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During the following procedure, optimum interval between uterine incision and delivery should be less than ______ seconds.: (A) 30 seconds, (B) 45 seconds, (C) 60 seconds, (D) 90 seconds | Answer is D. Ans. D 90 secondsRef: Datta, 8th ed. pg. 673The image shows LSCS being performed, with the head being delivered by hooking fingers carefully between the lower uterine flap. The head is delivered by elevation and flexion using the palm as fulcrum and the optimum time between the uterine incision and deliver... | |
Ivermectin is indicated in all of the following except:: (A) Ascaris, (B) Filariasis, (C) Malaria, (D) Oncocerciasis | Answer is C. Ans: C (Malaria) Ref: The Pharmacological basis of therapeutics by Goodman dc Gilman - 12th edition, page no. 1455-1456 & Malaria Journal 2013: 12:153Explanation:Ivermectin has a beneficial therapeutic effect inOnchocerciasisLvmphatic filariasisStrong lyloidiasisAscariasisEnterobiasis.Ivermectin is also ef... | |
Reinsch test is used in diagnosis of poisoning due to: UP 11; COMEDK 12: (A) Arsenic, (B) Lead, (C) Iron, (D) Copper sulphate | Answer is A. Ans. Arsenic | |
Groove sign is seen in –: (A) Donovanosis, (B) LGV, (C) Chancroid, (D) Genital herpes | Answer is B. Groove sign of Greenblatt' is pathognomonic of LGV → when inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged, they are separated by Poupart's ligment, producing a groove. | |
Drug of choice for absence seizures: March 2011: (A) Carbamazepine, (B) Lamotrigine, (C) Valproate, (D) Phenytoin | Answer is C. Ans. C: Valproate Sodium valproate is effective in absence/petit-mal seizures, combined grand mal and petit mal, myoclonic epilepsy, paial epilepsy, maniac depressive psychosis and as a prophylactic in febrile convulsion Absence seizures/Petit mal seizures (from the French for "little illness", a term dati... | |
Least common cause of pericarditis/pericardial effusion in children:: (A) Rheumatic fever, (B) Sarcoidosis, (C) Rheumatoid arthritis, (D) SLE | Answer is B. b. Sarcoidosis(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2269-2271, Ghai 8/e p 433-443)Important causes of pericarditis/pericardial effusion in children:Infectious* Viral (Coxsackie virus B, EBV, Influenza, Adenovirus); Fungal (Histoplasmosis, Actinomycosis)* Bacterial (TB, Streptococcus, Pneumococcus, Staphylococcus, Meningoc... | |
Actions of Bradykinin include all of the following, EXCEPT:: (A) Vasodilatation, (B) Bronchodilatation, (C) Increased vascular permeability, (D) Pain | Answer is B. Kinins cause marked bronchoconstriction and not bronchodilatation. Their effect on other smooth muscles is not prominent. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 455 - 456; Textbook of Medical Physiology By Guyton and Hall, 10th Edition, Pages 181, 290, 399, 552, 725, 742... | |
The lack of ability of an individual to do his routine activity is -: (A) Disease, (B) Impairement, (C) Disability, (D) Handicap | Answer is C. Disability defined as lack of ability of an individual to do his routine activity Disease defined as a condition in which body health is impaired, a depaure from a state of health, an alteration of human body interupting the performance of vital functions Impairment is defined as any loss or abnormality of... | |
Most common affected tissue in cysticercosis is:: (A) Brain, (B) Eye, (C) Muscles, (D) Liver | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c'Rarely neurocysticercosis happens and most common site is Parenchymal and associate with Ingestion of infected eggs of Taenia solium with food and water. | |
A child is taken to a pediatrician because his mother notices that his eyes appear very puffy. The mother said that the boy's eyes appeared normal two days ago, and pa of what caused her concern was that her child seemed to be rapidly becoming ill. On physical examination, the boy is noted to have generalized edema. No... | Answer is D. Proteinuria greater than 40 mg/h/m2 in a child or 3.5 g/d/1.73 m2 in an adult produces nephrotic syndrome, which is characterized by generalized edema, often most noticeable in the face. The condition develops when large amounts of protein are spilled through the glomeruli into the duct system of the kidne... | |
Maximum regenerative capacity is of ?: (A) Liver cells, (B) Kidney cells, (C) Intestinal epithelium, (D) Neurons | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Intestinal epitheliumCells with good regenerative capacityi) Surface epithelium (stratified squamous) of skin, oral cavity, vagina and cervix.ii) Lining mucosa of all excretory ducts of glands (Salivary gland, pancreas, biliary duct).iii) Columinar epithelium of GIT (Intestinal mucosa) an... | |
Drugs used for anaesthesia in hypotensive is: (A) Propofol, (B) Ketamine, (C) Thiopentone, (D) None | Answer is B. Ketamine raises the BP, therefore is the induction agent of choice in hypotensive states and shock.(Refer: stoelting's pharmacology and physiology in anaesthetic practice, 5th edition, pg no.294) | |
Syncytium formation is a propey of ?: (A) Herpes virus, (B) Adenovirus, (C) Measles virus, (D) Rabies virus | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Measles virus | |
