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Drug of choice in pneumonia caused by P. carinii is :: (A) Penicillin, (B) Cotrimoxazole, (C) Kanamycin, (D) Levofloxacin | Answer is B. None | |
Which anomaly is seen in following clinical condition?: (A) Dental fusion, (B) Gemination, (C) Concrescence, (D) Supernumerary teeth | Answer is A. None | |
A patient is passing stones recurrently in urine for past few years. All are due to be restrlcted in diet except-: (A) Protein restriction, (B) Calcium restriction, (C) Salt restricted diet, (D) Phosphate restriction | Answer is B. The inverse relationship between low dietary calcium intake and an increase in stone formation is likely due to a secondary increase in urinary oxalate. While urinary calcium levels decreased in both groups, urinary oxalate levels increased in men on the low calcium diet and decreased in men on the normal ... | |
Cholestasis may lead to the following complications except -: (A) Intrauterine fetal death, (B) Meconium stained liquor, (C) Preterm labour, (D) Neonatal jaundice | Answer is D. Ans-D | |
Not a cause of objective tinnitus ?: (A) Palatal myoclonus, (B) Glomus tumor, (C) Carotid aery aneurysm, (D) Presbyacusis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Presbyacusis Tinnitus Tinnitus is ringing sound or noise in the ear. The characteristic feature is that the origin of this sound is within the patient. | |
The following are true about benign paroxysmal positional vertigo except -: (A) Fatigability, (B) Good reproducibility, (C) Habituation, (D) Latency | Answer is B. None | |
Hexose sugar is not present in:: (A) Ribose, (B) Glucose, (C) Fructose, (D) Galactose | Answer is A. Hexose sugar is present in:Glucose, "blood sugar", the immediate source of energy for cellular respirationGalactose, a sugar in milk (and yogu), andFructose, a sugar found in honeyRibose is a pentose sugar | |
EAC rosette formation is the property of one of the following type of immune cells -: (A) T cells, (B) B cells, (C) Macrophages, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Erythrocyte antibody complement rosetting (EAC-rosetting), occurs when the antibody in the presence of complement is bound to the surface of a red blood cell. The complement binds to the tail region (Fc region) of the antibody. Finally, T-cells with a complement receptor are added and the T-cells bind to t... | |
Which of the following tumor is most commonly associated with superior vena cava syndrome:: (A) Lymphoma, (B) Small cell carcinoma, (C) Non small cell carcinoma, (D) Metastasis | Answer is B. Answer is B (Small cell carcinoma): Current Critical Care Diagnosis & Treatment 3ra /465 The incidence of superior vena caval syndrome is highest with small cell carcinoma. Superior vena caval syndrome (SVC syndrome) SVC syndrome results from an impedance in outflow from superior vena cava due to external ... | |
Hemosiderin contains -: (A) Calcium, (B) Iron, (C) Magnesium, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Iron Hemosiderino It is hemoglobin derived, golden yellow to brown, granular or crystalline pigment in which form iron is stored in cells. When there is local or systemic excess of iron, ferritin forms hemosiderin granules. Thus hemosiderin pigment represents aggregrates of ferritin micel... | |
All the following are features of pseudotumor cerebri except -: (A) Normal-sized ventricles on CT scan, (B) Increased protein in CSF, (C) Papilledema, (D) Absence of focal neurological deficit | Answer is B. None | |
Blanket consent is consent taken: NEET 14: (A) When the patient comes to doctor for treatment, (B) Orally when given during any procedure, (C) Implied by gesture, (D) At the time of admission to do any surgery | Answer is D. Ans. At the time of admission to do any surgery | |
The early changes in coicosteroid-induced cataract are in the form of:: (A) Central posterior subcapsular lens changes, (B) Anterior coical lens changes, (C) Nuclear changes, (D) Diffuse lens changes | Answer is A. Ans. Central posterior subcapsular lens changes | |
Anthracosis is caused by -: (A) Silica, (B) Iron, (C) Coal dust, (D) Cotton dust | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Coal dust * Anthracosis- Coal dust* Silicosis- Silica* Siderosis- Iron* Byssinosis- Cotton dust (textile industry)* Farmer's lung- Hay or grain dust (micropolyspora faeni)* Sequousis- Moldy red wood saw dust* Suberosis- Moldy cork dust* Detergent workers lung- Enzyme additives* Baggassosi... | |
What is common in amalgam and ceramics?: (A) More compressive strength but less tensile strength, (B) More compressive strength and tensile strength, (C) Less compressive strength but more tensile strength, (D) Less compressive strength and tensile strength | Answer is A. None | |
Pseudocholinesterase is synthesized by: (A) Liver, (B) Plasma, (C) Muscle end plate, (D) Nerve ending | Answer is A. Pseudocholinesterase which metabolizes succinylcholine is synthesized by liver and is present in plasma. True cholinesterase which metabolizes acetylcholine is synthesized by muscle end plate. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | |
Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone is:: (A) Pons, (B) Lateral hypothalamus, (C) Ventral hypothalamus, (D) Area postrema | Answer is D. Area postrema | |
Parenteral nutrition is not used in:: (A) Enterocutaneous fistula, (B) Burns, (C) Crohn's disease, (D) Pancreatitis | Answer is D. Ans is d i.e. Pancreatitis | |
