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All of the following statements about Lupus Anticoagulant are true, EXCEPT:: (A) May present with an isolated prolongation ofAPTT, (B) May present with Recurrent Aboions, (C) May occur with minimal clinical manifestations, (D) Thrombotic spells can be followed by severe life threatening hemorrhage | Answer is D. Catastrophic Life threatening Antiphospholipid Syndrome results from rapid onset thrombosis and ischemia in multiple organ systems and not from severe bleeding. However such bleeding episodes are rare after thrombotic spells even with severe thrombocytopenia, not leading to life threatening hemorrhage and ... | |
CT scan abdomen at the level of the twelfth thoracic veebra in a pt., Which structure provides an attachment of the suspensory muscle of the duodenum (ligament of Treitz)?: (A) A, (B) B, (C) C, (D) D | Answer is B. The duodenojejunal flexure is suppoed by a fibromuscular band called the suspensory ligament of the duodenum (ligament of Treitz), which is attached to the right crus of the diaphragm. C. - The pancreas is an endocrine and exocrine gland; is retroperitoneal in position and receives blood from the splenic, ... | |
Best method of treatment of ulner never abscess in case of leprosy is -: (A) High does of steroid, (B) incision and drainage, (C) Thalidomide, (D) High does of clofazamine | Answer is B. Best method to treat ulnar nerve abscess is incision and drainage. folowed by treatment with coicosteroids and mbmdt iadvl textbook of dermatology page 2091 | |
Most common cause of sho stature is:: (A) Constitutional, (B) Hypothyroidism, (C) Growth hormone deficiency, (D) Systemic illness | Answer is A. Ans. A: Constitutional The causes of sho stature can be divided into 3 broad categories: Chronic disease (including undernutrition genetic disorders) Familial sho stature Constitutional delay of growth and development (commoner) Endocrine diseases are rare causes of sho stature. The hallmark of endocrine d... | |
Berkesonian bias in a case control study is a bias due to:: (A) Presence of confounding factors, (B) Different admission rates for different diseases, (C) Bias introduced by investigator, (D) Patient can not recall or gives false information | Answer is B. None | |
Frozen section is/are used for all except: (A) Enzyme, (B) Intraop Histopathological examination, (C) Fat, (D) Acid fast bacilli | Answer is D. Frozen section Biopsy Biopsy technique in pathology laboratories for making urgent on-table diagnosis Frozen section biopsy is a procedure done in a pathological setup existing adjacent to the operation theatre Surgeons are the main users of this service Procedure An unfixed fresh tissue is frozen (using C... | |
Which of the following condition is associated with Osmotic diarrhoea?: (A) Lactase deficiency, (B) Ulcerative sprue, (C) Surreptitious ingestion of laxatives, (D) Endocrine tumors | Answer is A. Clinical causes of osmotic diarrhea that causes an osmolar gap greater than 50 includes lactase deficiency, sorbitol foods, saline cathaics and antacids. Osmotic diarrhea occur when water soluble molecules are poorly absorbed, remain in the intestinal lumen and retain water in the intestine. It usually fol... | |
WHO recommended regime for the treatment of Brucella infection is ?: (A) Streptomycin with doxycycline, (B) Rifampicin with doxycycline, (C) Rifampicin with ciprofloxacin, (D) Streptomycin with erythromycin | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rifampin with doxycyclinelRef : Harrison 18n/e p. 1299,1672 & I4/e p. 1268).The gold standard for the treatment of brucellosis in adults is IM streptomycin (0.75-1 g daily for 14-21 days) together with doxycycline (100 mg twice daily for 6 weeks).In both clinical trials and observational ... | |
'Rosette cataract' is caused by:: (A) Diabetes, (B) After cataract, (C) Trauma, (D) Gaucher's disease | Answer is C. Ans. c (Trauma) (Ref: Parson's Disease of Eye 19th/pg. 283; Basak Ophthalmology 2nd/pg. 82, 305).CATARACTContusion cataractContusion of the eyeball will produce a rosette-shaped subcapsular opacity on the anterior surface of the lens. It will normally remain unchanged but will migrate into the deeper corte... | |
Cork screw esophagus in barium swallow is seen in:: (A) Achalasia cardia, (B) Esophageal cancer, (C) Diffuse esophageal spasm, (D) Diverticulum | Answer is C. Ans: C (Diffuse esophageal spasm) Ref: Sc ibis ion Textbook of Surgery, 19th Edition 1028Explanation:Diffuse Esophageal spasmHyper motili ty di sorderRepetitive, simultaneous, and of high amplitude esophageal contractionsMotor abnormality of the esophageal body that is more in the lower two thirds.Muscular... | |