Which of the following is most common type of congential cardiac cyanotic anamoly?: (A) Tetralogy of Fallot, (B) TAPVC, (C) Transposition of great vessels, (D) Ebstein's Anamoly | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tetralogy of Fallot o TOF is the commonest cyanotic congenital heart disease. | |
The commonest cranial nerve palsy in tabes dorasalis is:: (A) III nerve, (B) IV nerve, (C) VI nerve, (D) Total ophthalmoplegia | Answer is A. Ans. III nerve | |
The commonest cancer of oral cavity is: (A) Adenocarcinoma, (B) Melanoma, (C) Sarcoma, (D) Squaous cell carcinoma | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Squamous cell carcinomaRef: Devita 9th edition, page 729* Most common site oral Cancer: Carcinoma Tongue > Carcinoma Lip* Most common histological type: Squamous Cell Cancer* Most common site of oral Cancer in India: Cancer of Buccal Mucosa* Max Risk of L.N. Metastasis: Carcinoma Tongue* Min Risk ... | |
Point Prevalence is defined as-: (A) Number of new cases at a given point of time, (B) Number of new cases in a given year, (C) Number of total cases in a given year, (D) Number of total cases at a given point of time | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Number of total cases at a given point of time * Prevalence refers specifically to all current cases (old and new) existing at a given point in time or over a period of time in a given population.* Prevalence is of two types: (i) Point prevalence, and (ii) Period prevalencei) Point preval... | |
In Post radical neck dissection shoulder syndrome, all are seen except:: (A) Restricted range of movement, (B) Pain, (C) Shoulder drooping, (D) Normal electromyographic finding | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e. Normal electromyographic finding In Radical neck dissections the most crippling complication is the "Shoulder Syndrome" arising from denervation and atrophy of the trapezius muscle due to sacrifice of the spinal accessory nerve (SAN).Shoulder syndrome is characterized by:inability to abduc... | |
Lysosomal transpo defect is seen in: (A) Cystinosis, (B) Goucher's disease, (C) Metachromatic leukosytrophy, (D) Tay Sach's disease | Answer is A. Answer- A. CystinosisTwo disorders are caused by a proven defect in carrier-mediated transpo of metabolites: cystinosis end the group of sialic acid storage disorders (SASD). | |
An 18-year-old man moves from sea level to an elevation of 2,400 m to train as a skier. The increased requirement for oxygen delivery to tissues at the higher elevation stimulates the synthesis of a renal hormone (erythropoietin), which targets hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. Erythropoietin promotes the su... | Answer is D. - Recent studies indicate that erythropoietin promotes survival of early erythroid progenitor cells through inhibition of default apoptosis pathway. - Thus, this hormone rescues stem cells that are otherwise fated to undergo programmed cell death. - None of the other choices are known to control the expans... | |
Sunflower cataract is caused by: (A) Siderosis, (B) Chalcosis, (C) Lead intoxication, (D) Silicosis | Answer is B. Chalcosis is copper alloy in the eye Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 194 | |
Notochord develops from -: (A) Epiblast cells, (B) Hypoblast cells, (C) Syncytiotrophoblasts, (D) Cytotrophoblasts | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Epiblast cells o Notochord is a bud like structure formed by epiblast cells extending from cranial end of primitive streak to caudal end of prochordal plate, in between the ectoderm and endoderm.o Siginificances of notochord includes followingi) It defines the axis of embryoii) It functio... | |
Scalp and face are involved in ?: (A) Adult scabies, (B) Nodular scabies, (C) Infantile scabies, (D) None | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Infantile scabies Type Feature o Infantile scabies Scalp, face, palms and soles are involved o Norwegian scabies Crusted hyperkeratotic lesions on face , palms, soles, nails. Itching is not prominent. Mites are found in thousand, most severe form of scabies Crusted scabies Extensive crust... | |
False about Neurotic disorders: (A) Aware of reality, (B) Delusion absent, (C) Hallucination absent, (D) Loss of insight | Answer is D. None | |
Dosage of Albendazole given as per National deworming program in <2years old child.: (A) 200mg, (B) 400mg, (C) 500mg, (D) 2 tablets of 400 mg | Answer is A. None | |
Muscle forming anterior and posterior faucial folds of tonsillar fossa, respectively: (A) Levator veli palatine-tensor veli palatine, (B) Palatoglossus-palatopharyngeus, (C) Palatopharyngeus-salpingopharyngeus, (D) Styloglossus-stylopharyngeus | Answer is B. Palatoglossus-palatopharyngeus form the boundary of the tonsillar fossaReference: Chaurasia; 6th edition | |
GTT in pregnancy is indicated when if fasting blood sugar is above-: (A) 80gm/100ml, (B) 85gm/l00ml, (C) 90gm/l00ml, (D) 95gm/100ml | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 95gm/100ml Indications of GITo Fasting glycosuria on one occasion before 20th week & 2 or more occasions thereafter,o Following a positive screening test.o If fasting blood sugar exceeds 95mg / 100ml or if that after 2 hours of ingestion of lOO'gm (WHO-75) glucose is more than 120mg/100ml... | |
