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FK 506 is a type of :: (A) Immunoglobulin antibody, (B) Non-depolarizing muscle relaxant, (C) Macrolide antibiotic, (D) Opioid anaesthetic | Answer is C. Tacrolimus is also known as FK-506. It is an immunosuppressant macrolide antibiotic produced by Streptomyces tsukubaensis.
Muromonab CD3 is also known as OKT3. It is a monoclonal antibody against CD3 cells. | |
Hypnagogic hallucinations are seen in: (A) Depression, (B) Mania, (C) Narcolepsy, (D) Schizophrenia | Answer is C. NarcolepsyThe classic tetrad of symptoms is:i. Sleep attacks (most common): ii. Cataplexy: iii. Hypnagogic hallucinations: iv. Sleep paralysis (least common): Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 138 | |
A baby is born with a large defect in the occipital bone through which the posterior poion of the brain has herniated. Which of the following terms best describes this lesion?: (A) Encephalocele, (B) Meningocele, (C) Myelocele, (D) Spina bifida | Answer is A. The central neurons system and its overlying bones are subject to a variety of malformations and developmental diseases. The defect described in the question stem is a cranial encephalocele, in which brain herniates through a defect in the skull bones. The most common site for such a herniation is the occi... | |
Female sex chromatin is :: (A) XX, (B) XO, (C) XY, (D) XXX | Answer is A. XX | |
Most common site of GIST is -: (A) Ileum, (B) Esophagus, (C) Colon, (D) Stomach | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Stomach Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GlSTs)o GISTs are the most common mesenchymal neoplasm of gastrointestinal tumor.o GIST represents a distinct group of gastrointestinal tumors that originate from the interstial cells of cajal which control gastrointestinal peristalsis.o GISTs can ... | |
The following statements are true about Tumor suppressor gene p53 except:: (A) It regulates cetain genes involved in cell cycle regulation, (B) Its increased levels can induce apoptosis, (C) Its activity in the cells decreases following UV irradiation and stimulates cell cycle, (D) Mutations of the p53 gene are the mos... | Answer is C. . Its activity in the cells decreases following UV irradiation and stimulates cell cycle | |
In which layer of cornea, copper is deposited to form Kayser-Fleischer ring in Wilsons disease?: (A) Bowman's layer, (B) Corneal stroma, (C) Descemet's membrane, (D) Corneal endothelium | Answer is C. Nearly all patients with neurologic involvement in Wilson disease develop eye lesions called Kayser-Fleischer rings, green to brown depositsof copper in Descemet membrane in the limbus of the cornea.Wilson disease is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation of the ATP7B gene, resulting in impaire... | |
True about autosomal dominant type of inheritance:: (A) 25% affected & 50 % carrier, if one parent affected, (B) 50% affected & 75 % carrier, if both parent affected, (C) 75% affected, if both parent affected, (D) 50% affected, if one parent affected | Answer is D. Answer- D. 50% affected, if one parent affectedAutosomal dominant disorders are manifested in the heterozygous state .Both males and females are affected.Because the alleles segregate randomly at meiosis, the probability that an offspring will be affected is 50%. | |
A microbiology laboratory repos growth of Staphylococcus aureus from pus drained from a breast abscess. What is the most likely condition predisposing the patient to the development of a breast abscess?: (A) Breast feeding, (B) Endocarditis, (C) Inflammatory breast carcinoma, (D) Menopause | Answer is A. Acute mastitis, frequently complicated by breast abscess formation, typically develops in the postpaum period, when the nipples are first subjected to the physical stresses of breast feeding. Bacteria enter the breast cracks in the nipple, and flourish in the microenvironment of the lactating breast. Acute... | |
Annexin V is associated with :: (A) Apoptosis, (B) Necrosis, (C) Aherosclerosis, (D) Inflammation | Answer is A. Apoptosis | |
Which of the following drugs have covalent interaction with its target: (A) Aspirin, (B) Penicillin, (C) Nitric oxide, (D) Basanta | Answer is A. covalent interaction means Irreversible inhibition of enzyme. Aspirin irreversibly acitylates the cox enzyme Refer kDT 6/e p185 | |
Non-pitting oedema which does not reduce on elevation of limb belongs to which grade of lymphoedema: (A) Latent, (B) Grade I, (C) Grade II, (D) Grade III | Answer is C. Brunner's grading of Lymphoedema:-
Latent = Subclinical
Grade I = Spontaneously reversible lymphoedema
Grade II = Spontaneously irreversible lymphoedema
Grade III = Irreversible skin changes like-fibrosis, fissuring in lymphoedema. | |
When there is no other source of glucose, liver and muscle glycogen would be exhausted after: (A) 12 hours, (B) 18 hours, (C) 24 hours, (D) 36 hours | Answer is B. Were there no other source of glucose, liver and muscle glycogen would be exhausted after about 18 hours of fasting. As fasting becomes more prolonged, so an increasing amount of the amino acids released as a result of protein catabolism is utilized in the liver and kidneys for gluconeogenesis. Reference: ... | |
Patient can hear music every time when he turns on the tap and hears the sound of water. This is an example of :: (A) Reflex hallucination, (B) Functional hallucination, (C) Visual hallucination, (D) 1st person auditory hallucination | Answer is B. Functional hallucination : here the stimulus and perecption are in same modality.