The most common side effect of IUD inseion is-: (A) Bleeding, (B) Pain, (C) Pelvic infection, (D) Ectopic pregnancy | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bleeding | |
The difference between a typical cervical and thoracic veebrae is, which of the following:: (A) Has a triangular body, (B) Has a foramen transversarium, (C) Superior aicular facet directed backwards & upwards, (D) Has a large veebral body | Answer is B. The transverse process of cervical veebrae is pierced by a foramen called foramen transversarium. It is not seen in thoracic and lumbar veebrae.Ref: Human Anatomy, B D Chaurasia, 4th Edition, Volume 3, Chapter 1, Page 40, 41; Textbook of Anatomy with Colour Atlas, Inderbir Singh, 4th Edition, Chapter 6, Pa... | |
A person with defective blue color appreciation is called ?: (A) Deuteranomalous, (B) Deuteranopia, (C) Tritanopia, (D) Tritanomalous | Answer is D. Ans. is `d' i.e., Tritanomalous | |
MC side effect of lithium: March 2003: (A) Polyuria, (B) Fine tremors, (C) Polydipsia, (D) Weight gain | Answer is B. Ans. B i.e. Fine tremors | |
Which of the following is not an ophthalmic emergency:: (A) Macular hole, (B) Retinal Detachment, (C) CRAO, (D) Acute primary angle closure glaucoma | Answer is A. Ans. Macular hole | |
An 5 year old male patient complains of multiple decayed teeth and has a history of frequent snacking and consumption of sugar containing beverages. Intraoral examination shows multiple interproximal carious lesions. Which of the following caries management protocol is not suitable for this child?: (A) Recall after 3 m... | Answer is C. Caries-Risk Assessment Form for Children 6 Years Old or Younger | |
Most common presenting feature of adult hypopituitarism is: (A) Hypothyroidism, (B) Hypogonadism, (C) Addison’s disease, (D) Hyperprolactinemia | Answer is B. In adults decreased pituitary function is first shown by hypogonadism. | |
Which of following is/are not the feature of Henoch?Schonlein Purpura (HSP): (A) Abdominal pain, (B) Splinter haemorrhage, (C) Thrombocytopenia, (D) Epistaxis | Answer is C. C. i.e. Thrombocytopenia | |
A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6 -- bisphosphates in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6 -- bi-phosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except:: (A) Level of fructose 1,6--biphosphate is higher than normal, (B) Level of fructose 1,6 -- biphosphate is lower th... | Answer is A. Ans. A. Level of fructose 1,6--biphosphate is higher than normalFructose 2,6 - biphosphate acts to decrease the activity of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphates. When the enzyme becomes less sensitive to regulation, the inhibitory effect is lost and the enzyme activity increases. The following effects are observed... | |
Which point in the below natural history of disease marks the onset of symptoms?: (A) A, (B) B, (C) C, (D) D | Answer is C. (c) C* Point A marks the entry of infectious agent into the host* Point B marks the subclinical phase where symptoms and signs are not visible, but the disease agent induces tissue and physiological changes* Point C marks the Clinical horizon when symptoms and signs appear* Point D is present inside the Cl... | |
Pulmonary embolism is caused due to: (A) Deep vein thrombosis of leg, (B) Increase in pulmonary tension, (C) Fracture of pelvic region, (D) Heart disease | Answer is A. None | |
Verocay bodies are seen in: (A) Memingioma, (B) Hemangioma, (C) Glioma, (D) Shwannoma | Answer is D. Schwannoma are well circumscribed encapsulated masses that abut the associated nerve without invading it | |
The fibers of the coicospinal tract pass through which structure?: (A) Medial lemniscus, (B) Medullary pyramid, (C) Posterior funiculus, (D) Medial longitudinal fasciculus | Answer is B. Coicospinal fibers pass through the Medullary Pyramid Extra edge Tracts Function Lateral coicospinal and rubrospinal tracts Control distal limb muscles for fine motor and skilled voluntary movements. Anteriorcoicospinal tract and tectospinal, reticulospinal, and vestibulospinal tracts Control the postural ... | |
Which of the following is the "Least common" complication of measles -: (A) Diarrhoea, (B) Pneumonia, (C) Otitis media, (D) SSPE | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., SSPE o Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare complication of measles, which develops many years after the initial infection - PSM | |
Which of the following facilitates comparison between different radiations?: (A) Rad, (B) Rem, (C) Quality factor exposure, (D) Roentgen | Answer is B. EQUIVALENT (RADIATION-WEIGHTED) DOSE:
The equivalent dose (HT) is used to compare the biologic effects of different types of radiation on a tissue or organ. Particulate types of radiation have a high LET and are more damaging to tissue than radiation with low LET, such as x rays. This relative biologic eff... | |
Myocarditis is caused bya) Pertussisb) Measlesc) Diptheriad) Scorpion sting: (A) bc, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) ad | Answer is A. None | |
Mean head circumference at birth is: (A) 48-51 cm, (B) 38-40 cm, (C) 42-45 cm, (D) 33-35 cm | Answer is D. Head circumference:-
Measured with a nonstretchable tape passing through the maximum point of occipital protuberance posteriorly and at a point just above the glabella anteriorly.