Patient came with complaints of Polydipsia, hypercalciurea, nephrolithiasis, metabolic alkalosis. Possible cause is: (A) Baters syndrome, (B) Gittlemans syndrome, (C) Addisons disease, (D) Chronic diuretic use | Answer is A. Answer- A. Baters syndromeBater syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation in gene coding for basolateral chloride channel (ClC-kb). There is loss of sodium, chloride, potassium and calcium in urine.The major clinical findings are hyponatremia, hypokalemia, polyurea, polydipsia, metabol... | |
Clathrin is used in:: (A) Receptor mediated endocytosis, (B) Exocytosis, (C) Cell adhesion, (D) All | Answer is A. Clathrin and megalin are associated with endocytosis Endocytosis is a vesicular transpo system, it is an active process | |
Hockey stick appearance on echo is a feature of: (A) Mitral stenosis, (B) Mitral incompetence, (C) Aoic stenosis, (D) Aoic regurgitation | Answer is A. Echocardiographic features of mitral stenosis:-Thickened and calcified mitral leaflets and subvalvular apparatus -Decreased E-F slope (M-mode)-Hockey stick appearance of the anterior mitral leaflet in diastole(long axis view)-Immobility of the posterior mitral leaflet (a similar appearance can be seen in h... | |
All the following features our ventricular tachycardia as the cause of broad-complex tachycardia, except -: (A) Fusion beats, (B) Extreme left axis detion, (C) Very broad QRS complexes, (D) Response to carotid sinus massage | Answer is C. Ventricular tachycardia can be classified based on its morphology: Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia means that the appearance of all the beats match each other in each lead of a surface electrocardiogram (ECG). Scar-related monomorphic ventricular tachycardia is the most common type and a frequent cause... | |
An elderly patient complains of recurrent episodes of amaurosis fugax. This is attributable to microembolization of which of the following?: (A) Facial artery, (B) Retinal artery, (C) Occipital artery, (D) Posterior auricular artery | Answer is B. Amaurosis fugax, one type of TIA, is a manifestation of carotid bifurcation atherosclerotic disease. It is manifested by unilateral blindness, being described by the patient as a window shade across the eye, lasting for minutes or hours. It is caused by micro emboli from a carotid lesion lodging in the ret... | |
A 44-year-old renal transplant patient develops severe cough and shortness of breath on exertion. On examination, he appears dyspneic, respirations 24/min, pulse 110/min, and oxygen saturation 88%. His lungs are clear on auscultation and heart sounds are normal. CXR shows bilateral diffuse perihilar infiltrates. Bronch... | Answer is C. The patient is infected with Pneumocystis organisms invading an immunocompromised host. The treatment of choice is trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Alternate therapies include pentamidine (highly toxic) and trimetrexate plus folinic acid. | |
A 21yrs. old pt. attended a party the previous night and gives the following symptoms pain in abdomen radiating to back, pulse 100/ min, BP 100/76temp 39deg C and vomiting before coming Most probable dx is :: (A) Acute appendicitis, (B) Acute cholecystitis, (C) Acute diverticulitis, (D) Acute pancreatitis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' ie Acute Pancreatitis * The signs and symptoms exhibited by the pt. correlate with that of acute pancreatitis, most characterstic of which is - Radiation of pain to back and party in previous night (ie. h/o alcohol)Other imp. diagnostic clue (not given in question) is- Relief from pain on sitti... | |
Which of the following disease can be associated with sho QT interval on ECG ?: (A) Chronic myeloid leukemia, (B) Multiple myeloma, (C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia, (D) Hodgkin's disease | Answer is B. Sho QT syndrome (SQTS) is an inherited cardiac channelopathy characterised by an abnormally sho QT interval and increased risk for atrial and ventricular arrhythmias. Diagnosis is based on the evaluation of symptoms (syncope or cardiac arrest), family history and electrocardiogram (ECG) findings multiple m... | |
An indicator is said to valid if: (A) It also measures the thing it didn't suppose to measure, (B) It measures the thing it expected to measure, (C) Over value when measured by different method, (D) Under value when measured by different method | Answer is B. Ans) b (It measures the thing.. ) Ref park 20th ed p 226The term validity refers to what extent the test accurately measures which it purports/ intended to measure.Validity expresses the ability of a test to separate or distinguish those who have the disease from those who do not have.Validity has two comp... | |
Presence of hemiplegia with diminution of vision in the contralateral eye suggests occlusion of: September 2012: (A) Middle cerebral aery, (B) Basilar aery, (C) Anterior cerebral aery, (D) Internal carotid aery | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. Internal carotid aery | |