V/S
Reflex hallucination : here the stimulus and pereception are in different modality. | |
Which enzyme is a enzyme regulatory step in cholesterol synthesis?: (A) HMG CoA synthase, (B) HMG CoA reductase, (C) Phosphomevalonate kinase, (D) Diphosphomevalonokinase | Answer is B. Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, Eighth Edition, Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea Rana Shinde: page no: 431 | |
Which one of the following statements regarding water reabsorption in the tubules is true?: (A) The bulk of water reabsorption occurs secondary to Na+ reabsorption, (B) Majority of facultative reabsorption occurs in proximal tubule, (C) Obligatory reabsorption is ADH dependent, (D) 20% of water is always reabsorbed irr... | Answer is A. Maximum of filtered water (60-70%) is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule, with or without Vasopressin. This is independent of the fluid and electrolyte status of the body and is caused by the osmotic gradient created by Na+ reabsorption.
Obligatory water reabsorption- (Independent of ADH)- 85%
- Prox... | |
A case of suspected homicide comes to a doctor. He is supposed to inform police under section of CrPC:: (A) 37, (B) 39, (C) 174, (D) 176 | Answer is B. Ans. b. 39 `Section 39 of CrPC gives a list of offences, the information regarding which is to be mandatorily provided to the police. That is, the doctor is duty bound to provide information about these enlisted offences (in Sec 39 CrPC) to the police.' Impoant Criminal Procedure Codes (CrPC) CrPC Descript... | |
If a normal individual receives an insulin injection that lowers plasma glucose to 30 mg/dl, which of the following hormones will NOT be released?: (A) ACTH, (B) Epinephrine, (C) Growth hormone, (D) Aldosterone | Answer is D. None | |
Supratemporal lental subluxation is seen in -: (A) Weil's marchasani syndrome, (B) Marfans, (C) Hunters, (D) Homocystinuria | Answer is B. None | |
Tetanus is noticed usually in: (A) Burn cases, (B) Wounds contaminated with faecal matter, (C) Open fractures, (D) Gunshot wounds | Answer is B. B i.e. Wounds contaminated with faecal matter * Wounds containated with fecal matter & soil are most prone for tetanus developmentQ* Tetanus may develop in chronic conditions, such as skin ulcers, abscesses, and gangrene, burn, frost bite, middle ear infections. It is also associated with surgery, aboion, ... | |
Maintainence of BP according to intracranial pressure is-: (A) Cushing reflex, (B) Cushing disease, (C) Starling's reflex, (D) Gometz reflex | Answer is A. Ans. is ''a' i.e., Cushing reflex o When intracranial pressure is increased, the blood supply to RVLM neurons is compromised, and the local hypoxia and hypercapnia increase their discharge.o The resultant rise in systemic arterial pressure (Cushing reflex) tends to restore the blood flow to the medulla and... | |
True about Insulin action is:: (A) Causes neoglucogenesis, (B) Not useful for growth & development, (C) Required for transpo of glucose, aminoacid, K+ & Na+0, (D) Catabolic hormone | Answer is C. C i.e. Required for transpo of glucose, aminoacid, K+ & Na+ | |
Low dose radiotherapy is given for:: (A) Seminoma, (B) Malignant melanoma, (C) Osteosarcoma, (D) Chondrosarcoma | Answer is A. Ans. Seminoma | |
Metal on Metal articulation should be avoided in -: (A) Osteonecrosis, (B) Young female, (C) Inflammatory arthritis, (D) Revision surgery | Answer is B. Based on the articulating surfaces of the prosthesis, THR may be of the following type:-
Metal on poly: One surface is metallic (femoral side) and the other is of polyethene (on the acetabular side).
Metal on metal: Both articulating surfaces are of metal.