Infant with cystic fibrosis (CF) are likely to develop: (A) Meconium ileus, (B) Loose motions, (C) Vomiting, (D) Constpation | Answer is A. The common clinical presentations include meconium ileus in neonatal period,recurrent bronchiolitis in infancy and early childhod,recurrent respiratory tract infections ,chronic lung disease , bronchiectasis, steatorrhoea,with incresing age pancreatitis and azoospermia. Ref : Essential pediatrics,O.P.Ghai,... | |
The stabbing nature of pain in trigeminal neuralgia mimics pain caused by: (A) A cracked tooth, (B) Acute reversible pulpitis, (C) Acute irreversible pulpitis, (D) Acute apical periodontitis | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following indicates radiograph contrast induced nephropathy?: (A) Increased creatinine levels, (B) Decreased urine output, (C) Increased bilirubin, (D) Decreased bilirubin | Answer is A. Ans.Increased creatinine levels | |
In postductal coarctation of aoa, collaterals may be formed by all of the following, except: (A) Veebral aery, (B) Suprascapular aery, (C) Subscaular aery, (D) Posterior Intercostals aery | Answer is A. In post-ductal coarctation of the aoa, an extensive collateral circulation develops involving the branches of subclan & axillary aeries with the distal aeries given by aoa Veebral aery does not play a significant role in this collateral circulation. Ref: Gray's 40e/p984 | |
Which of the following is not a true association of thymoma ?: (A) Myasthenia gravis may be seen, (B) Hypergrammaglobulinemia, (C) Pure red cell aplasia, (D) Superior mediastinal compression syndrome | Answer is B. The usual association is hypogamaglobuthemia not hyperglobulinemia. | |
Which of the following statements about the pathology in Alzheimer's disease is not true:: (A) Neuritic Plaques are formed of amyloid protein, (B) Neurofibrillary tangles (NFT) are made of tau protein, (C) NFTs appear extracellularly before intracellular appearance, (D) Number of NFTs correlates with dementia | Answer is C. Answer is C (NFTs appear extracellularly before intracellular appearance):NFTs are typically seen intracellularly within the soma and proximal dendrites of neurons. Neurofibrillary Tangles (NFTs) are intracellular accumulations of hyperphosphorylated 'tau' proteins.Neurofibrillary Tangles are Intracellular... | |
Senescent RBC's are mainly attacked in-: (A) Vivax malaria, (B) Ovale malaria, (C) Falciparum malaria, (D) Quartan malaria | Answer is D. P. malariae which attacks mainly senescent (old) RBC’s: Agent of Quartan malaria
P. ovale and P. vivax: attack younger RBCs and reticulocytes: Agent of benign tertian malaria
P. falciparum: attacks RBC of all ages: Agent of malignant tertian malaria. | |
In depression, there is deficiency of :: (A) 5–HT, (B) Acetylcholine, (C) Dopamine, (D) GABA | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following is spared in modified radical mastectomy (MRM)?: (A) Pectoralis major, (B) Pectoralis minor, (C) Axillary lymph nodes, (D) Nipple | Answer is A. Ans. a (Pectoralis major). (Ref. Bailey & Love Surgery, 25th ed., 842)MASTECTOMY is now only strictly indicated for large tumors, central tumor beneath or involving nipple, multifocal disease, and local recurrence or for patient preference.Simple mastectomyRadical mastectomy (Halsted)Modified radical Maste... | |
Painless effusion in congenital syphilis is called: (A) Clutton joints, (B) Baon joints, (C) Chanrcot joinst, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Skeletal manifestations of congenital syphilis Clutton's joints - Painless sterile effusions in the knees or elbows Parrot's joints - Effusion with epiphysitis and epiphyseal separation Erosion of the nasal boneThickening and expansion of the finger phalanges (dactylitis) Higoumenaki's sign - Bilateral enl... | |
Normal adult person's blood contains:: (A) 40% neutrophils, (B) 30% lymphocytes, (C) 20% eosinophils, (D) 10% basophils | Answer is B. None | |
Port wine stain of the face, seizures, hemiparesis, intracranial calcification and glaucoma are features of?: (A) Neurofibromatosis, (B) Tuberous sclerosis, (C) Sturge-Weber syndrome, (D) VHL | Answer is C. Ans. c (Sturge-Weber syndrome) (Ref. Harrison's medicine 17th/Chapter 379; IADVL 2nd/ pg l68)PHAKOMATOSES (NEUROCUTANEOUS SYNDROMES = NEUROECTODERMAL DYSPLASIAS)# Autosomal dominant:- Neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen synd)# Not autosomal dominant:- Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis (Sturge-Weber synd)-... | |
Cis atracurium is better then atracurium because:-: (A) Less histamine release, (B) Less half life, (C) Low drug dose, (D) Low cost | Answer is A. Atracurium Cis-atracurium Mixture of cis-isomers Pure cis-isomer Histamine release No / minimal release CVS unstable CVS stable Less potent Dose - 0.5-0.6mh/kg More potent Dose - 0.1-0.2 mg/kg - Cis-atracurium and atracurium are dependent on Hoffman elimination - Cis-atracurium's duration of action is more... | |