Head circumference must be compared with that of mother to know any familial variations.
If the head circumference is more t... | |
All of the following are potassium sparing diuretics except :: (A) Triamterene, (B) Spironolactone, (C) Amiloride, (D) Indapamide | Answer is D. None | |
A farmer presents with pustules, which show Gram Positive Cocci on smear. Culture shows Beta hemolysis, and organisms are Catalase negative. To show that the identified organism is group A streptococci, which of the following test should be done?: (A) Bacitracin sensitivity, (B) Optochm sensitivity, (C) Novobiocin sens... | Answer is A. Streptococci are catalase negative and beta hemolytic. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci can be differentiated from other beta hemolytic streptococci by bacitracin sensitivity. Streptococcus pyogenes is bacitracin sensitive whereas streptococcus agalactiae is bacitracin resistant. Both are beta hemolytic... | |
Which of the following is not seen in haemolytic anemia?: (A) Hemosiderosis, (B) Hemochromatosis, (C) Cholelithiasis, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Ceain changes are seen in hemolytic anemias regardless of cause or type. Anemia and lowered tissue oxygen tension trigger the production of erythropoietin, which stimulates erythroid differentiation and leads to the appearance of increased numbers of erythroid precursors (normoblasts) in the marrow. Compen... | |
Which of the following propeies make pyridostigmine different from neostigmine: (A) It is more potent, (B) It is longer acting, (C) It produces less muscarinic side effects, (D) It does not have any direct action on NM receptor | Answer is B. Ref-KDT 7/e p108 Pyridostigmine acts for 3 to 6 hours as compared to 0.5 to 2 hourshours dur of action of neostigmine. It is less impoant than neostigmine Rest of the propeies are similar to neostigmine | |
All the following are features of Cardiac muscle Except: (A) Striated, (B) Large T tubules, (C) Troponin system present, (D) Caldesmon is impoant regulatory protein | Answer is D. Some Differences among Skeletal, Cardiac, and Smooth MuscleNoSkeletal MuscleCardiac MuscleSmooth Muscle1StriatedStriatedNonstriated2No syncytiumSyncytialSyncytial3Small T tubulesLarge T tubulesGenerally rudimentary T tubules4Sarcoplasmic reticulum well developed andCa2+ pump acts rapidlySarcoplasmic reticu... | |
All correlates with USG findings of congenital pyloric stenosis except:: (A) > 95% accuracy, (B) Segment length >16mm, (C) Thickness >4mm, (D) High gastric residues | Answer is D. D i.e. High gastric residuesUltrasonography is the investigation of choice to confirm diagnose of hyperophic pyloric stenosis with accuracy > 95% (approching almost 100%)Q. USG visualizes thickened and elongated pyloric canalQ. USG criteria for diagnosis include >16 mm pyloric length and >4mm pyloric muscl... | |
All of the following are true about multiple myeloma except -: (A) Osteolytic bone disease, (B) (18-14) translocation, (C) Light chain proliferation, (D) Bence-Jones proteins in urine | Answer is B. The chromosomal alterations in multiple myeloma include translocations in t(11;14) & t(4;14) & deletion of 13q.Reference : Harsh mohan textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 381. | |
Drug of choice for obsessive - compulsive neurosis is :: (A) Imipramine, (B) CPZ, (C) Carbamazapine, (D) Clomipramine | Answer is D. SSRIs are the drugs of choice for OCD. However, amongst the given options no drug is SSRI. Amongst the tricyclic antidepressants, clomipramine is the DOC. | |
What is diagnostic of fresh myocardial infarction In ECG-: (A) QT interval prolongation, (B) Pmitrale, (C) ST segment elevation, (D) ST segment depression | Answer is C. Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:184 ECG * May be normal initially and hence serial ECGs must be taken. * ST elevation and T-wave inversion with pathological Q-waves are typically seen in leads adjacent to the infarcted segment of myocardium. * Reciprocal ST depression or T... | |
Major hormone secreted by zona reticularis of adrenal coex ?: (A) Glucocoicoids, (B) Mineralcoicoids, (C) Aldosterone, (D) Androgens | Answer is D. Ans. is `d i.e., AndrogensThe adrenal coex is divided into three zones (outer to inner) : Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis.All three coical zones secrete coicosterone, but the active enzymatic mechanism for aldosterone biosynthesis is limited to the zona glomerulosa whereas the enzym... | |