Ceramic on ceramic: Both articulating surfaces a... | |
A young man presents with asymptomatic macules and erythematous painless lesion over glans with generalised lymphadenopathy. Treatment of choice in this condition:: (A) Ceftriaxone, (B) Benzathine penicillin, (C) Acyclovir, (D) Fluconazole | Answer is B. Ans. b. Benzathine penicillin | |
Quality indicator of MCH services: (A) IMR, (B) MMR, (C) CMR, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., IMR o IMR is best indicator for:- i) Health status of a community. ii) Level of living. iii) Effectiveness of MCH services. o IMR is second best indicator of socioeconomic status of country (under 5 moality rate is more refined indicator for socioeconomic status). | |
Ideal cholesterol level should be below: (A) 300, (B) 220, (C) 200, (D) 350 | Answer is C. None | |
XXY klinfilter which has extra?: (A) X-chromosome, (B) Y chromosome, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., X-chromosome The major numerical disorders of chromosomes are 3 autosomal trisomies Trisomy 21 -- Down syndrome Trisomy 18 -- Edwards syndrome Trisomy 13 -- Patau syndrome Four types of sex chromosomal aneuploidies: Turner syndrome (usually 45,X) Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) 47,XXX 47,XY... | |
A 5-year-old child presents with confusion, increased salivation, lacrimation, fasciculations, miosis, tachycardia, and hypotension. Which of the following poisons can cause these manifestations?: (A) Opium, (B) Organophosphorus, (C) Dhatura, (D) Organochlorine pesticide | Answer is B. Increased salivation, lacrimation, miosis, fasciculation, tachycardia and confusion, all are seen in organophosphate poisoning. | |
Which of the following does not result in the release of nitric oxide: (A) Fenoldopam, (B) Hydralizine, (C) Nitroprusside, (D) Nitroglycerin | Answer is A. Refer katzung 11e 180-181 nitric oxide donors include Sodium nitroprusside organic nitrates nitrates Hydralazine Propofol Nebivolol | |
In which of the following infections mosquito is the main vector?: (A) Hepatitis - A, (B) Cholera, (C) Yellow fever, (D) Leprosy | Answer is C. The yellow fever virus is transmitted by the bite of female mosquitoes (the yellow fever mosquito, Aedes aegypti. After transmission of the virus from a mosquito the viruses replicate in the lymph nodes and infect dendritic cells in paicular. Hepatitis-A and Cholera are transmitted through feco-oral route.... | |
In a subclan aery block at outer border of 1st rib, all of the following aeries help in maintaining the circulation to upper limb, EXCEPT:: (A) Subscapular aery, (B) Superior thoracic aery, (C) Thyrocervical trunk, (D) Suprascapular aery | Answer is B. A rich anastomosis exists around the scapula between branches of subclan aery (first pa) and the axillary aery (third pa). This anastomosis provides a collateral circulation through which blood can flow to the limb when the distal pa of subclan aery or the proximal pa of axillary aery is blocked. Scapular ... | |
A compound serving a link between citric acid cycle and urea cycle is:: (A) Malate, (B) Citrate, (C) Succinate, (D) Fumarate | Answer is D. The fumarate formed may be funnelled into TCA cycle to be converted to malate and then to oxaloacetate to be transaminated to aspartate. Thus, the urea cycle is linked to TCA cycle through fumarate.
Reference: Vasudevan 7th ed, pg 204 | |
A 8 years boy with headache, supracellar mass, with bilateral hemianopia, showing the following MRI scan of head. What is the diagnosis: (A) Craniopharyngioma, (B) Pituitary apoplexy, (C) Nasopharyngeal fibroma, (D) Hypothalamic glioma | Answer is A. (A) Craniopharyngioma[?]Craniopharyngioma:Craniopharyngioma are pituitary gland tumor develop from the embryogenic remnants in pituitary gland.Present at any time during childhood, tumor is congenital &d arises from squamous epithelial cell rests of the embryonic Rathke's pouch.The neoplasm is usually cyst... | |
Drug of choice for schizophrenic patient with poor oral absorption is:: (A) Haloperidol, (B) Fluphenazine, (C) Clozapine, (D) Olanzapie | Answer is C. Clozapine | |
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma affects which age group: (A) Children, (B) Adolescents, (C) 3rd decade, (D) 5th decade | Answer is D. * Age:- It is mostly seen in fifth to seventh decades but may involve younger age groups. It is not uncommon to see the cancer of nasopharynx in the twenties and thiies. * Sex:-Males are three times more prone than females. (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat, P.L Dhingra, 7th edition, page 284) | |
The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as: (A) Arc technique, (B) Modulation, (C) Gating, (D) Shunting | Answer is C. Gating Respiratory gating : It is a technique in radiotherapy in which the radiation is applied during that phase of respiratory cycle in which the tumour is in the best range. This is to prevent unnecessary radiation exposure to normal structures. | |
paprika sign during debridement is crucial in management of which of the following condition?: (A) chronic osteomyelitis, (B) osteosarcoma, (C) osteoid osteoma, (D) brodie's abscess | Answer is A. paprika sign is the appearance of live bone after removal of sequestrum. Bone Debridement: * The goal of debridement is to leave healthy, ble tissue. Debridement of bone is done until punctuate bleeding is noted called the "PAPRIKA SIGN" * Copious irrigation with io to 14 L of normal saline is expected. * ... | |
Effect ot progesterone on lipids :: (A) Lowers LDL, increases HDL, (B) Lowers HDL and LDL, (C) Lowers HDL & increases LDL, (D) Increases LDL and HDL | Answer is C. Lowers HDL & increases LDL | |