Kanagawa's phenomenon is seen in ?: (A) Pseudomonea aeuroginosa, (B) Vibrio parahemolyticus, (C) Shigella sonie, (D) Proteus mirabilis | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vibrio parahemolyticus Strains of vibrio parahemolyticus isolated from patients are always hymolytic on Wagatsuma agar, while strains from environmental sources are always non-hemolytic. This linkage of enteropathogenicity to ability of hemolysis on Wagatsuma agar is called Kanagawa's phe... | |
The following are attributes of hepatitis B infection except -: (A) Establishes chronic infections in those infected as infants, (B) HBcAg in serum indicate active infection, (C) Can cause hepatocellular carcinoma, (D) Alpha interferon is used for the treatent of chronic infection | Answer is B. Hepatitis B may cause an acute viral hepatitis; however, acute infection is often asymptomatic, paicularly when acquired at bih. Many individuals with chronic hepatitis B are also asymptomatic. The risk of progression to chronic liver disease depends on the source and timing of infection . Veical transmiss... | |
MMR. vaccination is given at-: (A) Bih, (B) 6th month, (C) One year, (D) 11/2 years | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 11/2 years o See IAP vaccination schedule. | |
Which of the following has a normal level of alpha-fetoprotein value in serum?: (A) Ovarian dysgerminoma, (B) Hepatoblastoma, (C) Embroynal carcinoma, (D) Yolk sac tumours | Answer is A. None | |
Which bacteria acts by inhibiting protein synthesis-: (A) Pseudomonas, (B) Staphylococcus, (C) Streptococcus, (D) Klebsiella | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following inducing agent produces cardiac stability?: (A) Etomidate, (B) Ketamine, (C) Halothane, (D) Thiopentone | Answer is A. Etomidate
It is another induction anaesthetic (0.2- 0.5 mg/kg) which has a briefer duration of action (4-8 min).
than thiopentone; produces little cardiovascular and respiratory depression, but motor restlessness and rigidity is more prominent as are pain on injection or nausea and vomiting on recovery. ... | |
Weight range of adrenal glands in most of cases of cushing's disease is -: (A) 4-11gm, (B) 11-13 gm, (C) 14-24 gm, (D) 25-40 gm | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 25-40 gm o The weight of adrenal gland depends on the cause of cushing syndrome : ? Due to ACTH production by pituatory microadenoma (cushing disease) or by ectopic ACTH production. o ACTH stimulates the zona reticularis and zona fasciculata which results in either diffuse hyperplasia (25... | |
Which of the following aery is not a terminal branch of coeliac trunk ?: (A) common hepatic aery, (B) left gastric aery, (C) splenic aery, (D) gastroduodenal aery | Answer is D. The coeliac trunk arises from the front of the abdominal aoa just below the aoic opening of the diaphragm at the level of the disc between veebrae thoracic twelve and first lumbar. The trunk is only about 1.25 cm long. It ends by dividing into its three terminal branches, namely the left gastric, hepatic a... | |
Most reliable method of diagnosing pulmonary embolism is: September 2004: (A) Plain skiagram, (B) Perfusion, (C) Electrocardiography, (D) Angiography | Answer is D. Ans. D i.e. Angiography Pulmonary angiography has been now replaced by CT and MR angiography | |
One of the earliest symptoms of Vit. A deficiency is:: (A) Nyctalopia, (B) Xerophthalmia, (C) Bitot's spot, (D) Keratomalacia | Answer is A. Deficiency manifestations of Vitamin A:
Night blindness (nyctalopia) is one of the earliest symptoms of vitamin A deficiency.
The individuals have difficulty to see in dim light since the dark adaptation time is increased.
Prolonged deficiency irreversibly damages a number of visual cells.
Severe defici... | |
How long after completion of root of primary tooth ; root of primary tooth start to resorb: (A) 1 year approx, (B) 2 year approx, (C) 3 year approx, (D) 4 year approx | Answer is C. None | |
Chediak-Higashi syndrome is characterized by: (A) Defects in phagolysosome function, (B) Defects in macrophage production, (C) Defects in leukocyte adhesion, (D) Defects in microbicidal activity | Answer is A. Ans. a (Defects in phagolysosome function) (Ref. H - 17th/pg. Table 61-4)CHRONIC GRANULOMATOUS DISEASEChronic Granulomatous Disease presents before the age of 2 and can be transmitted through X-linked or autosomal pattern of inheritance. The defect lies in the inability to generate oxidative burst to kill ... | |
Safety valve mechanism is:: (A) The anteroposterior increment in the maxilla at 14 years, (B) Increase in the mandibular intercanine width at 14 years, (C) Increase in the mandibular height at 12 years, (D) Increase in the maxillary intercanine width at 12 years | Answer is D. There is little change in the width of the dental arch anterior to the first permanent molars after the fifth or sixth year of life.
In the mandibular dentition, mandibular intercanine width is relatively complete by 9–10 years of age in both boys and girls.
