C. In biology, histones are highly alkaline proteins found in eukaryotic cell nuclei that package and order the DNA into structural units called nucleosomes. They are the chief protein components of chromatin, acting as spools around which DNA winds, and playing a role in gene regulation. Without histones, th... | |
A 64 year old hypertensive obsese female was undergoing surgery for fracture femur under general anaesthesia. Intra-operatively her end-tidal carbon dioxide decreased to 20 from 40 mm of Hg, followed by hypotension and oxygen saturation of 85%. What could be the most probable cause?: (A) Fat embolism, (B) Hypovolemia, ... | Answer is A. "Arterial blood gas analysis reveals hypoxemia and hypocapnia, with subsequent metabolic acidosis in severe pulmonary embolism. During anaesthesia, end tidal CO2 concentration may fall dramatically because of increased dead space and reduced cardiac output". _________ Anesthesia & Intensive care
Note : Fa... | |
Which of the following drugs is taken during the first pa of the meal for the purpose of delaying absorption of dietary carbohydrates?: (A) Acarbose, (B) Glipizide, (C) Metformin, (D) Exenatide | Answer is A. Acarbose is alpha glucosidase inhibitor. It inhibits the breakdown of complex carbohydrates to simple carbohydrates and thus they decrease the absorption. Glipizide is second generation sulphonylurea which helps in secretion of insulin. Metformin is biguanide which decrease the synthesis of glucose. Exenat... | |
Test for tight iliotibial band is: (A) Ober's test, (B) Osber's test, (C) Simmond's test, (D) Charnley's test | Answer is A. OBER&;S TEST:Used in physical examination to identify tightness of iliotibial band. During the test ,the patient lies on his side with the unaffected leg on the bottom with their shoulder and pelvis in line. The knee may extended or flexed to 90 or 30 degrees.The hip is maintained in slight extension.The t... | |
The antiepileptic drug effective in Lennox-Gastaut syndrome is:: (A) Lamotrigine, (B) Gabapentin, (C) Tiagabine, (D) Primidone | Answer is A. Lamotrigine is the most effective drug among the given options. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18 th edition ; Page : 3263, Table : 369/9. | |
Ten days after an exploratory laparotomy and lysis of adhesions, a patient, who previously underwent a low anterior resection for rectal cancer followed by postoperative chemoradiation, is noted to have succus draining from the wound. She appears to have adequate source control--she is afebrile with a normal white bloo... | Answer is A. Factors that predispose to fistula formation and may prevent closure include foreign body, radiation, inflammation, epithelialization of the tract, neoplasm, distal obstruction, and steroids.Factors that result in unhealthy or abnormal tissue surrounding the enterocutaneous fistula decrease the likelihood ... | |
All are causes of hypertension with hypokalemia except,: (A) Bilateral renal artery stenosis, (B) End stage renal disease, (C) Primary hyperaldosteronism, (D) Cushing disease | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e. End stage renal disease Hypertension with HypokalemiaHigh reninRenal artery stenosisAccelerated hypertensionRenin-secreting tumorEstrogen therapyLow reninPrimary aldosteronismAdenomaHyperplasiaCarcinomaAdrenal enzyme defects1 1b- Hydroxylase deficiency17a- Hydroxylase deficiencyCushing's s... | |
All are autosomal dominant except -: (A) Familial hypercholesterolemia, (B) Hereditary spherocytosis, (C) Acute intermittent parphyria, (D) Phenylketonuria | Answer is D. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is an inborn error of metabolism that results in decreased metabolism of the amino acid phenylalanine.] Untreated PKU can lead to intellectual disability, seizures, behavioral problems, and mental disorder. It may also result in a musty smell and lighter skin. Babies born to mothers w... | |
Primary structural defect of an organ is termed -: (A) Malformation, (B) Disruption, (C) Deformation, (D) Association | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Malformation(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 452)Malformation refers to primary structural defect of an organ due to intrinsically abnormal developmental process (multifactorial); Eg Anencephaly, Congenital heart defects | |
Major basic protein is an important constituent of which leucocyte:: (A) Neutrophil, (B) Eosinophil, (C) Basophil, (D) Lymphocyte | Answer is B. None | |
