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Which of the following diseases of the skin is the most
likely to be associated with partial anodontia?: (A) erythema multiformae, (B) hereditary ectodermal dysplasia, (C) keratosis follicularits, (D) lichen Onus | Answer is B. Ectodermal dysplasia is characterized by congenital dysplasia of ectodermaL structures, manifested as hypohidrosis (partial or complete absence of sweat glands) hypotrichosis and hypodontia or partial anodontia.
Two types
Hypohidrotic (Christ-Siemens-Touraine syndrome) most common type and includes dental... | |
Early neonatal sepsis occurs within (hours) -: (A) 8, (B) 12, (C) 36, (D) 72 | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 72 hours | |
Cylindrical dilatation of renal tubules is seen in -: (A) Polycystic disease of kidney, (B) Medullary cystic disease, (C) Wilms tumour, (D) Lipoid nephrosis | Answer is A. None | |
All the following are features of Tropical pulmonary eosinophilia except: (A) Eosinophilia>3000/mm3, (B) Microfilaria in blood, (C) Paroxysmal cough and wheeze, (D) Bilateral chest mottling and increased bronchivascular markings | Answer is B. In TPE Microfilaria are rapidly cleared from blood stream by the lungs . Thus, Microfilaria are sequestrated in the lungs . Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1686-87 | |
Feilization occurs in which pa of the fallopian tube: (A) Ampulla, (B) Isthmus, (C) Interstitial, (D) Infundibular | Answer is A. REF : DUTTA OBG 9TH ED | |
Naturally occurring LA –: (A) Cocaine, (B) Lidocaine, (C) Bupivacaine, (D) Tetracaine | Answer is A. Cocaine is the only naturally occuring local anaesthetic, obtained from leaves of Erythroxylon coca. | |
The dangerous paicle size causing pneumoconiosis varies from ?: (A) 100-150 m, (B) 50-100 m, (C) 10-50 m, (D) 1-5 m | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 1-5 m Pneumoconiosis o Pneumoconiosis is an occupational lung disease caused by the inhalation of dust. o The development of pneumoconiosis depends on - (i) The amount of dust retained in the lungs and airways. (ii) The size, shape of the paicles --> The most dangerous paicle ranges from ... | |
An 6 cm simple ovarian cyst was identified in late pregnancy, what would be the best management ?:: (A) Emergency laparotomy, (B) Removal after after 6 weeks of puerperium, (C) Removal early in the puerperium, (D) Conservative as most tumors would subside | Answer is C. Treatment of ovarian tumour in pregnancy depending on time of pregnancy: During pregnancy In an uncomplicated case, the best time of elective operation is b/w 14-18wks as chances of aboion are less and access to the pedicle is easy. But if the tumour is diagnosed beyond 36 weeks, tumour is removed early in... | |
Periodontal pack is least successful in the management of?: (A) Splinting, (B) Antimicrobial Properties, (C) Hemostasis, (D) Pain elimination | Answer is D. None | |
Neovascularisation is seen in: (A) Central vein obstruction, (B) Central retinal aery obstruction, (C) Branch retinal vein obstruction, (D) All of the above. | Answer is A. A i.e. Central vein obstruction | |
A person present with cribriform plate fracture with CSF rhinorrhea. What will be immediate treatment?: (A) Frequent blowing of nose, (B) Plugging of nose with paraffin, (C) Craniotomy, (D) Antibiotics with wait for 7 days | Answer is D. TREATMENT OF CSF RHINORRHEA Early cases of post-traumatic CSF rhinorrhoea can be managed by conservative measures such as bed rest, elevating the head of the bed, stool softeners, and avoidance of nose blowing, sneezing and straining. Prophylactic antibiotics can be used to prevent meningitis. Acetazolamid... | |
Which of the following structures is least likely to be damaged during mandibular 3rd molar extraction: (A) Lingual artery, (B) Lingual nerve, (C) Inferior alveolar nerve, (D) Inferior alveolar artery | Answer is A. None | |
A 60 yr old female with I-1/0 8 blood transfusion in 2 years. Her Hb- 60g/L, TLC-5800, platelet-3.4 lakhs, MCV 60, RBC-2.1 lakhs/mm3. He is having hypochromic microcytic anemia. Which investigation is not needed aEUR': (A) Evaluation for pulmonary hemosiderosis, (B) Urinary hemosiderin, (C) Bone marrow examination, (D)... | Answer is A. Evaluation for pulmonary hemosiderosis Anemia with low RBC count, microcytotosis and hypochromia point towards iron deficiency anemia. - "Bone marrow biopsy" in iron deficiency anemia demonstrates erythroid hyperplasia and micronormoblasts reaction. - Prussian blue staining of the bone marrow aspirate and ... | |
Nitrates are not used in -: (A) CCF, (B) Esophageal spasm, (C) Renal colic, (D) Cyanide poisoning | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Renal colic Uses of nitrates Angina pectoris MI CHF and acute LVF --> nitroglycerine i.v. can be used Act by decreasing preload (LV filling pressure). Biliary colic and esophageal spasm (achalasia cardia) Acute coronary syndrome (unstable angina and non-ST segment elevation Ml). Cyanide p... | |