In which of the following poisoning, pralidoxime is ineffective?: (A) Organophosphorus, (B) Carbaryl, (C) Both of the above, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Oximes are used to displace organophosphates from the active site of acetylcholinesterase, thus reactivating the enzyme. Pralidoxime is a specific antidote that restores acetylcholinesterase activity by regenerating phosphorylated acetylcholinesterase and appears to prevent toxicity by detoxifying the rema... | |
The earliest indicator of response after staing iron in a 6 year old girl with iron deficiency is:: (A) Increased reticulocyte count, (B) Increased hemoglobin, (C) Increased ferritin, (D) Increased serum iron | Answer is A. Following iron therapy in a child with iron deficiency anemia, initial bone marrow response is seen within 48hours. The earliest response seen is a rise in the level of reticulocyte which occur by the 2nd to 3rd day. This is followed by elevation of hemoglobin level. After the correction of the hemoglobin ... | |
The patient with oro-cutaneous hamaomatous tumours, gastrointestinal polyps, abnormalities of the breast, thyroid gland and genitourinary system is suffering from which of the following?: (A) Familial adenomatous polyposis, (B) Cowden's syndrome, (C) Peutz Jeghers' syndrome, (D) Juvenile polyposis | Answer is B. Cowden's syndrome or multiple hamaoma syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant syndrome characterised by orocutaneous hamaomatous tumours, gastrointestinal polyps, abnormalities of the breast, thyroid gland and genitourinary system. The gastrointestinal polyps are generally benign and malignant transformation... | |
Vaccine routinely given in pregnancy :: (A) Influenza, (B) Oral polio, (C) Tetanus, (D) Rabies | Answer is C. Tetanus | |
Shortest acting local anaesthetic agent is –: (A) Procaine, (B) Lidocaine, (C) Tetracaine, (D) Bupivacaine | Answer is A. Chlorprocaine is the shortest acting LA. Amongst the given options procaine is shortest acting. | |
Indication for fundoplication?: (A) GERD, (B) Gastric volvulus, (C) Diaphragmatic eventration, (D) Bockdelec's hernia | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., GERD o Fundoplication is indicated in patients of GERD in following conditions-Patients with evidence of severe esophageal injury (ulcer/stricture/barrett's).No response''relapse/incomplete resolution on medical therapy.Patients with long duration of symptoms.Patients with persistant symp... | |
Contraindications for Medical aboions are all except:: (A) Age more than 35 years, (B) Hemoglobin less than 8 gm%, (C) Undiagnosed adnexal mass, (D) Uncontrolled seizure disorder | Answer is A. Age is no contraindication for medical aboion. Contraindications for medical aboions; Hemoglobin less than 8 gm% Undiagnosed adnexal mass Uncontrolled seizure disorder Uncontrolled coagulation disorders etc | |
All of the following are true about bacillus anthrax except: (A) Plasmid is responsible for toxin production, (B) Cutaneous anthrax generally resolves spontatneously, (C) Capsular polypeptide aids virulence by inhibiting phagocytosis, (D) Toxin is a complex of two fractions | Answer is D. The anthrax toxin is encoded by a separate plasmid. It is a complex of three fractions: A)Edema factor B)Protective antigen factor and C)Lethal factor Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 249 | |
Concentration of agar used for solid agar to Inhibit Proteus swarming: (A) 1-2%, (B) 0.50%, (C) 6%, (D) 5% | Answer is C. For solid agar - 1-2%
For Semisolid agar - 0.5%
For solid agar to inhibit proteus swarming - 6% | |
Actions of cholecystokinin include which one of the following?: (A) Contraction of gall bladder, (B) Secretion of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes, (C) Increases the secretion of enterokinase, (D) All | Answer is D. FUNCTIONS: Stimulates pancreatic acinar cell enzymes secretion. Causes contraction of gallbladder. Secretion of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice. Increases enterokinase secretion | |
For anesthesiology mild systemic disease included in ASA grade-: (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 3, (D) 4 | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2 ASA GradePatient conditionASA 1Normal healthy patient (no physical or mental illness)ASA 2Mild systemic disease not limiting functional activity(mild heart disease, DM, Mild hypertension, Anemia, Old age, obesity, mild chronic bronchitis)ASA 3Severe systemic disease that limits activity... | |
A 40 year old female reports of sudden bouts of anxiety which would occur anytime and associated with sweating, palpitation, derealization, and feeling of going crazy. These episodes would last for 20 -25 minutes. So much so that she fears of having these episodes in future. All routine investigations are normal. What ... | Answer is C. Ans. C. Panic disorderPanic attack: acute intense attack of anxiety accompanied by feelings of impending doom.Symptoms during panic attack usually involve* Sudden onset of palpitations, Sweating, Trembling or shaking,* Shortness of breath, Feelings of choking, Chest pain,* Nausea/abdominal distress, Feelin... | |
Which one of the following is a stomach poison for the larvae of insects of medical importance?: (A) DDT, (B) Paris green, (C) Pyrethrum, (D) Antilarva oil | Answer is B. Insecticides are substances used to kill insects.
They are contact poisons,stomach poisons,fumigants.
Stomach poisons are those which when ingested cause death of the insects.
Examples are paris green and sodium flouride. DDT and pyrethrum are synthetic and natural contact poisons respectively.