First investigation done for abnormal uterine bleeding in reproductive age group is _______: (A) Ultrasonography transabdominal, (B) Pap smear, (C) Urine Beta HCG, (D) Ultrasonography transvaginal | Answer is C. The first investigation for abnormal uterine bleeding is Urine Beta HCG to rule ouut pregnancy. Abnormal Uterine Bleeding(AUB): is a common and debilitating condition. Chronic AUB was defined as &;bleeding from the uterine corpus that is abnormal in volume, regularity and/or timing that has been present fo... | |
Female sterilization is absolutely contraindicated in:: (A) Hea disease, (B) Diabetes mellitus, (C) Hypeension, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. There is no absolute medical contraindication for female sterilization. Also remember, : FEMALE STERILIZATION MALE STERILIZATION - Married - Married - 22-49 yrs old female - 22-60 yrs old male - >= 1 child - >= 1 child - No past history in self/ spouse sterilization - No past history in self/ spouse steril... | |
Causes of biliary tract carcinoma after ingesting infected fish -: (A) Grathostoma, (B) Angiostrongylus cantonens, (C) Clonorchis sinensis, (D) H. Dimunata | Answer is C. In most cases the disease tends to remain low grade and chronic producing only minor symptoms of abdominal distress,intermittent diarrhea and liver pain or tenderness.C.sinensis has been linked to bile duct carcinoma.It is mostly observed in areas where chlonorchiasis is endemic (refer pgno:126 baveja 3 rd... | |
Joint not involved in Rheumatoid ahritis according to 1987 modified ARA criteria?: (A) Knee, (B) Ankle, (C) Tarsometatarsal, (D) Met at arsophalangeal | Answer is C. Tarsometatarsal The 1987 Revised Criteria for the Rheumatoid ahritis 4 out of 7 criteria are required to classify a patient as having rheumatoid ahritis Patients with 2 or more clinical diagnoses are not excluded. 1.Morning stiffness: morning stiffness in and around joints lasting at least 1 hour before ma... | |
Antibody transfer mother to fetus -: (A) IgG, (B) IgM, (C) IgD, (D) IgA | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., IgG | |
Hydrocephalus in infant is best diagnosed by: (A) USG cranium, (B) CT scan head, (C) Encephalogram, (D) Lumbar-puncture | Answer is A. Ans. a (USG cranium). (Ref. Grainger, Diagnostic Radiology, 4th ed., 2469)Cranial ultrasound of Infants# USG cranium is best method to diagnose hydrocephalus through the anterior and posterior fontanalles.# Progression of hydrocephalus can be estimated by comparison with previous studies.# USG is also help... | |
Non-Inflammatory arthritis is: (A) Rheumatoid arthritis, (B) Reiter's syndrome, (C) Gonococcal arthritis, (D) Osteo-arthritis | Answer is D. None | |
TRUE/FALSE statements about radial nerve is/are: 1. Branch of posterior cord 2. Nerve of extensor compament of forearm 3. Arise from C5 - T1 4. Anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of it 5. Supply skin of extensor compament: (A) 1,2,3 true & 4,5 false, (B) 1,2,3,4 true & 5 false, (C) 1,2,3,5 true & 4 false, (D) All ... | Answer is C. Radial nerve is the largest branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus with a root value of C5 - C8 and T1. The radial nerve is commonly injured in the region of the spiral groove. this result in the wrist drop and sensory loss over a narrow strip on the back of forearm, and on the lateral side of... | |
Which is not a common enzyme for glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?: (A) Aldolase, (B) Glucose-6-phosphatase, (C) Phosphoglycerate mutase, (D) Phosphoglycerate kinase | Answer is B. Seven of the reactions of glycolysis are reversible and are used in the synthesis of glucose by gluconeogenesis. Thus, seven enzymes are common to both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis : (i) Phosphohexose isomerase; (ii) Aldolase; (iii) Phosphotriose isomerase, (iv) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase; ... | |
Hepatotoxic agent is -: (A) Halothane, (B) Ketamine, (C) N2O, (D) Ether | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Halothane o Halothane is the most hepatotoxic anesthetic.o Hepatotoxic anaesthetic agents are :1. Chloroform2. Halothane3. Carbon tetrachloride4. Trichloroethylene5. MethoxyfluraneRemembero Nitric oxide is least potent inhalation agent (MAC - 105%).o Halothane is most potent inhalation ag... | |
Which of the following is the "Least common" complication of measles-: (A) Diarrhoea, (B) Pneumonia, (C) Otitis media, (D) SSPE | Answer is D. <p>measles complications:- Most common complications are 1. Measles associated diarrhoea. 2. Pneumonia 3. Otitis media 4. Respiratory complications Pneumonia is the most life threatening complication. Pulmonary complications account for more than 90% of deaths due to measles. Neurological complications:- 1... | |