In increased ICT, agent used for anesthesia: (A) N20, (B) Trilene, (C) Ether, (D) Isoflurane | Answer is D. D i.e. Isoflurane | |
Malignant cell in Hodgkin's lymphoma is: (A) Reed stenberg cell, (B) Lymphocytes, (C) Histocytes, (D) Reticulum cells | Answer is A. Reed-Sternberg cells (also known as lacunar histiocytes for ceain types) are distinctive, giant cells found with light microscopy in biopsies from individuals with Hodgkin's lymphoma (a.k.a. Hodgkin's disease, a type of lymphoma). They are usually derived from ,B lymphocytes classically considered crippled... | |
PR interval in ECG shows?: (A) Ventricular depolarization, (B) Ventricular Repolarization, (C) Conduction through AV node., (D) Atrial Repolarization | Answer is C. Normal ECG waves and Intervals: ECG wave/Interval Characteristics 1. P Wave Reflects Atrial Depolarization (activation) 2. QRS complex Depolarization of ventricles 3. T Wave Repolarization of ventricles 4. PR Interval Atrial depolarization and conduction through AV node 5. QT Interval Total duration of Ven... | |
Which of the following is a radiolucent stone?: (A) Uric acid, (B) Oxalate, (C) Cysteine, (D) Triple phosphate | Answer is A. Ans: a (Uric acid) Ref: Bailey and Love, 24th ed, p. 1317Pure uric acid stones are radiolucent and appear in an excretory urogram as filling defects.Uric acid stones if contain calcium, will cast a faint radiological shadow.Examples for radiolucent stones* Uric acid* Dihydroxy adenine* Orotic acid* Xanthin... | |
Pain of musculoskeletal origin is all except: (A) MPDS, (B) TMJ arthritis, (C) Pos traumatic pain, (D) Stylohyoid eagle’s syndrome | Answer is C. Pain of musulo skeletal origin
MPDS
TMJ arthritis
Stylohyoid eagles’s syndrome | |
Milk ejection is facilitated by:March 2007, March 2013: (A) Oxytocin, (B) Growth hormone, (C) FSH, (D) LH | Answer is A. Ans. A: OxytocinHormonal control of Breast development and secretion and ejection of milkProgesterone -- influences the growth in size of alveoli and lobes.Oestrogen -- stimulates the milk duct system to grow and become specific.Follicle stimulating hormoneLuteinizing hormoneProlactin -- contributes to the... | |
Anterior spinal artery is a branch of: (A) Internal carotid artery, (B) Basilar artery, (C) Vertebral artery, (D) Labyrinthine artery | Answer is C. None | |
Most common cause of decrease in incidence of H.pylori in the western countries is due to: (A) Change in life style, (B) Increased use of PPI, (C) Chemotherapy, (D) Mutation in organism | Answer is A. None | |
Following a myocardial infarct, a 40-year-old man is being treated prophylactically with propranolol. You would be concerned about the use of this drug if the patient also had what comorbid condition: (A) Glaucoma, (B) Essential tremor, (C) Diabetes, (D) Supraventricular tachycardia | Answer is C. Metabolic actions:- Propranolol inhibits glycogenolysis in hea, skeletal muscles and in liver, which occurs due to Adr release during hypoglycaemia--recovery from insulin action is delayed. Warning signs of hypoglycaemia mediated through sympathetic stimulation (tachycardia, tremor) are suppressed in patie... | |
Which of the following describes Satyriasis?: (A) Decreased sexual drive in male, (B) Increased sexual drive in male, (C) Decreased sexual drive in female, (D) Increased sexual drive in female | Answer is B. Ans. B. Increased sexual drive in male* Nymphomaniac: excessive sexual desire in females.* Satyriasis: excessive sexual desire in males | |
Dose of Human anti-rabies immunoglobulin is: (A) 10 IU/kg, (B) 20 IU/kg, (C) 30 IU/kg, (D) 40 IU/kg | Answer is B. Management guidelines for rabies apa from vaccination Anti Rabies Serum Horse Rabies serum: 40 IU/Kg on Day 0 (50% in wound, 50% I'M) Human Rabies Immunoglobulin : 20 IU/Kg (Maximum in wound, rest IM gluteal) (Concentration 150 IU/ml) Serum sickness with Horse serum : 15-45% Person under Antirabic Treatmen... | |
Baroreceptors stimulation would result in: (A) Inhibition of para sympathetic activity, (B) Excitation of sympathetic activity, (C) Increase in heart rate, (D) Decrease in blood pressure | Answer is D. Baroreceptor stimulation results in
Inhibition of sympathetic activity
Excitation of parasympathetic activity
Decrease in heart rate
Decrease in blood pressure | |
All are side effects of steroid EXCEPT: (A) Skin atrophy, (B) Telengectasia, (C) Folliculitis, (D) Photosensitivity | Answer is D. Mineralocoicoids cause cause edema, hypokalemia, sodium and water retention. Glucocoicoid cause Cushing's habitus, fragile skin, telangiectasis, hirsutism, hyperglycemia, muscular weakness, susceptible to infection, osteoporosis, HTN, poor wound healing, thin arms due to muscle wasting (REF.Essential of me... | |
Paul Bunnel test is done for?: (A) HBV, (B) EBV, (C) CMV, (D) HIV | Answer is B. EBV REF: Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology by Parija 2009 Page 504 Heterophil antibodies, which is an antibody against EBV cross reacts with red blood cells of different animal species. This can be used as a rapid screening test for mononucleosis (Monospot test and Paul Bunnell tests) The Paul-Bunnell ... | |