In the maxilla, intercanine width is essentiall... | |
Which of the following drugs is useful in prophylaxis of motion sickness?: (A) Hyoscine, (B) Metoclopramide, (C) Prochlorperazine, (D) Ondansetron | Answer is A. Ans. (A) Hyoscine(Ref: KDT 8th/e p132)Hyoscine is used for the prophylaxis of motion sickness whereas other drugs listed in the question are used for the treatment of vomiting. | |
Middle meningel vessel damage results in -: (A) Subdural hemorrhage, (B) Subarachnoid hemorrhage, (C) Intracerebral hemorrhage, (D) Epidural hemorrhage | Answer is D. Ans-D | |
Most common mode of transmission of HIV world wide is -: (A) Heterosexual, (B) Homosexual, (C) IV-drug abuse, (D) Contaminated blood products | Answer is A. most common mode of transmission of HIV virus is through hetrosexual REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.570 | |
Annexin V is associated with which of the following?: (A) Necrosis, (B) Apoptosis, (C) Atherosclerosis, (D) Inflammation | Answer is B. Annexin V is a calcium-dependent phospholipid binding protein that has a high affinity for the phophatidylserine (PS), a plasma membrane phospholipid. One of the earliest features of apoptosis is the translocation of PS from the inner to the outer leaflet of the plasma membrane, thereby exposing PS to the ... | |
Pilocarpine reduce the intraocular pressure in persons with closed angle glaucoma by:: (A) Reducing aqueous humor secretion, (B) Contracting iris sphincter muscle, (C) Increasing aqueous humor outflow, (D) Relaxing ciliary muscle | Answer is C. None | |
Black gun pow der composition -: (A) Charcoal 60% + Potassium nitrate 20% + sulphur 20%, (B) Charcoal 25% + Potassium nitrate 70% + sulphur 05%, (C) Charcoal 15% + Potassium nitrate 75% +- sulphur 10%, (D) Charcoal 65% +Potassium nitrate 20% + sulphur 15% | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Charcoal 15% + Potassium nitrate 75% + sulphur 10% The classical gun powder is known as black powder, consists of charcol (15%), Sulphur (10%), and potassium nitrate (75%). Depending on fineness, the black gun powder is designated as FG, FFG, FFFG. etc. (F = fineness). Pyrodex is another ... | |
Ultrasound scanning of a fetus shows asymmetric growth retardation. It may be associated with the following pathology:: (A) Anencephaly, (B) Trisomy 18, (C) Congenital rubella syndrome, (D) Placenta pre | Answer is D. Asymmetric intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR) is seen in chronic placental insufficiency due to inadequate substrate transfer. The fetus is affected in later months during the phase of cellular hyperophy. The placental pathology includes, Placenta prae Abruption Circumvallate Infarction Mosaicism Poor ... | |
Which of the following is not a heterophile reaction?: (A) Weil Felix test, (B) Paul Bunnell test, (C) Frie's test, (D) Cold agglutinin test | Answer is C. HETEROPHILE REACTION :- Similar antigens on dissimilar organisms are called heterophile antigens Closely related antigens can occur on a wide variety of organisms. Antibodies reacting with such antigens are called heterophile antibodies. Serologic tests employing such antigens are called heterophile tests.... | |
Tumor commonly seen in the area marked below: (A) Insulinoma, (B) Gastrinoma, (C) Non-functional tumours, (D) VIPoma | Answer is B. Most sporadic gastrinomas are located in the first and second pa of the duodenum. The anatomical area comprising the head of the pancreas, the superior and descending poion of the duodenum and the relevant lymph nodes has been called the 'gastrinoma triangle' because it harbours the vast majority of these ... | |
Most of the incidentalomas are: (A) Non-functioning adenoma, (B) Adrenocoical carcinoma, (C) Adrenal metastasis, (D) Pheochromocytoma | Answer is A. An incidentaloma is an adrenal mass, detected incidentally by imaging studies conducted for other reasons, not known previously to have been present or causing symptomsMore than 75% are non-functioning adenomas but Cushing's adenomas, phaeochromocytomas, metastases, adrenocoical carcinomas and Conn's tumou... | |
A patient presented with neck swelling. Cytology showed showed parafollicular cells along with clusters of plasmacytoid and few spindle shaped cells. What investigation should be done to follow up the patient?: (A) Calcitonin, (B) TSH level, (C) Anti TPO antibody, (D) TRH | Answer is A. Ans. (a) CalcitoninCytology showed showed parafollicular cells along with clusters of plasmacytoid and few spindle shaped cells are suggestive of medullary ca thyroid and so should be followed up by its tumor marker calcitonin. | |
Treatment of choice of small preputial Penile carcinoma is: (A) Total Penectomy, (B) Partial Penectomy, (C) Wide excision, (D) Emasculation | Answer is C. Wide local excision with 2 cm margin is done for small preputial penile carcinoma. | |
All are impoant laboratory features of hereditary spherocytosis, EXCEPT:: (A) Reduced MCHC, (B) Normocytic anemia, (C) Positive pink test, (D) Normal WBC count | Answer is A. Laboratory diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis The anemia is usually normocytic. Increase in mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)- (The only condition in which an increased MCHC is seen.) The diagnosis is on the basis of red cell morphology and osmotic fragility, a modified version called the... | |