Natural uncoupler is-: (A) Thermogenin, (B) 2, 4-dinitrocresol, (C) 2, 4 Dinitrophenol, (D) Oligomycin | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thermogenin o Amongst the given options, a, b and c are uncouplers. o However, only thermogenin, among these three is a natural (physiological) uncoupler. Uncouples o As the name suggests, these compounds block the coupling of oxidation with phosphorylation. These compounds allow the tran... | |
All of the following statements about hairy cell leukemia are true except:: (A) Splenomegaly is conspicuous, (B) Results from an expansion of neoplastic T-lymphocytes, (C) Cells are positive for Taarate Resistant Acid phosphatase, (D) The cells express CD25 consistently | Answer is B. Hairy cell leukemia is a type of B-cell leukemia. Clinical feature: Massive splenomegaly Increase chances of infections DIAGNOSIS 1. BLOOD Pancytopenia Phase contrast microscopy- Hairy projections Staining- TRAP 2. Immunophenotyping CD11 + CD25+ CD103 + Annexin A1 + ( Best marker) 3.BM examination BM aspir... | |
A decrease in which of the following parameters will shift the O2 dissociation curve to the right?: (A) pH, (B) Paial pressure of CO2, (C) 2,3 DPG concentration, (D) Temperature | Answer is A. Left shift (high affinity for O2) Right shift (low affinity for O2) Temperature decrease increase 2.3-DPG decrease increase p(CO2) decrease increase p(CO) increase decrease pH (Bohr effect) increase (alkalosis) decrease (acidosis) Type of haemoglobin Fetal haemoglobin Adult haemoglobin | |
Kussumauls breathing: (A) Metabolic alkalosis, (B) Respiratory alkalosis, (C) Respiratory acidosis, (D) Metabolic acidosis | Answer is D. Rapid,deep(Kussmaul) breathing usually implies metabolic acidosis but may also occur with pontomesencephalic lesions. Ref:Harrison's medicine -18th edition,page no:2251. | |
Dislocation of lens is seen in:: (A) Trachoma, (B) Diabetes mellitus, (C) Homocystinuria, (D) Turner's syndrome | Answer is C. C i.e. Homocystinuria | |
Which of the following is not a prodrug-: (A) Enalapril, (B) Oxcarbazepine, (C) Chloral hydrate, (D) Diazepam | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Diazepam Prodrug o Few drugs are inactive as such and need conversion in the body to one or more active metabolites. Such a drug is called a prodrug. Prodrug Levodopa Enalapril - Methyldopa Chloralhydrate Dipivefrine Oxcarbazepine Prednisone Bacampicillin Sulfasalazine Cyclophosphamide Me... | |
Cause of "bloody" vomitus in a neonate: (A) Meckel's diveiculum, (B) Intussusception, (C) Malrotation, (D) Cholecystitis | Answer is A. Meckel&;s dieiculum may cause severe hemorrhage due to peptic ulceration. The blood is usually passed per rectum and is maroon in colour. it may cause bloody vomitus. Ref : BAILEY AND LOVE&;S SHO PRACTICE OF SURGERY,24 TH EDITION PG NO:1159 | |
Lancinating pain around the tonsils during eating is indicative of: (A) Trigeminal neuralgia, (B) Glossopharyngeal neuralgia, (C) Facial neuralgia, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. (B) Glossopharyngeal neuralgia # Nerve Supply of Tonsils:* Lesser palatine branches of sphenopalatine ganglion (CN V) and glossopharyngeal nerve provide sensory nerve supply. | |
Bird of Prey" sign is seen in the radiographic barium examination of:: (A) Gastric volvulus, (B) Intussusception, (C) Sigmoid volvulus, (D) Caeca! volvulus | Answer is C. Sigmoid volvulus | |
A 30-year-old woman sustained a traumatic blow to her right breast. Initially, there was a 3-cm contusion beneath the skin that resolved within 3 weeks, but she then felt a firm, painless lump that persisted below the site of the bruise 1 month later. What is the most likely diagnosis for this lump?: (A) Abscess, (B) F... | Answer is B. Fat necrosis is typically caused by trauma to the breast. The damaged, necrotic fat is phagocytosed by macrophages, which become lipid-laden. The lesion resolves as a collagenous scar within weeks to months. The firm scar can mammographically and grossly resemble a carcinoma. An abscess may form a palpable... | |
The basis of Korotkoff sound is: (A) Aoic valve closure, (B) Production of hea sound, (C) Aerial turbulence, (D) Aerial valve expansion | Answer is C. The sounds of Korotkoff are produced by turbulent flow in the brachial aery. When the aery is narrowed by the cuff, the velocity of flow through the constriction exceeds the critical velocity and turbulent flow results. | |
Aganglionic segment is encountered in which part of colon in case of Hirchsprung's disease -: (A) Distal to dilated segment, (B) In whole colon, (C) Proximal to dilated segment, (D) In dilated segment | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Distal to dilated segment "The major feature of Hirschsprung ds is an absence of ganglion cells in the neural plexus of the intestinal wall, together with hypertrophy of nerve trunks. The absence of ganglion cells gives rise to a contracted non-peristaltic segment with a dilated hypertrop... | |