The largest trematode infecting masn is -: (A) F. Hepatica, (B) F. Buski, (C) E. Granulosus, (D) Clonorchis sinensis | Answer is B. large or giant intestinal fluke Largest trematode infecting humans Pig serves as reservoir of infection (refer pgno:127 baveja 3 rd edition) | |
True regarding respiratory centre: (A) Directly simulated by fall in PaO2, (B) Connected with cardiac center, (C) Inhibited during swallowing, (D) Situated in midbrain | Answer is B. The respiratory center is located in the medulla oblongata and is involved in the minute-to-minute control of breathing. Unlike the cardiac system, respiratory rhythm is not produced by a homogeneous population of pacemaker cells Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 3... | |
The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goitre is known as -: (A) Jod-Basedow effect, (B) Wolff-Chaikoff effect, (C) Thyrotoxicosis factitia, (D) De Quervain's thyroiditis | Answer is A. None | |
Lymphadenopathy is seen is A/E: (A) Syphlis 1st Stage, (B) Donovanosis, (C) LGV, (D) Chancroid | Answer is B. B i.e. Donovanosis | |
Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in all the following except (REPEAT): (A) Route of administration, (B) Metabolism inhibition, (C) Anti androgenic side effects, (D) Usage in candidiasis | Answer is D. Ketoconazole and fluconazole both are used in candidiasisRef: KDT 6/e p 762 | |
Amount of chlorine needed to kill cyclops in drinking water is: September 2007: (A) 3 ppm, (B) 4 ppm, (C) 5 ppm, (D) 6 ppm | Answer is C. Ans. C: 5 ppm Park's PSM, 21st ed., p- 723 states: Chlorine destroys cyclops and larvae of the guineaworm in a strength of 5 ppm Cyclops may be controlled by the use of the physical, chemical or biological methods: Physical methods - Straining - Boiling at 60 degree Celsius Chemical methods - Chlorine in a... | |
A 16 year old student reported for the evaluation of multiple hypopigmented macules on the trunk and limbs.All of the following tests are useful in making a diagnosis of leprosy, except –: (A) Sensation testing, (B) Lepromin test, (C) Slit smears, (D) Skin biopsy | Answer is B. None | |
Type-1 hypersensitivity includes all of the following except:: (A) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, (B) Anaphylaxis, (C) Extrinsic asthma, (D) Hay fever | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia HSN involving blood components are usually Type II HSN. | |
A 80 year old patient presents with a midline tumor of the lower jaw, involving the alveolar margin. He is edentulous. Rx of choice is:: (A) Hemi mandibulectomy, (B) Commando operation, (C) Segmental mandiblectomy, (D) Marginal mandibulectomy | Answer is C. Segmental mandibulectomy recommended for alveolar lesions, tumors adherent to the mandible, or for radiographic evidence of bone involvement. Ref: Craniomaxillofacial Reconstructive and Corrective Bone Surgery: Principles of Internal Fixation By Alex M. Greenberg, Joachim Prein, 2002, page 411. | |
Which of the following is not a derivative of amino acid tyrosine: (A) Thyroxine, (B) Melatonin, (C) Melanin, (D) Epinephrine | Answer is B. Melatonin and serotonin are derivatives of Tryptophan. | |
A 28 Years old white female presents with a 15-day history of malodorous vaginal discharge and pruritus. She reports that the smell is worse after intercourse and is accompanied by a white discharge. No significant medical or gynecological history. She is in a stable monogamous relationship and has never been pregnant.... | Answer is B. Answer: b) Vaginal fluid pH > 4.5, presence of clue cells on the smear and fishy odor on KOH mountVAGINAL INFECTIONSDiagnosticCriteria Differential Diagnosis of Vaginal infectionsNormalBacterialvaginosisCandidiasisTrichomoniasisBacterial (strep, staph, E.coli)Vaginal pH3.8-4.2>4.5<4.5>4.5>4.5DischargeClear... | |
Valvulae conniventes are seen in: (A) Jejunum, (B) Ileum, (C) Stomach, (D) Colon | Answer is A. The valvulae conniventes, also known as Kerckring folds or plicae circulares, are the mucosal folds of the small intestine, staing from the second pa of the duodenum, they are large and thick at the jejunum and considerably decrease in size distally in the ileum to disappear entirely in the distal ileal bo... | |
A girl aged 20 yrs complains of headache while studying. Her vision is found to be normal. All
of the following should be further evaluated except: (A) Self worth, (B) Family history of headache, (C) Menstrual history, (D) Her interest in studies | Answer is A. Family h/o headache is important in any headache to rule out organic cause of headache. Menstrual history
Menstrual history is important in any female presenting with headache to rule to premenstrual syndrome.
Detailed menstrual history should be taken to find out headache is due to hormonal imbalance. Int... | |
Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis usually presents –: (A) Within 2 days after birth, (B) Around 1 week after birth, (C) Around 2 weeks after birth, (D) Around 2 months after birth | Answer is C. The symptoms vomiting usually starts after 3 weeks of age but symptoms may develop as early as1st week of life and as late as 5 months of life. - Nelson
Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the commonest surgical disorder of the stomach during infancy.