Which drug used in bronchial asthma needs monitoring-: (A) Theophylline, (B) Cromoglycate, (C) Salmeterol, (D) Terbutaline | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Theophylline o Theophylline has low safety margin and therefore requires therepeutic drug monitoring. | |
The most common extranodal site for non-hodgkin lymphoma is: (A) Stomach, (B) Brain, (C) Intestine, (D) Tonsils | Answer is A. *Lymphomas are divided broadly into Hodgkins and Non-Hodgkin&;s lymphomas. *Two-thirds of Non-Hodgkin&;s lymphoma present as generalized lymphadenopathy(Nodal sites).*One third of the cases present at an extranodal site. *Extra nodal sites include the gastrointestinal tract, upper aerodigestive tract, sali... | |
Basic defect in HbS is -: (A) Altered function, (B) Altered solubility, (C) Altered stability, (D) Altered O2 binding capacity | Answer is B. None | |
Blindness in child is most commonly due to: (A) Keratomalacia, (B) Congenital cataract, (C) Glaucoma, (D) Injuries | Answer is A. Most common cause of childhood blindness is vitamin A deficiency Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 382 | |
Bleuler's symptoms for schizophrenia are all except: (A) Loosening of association, (B) Affect disturbances, (C) Autism, (D) Hallucinations | Answer is D. Eugen Bleuler's Fundamental Symptoms of Schizophrenia (Also called as 4 A's of Bleuler) 1. Ambivalence: Marked inability to decide for or against 2. Autism: Withdrawal into self 3. Affect disturbances: Disturbances of affect such as inappropriate affect 4. Association disturbances: Loosening of association... | |
Stage of contraction of family stas at: (A) Bih of first child, (B) Bih of last child, (C) Leaving home of first child, (D) Marriage | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Leaving home of first child | |
Phelp's sign is seen in:: (A) Glomus jugulare, (B) Vestibular Schawannoma, (C) Maniere's disease, (D) Neurofibromatosis | Answer is A. Phelp's sign Phelp sign This sign is seen on CT scan In CT- in case of glomus jugulare tumor the normal crest between the carotid canal and jugulare tumor is absent whereas it is not so in case of glomus tympanicum | |
Fastest acting receptor/transduction mechanism is: (A) Adenylyl cyclase-cyclic AMP pathway, (B) Phospholipase C-IP3:DAG pathway, (C) Intrinsic ion channel operation, (D) Nuclear receptor | Answer is C. Ref-KDT 6/e p40 Drugs acting and ionotropic receptor are fast acting where as those acting through nuclear receptors are slowest in action | |
A boy comes from Bihar with non-anesthetic hypopigmented atropic patch over face, diagonosis is: (A) P. alba, (B) P. versicolour, (C) Indeterminate leprosy, (D) Borderline leprosy | Answer is C. C i.e. Indeterminate leprosy Points in our of diagnosing indeterminate leprosy: - Epidermal atrophyQ Non scaly & AnesthesiaQ (if present) Resident of high leprosy prevelence state? (Bihar) | |
Which structure is not transmitted by foramen ovale?: (A) Middle meningeal artery, (B) Accessory meningeal artery, (C) Lesser petrosal nerve, (D) Emissary vein | Answer is A. Ans. A Middle meningeal arteryRef: Netter's Clinical Anatomy, 3rd ed. pg. 460Structures transmitted via foramen ovale (M.A.L.E.)* Mandibular nerve-V3* Accessory meningeal artery* Lesser petrosal nerve* Emissary veinExtra edgeForamen rotundumMaxillary nerve V2Foramen LacerumInternal carotid arteryLesser pet... | |
A mother has been diagnosed with chicken pox. She delivered 7 days ago a term infant that appears to be healthy. The baby is afebrile. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in management?: (A) Advise the mother to continue regular baby care, (B) Hospitalize the infant in the isolation ward, (C) Administer... | Answer is A. If a normal full-term newborn is exposed to chickenpox 2 or more days after delivery, VZIG and isolation are not necessary because these babies appear to be at no risk for complications. VZIG should be given to the infant immediately after delivery if the mother had the onset of varicella within 5 days pri... | |
Which of the following is not carried in dorsal column of spinal cord:March 2011: (A) Proprioception, (B) Vibratory sense, (C) Heat sensation, (D) Touch | Answer is C. Ans. C: Heat sensationLateral spinothalamic tract carries fibers of all type of pain and temperature impulses (both hot and cold)Spinothalamic tractIt transmits information to the thalamus about pain, temperature, itch and crude touch.The pathway decussates at the level of the spinal cord, rather than in t... | |