Estimation of the following hormones is useful while investigating a case of gynecomastia except-: (A) Testosterone, (B) Prolactin, (C) Estradiol, (D) Luteinising hormone | Answer is B. Gynecomastia refers to enlargement of the male breast. It is caused by excess estrogen action and is usually the result of an increased estrogen-to-androgen ratio. True gynecomastia is associated with glandular breast tissue that is >4 cm in diameter and often tender. Evaluation of a case of gynecomastia s... | |
Light requirement in watch manufacturing company is -: (A) 2000-3000 Lux, (B) 5000-10000 Lux, (C) 10000-20000 Lux, (D) 50000 Lux | Answer is A. The recommended illumination (IES Code)in watch manufacturing company is 2000-3000 lux Rule of thumb is that the illumination must be 30 times higher the level at which ask can be just done. Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.page no:741.table2. | |
Drug with membrane stabilizing activity is?: (A) Nadolol, (B) Atenolol, (C) Carvedilol, (D) Oxprenolol | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) OxprenololREF: KDT 6 th edition page 140Membrane stabilizing activity (in propanolol, oxprenolol, acebutolol). This activity is claimed to contribute to the antiarrhythmic action, but appears to be significant only at high doses | |
Which of the following statement is/are true of all paramyxoviruses -a) They contain a single standed RNA genome of negative polarityb) Envelope is derived from the host cells plasma membranec) They have a cytoplasmic site of replicationd) They enter the body by the respiratory route: (A) acd, (B) abcd, (C) abc, (D) ab | Answer is B. Paramyxoviruses are negative sense single stranded Enveloped RNA viruses
Site of riboncleoprotein synthesis is cytoplasm and envelop is derived from host cell plasma membrane
They are important pathogens of infants and children and responsible for major part of acute respiratory infections and Infection is... | |
Venous congestion of liver affects ?: (A) Midzone, (B) Perihepatic zone, (C) Centrilobular zone, (D) All the above | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Centrilobular zoneNutmeg liver or chronic passive congestion or Congestive hepatopathy :?Chronic passive congestion is liver dysfunction due to venous congestion, usually right sided cardiac dysfunction (right sided cardiac decompenstion).When there is right sided cardiac decompensation, ... | |
In alcohol withdrawal which is not seen -: (A) Seizure, (B) Blackout, (C) Coarse tremor, (D) Hallucination | Answer is B. Blackout occurs during acute intoxication (not during withdrawal). All the other options can occur in alcohol withdrawal. | |
Pitting of nails is seen in – a) Lichen planusb) Psoriasisc) Pemphigusd) Arsenic poisoning: (A) ab, (B) a, (C) ad, (D) bc | Answer is A. None | |
A triphasic withdrawal syndrome follows an abrupt discontinuation of ______ use.: (A) Alcohol, (B) LSD, (C) Heroin, (D) Cocaine | Answer is D. Cocaine use produces a mild physical, but a strong psychic dependence. A triphasic withdrawal syndrome follows an abrupt discontinuation of chronic cocaine use. Signs and symptoms : In the early phase (crash phase, 9 h to 4 days), there is anorexia, depression, agitation, excessive craving, hypersomnia, fa... | |
Lamivudine is given when?: (A) HBeAg positive, (B) HBeAg negative, (C) ALT >_ 2 ULN, (D) Viral DNA> 10(square) copies | Answer is C. Lamivudine belongs to the set of antiviral agents effective against hepatitis B virus infection. Given case repos on liver injuries after ceain antiviral agent treatments, this study examined the effects of lamivudine on alanine aminotransferase (ALT) and total bilirubin (TB) using a medical system databas... | |
In PML, all of the following are seen except :: (A) Retinoic acid is used in treatment, (B) 15/17 translocation, (C) CD 15/34 both seen in same cell, (D) Associated with DIVC | Answer is C. Answer is C (CD15 / 34 both seen in same cell) Acute promyelocytic Leukaemia (PML : FAB M3) * This is a type of Acute Myeloid Leukaemia (AML) and has been classified as the M3 category according to the FAB morphological classification.9 * It constitutes 5 - 10% of all AML (Robbin's / Ghai) Pathological cha... | |
All the following are true of Paget disease Except: (A) It affects elderly individuals, (B) It may be monostotic or polyostotic, (C) There is an imbalance between osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity, (D) Deformed long bones result from coical bone thinning | Answer is D. Paget disease is a disorder of unknown origin, which occurs in older people and involves either a single bone or several bones. It is not associated with systemic metabolic disturbances, and some pas of the skeleton are always spared. The bones show marked thickening, owing to excessive osteoblastic and re... | |