Pylorus is thic... | |
Prophylaxis against spontaneous bacterial peritonitis ( SBP) in case of cirrhosis with ascites is indicated in:: (A) Patients with high protein ascites, (B) Prior history of SBP, (C) Serum creatinine 1 mg/dl, (D) Child pugh < 8 | Answer is B. The risk factors for SBP are 1.Ascitic fluid protein < 1 g/dl 2.Variceal hemorrhage 3.Prior episode of SBP Acute variceal bleeding patients need prophylaxis against SBP & Drugs used for prophylaxis are: 1.Inj.Ceftriaxone 1 g/day 2. Oral. Ofloxacin 400 mg/day or Norfloxacin 400 OD Primary prophylaxis is ind... | |
Radiation induced thyroid cancer is -: (A) Papillary, (B) Follicular, (C) Anaplastic, (D) Medullary | Answer is A. Radiation-induced thyroid cancer Authors: Section Editors: Deputy Editor: INTRODUCTION Radiation exposure of the thyroid during childhood is the most clearly defined environmental factor associated with benign and malignant thyroid tumors. The risk of thyroid cancer following irradiation is related to radi... | |
Significant value of `p' is ?: (A) 0.01, (B) 0.02, (C) 0.04, (D) 0.05 | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 0.05 P is the probability that the difference seen between 2 samples occurs due to chance". If p . .05 it is considered statistically significant. It means that There is 5% probability that the result could have been obtained by chance. or The investigator can be 95% sure that the result ... | |
Complications of Colles' fracture are all except: (A) Malunion, (B) Non union, (C) Sudeck's dystrophy, (D) Rupture of extensor policis longus | Answer is B. B i.e. Nonunion | |
Lecithin/Sphingomyelin ratio is done to assess the maturity of:: (A) Lung, (B) Fetal circulation, (C) Brain, (D) Gonad | Answer is A. Ref: Cloherty's Manual of Newborn Care. 6th edition, Page 323Explanation:THE LECITHIN -SPHINGOMYELIN (L/S) RATIOAssessment of fetal lung maturity (FLM) prenatally by testing amniotic fluid obtained by amniocentesis.It is performed by thin-layer chromatography.The risk of RDS is very low if the L/S ratio is... | |
One of the following activities is not mediated through β2 adrenergic receptors:: (A) Stimulation of lipolysis, (B) Increased hepatic gluconeogenesis, (C) Increased muscle glycogenolysis, (D) Smooth muscle relaxation | Answer is A. None | |
At which level sound is painful -: (A) 100-120dB, (B) 80-85dB, (C) 60-65dB, (D) 20-25dB | Answer is A. Intensity
Whisper - 30 dB
Normal conversation - 60 dB
Shout - 90 dB
Discomfort of ear - 120 dB
Pain in ear -130 dB
Ref. Dhingra, 6/e, p 19 | |
All of the following are included as causes of maternal death except -: (A) Following aboion, (B) During lactation 1 st month (Puerperal), (C) During lactation 8th month, (D) During the last trimester due to APH | Answer is C. Maternal moality rate is total no.of female deaths due to complications of pregnancy,childbihor within 42 days of delivery from puerpeural causes.REF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-514 | |
Trypsinogen to trypsin is conveed by: (A) Enteropeptidase, (B) Acidic pH, (C) Elastase, (D) None | Answer is A. Trypsin, a proteinase, is secreted as an inactive zymogen form trypsinogen, which is activated to form active Trypsin, which has strong proteolytic activity and an inactive hexapeptide which is produced and liberated during the process of activation. Activation is brought about by * A glycoprotein enzyme c... | |
Which of the following is used to represent continuous (quantitative) data ?: (A) Bar diagram, (B) Pie cha, (C) Histogram, (D) Map diagram | Answer is C. Ans. is `c' i.e., Histogram | |
What is the most probable poal of entry for Aspergillus: (A) Puncture wound, (B) Blood, (C) Lungs, (D) Gastrointestinal tract | Answer is C. Aspergillosis is caused by the inhalation of Aspergillus conidia or mycelial fragments which are present in the decaying matter, soil or air, resulting in aspergillus asthma, bronchopulmonary aspergillosis and aspergilloma. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | |
Obstruction to the flow of CSF at the aqueduct of Sylvius will most likely lead to enlargement of -: (A) All of the ventricles, (B) Only lateral ventricle, (C) Only fourth ventricle, (D) Both lateral and third ventricles | Answer is D. CSF is produced by choroid plexus in the lateral and III ventricles. Then it flows through the aqueduct of Sylvius into the 4th ventricle and from there into the subarachnoid space to be absorbed by the arachnoid
Obviously, any obstruction in the aqueduct of Sylvius will lead to enlargement of the proximal... | |
Dinner fork deformity is seen in -: (A) Colies fracture, (B) Supracondylar fracture of Humerus, (C) Smith's fracture, (D) Volar Barton Fracture | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Colles fracture DeformityAssociated fracture / conditionGarden Spade DeformitySmiths FractureGun stock deformityCubitus varus commonly due supracondylar humerus fractureDinner fork deformityColles FractureGenu VarumBlounts disease | |
Ministry covering ESI:: (A) Ministry of health, (B) Ministry of Home, (C) Ministry of Human Resource Development, (D) Ministry of Labour | Answer is D. ESI act is an impoant measure of social security and health insurance in India. Administration: The Union Ministry of Labour is the Chairman of ESI corporation. Secretary to Govt. of India Ministry of Labour is Vice-Chairman of ESI. | |