Parks te... | |
Which of the following change occur secondary to hypercarbia?: (A) Miosis, (B) Cool extremities, (C) Bradycardia, (D) Hypeension | Answer is D. Hypercarbia from any cause increase the release of catecholamines and cause hypeension. It cause increase in HR, myocardial contractility, high systolic blood pressure, wide pulse pressure, greater cardiac output and higher pulmonary pressures. Effects of hypercarbia are: Increased respiratory drive Anxiet... | |
Vaccine preventable neonatal disease is: (A) Tuberculosis, (B) Tetanus, (C) Pertussis, (D) Measles | Answer is B. None | |
Sumatriptan exerts antimigraine action through which receptors?: (A) 5HT1D/1B, (B) 5 HT2, (C) 5HT3, (D) 5HT4 | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 5HT ID/IB * Sumatriptan is the first selective 5-HT1D/1B receptor agonist; activates other subtypes of 5-HT1 receptors only at very high concentrations, and does not interact with 5-HT2, 5-HT3, 5-HT4-7, a or b adrenergic, dopaminergic, cholinergic or GABA receptors. | |
Birth rate is -: (A) Live birth/1000 mid yr. population, (B) Birth/1000 mid yr population, (C) Live birth/10000 mid yr. population, (D) Live birth/10,000 population of reproductive age group (15-45) | Answer is A. Fertility
By fertility is meant the actual bearing of children.
A woman's reproductive period is roughly from 15 to 45 years - a period of 30 years.
Measurement of fertility are :-
Birth rate
General fertility rate (GFR)
General marital fertility rate (GMFR)
Age specific fertility rate (ASFR)
... | |
Patient with 20 weeks size uterus & vesicular mole. Treatment is:: (A) Induction of labour, (B) Methotrexate, (C) Hysterotomy, (D) Suction evacuation | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Suction evacuation * Vacuum aspiration: Suction evacuation is the treatment of choice for hydatidiform mole, regardless of uterine size. After most of the molar tissue has been removed by aspiration, oxytocin is given. After the myometrium has contracted, thorough but gentle curettage wit... | |
Influenza virus belongs to family -: (A) Picomaviridae, (B) Calciviridae, (C) Orthomyxoviridae, (D) Paramyxoviridae | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c* i.e., Orthomyxoviridae RNA VirusesPicornaviridae:Poliovirus, Coxsackievirus, Eehovirus, Enterovirus, Rhinovirus, Hepatitis A virusCalicivtridae: Norwalk virus. Hepatitis E virusTogaviridae: Rubella virus, Eastern equine encephalitis virus, Western equine encephalitis virusFlaviviridae: Yellow f... | |
Diabetic neuropathy is a:: (A) Distal symmetric sensory polyneuropathy, (B) Mononeuritis, (C) Autonomic neuropathy, (D) All above | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) All aboveREF: Harrison 16th ed page 2165'Diabetic neuropathy occurs in 50% of individuals with long-standing type 1 and type 2 DM. It may manifest as polyneuropathy, mononeuropathy, and/or autonomic neuropathy""Most common form of diabetic neuropathy is distal symmetric polyneuropathy. It most ... | |
Vitamin K is required for: (A) Hydroxylation, (B) Chelation, (C) Transamination, (D) Carboxylation | Answer is D. Carboxylation The only known biological role of vitamin K is as a cofactor for an enzyme carboxylase that catalyzes carboxylation of glutamic acid residues on vitamin K-dependent proteins. The key vitamin K-dependent proteins include: Coagulation proteins: factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX and X Anticoagul... | |
Which of the following most often causes cholestatic jaundice:: (A) INH, (B) Erythromycin estolate, (C) Pyrazinamide, (D) Ethionamide | Answer is B. Erythromycin estolate | |
Commonest cause of loss of vision in non- proliferative diabetic retinopathy is –: (A) Vitreous heamorrhage, (B) Macular edema, (C) Detachment of retina, (D) Subretinal haemorrhage | Answer is B. Macular edema is the most common cause of loss of vision in NPDR. | |
"Telescope fingers" occur in: (A) Rheumatic ahritis, (B) Rheumatoid ahritis, (C) Psoriatic ahritis, (D) Reiter's ahritis | Answer is C. Ahritis mutilans (A feature of psoriatic ahritis) This is a deforming erosive ahritis targeting the fingers and toes; it occurs in 5% of cases of PsA. Prominent cailage and bone destruction results in marked instability. The encasing skin appears invaginated and 'telescoped' ('main en lorgnette') and the f... | |
Vasanti, a 25-year-old-girl, presents with complaints of fever and weakness. On examination there is splenomegaly of 3 cm below the costal margin.Hb is 8 gm/dL, TLC is 3,000/mm3 , platelet count is 80,000 mm3. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis -: (A) Acute lymphocytic leukemia, (B) Anemia of chronic ... | Answer is C. None | |