True about keratoconus are all of the following except: September 2005: (A) Can be seen in Down's syndrome, (B) It manifests just after bih, (C) Munson sign is characteristic, (D) Corneal transplantation is needed in severe cases | Answer is B. Ans. B: It manifests just after bih Keratoconus is frequently due to a congenital weakness of the cornea, though it manifests itself after pubey. However it can occur secondarily following trauma or Down's syndrome. Keratoconus is divided into mild, moderate, and advanced. Mild keratoconus - External and c... | |
Vaccines prepared by embryonated hen's egg are:: (A) Measles, (B) Rabies, (C) Rubella, (D) Varicella | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Rabies Vaccine that grows in embryonated eggs: Influenza Yellow fever (17 D strain) Rabies (Flury strain) Mumps Varicella vaccine growns in chick embryo fibroblast culture. Rubella - RA 27/3 vaccine produced in human diploid fibroblast. No eggs culture vaccine of measles are produced. All are tiss... | |
How does the distal nephron differ functionally from the proximal tubule?: (A) The distal nephron has a more negative intraluminal potential than the proximal tubule., (B) The distal nephron is less responsive to aldosterone than the proximal tubule., (C) The distal nephron is more permeable to hydrogen ion than the pr... | Answer is A. Proximal and distal convoluted tubule The site of action of acetazolamide is the proximal convoluted tubule and the site of action of the thiazides is the distal convoluted tubule. The distal nephron has a negative luminal potential because it is poorly permeable to negatively charged ions. Therefore, when... | |
Which is the commonest abdominal mass in neonate -: (A) Wilm's tumor, (B) Polycystic kidney, (C) Neuroblastoma, (D) Rhabdomyosarcoma | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neuroblastoma The commonest intra-abdominal tumor in first two years of life Neuroblastoma The commonest intra-abdominal tumor between 2"d to 5th year of life - Wihn's tumor The commonest intra-abdominal tumor in children (no age specification) Neuroblastoma (Wilm's tumor is the second mo... | |
Mode Is:: (A) Arthimetic average of the values, (B) Most frequently occurring observations, (C) Middle observation when arranged in ascending or descending order, (D) Adding all values and then dividing by number of values | Answer is B. None | |
A patient gets tingling when his bed light is flashed suddenly. Which type of hallucination is this :: (A) Hypnagogic hallucinations, (B) Hypnopompic hallucinations, (C) Reflex hallucinations, (D) Functional hallucinations | Answer is C. "Example of reflex hallucination : when the light flashes the patient gets tingling sensation". | |
Which of the following amino acids is most responsible for the buffering capacity of hemoglobin and other proteins?: (A) Arginine, (B) Aspaic acid, (C) Glutamic acid, (D) Histidine | Answer is D. Remember that a buffer is most effective when its pKa is within the pH range of the surrounding medium. Histidine is the only amino acid with good buffering capacity at physiologic pH. The imidazole side chain of histidine has a pKa around 6.0 and can reversibly donate and accept protons at physiologic pH.... | |
Which of the following is NOT associated with elevation Right hemi-diaphragm:: (A) Amebic abscess, (B) Pyogenic abscess, (C) Cholecystitis, (D) Sub diaphragmatic abscess | Answer is C. Ans. (c) CholecystitisCholecystitis is inflammation of gall bladder wall.Radiological evaluation does not show elevation of right hemidiaphragm in these cases.AMOEBIC LIVER ABSCESS* Chest radiographs are abnormal in the majority of patients with amebic hepatic abscesses. Findings include elevation of the r... | |
All of the following drugs are useful in the treatment of a patient with acute bronchial asthma except: (A) Ipratropium, (B) Salbutamol, (C) Montelukast, (D) Hydrocortisone | Answer is C. None | |
Mydriasis is/are caused by:: (A) Homer syndrome, (B) Neurosyphilis, (C) Organophosphorus poisoning, (D) Atropine | Answer is D. D i.e. Atropine Pinpoint pupils are seen in - 'Car Chlor Or Mor' i.e. Carbolic acid, Chloral hydrate, Organophosphorus, Morphine (opiate)Q and 'New Horn' i.e. neurosyphilis/tabes dorsalis (spinal miosis or small, irregular Argyll Robeson pupil) and Horner's syndrome. Atropine and cocaine cause mydriasisQ B... | |
Which of the following techniques use piezoelectric crystals -: (A) Ultrasonography, (B) X-ray diffraction, (C) NMR imaging, (D) Xeroradiography | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ultrasonography o Ultrasonography is based on piezoelectric effect.o MRI is based on gyeromagneticproperty of proton (H+).Ultrasonography (USG) / Ultrasoundo USG is performed with the pulse-echo technique. By the virtue of piezoelectric effect in the ultrasound probe (or transducer), elec... | |