COX pathway is inhibited by :: (A) Aspirin, (B) Indomethacin, (C) Diclofenac, (D) All of these | Answer is D. Aspirin inhibits COX irreversibly by acetylating one of its serine residues; return of COX activity depends on synthesis of fresh enzyme. Other NSAIDS like indomethacin, diclofenac etc are competitive and reversible inhibitors of COX, return of activity depends on their dissociation from the enzyme which i... | |
Poor prognostic factor in chizophrenia is:: (A) Acute onset, (B) Family history of affective disorder, (C) Middle age, (D) Past history of schizophrenia | Answer is D. Past history of schizophrenia | |
In ETC cmplex-4 is inhibited by all except -: (A) CO, (B) CN-, (C) H2S, (D) BAL | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., BAL o Rotenone inhibits complex I (NADH-CoQ reductase).Inhibitors of electron transport chain-o Inhibitors of respiratory chain may be divided into three groups : -Inhibitors of electron transport chain properThese inhibitors inhibit the flow of electrons through the respiratory chain. Th... | |
Which cranial nerve(s) is/are not involved in "Locked in syndrome"?: (A) 9, (B) 10, (C) 11, (D) 12 | Answer is C. Locked-in Syndrome: A pseudo-coma state in which an awake patient has no means of producing speech or volitional movement Retains voluntary veical eye movements and lid elevation Pupils are normally reactive. Aphonic because of the involvement of pyramidal fibers Involvement of medulla leads to 9th, 10th, ... | |
True regarding scrum pox is all except: (A) Common in rugby players, (B) Caused by varicella zoster virus, (C) Acyclovir is treatment, (D) Vesicular Lesions and fever seen | Answer is B. Serum pox is caused by HSV - type I. | |
All of the following syndromes are seen with obesity except:: (A) Prader - Willi syndrome, (B) Cohen syndrome, (C) Laurence Moon - Biedl syndrome, (D) Carcinoid syndrome | Answer is D. Cohen syndrome - Cohen syndrome is Paternal inheritance always associated with obesity Carcinoid syndrome - Excess of 5 HT derivatives : Serotonin increase leads to secretory diarrhea & will Result in weight loss Prader willi syndrome - caused by deletion of chromosome 15 Sho stature, obesity, inappropriat... | |
A case of injury to right brow due to a fall from scooter present with sudden loss of vision in the right eye.The pupil shows absent direct reflex but a normal consensual pupillary reflex is present. The fundus is normal. The treatment of choice is-: (A) Intensive intravenous corticosteroids as prescribed for spinal in... | Answer is A. Sudden loss of vision, absent Ipsilateral direct light reflex and normal ipsilateral consensual light reflex suggest the diagnosis of optic nerve injury.
Within 8 hours of injury megadose of iv steroid (methylprednisolone) should be given. If there is no response or deterioration, optic canal decompression... | |
Cauliflower ear is associated with:: (A) Otomycosis, (B) Hematoma, (C) Otosclerosis, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. A patient with an auricular hematoma usually presents with an edematous, fluctuant, and ecchymotic pinna, with loss of the normal cailaginous landmarks. Failure to evacuate the hematoma may lead to cailage necrosis and permanent disfigurement known as "cauliflower ear." | |
True statements regarding epilepsy in pregnancy is:: (A) Seizure frequency decreases in majority, (B) Monotherapy is preferred to polydrug therapy, (C) No increase in incidence of epilepsy in offspring, (D) Breastfeeding is contraindicated | Answer is B. Ans. is b, i.e. Monotherapy is preferred to polydrug therapy --Dutta Obs 7/e, p 291As discussed earlier, seizure frequency remains unchanged in majority during pregnancy."Frequency of convulsions is unchanged in majority (50%) and is increased in some." --Dutta 7/e, p 291"The risk of developing epilepsy to... | |
Spinal cord in an infant terminates at: (A) L1, (B) L2, (C) L3, (D) L4 | Answer is C. In premature & term neonates- it lies b/w 1st & 3rd lumbar veebrae. In children between ages of (1-7yrs)- it lies between 12th thoracic and 3rd lumbar veebra. In adults, it terminates at the level of middle 3rd of body of 1st lumbar veebra which corresponds approximately to transpyloric plane. Spinal cord ... | |