All are transmitted by blood except aEUR': (A) Parvovirus B-19, (B) Hepatitis G, (C) Epstein Bar virus, (D) Cytomegalovirus | Answer is C. Epstein Barr Virus ??? Viruses associated with blood transfusion: Hepatitis C virus: Hepatitis G virus: Hepatitis B virus HIV type I HTLV Type Cytomegalovirus Parvovirus 13-19 HGV A recently discovered and identified non A-E hepatitis virus has been designated the name Hepatitis G virus (HGV) which is a me... | |
Drug of choice for treatment of epiglottitis is: (A) Ceftriaxone, (B) Sulphamethoxazone, (C) Chloramphenicol, (D) Clindamycin | Answer is A. Ampicillin or third generation cephalosporins are effective against H. influenzae and are given by parenteral route (i.m. or i.v.) without waiting for results of throat swab and blood culture. Ref: PL Dhingra 7th edition of Ear, Nose and Throat; Pg no 328 | |
APRV stands for:: (A) Adult pressure release ventilation, (B) Airway pressure release ventilation, (C) Air pressure reverse ventilation, (D) Airway pressure reduction ventilation | Answer is B. APRV - Airway Pressure Release Ventilation Mode of mechanical ventilation that is less common than pressure control or volume control, APRV was described initially by Stock and Downs in 1987 as a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) with an intermittent release phase. APRV applies CPAP (P high) for a... | |
Which of the following is an ocular emergency ?: (A) CRAO, (B) Optic neuritis, (C) Acute congestive glaucoma, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Ocular emergencies include those conditions that result in acute, severe pain in association with sudden vision loss, or that may lead to vision loss if left untreated; and traumatic conditions that affect globe or adnexa. Comon ophthalmic emergencies are :- Acute congest... | |
Most sensitive diagnosis test for ectopic pregnancy: (A) Transvaginal USG, (B) Culdocentesis, (C) MRI, (D) Serial monitoring of (-HCG | Answer is A. Transvaginal ultrasound Diagnosis of Ectopic pregnancy Pregnancy is definitely diagnosed by demonstrating intrauterine sac. - A normal intrauterine sac appears regular and well defined on ultrasound. So ectopic pregnancy can be diagnosed by demonstrating the absence of the intrauterine sac. In a woman in w... | |
Maternal mortality rate (MMR) is defined as - Number of maternal deaths per: (A) 1000 live births, (B) 1,00,000 live births, (C) 10,000 live births, (D) 100 live births | Answer is B. (B) 1,00,000 live births # Maternal mortality rate (MMR) - number of maternal deaths per 1,00,000 women of reproductive age per year. In India it is about 120 as compared to 0.5 of United States. | |
A 10-mm calculus in the right lower ureter associated with proximal hydroureteronephrosis is best treated with:: (A) Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy, (B) Antegrade percutaneous access, (C) Open ureterolithotomy, (D) Ureteroscopic retrieval | Answer is D. Answer is D (Ureteroscopic Retrieval) : The patient in question has a small calculus (1.0 cm) in size, which is located in the distal ureter and hence is amenable to ureteroscopic removal. The presence of proximal hydroureteronephrosis indicates obstruction and forms- the indication for clone removal. Indi... | |
Mother to child transmission of HIV -: (A) 25%, (B) 50%, (C) 60%, (D) 75% | Answer is A. HIV may pass from infected mother to foetus through placenta or to her infant during delivery. In absence of any intervention rate of this vary from 20-25%. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 364 | |
False statement regarding xenon is_____: (A) Rapid induction and emergence, (B) Free from greenhouse effects, (C) Teratogenic, (D) Does not trigger malignant hypehermia | Answer is C. Xenon is Non- teratogenic.Option A: Xenon has a very low blood-gas solubility coefficient (0.115) and produces rapid induction of and emergence from anaesthesia.Option B: Xenon produces no green house effect or ozone depletion and is environmentally safe, unlike the other inhaled anaesthetics.Option D: Doe... | |
Androgenic alopecia in female is caused by:: (A) Myxedema, (B) Cushing disease, (C) Stein-Leventhal syndrome, (D) Addison's disease | Answer is C. Ans. C. Stein-Leventhal syndromeAndrogenetic Alopecia (Male pattern; Female pattern): AssociationsIn women, features of hyperandrogenism may be present inthe form of hirsutism, acne & clitoromegaly.Always rule out polycystic ovary disease (PCOD).Stein-Leventhal syndrome, also called polycystic ovary syndro... | |
True about Burkitt's lymphoma are:: (A) Associated with t(14:8), (B) Express BCL-2, (C) Starry sky pattern on histology, (D) Slow progressing | Answer is C. Burkitt's lymphoma is associated with t(8:14). It has an increased MYC and BCL6 protein expression. Characteristic "starry sky" pattern is seen. | |
Singers Alkali denaturation test is done with :: (A) Maternal Hb, (B) Fetal Hb, (C) Amniotic fluid, (D) Menstrual fluid | Answer is B. Ans. is b i.e. Fetal Hb Ref. Dutta Obs. 6/e, p 247-248: Williams Obs. 23/e, p 583, 584; Text book of Ohs. by Sheila Balakrishnan, p 167-168 Fetal hemoglobin can be distinguished from Adult hemoglobin by : Wright stain : On staining blood with wright stain if RBC's appear nucleateddeg the blood is of fetal ... | |