A patient with hypeension is also having aoic dissection. Anti-hypeensive agent of choice is: September 2008: (A) Sodium nitroprusside, (B) Reserpine, (C) Pindolol, (D) Nifedipine | Answer is A. Ans. A: Sodium Nitroprusside Antihypeensive therapy in acute aoic dissection aims specifically to lessen pulsatile load or aoic stress, in order to retard the propagation of the dissection and prevent aoic rupture. The goals of treatment are to prevent myocardial ischemia, decrease left ventricular afterlo... | |
The parietal peritoneum covering the inferior surface of the diaphragm transits its sensory information via the phrenic nerve. In the case of peritonitis in the parietal peritoneum on the inferior surface of the diaphragm, pain may be referred through which of the following nerves?: (A) A, (B) B, (C) C, (D) D | Answer is D. Ans. D. Supraclavicular nervesThe phrenic nerve consists of contributions from spinal nerve levels C3 to 5.Therefore, when sensory information comes from the parietal peritoneum on the inferior diaphragmatic surface, it may refer through spinal nerves at the same levels.a. Supraclavicular nerve shares leve... | |
Operation of choice in GERD is: (A) Highly selective vagotomy, (B) Fundoplication, (C) Hellers myotomy, (D) Gastrectomy | Answer is B. Operations for GORD are based on the creation of an intra-abdominal segment of oesophagus, crural repair and some form of wrap of the upper stomach (fundoplication) around the intra-abdominal oesophagus.Nissen fundoplication is one of the commoner procedures done.Ref: Bailey and Love 27e pg: 1078 | |
Non immunized susceptible diphtheria contacts should receive:: (A) Erythromycin, (B) Penicillin and diphtheria antitoxin, (C) Penicillin, diphtheria antitoxin and DPT vaccine, (D) No treatment is required | Answer is C. Non immunized contacts should receive prophylactic penicillin or erythromycin. They should also be given 1000 to 2000 units of antitoxin and actively immunized against diphtheria. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 151. | |
In emergency tracheostomy following structures are damaged except:: (A) Isthmus of thyroid, (B) Inferior thyoid vein, (C) Inferior thyroid aery, (D) Thyroid ima | Answer is C. Structures which lie below the midline viz. isthmus of thyroid and thyroid ima aery can be damaged in emergency tracheostomy. Inferior thyroid veins emerge at the lower border of the isthmus form a plexus in front of the trachea and drains into brachiocephalic vein can be damaged during tracheostomy but in... | |
Intrinsic factor is required for absorption of ?: (A) Folic acid, (B) Vitamin B12, (C) Vitamin B, (D) Vitamin B2 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vitamin B12 | |
After a normal prenatal period, a lady developed sudden HTN and bleeding from all places. Diagnosis is:: (A) DIC, (B) Aplastic anemia, (C) ITP, (D) APLA | Answer is A. (A) DIC# Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC), also known as disseminated intravascular coagulopathy or less commonly as consumptive coagulopathy, is a pathological process characterized by the widespread activation of the clotting cascade that results in the formation of blood clots in the small b... | |
Which of the following is the best test to diagnose bleeding in DIC?: (A) Increased PT, (B) Increased aPTT, (C) Decreased fibrinogen, (D) Increased fibrin degradation products | Answer is D. Fibrin degradation product (FDP) is the best test to diagnose bleeding in DIC. D-Dimer assay is for screening | PT & | aPTT seen in a lot of conditions - so not best. | |
Chlorhexidine as a root canal irrigant is: (A) Active against gram +ve , gram –ve bacterias and to some extent Virus with lipid envelop., (B) Normally used at 2% conc, (C) A poly biguinide, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. None | |
Inferior border of scapula lies at the level of which rib?: (A) 5th, (B) 6th, (C) 7th, (D) 8th | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) 7thREF: Gray's Anatomy 40th Ed Ch: 49Indirect repeat Anatomy 2012 Session II, 2013 Session 1The inferior angle overlies the seventh rib or intercostal space and T7 | |
Most common complication of acute pancreatitis is -: (A) Pancreatic abscess, (B) Pseudocyst, (C) Phlegmon, (D) Pleural effusion | Answer is B. None | |
Marble bone disease, characterized by increase in bone density is due to mutation in the gene encoding:: (A) Carbonic Anhydrase I, (B) Carbonic Anhydrase II, (C) Carbonic Anhydrase III, (D) Carbonic Anhydrase IV | Answer is B. Ans. B. Carbonic Anhydrase IIIn osteoporosis, also called as marble bone disease there is increased bone density. It is due to mutation in gene encodingcarbonic anhydrase II enzyme. The deficiency of this enzyme in osteoclasts leads to inability of bone resorption. | |
Cidex is: (A) Gluteraldehyde, (B) Alcohol, (C) A phenolic compound, (D) A caustic agent | Answer is A. None | |