Homonymous hemianopia may be seen in lesion of all of the following, EXCEPT:: (A) Optic chiasma, (B) Optic tract, (C) Optic radiation, (D) Occipital lobe | Answer is A. Lesion of the optic chiasma result in bitemporal hemianopia not homonymous hemianopia. Lesions of the visual pathway and corresponding field defects: Lesion of optic nerve: Ipsilateral blindness Lesion through proximal pa of optic nerve: Ipsilateral blindness with contralateral quadrantanopia. Lesion of op... | |
Age related dementia has been associated with increased levels of: (A) Homocysteine, (B) Cysteine, (C) Tourine, (D) Methionine | Answer is A. Identification of modifiable risk factors provides a crucial approach to the prevention of dementia.. The findings are consistent with moderately raised plasma total homocysteine (>11 mmol/L), which is common in the elderly, being one of the causes of age-related cognitive decline and dementia Ref Harrison... | |
All are true regarding brachial plexus injury, except:: (A) Preganglionic lesions have a better prognosis than postganglionic lesions, (B) Erb's palsy causes paralysis of the abductors and external rotators of the shoulder, (C) In Klumpke's palsy, Horner's syndrome may be present on the ipsilateral side, (D) Histamine ... | Answer is A. Preganglionic lesions have a poor prognosis as these do not recover and are surgically irreparable. Postganglionic lesions have better prognosis than preganglionic lesions and histamine test is useful in making the distinction | |
Harpender's Callipers are used to;: (A) Measure skin fold thickness, (B) Measure mid arm circumference, (C) Measure height, (D) Measure chest circumference | Answer is A. Ans. A. Measure Skin fold thicknessSkin fold thickness is an indication of the subcutaneous fat. Triceps skin fold thickness is the most representative of the total subcutaneous fat upto 16 years of age. It is usually above 10mm in normal children whereas in severely malnourished children it may fall below... | |
Fracture of necessity is used to describe -: (A) Cottons fracture, (B) Galeazzi fracture, (C) Monteggia fracture, (D) Rolando fracture | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Galleazzi fracture * "Closed reduction is usually not successful due to the deforming forces of the muscles. Hence, open reduction and internal fixation is the preferred method of treatment. Campbell noted this in 1941 and termed Galeazzi fracture as "Fracture of necessity". | |
Aerobic oxidation of reduced cytochromes shows P/O ratio of: (A) 4, (B) 3, (C) 2, (D) 1 | Answer is B. ADP:O or P:O Ratio: The NAD-dependant dehydrogenases such as malate, pyruvate, a-ketoglutarate, isocitrate, etc. produce three high energy phosphate bonds for each pair of electrons transferred to O2 because they have P: O ratio of 3. Thus P: O ratio is a measure of how many moles of ATP are formed from AD... | |
Glycine is useful in all of the following except: (A) Purine synthesis, (B) Creatine synthesis, (C) Spermine synthesis, (D) Heme synthesis | Answer is C. Spermine is a type of polyamine.This is aliphatic amine and it is synthesized from ornithine. Key enzyme is ornithine decarboxylase. REFERENCE : DM.VASUDEVAN.TEXTBOOK; SEVENTH EDITION ; PAGE NO : 229 | |
A couple presents to a clinic for work-up of infeility after 5 years of unprotected intercourse. The wife denies any medical problems and notes regular menstrual cycles. The husband states that he has had chronic sinusitis and lower respiratory tract infections. Physical examination of the woman is unremarkable. Examin... | Answer is C. The husband is suffering from Kaagener's syndrome, an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by infeility, situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis. The underlying cause of these varied manifestations are defects in the dynein arms, spokes of microtubule doublets of cilia in the airways an... | |
Most common diaphragmatic hernia in children is:: (A) Through the foramen of Bochdalek, (B) Through the foramen of Morgagni, (C) Traumatic rupture of the diaphragm, (D) Eventration of the diapliragm | Answer is A. (Through the f oramen of Bochdalek): Ref: 873 - LB (894-B & L 25th)Hernia through the foramen of Bochdolek - (Posterolateral) This is rarely the persistence of the pleuroperitoneal canal and the opening is in the dome of the diaphragm posteriorly* It is the most common diaphragmatic hernia in children* TRI... | |
A 25 year old male presents to emergency dept. following a road traffic accident. On examination there is pelvic fracture and blood at urethral meatus. Following are true about pt except -: (A) Anterior urethra is the most likely site of injury, (B) Retrograde urethrography should be done after the pt is stabilized., (... | Answer is A. Ans is (a) anterior urethra is most likely the site of injury The pa of urethra most likely injured in pelvic fracture is membranous urethra (a pa of post. urethra) - Post. Urethra includes -- Prostatic + membranous urethra - Anterior urethra includes -- Bulbar + penile urethra The anterior urethra (paiula... | |