NOT a feature of Atrial Septal defect among the
following: (A) Complications include Left Atrial hypertrophy, (B) Complications due to ASD are of late onset, (C) Most Common Congenital heart disease presenting in Adult age, (D) Wide fixed Split in 2nd heart sound | Answer is A. Left Atrial hypertrophy is never seen in ASD. | |
Which of the following drug causes Pseudotumour cerebri -: (A) Sparfloxacin, (B) Tetracycline, (C) Gentamicin, (D) Clofazimine | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tetracycline Drugs causing Pseudotumour cerebri o A miodarone o Mineralocoicoids (withdrawl) o Oral contraceptives o Glucocoicoids (withdrawl) o Hypervitaminosis A o Tetracyclines o Quinolones | |
Last taste sensation discovered is-: (A) Umami, (B) Sweetness, (C) Bitter, (D) Sour | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Umami o Umami a savory taste s one of the five basic tastes (together with sweetness, sourness, bitterness, and saltiness)o People taste umami through receptors specific to glutamate. Glutamate is widely present in savory foods, such as meat broths and fermented products, and commonly add... | |
All can cause peripheral neuropathy except: (A) Uraemia, (B) HIV, (C) Chronic liver disease, (D) Hypothyroidism | Answer is D. All other options are commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy except hypothyroidism | |
Estimation of serum levels is impoant for which of the following drug: September 2009: (A) Haloperidol, (B) Benzodiazepines, (C) Lithium, (D) Chlorpromazine | Answer is C. Ans. C: LithiumLithium has been the drug of choice for the treatment of maniac episode (acute phase) as well as for prevention of fuher episodes in bipolar mood disorder.It has also been used in the treatment of depression with less success.Lithium needs to be closely monitored by repeated blood levels, as... | |
Curie is the unit for –: (A) Radiation emitted, (B) Radiation absorbed, (C) Radioactivity, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. Units of Activity .
The activity of radioactive material is the number of nuclear disintegration per unit of time.
The units of activity.
Bacquerel
Curies | |
Linitus plastic is the type of -: (A) Gall bladder cancer, (B) Stomach cancer, (C) Pancreac cancer, (D) Renal cell cancer | Answer is B. Stomach cancer Ca stomach may be divided into five morphological subtypes, that correlate loosely with the natural history and outcome.
Ulcerang Ca
Polypoidal Ca
Superficial spreading Ca Also known as early gastric cancer, superficial ca is confined to mucosa and submucosa.
These cancers have an excellen... | |
. In the fed state, major fate of Glucose 6-PO4 in tissues is :: (A) Storage as Fructose, (B) Storage as Glyceraldehyde 3-PO4, (C) Enters HMP shunt Ribulose 5-PO4, (D) Storage as glycogen | Answer is D. D i.e. Storage as glycogen | |
The CAT in pediatric dentistry is: (A) Caries Activity Test, (B) Caries Advancement Test, (C) Caries Risk Assessment Tool, (D) Child Aptitude Test | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following disease shows autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance?: (A) Best's disease, (B) Bassen-Kornzwig disease, (C) Gyrate atrophy, (D) Laurence-Moon-Biedle syndrome | Answer is A. Best's disease is an autosomal dominant disorder with variable penetrance and expressivity. Bassen-Kornzwig disease is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder of lipoprotein metabolism. Gyrate atrophy is an autosomal recessive dystrophy with peripheral choroidal degeneration. Laurence-Moon-Biedle syndrom... | |
Non-absorption of fat-soluble vitamins is due to: (A) Steatorrhoea, (B) Pancreatic endocrine insufficiency, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is A. Steatorrhoea is an increase in stool fat excretion of >6% of dietary fat intake seen in malabsorption syndromes.Steatorrhoea may lead to weight loss, it is often associated with fat-soluble vitamin deficiency.Elevated alkaline phosphatase and reduced calcium levels suggest vitamin D deficiency and elevated... | |
Speed of rabies virus progress in axon is: (A) 100 mm/day, (B) 150 mm/day, (C) 200 mm/day, (D) 250 mm/day | Answer is D. Speed of rabies virus progress in axon is 250 mm/day. | |
A child makes tower of 4 cubes at –: (A) 1 year, (B) 1&1/2 years, (C) 3 years, (D) 4 years | Answer is B. None | |
A 20 year old patient presented with early pregnancy for Medical termination of Pregnancy (MTP) in day care facility. What will be the anaesthetic induction agent of choice ?: (A) Thiopentone, (B) Ketamine, (C) Propofol, (D) Diazepam | Answer is C. Propofol is considered the anaesthesia of choice for day care surgery (out patient surgery) as induction is smooth & pleasant and recovery is rapid. | |
Precocious puberty in girl age limit -: (A) 8 year, (B) 10 year, (C) 9 year, (D) 11 year | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 8 year o precocious puberty is defined as appearence of secondary' sexual character before 8 year of age in girl and 9.5 year of age (Nelson says 9 year) in bodys.o Thelarche = Isolated breast development.o Premature, Pubarche/Adrenarche - Appearance of sexual hair before age of 8 year in... | |