Hemorrhagic fever is caused by -: (A) West-Mile fever, (B) Sandfly fever, (C) Ebola virus, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. kyasanur forest disease a hemorrhagic fever found in Karnataka. It is an arboviral disease. a new arbovirus genetically related to RSS isolated REF:ANANTHANARYANAN TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.524 | |
Initial stage of clinical union of bone is equivalent to: (A) Callus formation with woven bone, (B) Woven bone Formation, (C) Haematoma formation, (D) Calcification formation only | Answer is A. The first signs of union are seen in stage of hard callus formation A. Clinical sign:fracture is no more mobile B. Radilogical sign :callus is seen on X ray *hard callus is immature woven bone* Ref: Maheshwari 9th/e p 12 | |
A two-year-old child presents with persistent diarrhea, acidic stools and presence of one percent of reducing substance in the fresh stools. What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Cystic fibrosis, (B) Lactose intolerance, (C) Rotavirus induced diarrhea, (D) Intestinal tuberculosis | Answer is B. Presence of acidic stools with reducing substance positive, suggests a diagnosis of lactose intolerance. | |
Drug of choice for mycoplasma pneumonia is: (A) Penicillin, (B) Tetracycline, (C) Cefuroxime, (D) Erythromycin | Answer is D. Treatment options for acute M.pneumoniae infection include macrolides (e.g., oral azithromycin, 500 mg on day 1, then 250 mg/d on days 2-5), tetracyclines (e.g., oral doxycycline, 100 mg twice daily for 10-14 days), and respira-tory fluoroquinolones Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 585 | |
A 6 year old female patient complains of pain due to a decayed lower right 2nd molar. During the treatment, patient becomes uncooperative and throws a tantrum. The dentist then asks the mother to step out of the operatory, after which the child begins to cooperate. The example demonstrated by the dentist falls under wh... | Answer is C. Omission (also called time-out), involves removal of a pleasant stimulus after a particular response. For example, if a child who throws a temper tantrum has his favorite toy taken away for a short time as a consequence of this behavior, the probability of similar misbehavior is decreased. | |
Desks provided with table top to prevent neck problems in an example of: (A) Primordial prevention, (B) Secondary prevention, (C) Specific protection, (D) Disability limitation | Answer is C. Specific protection comes under Primary prevention. It prevents risk factor from progressing to disease. Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition; Page 42 | |
Glutamine synthetase is a -: (A) Isomerase, (B) Ligase, (C) Lyase, (D) Transferase | Answer is B. Ans. is 4b' i.e., Ligase /Ref Essential of biochemsitry p. 186]o All synthases are ligases.o All digestive enzymes are hydrolases.o Lyases are:DecarboxylasesAldolasesHydratasesEnolaseFumaraseArginosucinaseEnzyme classImportant enzymesOxidoreductaseOxidases, Dehydrogenases, Hydroperoxidases, (catalase, pero... | |
Which of the following is not an accepted method of randomization-: (A) Computer drawn randomization, (B) Odd/even day hospital admission, (C) Lottery, (D) Random number table | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Odd/even day hospital admission Methods of Randomization o Randomization is accomplished in a number of classic ways 1. Lottery method Suppose 10 patients are to be put in a control group or the trial group out of 100 available. The serial numbers of patients are noted on 100 cards and th... | |
A 23 year old profession footballer sufferd a twisting injury to his right ankle. On examination there is a lot of swelling around the medial malleolus but xray doesn't show any fracture. The structure injured could be -: (A) Deltoid Ligament, (B) Anterior talofibular ligament, (C) Spring ligament, (D) Tendo Achilles | Answer is A. Answer- A. Deltoid LigamentDeltoid ligament injuries involve the deltoid ligament that forms the medial pa of the anHe joint.It attaches the medial malleolus to multiple tarsal bones.It occurs due to eversion and/orpronation injury, or can be associated with lateral ankle fractures. | |
Von Willebrand&;s factor is synthesized in which one of the following -: (A) Vascular endothelium, (B) Macrophages, (C) Liver, (D) Eosinophils | Answer is A. The Von willebrand factor is synthesized in the endothelial cells ,megakaryocytes and platelets While the principal site of synthesis of factor VIII is the liver Reference :textbook of Pathology ,7th edition ,Author: Harsha Mohan, page number 314. | |
Persistence of Moro's reflex is abnormal beyond the age of –: (A) 3rd month, (B) 4th month, (C) 5th month, (D) 6th month | Answer is D. "In a normal infant, the Moro's reflex begins to fade at three months of age and gradually disappears at 4-6 months.