A 67 yr male with history of chronic smoking hemoptysis with cough. Bronchoscopic biopsy from centrally located mass shows undifferentiated tumor histopathologically. Most useful I.H.C. (immunohistochemical) marker to make a proper diagnosis would be:: (A) Cytokeratin, (B) Parvalbumin, (C) HMB-45, (D) Hep-par1 | Answer is A. The presence of chronic smoking, cough and hemoptysis in old man is a pointer towards a diagnosis of bronchogenic cancer. The central location suggests the possibility of a squamous cell cancer. Histologically, this tumor is characterized by the presence of keratinization and/or intercellular bridges. HMB ... | |
Malignant cold nodule in thyroid diagnostic on USG by all EXCEPT: (A) No cystic lesion, (B) Irregular margins, (C) Calcification at margin of tumour, (D) Hypoechoic | Answer is A. (A) No cystic lesion > USG can also be used to aid in the differentiation between benign and malignant nodules. The following criteria can be used by USG, and favor a diagnosis of malignancy:1) Absence of a halo sign2) Uniformly solid tumor with occasional central necrosis3) Irregular margins4) Fine calcif... | |
Most common type of germinal cell tumor in testis is?: (A) Teratoma, (B) Embryonal carcinoma, (C) Seminoma, (D) Endodermal sinus tumor | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Seminoma * Testicular tumors are divided into two major categories : (i) Germ cell tumors, and (ii) Sex cord tumors.A) Germ cell tumors# More than 95% of testicular tumors are germ cell tumors. They are further divided into -i) Seminoma* It is the most common germ cell tumor of testis. Fe... | |
An order for exhumation can be given by: Maharashtra 08: (A) District collector, (B) Additional district magistrate, (C) Sub-collector, (D) Any of the above | Answer is D. Ans. Any of the above | |
Langerhans cells in skin are :: (A) Antigen presenting cells, (B) Pigment producing cells, (C) Keratin synthesisng cells, (D) Sensory neurons | Answer is A. A i.e Antigen presenting cells | |
In hyperkalemia with bradycardia treatment is: -: (A) Calcium gluconate, (B) Steroid, (C) Salbutamol, (D) K+ resin | Answer is A. The treatment for hyperkalemia can be thought of in 3 distinct steps. First, antagonize the effects of hyperkalemia at the cellular level (membrane stabilization). Second, decrease serum potassium levels by promoting the influx of potassium into cells throughout the body.(insulin,beta2 agonist) Third, remo... | |
In human body, methionine is synthesized from ?: (A) Cysteine, (B) Proline, (C) Threonine, (D) None | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., None Methionine is an essential amino acid, cannot be synthesized in body. | |
Not a common cause of night blindness:: (A) Cataract, (B) RP, (C) Oguchi disease, (D) Pathological myopia | Answer is A. Cataract is not a common cause of night blindness. Other causes are more recognized causes. Causes of Night Blindness Vitamin A deficiency (first symptom is red-green differentiation anomaly) Pathological myopia Tapetoretinal degenerations{eg. Retinitis pigmentosa(RP)} Familial congenital night blindness O... | |
In recent surveillance reports cases of diphtheria are reducing. This is due to -: (A) Chemoprophylaxis, (B) Improved standard of living, (C) Vaccination, (D) Health education | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Vaccination o The reduced incidence of diphtheria in India is primarily due to the high coverage of appropriate immunization in children and to an apparent reduction in toxin-producing strains of the bacterium. | |
Total lung capacity depends on:: (A) Size of airway, (B) Closing tidal volume, (C) Lung compliance, (D) Residual volume | Answer is C. Ans. C. Lung compliancea. TLC is the maximum volume to which the lungs can be expanded with the greatest possible inspiratory effort.b. TLC=IRV+TV+ERV+RV=IC+RVc. Compliance (stretch ability) of lungs: D is increased in Emphysema (obstructive lungs dis) and decreased in Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis (Rest... | |
Which of the following decrease sex hormone binding globulin: (A) Oral contraceptive pills, (B) Insulin, (C) Thyroxine Hormone, (D) Pregnancy | Answer is B. None | |
A 65-year-old man suffers a sudden fall in mean aerial pressure, 4 hours after his CABG surgery. Other findings include elevated JVP. What is the best next step in the management of this case?: (A) PRBC Transfusion, (B) Vasopressors along with the inotropes, (C) Immediate re-exploration of the mediastinum, (D) Intra-ao... | Answer is C. This clinical presentation points towards a likely diagnosis of Cardiac tamponade. It is a common complication post CABG. It can be confirmed on an Echocardiography. It is a life-threatening condition hence it should be managed by immediate return to the OT for exploration and drainage of mediastinal hemat... | |