A 30-year-old patient complains of pain abdomen for 5 days, with similar history in recent past as well. On examination, localized tenderness in right upper quadrant on deep palpation is observed. A slight yellowish discoloration of skin is noted as well. USG examination reveals the following findings. If this patient ... | Answer is B. Cholesterol stone Pigment stone Mixed stone The USG shows BILIARY ASCARIASIS which is associated with pigment gall stones. Unconjugated bilirubin is normally a minor component of bile, but it will increase when infection of the biliary tract occurs that leads to release of microbial b-glucuronidases, which... | |
Which muscle originates from tibia, fibula and interosseous membrane?: (A) Popliteus, (B) Flexor digitorum longus, (C) Flexor hellus longus, (D) Tibialis posterior | Answer is D. TIBIALIS POSTERIOR:Origin: upper two-thirds of lateral pa of posterior surface of tibia below the soleal line.Posterior surface of fibula in front of medial crest Posterior surface of interosseous membrane.Popliteus: arises from lateral surface of lateral condyle of femur.origin is intracapsular.lateral me... | |
Boutonneuse fever is caused by-: (A) Rickettsia japonica, (B) Rickettsia conorii, (C) Rickettsia sibirica, (D) Rickettsia australis | Answer is B. Boutonneuse fever (also called, fievre boutonneuse, Kenya tick typhus, Indian tick typhus, Marseilles fever, African tick-bite fever, or Astrakhan fever) is a fever as a result of a Rickettsial infection caused by the bacterium Rickettsia conorii Transmitted by the dog tick - Rhipicephalus sanguineus. | |
Which of the following is the least filtered in glomerules? (Which substance is least lost in urine): (A) Haemoglobin, (B) Albumin (<150mg/24 hrs normally), (C) Myoglobin, (D) Inulin | Answer is A. Hemoglobin is the least filtered in glomerules and when it is secreted in high levels it is called hemoglobinuria most common in porphyrias. Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no; 678 | |
Structures lying deep to posterior belly of digastricare all. Except:: (A) Retromandibular vein, (B) Hypoglossal nerve, (C) Hyoglossus muscle, (D) Occipital aery | Answer is A. Retromandibular vein Ref: BDC Anatomy 4/e vol. III p157; Gray's Anatomy 40/e p441The Retromandibular vein lies superficial to the posterior belly of digastric.Structures lying deep to the posterior belly of digastric are:a.Transverse process of atlasb.Muscles- hyoglossus, superior oblique and the rectus ca... | |
A 60-year-old woman with no past medical history has an elevated blood pressure of 165/80 mm Hg on routine evaluation. Repeated measurements over the next month confirm the elevated pressure. Physical examination, routine blood count, and biochemistry are all normalFor patient with high blood pressure, select the most ... | Answer is A. Thiazides have been a cornerstone in most trials of antihypertensive therapy. Their adverse metabolic consequences include renal potassium loss leading to hypokalemia, hyperuricemia from uric acid retention, carbohydrate intolerance, and hyperlipidemia. The current U.S. Joint National Committee (JNC-7) gui... | |
In which of the following types of Carcinoma Breast, Comedo growth pattern in seen ?: (A) Ductal carcinoma in situ, (B) Medullary carcinoma, (C) Lobular carcinoma in situ, (D) Infiltrating lobular carcinoma | Answer is A. - Historically, ductal carcinoma in situ (intraductal carcinoma) has been divided
into five architectural subtypes : comedocarcinoma, solid, cribriform, papillary and micropapillary.
Comedocarcinoma is characterized by solid sheets of pleomorphic cells with high grade nuclei and central necrosis
The necrot... | |
Syndrome of Inappropriate secretion of Anti-Diuretic hormone (SIADH) may be seen in all of the following except?: (A) Use of vincristine, (B) Oat cell carcinoma of lung, (C) Porphyria-acute attack, (D) Primary pulmonary emphysema | Answer is D. CAUSES OF SIADH: Neoplastic Pulmonary CNS Drugs Other Small cell Mesothelioma Stomach Pancreas Bladder Prostate Endometrium Thymoma Leucaemia LymphomaSarcoma Pneumonia Abscess TB Aspergillosis Asthma Cystic fibrosis PPV Abscess Meningitis AIDS SDH SAH CVA Head Trauma MS GBS Desmopressin Oxytocin* Vasopress... | |
An increase in the concentration of 2,3 DPG may be seen in all of the following, except: (A) Anemia, (B) Hypoxia, (C) Inosine, (D) Hypoxanthine | Answer is D. None | |
Norepinephrine is metabolized by which of the following enzymes: (A) COMT, (B) MAO, (C) Both, (D) Neither | Answer is C. Both COMT and MAO breakdown norepinephrine. Ref:- KD Tripathi | |
Force not acting in an enzyme substrate complex :: (A) Electrostatic, (B) Covalent, (C) Van der waals, (D) Hydrogen | Answer is C. Vander Walls' forces are too weak, to actively paicipate in formation of enzyme- substrate complex. Forces contribute in binding are:- Hydrogen bondingQ- Ionic (electrostatic) bonding- Hydrophobic interactionEnzymes function to decrease the activation energy so that reactions can occur at normal body tempe... | |