When it persists beyond 6 months it indicates a delay in CNS development." ---------- Tachdjian
"Moro's reflex disappears by six months in a normal infant." ------------ Ghai | |
Which of the following statements regarding live vaccines is false: (A) Two live vaccines cannot be administered simultaneously, (B) Booster doses are not required when live vaccines are administered, (C) Single dose gives lfe long immunity, (D) Live vaccine contains both major and minor antigens | Answer is A. When 2 live vaccines are required they should be given either simultaneously at different sites or with an interval of at least 3 weeks.In case of live vaccines,protection is generally achieved with a single dose of vaccine (refer pgno:103 park 23 rd edition) | |
All are alkylating agents, except ?: (A) 5-FU, (B) Melphalan, (C) Cyclophosphamide, (D) Chlorambucil | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 5 Fluorouracil | |
True about VSD are all except -: (A) Left to right shunt, (B) Pansystolic mormor, (C) Reverse spitting of S2, (D) Left atrial hyperophy | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Reverse spliting of S2 Hemodynamics of VSD o A VSD results in shunting of oxygenated blood from left to right because left ventricle has more pressure than right Left to right shunt. o Blood flow from left to right ventricle due to high pressure gradient --> Pansystolic murmur and systoli... | |
The most common causative organism for external otitis in adults is:: (A) Streptococcus viridans, (B) Staphylococcus epidermidis, (C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa, (D) E. coli | Answer is C. Otitis externa is an inflammatory and infectious process of the external auditory canal. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staphylococcus aureus are the most commonly isolated organisms. Less commonly isolated organisms include Proteus species, Staphylococcus epidermidis, diphtheroids, and Escherichia coli. | |
Insulin is secreted along with the following molecule in a 1: 1 ratio:: (A) Pancreatic polypeptide, (B) Glucagon, (C) GLP-1, (D) C- peptide | Answer is D. D i.e. C - PeptideInsulin has two interchain (A7 - B7, & A20 - B19) and one intrachain (A6 - All) disulfide bridges with in AB hetrodimeric structureQ.Insulin is synthesized as pre-pro-hormone (MW 11, 500), which makes it difficult to synthesize insulin in laboratory even after synthesizing A, B chains. Th... | |
A 20 year old boy c/o hearing of voices, aggressive behavior since 2 days. He has fever since 2 days. When asked to his family, they says that he has been muttering to self and gesticulating. There is no h/o of psychiatric illness. Likely diagnosis is: (A) Dementia, (B) Acute psychosis, (C) Delirium, (D) Delusional dis... | Answer is B. Acute psychosis ??? [Ref: Kaplan and Saddock synopsis of Psychiatry 10/e p 516-5171We are unable to reach a conclusive diagnosis with the information provided in the question.Acute onset, presence of fever, no history of psychiatric illness suggests delirium.But, the diagnosis of delirium cannot be made de... | |
The most impoant prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is: (A) Histological grade of the tumor, (B) Stage of the tumor at the time of diagnosis, (C) Status of estrogen and progesterone receptors, (D) Over expression of p-53 tumour suppressor gene | Answer is B. Stage I and II has got better prognosis. Spread to axillary nodes is the most impoant prognostic indicator. Age: Younger the age worser the prognosis. Sex: Carcinoma male breast has got worser prognosis compared to female breast. Because of early spread in carcinoma male breast. Atrophic scirrhous has got ... | |
Which of the following is associated with > 20% risk of chromosomal anomalies?: (A) Omphalocele, (B) Gastroschisis, (C) Cleft lip, (D) Spina bifida | Answer is A. Omphalocele is a midline abdominal wall defect. The abdominal viscera (commonly liver and bowel) are contained within a sac composed of peritoneum and amnion from which the umbilical cord arises at the apex and center. When the defect is less than 4 cm, it is termed a hernia of the umbilical cord; when gre... | |
Features of SLE include all of the following except -: (A) Recurent abortion, (B) Sterility, (C) Coomb's positive hemolytic anemia, (D) Psychosis | Answer is B. None | |
Multiple myeloma most common part involved is-: (A) Bone marrow, (B) Cortex of bone, (C) Metaphyses, (D) Epiphyses | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bone marrow Multiple mveiomao Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell neoplasm characterized by involvement of the skeleton at multiple sites,o Plasma cells proliferate abnormally and the proliferated plasma cells infiltrate various organs, particularly bone marrow, but can also spread to lymph... | |
All are the causes of neovascular glaucoma except:: (A) Intraocular tumour, (B) Central retinal vein occlusion, (C) Diabetic retinopathy, (D) Central serous retinopathy | Answer is D. Ans. Central serous retinopathy | |
False about Corona viruses?: (A) Corona viruses are non-enveloped, (B) Spreads by coughing and sneezing, (C) Most of them infect animals and birds, (D) Human infection is rare | Answer is A. Corona viruses are enveloped. | |
Copper sulfate poisoning manifests with: (A) High anion gap acidosis, (B) Rhabdomyolysis, (C) Acute hemolysis, (D) Peripheral neuropathy | Answer is C. COPPER Poisonous Compounds: (1) Copper sulphate (blue vitriol) occurs in large, blue crystals. (2) Copper subacetate (verdigris), occurs in bluish-green masses or powder. Signs and Symptoms: Increased salivation, burning pain in the stomach with colicky abdominal pain, thirst, nausea, eructations and repea... | |
Which of the following enzyme is associated with the conversion of androgen to oestrogen in a growing ovarian follicle is:: (A) Aromatase, (B) 5 alpha reductase, (C) Desmolase, (D) Isomerase | Answer is A. Aromatase enzyme: In a normal ovary, LH acts on the theca interstitial stromal cells, whereas FSH acts on granulosa cells. In response to LH the thecal cells secretes androgen, and the produced androsendione is conveed in the granulosa cells to estrogen by the action of aromatase enzyme. Ref: Physiology By... | |
All of the following may occur in Noonan syndrome except:: (A) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, (B) Cryptorchidism, (C) Infertility in females, (D) Autosomal dominant transmission | Answer is C. c. Infertility in females(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2744-2746, Ghai 8/e p 640-641)Turner syndromeNoonan syndromeKaryotype 45, XOKaryotype normalInfertileFertile but delayed pubertySeen only in femalesMay be seen in males or femalesIntelligence normalIntellectual disability present | |
Gas gangrene is caused by all except: (A) Cl. Histolyticum, (B) Cl. novyi, (C) Cl. septicum, (D) Cl. Sporogenes | Answer is D. Gas gangrene is rapidly spreading, edematous myonecrosis occurring characteristically in association with a severe wound of extensive muscle mass contaminated by pathogenic clostridia. Most frequently encountered is clostridium perfringes. Also caused by clostridium novyi, Clostridium septicum and clostrid... | |
60 yrs old, air in biliary tree, colicky abdominal pain hyper-peristaltic abdominal sounds diagnosis -: (A) Gall stone ileus, (B) Hemobilia, (C) Cholangitis, (D) Pneumobilia | Answer is A. Answer- A. Gall stone ileusPresence in air in biliary tract along with sign of intestinal obstruction is characteristic of gall stone ileus. | |
The term applied when it is doubtful whether there will be space for all the teeth in mixed dentition analysis is:: (A) Space maintenance, (B) Space regaining, (C) Space supervision, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Space supervision
It is a term applied when it is doubtful, according to the mixed dentition analysis, whether there will be room for all the teeth.