Longest acting cephalosporin:: (A) Ceftriaxone, (B) Ceftazidime, (C) Cefoperazone, (D) Cefotaxime | Answer is A. Ans: a (Ceftriaxone) Ref: Tripathi, 6th ed, p. 706 10th ed, p. 735- Ceftriaxone has a long duration of action with half life of 8 hrs- Ceftazidime has half life of 1.5-1.8 hrs- Cefaperazone has half life of 2 hrs- Cefotaxime has half life of 1 hrFirst-generation cephalosporinsThird- generation cephalospori... | |
A patient presents with Ahritis, hyperpigmentation of skin and hypogonadism, likely diagnosis is.: (A) Hemochromatosis, (B) Ectopic ACTH secreting tumour of the lung, (C) Wilson's disease, (D) Rheumatoid ahritis | Answer is A. Answer is A (Hemochromatosis):The association of Ahritis, hyperpigmentation of skin and hypogonadism suggests the diagnosis of hematochromatosis. | |
Which among the following is common cause for transverse lie: (A) Prolonged labor, (B) Nulliparity, (C) Placenta previa, (D) Oligohydramnios | Answer is C. Most common causes of transverse lie are:
Multiparity
Preterm fetus
Abnormal uterine anatomy
Hydramnios
Contracted pelvis. | |
Habitat of hookworm is -: (A) Jejunum, (B) ileum, (C) Colon, (D) Duodenum | Answer is A. The adult worms live in the small intestine of infected persons mostly in the jejunum,less often in the duodenum, and infrequently in the ileum Ref : panikers textbook of Medical parasitology 8th edition page 187 | |
What is the percentage of patients with disseminated discoid lupus erythematosus who develop SLE?: (A) 2%, (B) 22%, (C) 52%, (D) 82% | Answer is B. The risk is higher in patients with disseminated DLE (22%) than in DLE confined to the head and neck (1.2%). Females developing DLE before the age of 40 years,with HLA-B8 in their histocompatibility type, have an increasedrisk of 'conveing' to SLE. Neither immunological nor biochemical abnormalities appear... | |
Pineal gland forms ?: (A) Floor of third ventricle, (B) Anterior wall of third ventricle, (C) Posterior wall of thrid ventricle, (D) Roof of third ventricle | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Posterior wall of thrid ventricleBoundries of third ventricle are :-Anterior wall : Lamina terminal, anterior commissure, anterior columns of fornix.Posterior wall : Pineal body, posterior commissure, cerebral aqueduct.Roof : Ependyma lining of under surface of tela choroidea of r ventric... | |
Stage of contraction of family stas at -: (A) Marriage, (B) Bih of fis child, (C) Bih of last child, (D) Leaving home of first child | Answer is D. -family is a group of biologically related individuals living together and eating from a common kitchen. - the stage of contraction of family begins when the first child leaves the home and ends when the last child leaves the home of parents. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 2... | |
A child presents with "freckles" all over his body, including the buccal mucosa, lips, palms, soles, and skin not exposed to sun. Which of the following additional findings would most likely be present?: (A) Colonic polyps, (B) Desmoid tumors, (C) Epidermoid cysts, (D) Osteomas of the jaw | Answer is A. The widespread "freckles" (spots of melanin pigmentation) described in this case are associated with hamaomatous colonic polyps in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. The polyps in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome do not progress to colon cancer. Interestingly, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is associated with an increased potential to... | |
All the above loud S1 caused by: (A) Calcified Valve, (B) MVP, (C) Sho PR interval, (D) Dilation or widening of mitral valve after valvotomy | Answer is C. Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1447 The intensity of S1 is determined by the distance over which the ante- rior leaflet of the mitral valve must travel to return to its annular plane, leaflet mobility, left ventricular contractility, and the PR interval. S1 is classically loud in the early phases of rheumatic mi... | |
Autism is characterised by all EXCEPT: (A) Motor abnormalities, (B) Less eye contact, (C) High intelligence, (D) Unusual gestures | Answer is C. (C) High intelligence # AUTISM is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by impaired social interaction, verbal and non-verbal communication, and by restricted and repetitive behavior.> Autistic infants show less attention to social stimuli, smile and look at others less often, and respond less to the... | |
A 60-year old patient underwent renal aery doppler which shows narrowing and turbulence in right renal aery. If radius of the aery is reduced by 1/3rd, resistance to blood flow in right kidney would have increased by:: (A) 3 times, (B) 9 times, (C) 16 times, (D) 81 times | Answer is D. "Fouh power law" of radius ~ Blood flow varies directly and resistance inversely with the fouh power of the radius (r 4). If the radius is changed by a factor of 3 (reduced by 1/3rd), resistance would change by (34). | |
In starvation, the gall bladder may be -: (A) Atrophied, (B) Distended, (C) Show stones, (D) Normal | Answer is B. PM appearance in death due to starvation
Complete disappearance of body fat.