Thrombocytopenia is caused by: -: (A) Aspirin, (B) Acyclovir, (C) DIC, (D) Henoch-schonlein purpura (HSP) | Answer is C. Causes of thrombocytopenia: I. -Decreased production of platelets: 1)selective impairment of platelet production: a)drug induced : alcohol , thiazides . b) Infections : measles, HIV .Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) occurs as a complication of a wide variety of disorders. DIC is caused by the s... | |
Which of the following is not a stimulus for normal/resting ventilation?: (A) Stretch receptors, (B) J receptors, (C) PO2, (D) PCO2 | Answer is B. J receptors are activated by pulmonary congestion, increase in the interstitial fluid volume of the alveolar wall, hyperventilation, and intravenous injection of chemicals like capsaicin. So, J receptors are not a stimulus for normal respiration Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 658 | |
Most common recurrence sites or metastatic sites of malignancy following pelvic surgery are all except :: (A) Carcinoma cervix -- Lateral pelvic wall and central pelvis, (B) Carcinoma ovary -- Lung, (C) Chorionepithelioma - Suburethral anterior vaginal wall, (D) Carcinoma body --Vault of vagina | Answer is B. Recurrence sites of malignancy Ca Cervix : 30% recurrence after 5 years and sites are pelvic side walls and central pelvis Choriocarcinoma : lower third of the vagina and vulva Carcinoma body : by implantation in vulva,vaginal vault pg no:365] SHAW'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY,15th edition D.C.DUTTA'S TEXTBOOK... | |
Bifurcation of trachea is at: (A) Upper border of T5, (B) Lower border of T4, (C) Upper border of T4, (D) Lower border of T5 | Answer is B. Trachea bifurcates at the lower border of fouh thoracic veebrae. <img src=" /> BA CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY VOLUME 1. 6TH EDITION.page no-280 | |
Alopecia universalis is?: (A) Loss of all the scalp hair, (B) Loss of all body hair, (C) Loss hair at the scalp margin, (D) Male pattern hair loss | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Loss of all body hair * In alopecia aerata, when there is total loss of scalp hair it is called Alopecia totalis. When there is loss of total body hair it is referred as Alopecia universalis. Alopecia along the scalp margin is called ophiasis. An inverse ophiasis pattern (sisaphio) is whe... | |
Bent inner tube sign is seen in: (A) Volvulus, (B) Intussusception, (C) Intestinal obstruction, (D) Gastric antral vascular ectasia | Answer is A. Ans. (a) VolvulusRef: Manipal Manual of surgery, 4th ed./739* In sigmoid volvulus, the X ray abdomen erect shows hugely dilated sigmoid loop called bent inner tube sign.* Acute sigmoid volvulus presents as intestinal obstruction and starts after straining at stool. It occurs in anti-clockwise direction and... | |
Von-Meyenburg's complexes are seen in -: (A) Brain, (B) Liver, (C) Kidney, (D) Spleen | Answer is B. Von Meyenburg Complexes
Close to or within the portal tract, these are small clusters of modestly dilated bile ducts embedded in a fibrous, sometimes hyalinised stroma.
Although these "bile duct microhamartomas" may communicate with the biliary tree, they generally are free of the pigmented material tree.... | |
A male patient 56 year old complains of swelling in legs. He is a known case of hypertension and is under treatment. On general physical examination pitting oedema is seen on legs and TSH level 3mU/L. Which of the following is not a cause of this condition?: (A) Increase in hydrostatic pressure, (B) Decreased colloid o... | Answer is D. Most leg swelling is caused by oedema, the accumulation of fluid within the interstitial space. Unilateral swelling usually indicates a localised pathology in either the venous or the lymphatic system, while bilateral oedema often represents generalised fluid overload combined with the effects of gravity. Ho... | |
Open anterior fontanelle, bruit present. Midline lesion in brain diagnosis -: (A) Malformation of vein of galen, (B) Congenital hydrocephalus, (C) Down syndrome, (D) Rickets. | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Malformation of vein of galen o Open anterior fontanel seen in all 4 condition.o Cranial Bruits which is heard over anterior fontanel may be seen normally in children upto 4 years of age.o AV malformation of middle cerebral artery or vein of galen.o Severe anemia, raised intracranial pres... | |
FeCl3 test is used in diagnosis of: NEET 14: (A) Hydrochloric acid, (B) Acetic acid, (C) Alcohol, (D) Phenol | Answer is D. Ans. Phenol | |
Enchondral ossification is/are seen in-: (A) Long bones, (B) Flat bones of skull, (C) Clavicle, (D) Mandible | Answer is A. Endochondral (enchondral) ossification → long bones, vertebrae, pelvis, skull base bones.