Loss of foot processes of podocytes is characteristically seen in?: (A) Good pasture syndrome, (B) Lipoid nephrosis, (C) PSGN, (D) Lupus nephritis | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lipoid nephrosis * Effacement (loss) of foot process of perietal epithelial cells (podocytes) is most commonly noted in minimal change disease (lipoid nephrosis).* However, it may be seen other causes of nephrotic syndrome like membronous GN, FSGS, IgA nephropathy (a type of mesangioproli... | |
A codon codes for a single amino acid. This characteristic is called ?: (A) Non-overlapping, (B) Unambiguous, (C) Non-punctate, (D) Degeneracy | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Unambiguous Characteristics of genetic codes Genetic codes have following characteristics ? 1) Universal :- Each codon specifically codes for same amino acid in all species, e.g. UCA codes for serine and CCA codes for proline in all organisms. That means specificity of codon has been cons... | |
Vaccine associated paralytic polio is due to: (A) Polio virus type 1, (B) Polio virus type 2, (C) Polio virus type 3, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. VAPP - Vaccine associated paralytic polio is due to polio virus type 3
VDPV - Vaccine derived poliovirus is due to poliovirus type 2. | |
Population control can be best achieved by: (A) Education, (B) Spacing between pregnancies, (C) Early sterilization, (D) Nutrition | Answer is B. None | |
Time period between entry of organism to body to maximum infectivity is -: (A) Lead time, (B) Median incubation period, (C) Generation time, (D) Serial inverval | Answer is C. Ans is 'c' i.e., Generation time * Generation time - Period from receipt of infection to maximal infectivity.* Serial interval - Gap between onset of primary case and secondary case. | |
False about syphilis is :: (A) Incubation period is 9-90 days, (B) Secondary syphilis is due to hematological dissemination, (C) Syphilitic ulcers(Chancre) are extremely painful, (D) "General paresis of Insane" is due to CNS involvement in tertiary syphilis. | Answer is C. Syphilitic ulcers(Chancre) are usually single in number, butter like, hard in consistency and typically painless. | |
EB Virus is associated with which carcinoma:: (A) Carcinoma of larynx, (B) Carcinoma of bladder, (C) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, (D) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia | Answer is C. None | |
A 20 year old is found to have blood pressures of 134/82 and 136/83 on two separate occasions. He will be classified as:: (A) Normotensive, (B) High normal BP, (C) Stage 1 hypeension, (D) Stage 2 hypeension | Answer is B. When systolic and diastolic blood pressures fall in different categories, the higher category is taken to classify the individual's blood pressure. Classification of blood pressure measurements: Category Systolic BP Diastolic BP Normal <130 <85 High normal 130-139 85-90 Stage 1 hypeension 140-159 90-99 Sta... | |
Mitochondria of a sperm is seen in ?: (A) Head, (B) Neck, (C) Body, (D) Tail | Answer is C. Mitochondrial granules are seen enveloping the spiral threads around the axial filament present in the body of the sperm. Sperm: The human sperm possesses a head, a neck, a connecting piece or body, and a tail.Head is oval or elliptical, but flattened,its anterior two-thirds are covered by a layer of modif... | |
Increase in cytosolic calcium from intracellular storage, during smooth muscle contraction is/are due to: (PGI Dec 2008): (A) CAMP, (B) CGMP, (C) CCMP, (D) 1P.-DAG | Answer is D. Ans : D (IP3-DAG) & E (Ca2+ channel) Source of Calcium Ions & in Smooth Muscle Contraction Mechanism InvolvedAlmost all the calcium ions that cause contraction enter the muscle cell from the extracellular fluid at the time of action potential or other stimulusSarcoplasmic reticulum (the source of intracell... | |
Reactivation tuberculosis is almost excusively a disease of the -: (A) Lungs, (B) Bones, (C) Joints, (D) Brain | Answer is A. Secondary TB is due to reactivation and involves Lung particularly the apical and posterior segments of upper lobe. | |
Whcih vesiculobullous diseaes is associated with enteropathy?: (A) Pemphigus, (B) Linear IgA dermatosis, (C) Chronic bullous disease of childhood, (D) Dermatitis herpetiformis | Answer is D. Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune blistering disease that is strongly associated with coeliac disease. Almsot all patient with dermatitis herpetiformis have evidence of villous atrophy on Intestinal biopsy, even if they have no gastrointestinal symptoms. Reference : Davidson, 23rd Edition, page no ... | |