Loss of mesenteric and omental fat, atrophic digestive tract, empty stomach no wider than colon, thin and transparent small intestine.
Distension of gallbladder due to the accumulation of bile from lack of stimulation. | |
All of the following are true for pseudopelade of brocq except?: (A) Scarring Alopecia, (B) Inflammation is absent, (C) Foot print in snow appearance is seen, (D) Presence of pustules | Answer is D. Pseudopelade of brocq Scarring Alopecia Inflammation is absent Absence of pustules Foot print in snow appearance is seen | |
The main cause of minimal change ds is: (A) Increase in pore size, (B) Loss of negative charge on membrane, (C) Loss of cells, (D) Decreased circulation | Answer is A. Etiology of minimal change ds is unknown. Electron microscopy reveals the primary injury to the visceral epithelial cells, which may be caused by:- A) immunological mechanism: Lack of immune deposits in the glomerulus exclude the possibility of immune complex mechanism. But several features suggest immunol... | |
MTP can be done upto: (A) 12 weeks, (B) 16 weeks, (C) 20 weeks, (D) 10 weeks | Answer is C. MTP act 1971, provides safeguards to the mother by authorizing only a Registered Medical Practitioner having experience in gynecology and obstetrics to perform aboion where the length of Pregnancy does not exceed 12 weeks Where the pregnancy exceeds 12 weeks and is not more than 20 weeks, the opinion of tw... | |
All of the following murmurs may be heard in patients with aoic regurgitation except :: (A) High-pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur., (B) Soft, low pitched mid distolic rumbling murmur, (C) Mid-systolic ejection flow murmur, (D) Pansystolic murmur. | Answer is D. Answer is D (Pansystolic murmur) | |
The treatment of choice for bacterial vaginosis is :: (A) Clindamycin, (B) Erythromycin, (C) Ampicillin, (D) Metronidazole | Answer is D. None | |
All are about brucella except: (A) B. abous is capnophilic, (B) Transmission by aerosol can occur occasionally, (C) Paesturisation destroys it, (D) 2ME is used to detect IgA | Answer is D. 2ME is used to detect IgA Brucella is a wides pread zoonotic disease mainly seen in cattle sheep, goats, pigs and camels. - Brucella is strictly a parasite of animals. -No human to human transmission has been identified and infection in human occurs only by contact with infected animals or animal products.... | |
Which of the following is the definition of conscious sedation?: (A) A minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to independently and continuously maintain an airway and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command., (B) A significantly depressed level of conscious... | Answer is A. Conscious sedation is defined as a minimally depressed level of consciousness as opposed to deep sedation or general anesthesia. Remember that there are four stages of anesthesia (analgesia → delirium → surgical anesthesia → respiratory paralysis) and only in the first stage (analgesia) is the patient cons... | |
Which of the following statements about amoebicide is least accurate: (A) Diloxanide furoate it is a luminal amoebicide, (B) Emetine is contraindicated in pregnancy and in patients with Cardiac disease, (C) Metronidazole has little activity in the gut lumen, (D) Paromomcin is effective in extraintestinal amoebiasis | Answer is D. Ref-KDT 6/e p896,807 Paromomycin and diloxanide furoate are luminal ameobicamo | |
What is the age limit for further developmental assessment in a child not reaching for objects: (A) 3 months, (B) 5 months, (C) 9 months, (D) 12 months | Answer is C. A developmental assessment for children under age 3 is an attempt to assess various aspects of the child's functioning, including areas such as cognition, communication, behavior, social interaction, motor and sensory abilities, and adaptive skills. Assessment of the family and the child's environment also... | |
True about H. mole:a) Complete mole seen in human onlyb) Trophoblastic proliferationc) Hydropic degenerationd) Villus pattern absent: (A) a, (B) bc, (C) ac, (D) ad | Answer is B. H mole:
Microscopically: It is characterised by :
Marked proliferation of the syncytial and cytotrophoblastic epithelium.
Thinning of the stromal tissue due to hydropic degeneration (edema of villous stroma).
Avascular villi.
Maintenance of villus pattern.
Absence of villus pattern is characteristic of c... | |
Endemic ascites is associated with the following ?: (A) Pyrrolizidine, (B) Aflatoxin, (C) Sanguinarine, (D) Beta oxalylamino alanine (BOAA) | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pyrrolizidine Endemic ascites o Endemic ascites is caused by a hepatotoxin - pyrralizidine alkaloid found in weed seeds of Crotolariu (Jhunjhunia). o These weed seeds of Jhunjhunia contaminate the millet seeds Panicum ',Ware (locally k/a Gondhli) o Endemic ascites presented in Sarguja dis... | |
Gandy gamma body is typically seen in chronic venous congestion of which of the following?: (A) Lung, (B) Spleen, (C) Kidney, (D) Liver | Answer is B. Gamna-Gandy bodies in chronic venous congestion (CVC) of the spleen is characterized by calcific deposits admixed with haemosiderin on fibrous tissue. |
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