Type IV complex of ETC is inhibited by: (A) Oligomycin, (B) Antimycin, (C) Cyanide, (D) CO2 | Answer is C. Cyanide is probably the most potent inhibitor of ETC (Complex IV). It binds to Fe3+ of cytochrome oxidase blocking mitochondrial respiration leading to cell death. Cyanide poisoning causes death due to tissue asphyxia (mostly of the central nervous system) In Acute cyanide poisoning Amyl nitrite is given f... | |
A 60 yr old smoker came with a history of painless gross hematuria for one day. Most logical investigation would be: (A) Urine routine, (B) Plain X ray KUB, (C) USG KUB, (D) Urine microscopy for malignant cytology | Answer is D. In this case, we should suspect bladder carcinoma ( transitional cell carcinoma ) . Smokers are at a higher risk of developing TCC.Other risk factors being chemical .industry workers in western countries and schistosomiasis in endemic regions . It is more common in males -3:1. They usually presents with pa... | |
Which Ca has best prognosis:: (A) Carcinoma lip, (B) Carcinoma cheek, (C) Carcinoma tongue, (D) Carcinoma palate | Answer is A. Oral malignancy with best prognosis is carcinoma lips. Oral cancer with worst prognosis is floor of mouth carcinoma. | |
Net reproduction rate is :: (A) Number of girl babies born to a women, (B) Number of babies born to a women, (C) Number of girl babies born to a women and taking into account only alive once, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Total Fertility Rate(TFR) : Number of babies born to a woman
Gross Fertility Rate(GFR) : Number of girl babies born to a woman
Net reproduction rate(NRR) : Number of girl babies born to a woman and taking into account only alive once. | |
What is the common change in cell death associated with both apoptosis and necrosis ?: (A) Cell shrinkage, (B) Bleb formation, (C) Chromatin condensation, (D) Presence of inflammation | Answer is C. Answer- C. Chromatin condensationBoth form of cell death, finally lead to nuclear changes i.e. chromatin condensation (pyknosis). | |
Drug the choice for hyperthyroidism in first trimester of pregnancy is: (A) Methimazole, (B) Propylthiouraril, (C) Carbimazole, (D) Perchlorate | Answer is B. Propylthiouracil is the only thioamide which is least teratogenic and hence it is the drug of choice to hyperthyroidism in pregnancy and lactation. | |
Which of the following coagulation factors causes cross-linking and stabilization of clot?: (A) Factor XIII, (B) Thrombin, (C) Factor VIII, (D) Factor IX | Answer is A. The loose aggregation of platelets in the temporary plug is bound together and conveed into definitive clot bg fibrin. Fibrin is initially a loose mesh of interlacing strands. It is conveed by the formation of covalent cross-linkages to a dense tight aggregate. The latter reaction is catalyzed by activated... | |
Phage typing is widely used for the intraspecies classification of one of the following bacteria -: (A) Staphylococci, (B) E. coli, (C) Klebsiella pneumoniae, (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa | Answer is A. None | |
The first step when doing a pneumonectomy for cancer of the bronchus is to:: (A) Ligate the pulmonary vein, (B) Ligate pulmonary aery, (C) Divide the bronchus, (D) Perform lymph node clearance | Answer is B. Pneumonectomy Pneumonectomy is anatomically more straightforward than lobectomy (in carcinoma bronchus): The pulmonary aery is first dissected, divided and sutured. The pulmonary veins are then isolated divided and sutured. The main bronchus is divided so that no blind stump remains. The technique of stump... | |
All are true about DOTS, except ?: (A) Sho course of chemotherapy, (B) Drugs are given free of cost, (C) Supervised drugs intake in intensive phase, (D) Daily treatment is recommended | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Daily treatment is recommended Directly observed treatment sho course (DOTS) In the Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP), patients are provided sho course chemotherapy as DOTS. All patients are provided sho-course chemotherapy free of charge. During the intensive phase ... | |
A patient on warfarin was given phenobarbitone, The result would have been -: (A) Increase the dose of warfarin, (B) Decrease the dose of warfarin, (C) Increase the dose of phenobarbitone, (D) Decerease the dose of phenobarbitone | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Increase the dose of warfarin | |