All are reversible injury of cell, except -: (A) Vacuole, (B) Karyorrhexis, (C) Fat accumulation, (D) Cell wall swelling | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Karyorrhexis | |
Pyramids are formed by: (A) Arcuate nucleus, (B) Vestibular nuclei, (C) Interstitial cells of cajal, (D) Lateral coicospinal tract | Answer is D. The pyramidal tracts include both the coicospinal and coicobulbar tracts. These are aggregations of upper motor neuron nerve fibres that travel from the cerebral coex and terminate either in the brainstem (coicobulbar) or spinal cord (coicospinal) and are involved in control of motor functions of the body.... | |
In which one of the following type of hernia do the abdominal viscera from a pa of the wall of hernial sac?: (A) Pantaloon hernia, (B) Sliding hernia, (C) Richter's hernia, (D) Indirect inguinal hernia | Answer is B. As a result of slipping of the posterior parietal peritoneum on the underlying retroperitioneal structures, the posterior wall of the sac in sliding hernia is not formed by peritoneum alone, but by the sigmoid colon and its mesentery on the left, the accident), is called magical thinking. This type of reas... | |
Most malignant form of NHL is -: (A) Diffuse large cell, (B) Small cell lymphocytic lymphoma, (C) Follicular cleavage, (D) Large cell follicular | Answer is A. None | |
A 16-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea comes to OPD with bilateral inguinal swelling. She has normal breast development with no pubic hair. USG shows absent uterus. The diagnosis is:: (A) Androgen insensitivity syndrome, (B) Turner syndrome, (C) Mullerian agenesis, (D) Klinefelters Syndrome | Answer is A. Testicular feminization syndrome (androgen insensitivity syndrome): XY karyotype with a female phenotype androgens are present but do not act at a peripheral level due to a receptor defect. the embryological development, which is dependent on androgens in a male fetus, does not happen and hence by default ... | |
Cause of vasodilation in spider nevi: (A) Testosterone, (B) Estrogen, (C) FSH, (D) Hepatotoxin | Answer is B. B i.e. EstrogenIn chronic liver disease (especially cirrhosis) and pregnancy, impaired estrogen metabolism and consequent hyper estroenemiaQ leads to spider angiomata/nevi (superficial, toous aerioles, that unlike simple telangiectases, typically fill from the center outwards and occur invariably on upper ... | |
A 2 year old man presents with superficial gash on his forehead. The wound is bleeding profusely, but examination reveals no fracture. The physician suspects a hypersensitive cardiac reflex. The patient's epicranial aponeurosis (galea aponeurotica) is penetrated, resulting in severe gaping of the wound. The structure o... | Answer is A. A layer containing blood vessels * A mnemonic device for remembering the order in which the soft tissues overlie the cranium is SCALP: Skin, Connective tissue, Aponeurosis, Loose connective tissue, and Periosteum. * The scalp proper is composed of the outer three layers, of which the connective tissue cont... | |
On 5th postoperative day after laparoscopic cholecystectomy, a 50 years old lady presented with . upper quadrant pain with fever and 12 cm subhepatic collection on CT and ERCP shows cystic duct leak. The best management is -: (A) Immediate laparotomy, (B) Percutaneous drainage of fluid, (C) Laparotomy and surgical expl... | Answer is B. Ans : (b) i.e. percutaneous drainage of fluid | |
Hardest bone of the body is?: (A) Head of humerus, (B) Calcaneum, (C) Tibial condyle, (D) Osseus labyrinth | Answer is D. Ans. D Osseus labyrinthRef: Gray's Anatomy, 41st ed. pg. 644* Osseous labyrinth is considered as hardest bone of the body. It is embedded in petrous part of temporal bone, which is also known as "rock bone".* American edition of British encyclopedia states: "The labyrinth of the ear is formed of cochlea, 3... | |
Attempts to quantitate clinical conditions on a graduated scale, thereby facilitating comparison among populations examined by the same criteria and methods is:: (A) Indices, (B) Survey, (C) Biostatistics, (D) Analysis | Answer is A. "A numerical value describing the relative status of a population on a graduated scale with definite upper and lower limits, which is designed to permit and facilitate comparison with other populations classified by the same criteria and methods". - Russell A.L.