A 22yrs female was admitted in emergency with c/o nausea, vomiting, and watery diarrhoea since 4 days. He is also having low grade fever. He was hospitalised and treated symptomatically and was being relieved and discharged. His blood samples were sent for culture; repos of which pt. brought during his follow up - whic... | Answer is C. Clostridia Spore bearing, obligate anaerobes and gram positive organisms. Reside normally in GI tract; although they have the propensity to cause fulminant bacteremia, but it is rare. In this question, pt. is well after an acute episode of illness; rules out fulminant course. So, a transient self-limited b... | |
Leukocytoclastic vasculitis as an extrahepatic manifestation is noticed in:: (A) Chronic hepatitis B, (B) Chronic Hepatitis C, (C) Autoimmune hepatitis, (D) Wilson's disease | Answer is A. Extrahepatic complications of chronic hepatitis B Extrahepatic complications of chronic hepatitis B, is associated with deposition of circulating hepatitis B antigen-antibody immune complexes. They are; Ahralgias and ahritis - common, Purpuric cutaneous lesions (leukocytoclastic vasculitis) - Rare Immune-c... | |
An antihelmenthic drug that is effective against blood fluke, liver fluke, lung fluke and cysticercus is:: (A) Albendazole, (B) Praziquantal, (C) Ivermectin, (D) Thiabendazole | Answer is B. - Drug of choice for treatment of flukes (except liver fluke) and tapeworms (except dog tapeworm) is praziquantal. - Drug of choice for treatment of liver fluke is triclabendazole. - Drug of choice for dog tapeworm (Echinococcus) is albendazole - Drug of choice for all nematodes (see exceptions below) is a... | |
All of the following are good prognostic factors for childhood Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, except:: (A) Hyperdiploidy, (B) Female sex, (C) Pre B cell ALL, (D) t (12 : 21) translocation | Answer is D. Hyperdiploidy, Female sex and pre B cell ALL are associated with good prognosis. t (12 : 21) translocation may be associated with a poor prognosis and is the single answer of exclusion. Ref: Pediatric Oncology: A Comprehensive Guide By Paul Imbach, Thomas R. Kuhne, Robe Arceci, 2004, page 23. | |
Radiological feature of Mitral stenosis is are: (A) Double contour of right hea border, (B) Straightening of left hea border, (C) Splaying of carinal angle, (D) All | Answer is D. A, B, C i.e. Double contour of right hea border, Straightening of left hea border, Splaying of carinal angle | |
Which of the following hormone doesn't use the adenylyl cyclase-cAMP as a second messenger ?: (A) TSH, (B) Epinephrine, (C) Insulin, (D) Glucagon | Answer is C. Hormones That Use the Adenylyl Cyclase-cAMP as Second Messenger System Adrenocoicotropic hormone (ACTH) Angiotensin II (epithelial cells) Calcitonin Catecholamines (b receptors) Coicotropin releasing hormone (CRH) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Glucagon Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH) Human cho... | |
A 3 years old boy presented with fever with pain in the throat and difficulty in deglutition. On examination following findings are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Peritonsillar abscess, (B) Parapharyngeal abscess, (C) Ludwig's angina, (D) Retropharyngeal abscess | Answer is A. PERITONSILLAR ABSCESS(QUINSY) Collection of pus between the fibrous capsule of the tonsil, and the superior constrictor muscle of the pharynx. Condition is generally unilateral. Tonsil is swollen, red, hot & congested. Uvula and soft palate are pushed to opposite side. Uvula Points towards Normal side as s... | |
Brinzolamide is a: (A) Highly specific irreversible and noncompetitive carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, (B) Highly specific irreversible and competitive carbonic anhydrase inhibitor., (C) Highly specific reversible and competitive carbonic anhydrose inhibitor, (D) Highly specific reversible and non-competitive carbonic an... | Answer is D. Ans is 'd' i.e. Highly specific reversible and noncompetitive carbonic anhydrase inhibitor o Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors act by a non-competitive, reversible inhibition of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase. o Brinzolamide is a highly .specific inhibitor of carbonic anhydrase II (CA II), which is the main car... | |
Cholesteatoma commonly associated with:: (A) Atticoantral CSOM, (B) Tubotympanic CSOM, (C) Tympanosclerosis, (D) Foreign body in ear | Answer is A. (a) Atticoantral CSOM(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed. Vol 2; 989)Tympanosclerosis is hyalinisation and calcification of the fibrous layer of tympanic membrane. It is not associated with cholesteatoma. Foreign body in ear does not lead to cholesteatoma formation.Keratosis obturans is the collection of desquamated... | |
A child presenting with localized patches of complete hair loss with normal appearance of scalp. Diagnosis is -: (A) Tinea capitis, (B) Cradle cap, (C) Alopecia areata, (D) Telogen effluvium | Answer is C. alopecia areata develops as single or multiple oval or round patches of hair loss on the scalp, beard area,eyebrows, eyelashes and other hairy areas of the body. Telogen effluvium- generalized and diffuse hair loss over scalp and body Cradle cap - infantile seborrhoeic dermatitis characterized by yellowish... | |