Intramembranous ossification → Skull vault, maxilla, most of mandible, and clavicle. | |
Cubitus varus deformity in supracondylar fracture of humerus is usually due to: (A) Posterior displacement, (B) Posterior angulation, (C) Coronal tilt, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. Ans. c (Coronal tilt) (Ref. Bailey & Love surgery, 24th/pg. 375; Orthopedics by John Ebnezar - Pg.155)Malunion (gunstock deformity/cubitus varus) can result from tilt in the coronal plane, and is the most common late complication of supracondylar fracture.SUPRACONDYLAR FRACTURE OF HUMERUS# There are two ty... | |
An 80-year-old man is brought to dermatology OPD by his son for recently noticed skin lesion. A biopsy is carried out with HPE as shown. Which of the following option cannot be used as a management for the above clinical scenario?: (A) Moh's micrographic surgery, (B) Photodynamic therapy, (C) Electrodessication, (D) NO... | Answer is D. All of the given options are used in the management of the basal cell carcinoma. Skin lesion shows pearly rolled telangiectatic borders with central ulceration suggestive of BCC. HPE: shows lobulated nest of neoplastic cells with retraction and palisaded basal layer. Findings are suggestive of BASAL CELL C... | |
The antibiotic of choice of pertussis is –: (A) Ampicillin, (B) Gentamicin, (C) Erythromycin, (D) Penicillin | Answer is C. Treatment of pertussis
DOC → Macrolides (Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin)
Alternative → Cotrimoxazole | |
Most common indication for operation in tuberculosis of intestine is -: (A) Obstruction, (B) Perforation, (C) Mass abdomen, (D) GI symptoms | Answer is A. None | |
Hepatitis virus without envelope:: (A) HAV, (B) HBV, (C) HCV, (D) HDV | Answer is A. Ans. (a) HAV Ref. Harrison 19/e, p 2006, 18/e, p 2539 HAV is a nonenveloped ss RNA virus of picorna family For details see answer no 12 of chapter 27. | |
Most common tumor to extend from intracranial to orbit is-: (A) Astrocytoma, (B) Pituitary adenoma, (C) Craniopharyngioma, (D) Sphenoidal wing meningioma | Answer is D. *Meningiomas commonly arise from the dura of sphenoid wing, i.e.sphenoid wing meningioma. Ref:Opthalmic oncology p.84. | |
Ninhydrin test is used for ?: (A) Bile salts, (B) Amino acids, (C) Nucleic acid, (D) Lipids | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Amino acids Impoant chemical reactions of amino acids Following are some impoant chemical reactions. A. Reaction used to determine amino acid sequence in polypeptide chain : - Generally, amino terminal (N-terminal) of amino acid is tagged with some reagent. It is split off by hydrolysis a... | |
Colipase is an enzyme found in--------?: (A) Saliva, (B) Bile, (C) Pancreatic juice, (D) Succus entericus | Answer is C. Pancreatic juice contains lipase, colipase, phospholipase A & B Colipase: Facilitates the action of lipase Prevents inactivation of lipase by bile salts SALIVA: 2 types of secretion 1. Serous: contains ptyalin (a amylase ) - digest carbs 2. Mucus: contains mucin - for lubrication & protection STOMACH: Mucu... | |
Thrush refers to: (A) Acute atrophic candidiasis, (B) Acute pseudomembranous candidiasis, (C) Chronic atrophic candidiasis, (D) Chronic hyperplastic candidiasis | Answer is B. None | |
Optic atrophy can be caused by....poisoning :: (A) Phosphrous, (B) Ethyl alcohol, (C) Methyl alcohol, (D) Lead | Answer is C. C i.e. Methyl alcohol | |
Which of the following is the least likely complication after massive blood transfusion, except: (A) Hyperkalemia, (B) Citrate toxicity, (C) Hypothermia, (D) Metabolic acidosis | Answer is D. Massive transfusion can lead to coagulopathy and metabolic complications. MC cause of death after massive transfusion: dilutional coagulopathy or DIC. Transfusion of 15-20 units of blood components causes dilutional thrombocytopenia. After massive blood transfusion initially transient hyperglycemia due to ... | |
The drug X is used in osteoporosis. Its mechanism of action is shown in the Figure below. X is likely to: (A) Teriparatide, (B) Alendronate, (C) Denosumab, (D) Estrogen | Answer is C. New drug for osteoporosis: 1. Teriparatide: PTH with 1-34 amino acid, stimulates osteoblast.2. Strontium ranelate: dual action: stimulate osteoblast and inhibit osteoclast.3. Denosumab: monoclonal antibody against rank ligand. | |
Pharmacodynamics includes: (A) Drug Elimination, (B) Drug excretion, (C) Drug Absorption, (D) Mechanism of action | Answer is D. Pharmacodynamics- the branch of pharmacology concerned with the effects of drugs and the mechanism of their action. Ref-KDT 7/e p1 | |
In an RTA, a patient sustained soft tissue and Brachial plexus injuries with nerve affected in weakness of extensors of entire arm, forearm, hand with shoulder flexion, and extension. This is suggestive of involvement of: (A) Middle and lower cord, (B) C5,6,7, (C) C5 to T1, (D) Posterior trunk | Answer is C. (C) C5 to T1 # Preganglionic lesions have a poor prognosis as these do not recover and are surgically irreparable.> Postganglionic lesions have better prognosis than preganglionic lesions and histamine test is useful in making the distinction> Postganglionic lesions: Disruption proximal to the dorsal root ... |
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