"Epidemiologic indices are attempts to quan... | |
All of the following are habbit disorders, except:: (A) Thumb sucking, (B) Tics, (C) Temper tantrums, (D) Nail biting | Answer is B. Tics are rapid and reccurent moments for brief duration and it is not included under habbit disorders. | |
Incidence of TB in a community is measured by: (A) Sputum positive, (B) Tuberculin test positive, (C) Sputum culture positive, (D) Mantoux test positive | Answer is A. Epidemiological indices of TB Incidence of TB infection (Annual infection rate, Annual risk of infection - ARI) : percentage if population understudy who will be newly infected with TB among Non-infected in 1 year Express attacking force of TB in community In developing countries 1% ARI corresponds to : 50... | |
Treatment of choice for endocervical polyp is: (A) Vaginal hysterectomy, (B) Conisation, (C) Polypectomy, (D) Radiotherapy | Answer is C. Polyp is categorized and defined by ultrasound, saline sonography, hysteroscopy with or without histopathology It is treated by polypectomy Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 132. | |
A standard normal distribution has: (A) A mean of 1 and a standard deviation of 1, (B) A mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1, (C) A mean larger than its standard deviation, (D) All scores within one standard deviation of the mean | Answer is B. (B) A mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1# STANDARD NORMAL DISTRIBUTION is defined as a normal distribution with a mean of 0 & a standard deviation of 1.> Normal (or Gaussian) distribution is a very commonly occurring continuous probability distribution--a function that tells the probability that any r... | |
All the following will appear caries in an X-ray except: (A) Acrylic resin, (B) Calcium hydroxide, (C) ZOE, (D) Composite | Answer is C. None | |
When gases flow through an orifice which factor is least likely to affect turbulence: (A) Density of gas, (B) Viscosity of gas, (C) Pressure of gas, (D) Diameter of orifice | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Pressure of gas(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.629)Whether the air flow is laminar or turbulent is determined by Reynolds numberReynolds number =rDV/eWhere,r-Density of the gasD-Diameter of the airwaysV -Velocity of gase -Viscosity of gasPressure of gas is not in the formula for Reynolds number | |
In all of the following sympathectomy is effective except: (A) Intermittent claudication, (B) Hyperhydrosis, (C) Raynaud's disease, (D) Causalgia | Answer is A. None | |
Presence of delta sign on contrast enhanced CT SCAN suggests presence of ?: (A) Lateral Sinus thrombophlebitis, (B) Cholesteatoma, (C) Cerebellar abscess, (D) Mastoiditis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lateral Sinus thrombophlebitis LATERAL SINUS THROMBOPHLEBITIS (SIGMOID SINUS THROMBOSIS) Lateral or sigmoid sinus thrombophlebitis arises from inflammation in the adjacent mastoid. It may occur as a complication of : ? Acute coalescent mastoiditis CSOM and cholesteatoma Clinical features ... | |
Bronchogenic sequestration is seen in which lobe -: (A) Left lower lobe, (B) Right upper lobe, (C) Left middle lobe, (D) Left upper lobe | Answer is A. Bronchogenic sequestration refers to the presence of a discrete mass of lung tissue without any normal connection to the airway system.
Intralobar sequestrations are found most frequently in the posterior basal segment of the left lower lobe.
Blood supply to the sequestered area arises not from the pulmona... | |
In triage green colour indicates -: (A) Ambulatory patients, (B) Dead or moribund patients, (C) High priority treatment or transfer, (D) Medium priority or transfer | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ambulatory patients There are 4 triage categories I. Green - Minor/Ambulatory 3. Yellow - Delayed 2. Red -- Immediate 4.Black - Dead or nonsalvageable Minor (Green) they should be separated from the general group at the beginning of the triage operations ( k/a "Walking wounded" these pati... | |
Which of the following is seen in Vitamin D deficiency-: (A) Increased alkaline phosphatase, (B) Decreased phosphate in urine, (C) Hyperphosphatemia, (D) Decreased alkaline phosphatase | Answer is A. Vitamin D deficiency leads to impaired intestinal absorption of calcium, resulting in decreased serum total and ionized calcium values. This hypocalcemia results in secondary hyperparathyroidism, a homeostatic response that initially maintains serum calcium levels at the expense of the skeleton. Due to the... |
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