Prognosis for supervision is always questionable, where as prognosis is always good for regaining space and for space maintenance.
Space supervision cases a... | |
Absence seizures are seen in:: (A) Grand mal epilepsy, (B) Myoclonic epilepsy, (C) Petitmal epilepsy, (D) Hyperkinetic child | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' Petit mal epilepsy "Absence seizures or (Petit mal epilepsy is characterized by sudden, brief lapses of unconsciousness without loss of postural control line seizures typically lasts for only seconds, consciousness return as suddenly it was lost, and there is no postictal confusion.Absence seiz... | |
Which of the following enzymes contain manganese as its cofactor?: (A) LDH, (B) Arginase, (C) Hexokinase, (D) DNA polymerase | Answer is B. Manganese: Cofactor for enzymes, e.g., arginase, pyruvate carboxylase.
Enzymes that require a metal ion cofactor are termed metal-activated enzymes to distinguish them from the metalloenzymes for which bound metal ions serve as prosthetic groups.
Reference-Satyanarayana Pg- 405 | |
Ergometrine is not used for initiation of labour because -: (A) Show onset of action, (B) Fetal hypoxia, (C) Increases blood pressure, (D) Act on D2 receptors to cause vomiting | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Fetal hypoxia | |
A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain described as retrosternal chest pressure radiating to the jaw. The symptoms started at rest and coming and going, but never lasting more than 15 minutes. He has a prior history of hypertension and smokes 1 pack/day. He is currently chest-pain free a... | Answer is B. A period of 24-48 hours is usually allowed to attempt medical therapy. Cardiac catheterization and angiography may be followed by bypass surgery or angioplasty. For those who do settle down, some form of subsequent risk stratification (e.g., exercise ECG) is indicated. | |
Which of the following manifestations is not a clinical manifestation of parvovirus infection?: (A) Erythema infectiosum, (B) Polyarthropathy, (C) Pure Red Cell aplasia, (D) Tropical sprue | Answer is D. None | |
Which one of the following statements about the gap junction is true?: (A) It extends as a zone around the apical perimeter of adjacent cells., (B) It possesses dense plaques composed in pa of desmoplakins., (C) It permits the passage of ions from one cell to an adjacent cell., (D) Its adhesion is dependent upon calciu... | Answer is C. The gap junction channel regulates the passage of ions and small molecules from cell to cell, excluding those having a molecular weight greater than 1200 Da. The tight junction is the zone of adhesion around the apical perimeter of adjacent cells. The other statements are characteristics of desmosomes. | |
The muscle responsible for falsetto voice of puber phonia is: (A) Vocalis, (B) Thyroarytenoid, (C) Posterior cricoarytenoid, (D) Cricothyroid | Answer is D. Cricothyroid is the main tensor responsible for the falsetto voice in puberphonia. There is hyperkinetic function and spasm of cricothyroid muscle. Ref:- TB of ENT Hazarika; pg num:- 636 | |
The virus, which spreads by both hermatogenous and neural route is -: (A) Rabies virus, (B) Varicella zoster virus, (C) Poliovirus, (D) E.B. Virus | Answer is C. The virus multiplies initially in the epithelial cells of the alimentary canal and the lymohatic tissues from tonsil to peyer's patches. It then spreads to the rwgiinal lymoh node and enters blood stream. Direct neural transmission ti the CNS may also occur. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MIC... | |
The esophagus crosses the diaphragm at the level of:: (A) T8, (B) T9, (C) T10, (D) T11 | Answer is C. The oesophagus is a muscular tube 25 cm (10 in) long, which connects the pharynx to the stomach. It begins in the neck, level with the lower border of the cricoid cailage and the sixth cervical veebra. It descends largely anterior to the veebral column through the superior and posterior mediastina, passes ... | |
Constriction of the afferent aeriole to the kidney glomerulus results in:: (A) Reduction of glomerular filtration rate and decreased urinary output, (B) Increased urine output, (C) Increased glomerular filtration rate and no change in urine output., (D) Decreased urine output | Answer is A. The kidney is innervated primarily by the sympathetic nervous system, and as such, regulates the contraction of the smooth muscle surrounding the afferent and efferent aerioles of the glomerulus. Sympathetic stimulation to the efferent glomerular aerioles causes their constriction and increases the filtrat... |
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