An 8-hour-old term infant develops increased respiratory distress, hypothermia, and hypotension. A complete blood count (CBC) demonstrates a white blood cell (WBC) count of 2500/mL with 80% bands. The chest radiograph is shown below. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Congenital syphilis, (B) Dia... | Answer is C. (c) Source: (Hay et al, pp 1163-1166. Kliegman et al, pp 925-928. McMillan et al, pp 482-483, 501-506. Rudolph et al, pp 1097-1099.) The radiograph shows diffuse that infiltrates bilaterally; this can be seen with neonatal pneumonia or primary surfactant deficiency. The rapid onset of the symptoms, the low... | |
In the gr'cii circuit, the arc! flow pressure is 100 mm Hg and the outward flow pressure is 10 mm Hg. Each of the parallel circuit has a resistance of 5 mm Hg/mL/min. Calculate the flow across the circuit:: (A) 45 mL, (B) 90 mL, (C) 3.6 mL, (D) 135 mL | Answer is A. Ans. b. 90 mL | |
Bochdalek hernia is related to -: (A) Inguinal canal, (B) Pleuroperitoneal canal, (C) Femoral canal, (D) Obturator foramen | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pleuroperitoneal canal Bochdalek herniao Most Bochdalek hernia are on the left side (~80%) and may rarely be bilateral.o Compression of the lung results in pulmonary hypoplasia, involving both the lungs (ipsilateral > contralateral)o Pulmonary vasculature is also abnormal leading to pulmo... | |
A 4 yr old partially immunized boy came to OPD with history of bouts of coughing. On staining the sputum sample an organism with bipolar staining was seen. Which among the following organism it would be?: (A) Y. Pestis, (B) B. pertussis, (C) S. Agalactae, (D) K. Pneumonae | Answer is B. REF: (B) B. pertussisREF: Jawetz Microbiology, 24th Ed Ch. 19BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS:The organisms are minute gram-negative coccobacilli resembling H influenzae. With toluidine blue stain, bipolar metachromatic granules can be demonstrated. A capsule is present. After an incubation period of about 2 weeks, th... | |
What is true in case of perforation of pars flaccida?: (A) CSOM is a rare cause, (B) Associated with cholesteatoma, (C) Usually due to trauma, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. Ans. B Associated with cholesteatomaTympanic membrane can be divided in 2 pas:Parstensa : It forms most of the tympanic membrane. Its periphery is thickened to form fibro cailaginous ring called as annulus tympanicus.Pars Falccida : It is situated above the lateral process of malleus between the notch of R... | |
Adam's apple seen in boys is because of:: (A) Hyoid bone, (B) Tracheal rings, (C) Thyroid cailage, (D) Cricoid cailage | Answer is C. Prominance of Thyroid cailage (because of sharp angle) in males is called Adam's apple. Thyroid cailage with right and left lamina both meet at midline and form an angle of 90deg in males, 120deg in females. At rest it lies at level of C3 | |
Site of placement of tension free vaginal tapes in stress urinary incontinence: (A) Ureterovaginal junction, (B) Urethrovaginal junction, (C) Upper pa of urethra, (D) Middle pa of urethra | Answer is D. Tension-free vaginal tape A knitted 11 mm x 40 cm polypropylene mesh tape is inseed transvaginally at the level of the midurethra Complications: Sho term Voiding difficulties , Bladder perforation, de novo Urgency and Bleeding Ref: SHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY; 15th edition; Pg no:194 | |
The amount of water absorbed in the intestine in a day is :: (A) 5 lit., (B) 1 lit, (C) 1 lit, (D) 8 lit. | Answer is D. D i.e. 8 lit | |
Most impoant from of carbon-dioxide transpo in the blood: (A) It is mostly transpoed as carboxy hemoglobin, (B) As dissolved CO2, (C) As bicarbonates, (D) Due to CO2 molecules attached to hemoglobin | Answer is C. The route by which most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the bloodstream. Once dissolved in the blood plasma, carbon dioxide combines with water to form carbonic acid, which immediately ionizes into hydrogen and bicarbonate ions. The bicarbonate ions serve as pa of the alkaline reserve.Ref: Ganong&;s Re... | |
A patient presents to the emergency department with uniocular diplopia. Examination with oblique illumination shows golden crescent while examination with coaxial illumination show a dark crescent line. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis –: (A) Lenticonus, (B) Coloboma, (C) Microspherophakia, (D) Ectop... | Answer is D. Presence of uniocular diplopia together with the finding of the golden crescent on oblique illumination (edge of subluxated lens) or black crecent line on coaxial illumination (edge of subluxated lens) suggests a diagnosis of `subluxation' of the crystalline lens. Ectopic lens refers to the displacement of... | |
Alkaptonuria an inherited metabolic disorder is due to the deficiency of: (A) Homogentisate oxidase, (B) Cystathionase, (C) Pheylalanine hydroxylase, (D) Tyrosine transaminase | Answer is A. None |
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