Which of the following dings is not used for anxiety?: (A) Propanolol, (B) Aiprazolam, (C) Buspirone, (D) Haloperidol | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Haloperidol | |
True about carotid body receptors ?: (A) Most potent stimulus is high PCO2, (B) Dopamine is neurotransmitter, (C) Low blood flow, (D) Afferent through vagus nerve | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dopamine is neurotransmitter Peripheral chemoreceptors The peripheral chemoreceptors which regulate respiration are located in the carotid body and aoic bodies. These bodies are located in the connective tissue associated with the vessel wall, at the bifurcation of the common carotid, and... | |
A mother calls you on the telephone and says that her 4-year-old son bit the hand of her 2-year-old son 2 days ago. The area around the injury has become red, indurated, and tender, and he has a temperature of 39.4degC (103degF). Which of the following is the most appropriate response?: (A) Arrange for a plastic surger... | Answer is B. Human bites can pose a significant problem. They can become infected with oropharyngeal bacteria, including S aureus, Streptococcus viridans, Eikenella corrodens, and anaerobes. A patient with an infected human bite of the hand requires hospitalization for appropriate drainage procedures, Gram stain and cu... | |
Most common malignancy in children is –: (A) Leukemia, (B) Lymphoma, (C) Wilm's tumor, (D) Neuroblastoma | Answer is A. Most common childhood tumor → Leukaemia
Most common childhood leukemia → ALL
Most common solid tumor of childhood → Brain tumor
Most common tumor in infancy → Neuroblastoma
Most common abdominal tumor in child → Neuroblastoma | |
A factory worker presents with excessive salivation, blue lines on gums, tremors, disturbed personality, insomnia, and loss of appetite. The most likely poisoning is -: (A) Mercury, (B) Lead, (C) Arsenic, (D) Phosphorus | Answer is A. Excessive salivation, blue line on gums, tremors (i.e. Hatter's shake), disturbed personality (i.e. erethism) and loss of appetite (anorexia) suggest the diagnosis of mercury poisoning. | |
Role of carnitine in lipid metabolism -: (A) Catalyzation of the cyclization sequence, (B) Essential for extracellular transfer of fatty acids, (C) Essential for biosynthesis of fatty acids, (D) Transfer of activated long chain FFA into mitochondria | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Transfer of activated long chain FFA into mitochondria o Activated long chain fatty acid (acyl CoA) cannot penetrate inner mitochondrial membrane.o Acyl group of acyl CoA is transferred to carnitine, resulting in formation of acylcarnitine.o Acylcarnitine is then transported across the in... | |
CAMP reaction is shown by which streptococci?: (A) Group A, (B) Group B, (C) Group C, (D) Group D | Answer is B. Ans. b (Group B). (Ref. Textbook of microbiology by Ananthanarayan 6th ed. 187).Serological or Lancefield classification system for streptococci1Group A streptococciCatalase -,Beta-hemolysis,Bacitracin sensitive,PYR test +,Ribose not fermented.Includes Streptococcus pyogenes.2Group B streptococciCAMP + and... | |
One gram of smokeless gunpowder produces: Karnataka 11: (A) 3000-4000 cc of gas, (B) 9000-10,000 cc of gas, (C) 12,000-13,000 cc of gas, (D) 15,000-16,000 cc of gas | Answer is C. Ans. 12,000-13,000 cc of gas | |
Cranial pa of accessory nerve supplies: (A) Sternocleidomastoid, (B) Trapezius, (C) Levator scapulae, (D) Levator palatini | Answer is A. Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius develop from branchial arch mesoderm and are supplied by spinal pa of the accessory nerve. Levator scapulae are supplied by a branch from dorsal scapular nerve and branches from C3, C4. BD Chaurasia 7th edition Page no: 65 | |
Marcus Gunn pupil is due to -: (A) Total afferent pupillary defect, (B) Relative afferent pupillary defect, (C) Efferent pathway defect, (D) Cerebral lesion | Answer is B. The Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect (RAPD), or Marcus-Gunn Pupil is an extremely significant and highly objective clinical finding in the examination of the visual system. The "swinging flashlight test" is probably the best test for identifying an RAPD. In this test, a strong, steady light is used. The ... | |
The impression with the least dimensional change upon disinfection is: (A) Addition poly silicone, (B) Agar-agar, (C) Polysulphide, (D) Polyether | Answer is A. None |
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