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Serous papillary cystadenocarcinomas of the ovaries express: (A) CA-125, (B) CA-19, (C) CEA, (D) AFP | Answer is A. CA-125 | |
Among the following which is a feature of testicu- lar feminization syndrome:: (A) XX pattern, (B) Commonly reared as male, (C) Well formed female internal genitalia, (D) High testosterone levels | Answer is D. None | |
Lymph from glans penis drain into: (A) External iliac lymph nodes, (B) Internal iliac lymph nodes, (C) Deep inguinal lymph nodes, (D) Superficial inguinal lymph nodes | Answer is C. Lymphatics from the glans drain into the deep inguinal nodes also called gland of Cloquet. Lymphatics from the rest of the penis drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.Ref: Vishram Singh; Volume II; 2nd edition; Page no: 464 | |
A pregnant lady at 32 weeks' gestation period presents with a BP of 160/110 mm Hg, Proteinuria with Retinal Hemorrhage What is the Definitive Management of choice in this case?: (A) Ritodrine, (B) Nifedipine, (C) Magnesium sulphates, (D) Termination of pregnancy | Answer is D. Ans. D. Termination of pregnancyPatient presents with the characteristics of Severe Hypertension indicating delivery.Induction of labor is the best suited management of choice.Magnesium Sulfate prophylaxis should be provided to prevent the onset of seizures.Severe pre-eclampsia can be characterized as:* Pu... | |
The ridge that descends from the cuspal tip towards the central part of the occlusal surface in a maxillary molar is: (A) Triangular ridge, (B) Marginal ridge, (C) Transverse ridge, (D) Oblique ridge | Answer is A. None | |
No treatment of withdrawal is req uired in -: (A) LSD, (B) Opium, (C) Alcohol, (D) Amphetamine | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., LSD o Clinically significant withdrawal syndrome (requires treatment)Alcohol, opioids, amphetamines, Barbiturates, BZDs, Nicotine.o No or minimal clinically significant withdrawal syndrome (requires no treatment) :-LSD (nil). Cannabis (minimal). | |
Complications of placenta pre include all except ___________: (A) Malpresentation, (B) Premature labor, (C) Rapid dilation of cervix, (D) Retained placenta | Answer is C. Complication of placenta pre: Maternal complications Antepaum Labour Postpaum Puerperium APH Cord Prolapse PPH Sepsis Malpresentation Intrapaum hemorrahage Retained placenta Premature labour Early rupture of membranes Associated abruptio: 10% Fetal complications Low bih weight: 15% (Most common fetal compl... | |
National institute of Homeopathy is located in:: (A) Delhi, (B) Kolkata, (C) Chennai, (D) Mumbai | Answer is B. The government of india has established a national institute of Ayurveda in Jaipur and a national institute of homeopathy in Kolkata. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 849. | |
Karyotyping is useful in diagnosis of -: (A) Autosomal recessive disorders, (B) X-linked recessive disorders, (C) Chromosomal abnormalities, (D) Biochemical abnormalities | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chromosomal abnormalitieso Karyotyping is the study of chromosomes and is used in cytogenetics to study the chromosomal abnormalities. o After arresting the cells in metaphase the chromosomes are examined to see for:(i) Numbers --> to detect abnormalities in chromosome numbers such as ane... | |
In Complete deft the hard palate is totally separated from?: (A) Maxilla, (B) Soft palate, (C) Vomer, (D) All | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) VomerREF: With textPalate cleft can occur as complete (soft and hard palate, possibly including a gap in the jaw) or incomplete (a 'hole' in the roof of the mouth, usually as a cleft soft palate).Normally the hard palate is continuous in front and laterally with the alveolar processes of the ma... | |
All vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy except: (A) BCG Vaccine, (B) Measles Vaccines, (C) OPV Vaccine, (D) Yellow fever vaccine | Answer is D. All live vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy except yellow fever vaccine. | |
Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by:: (A) Chlamydia trachomatis, (B) Chlamydia psittaci, (C) Herpes, (D) Gonorrhoea | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Chlamydia trachomatis Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by chlamydia trachomatis (serotypes D- K).Chlamydial inclusion conjunctivitis is generally spread by sexual transmission from the genital reservoir of infection. The primary source of infection is a benign subclinical venereal diseas... | |
Example of Type IV hypersensitivity is -: (A) Serum sickness, (B) Granulomatous reaction, (C) Shwartzman reaction, (D) Arthus reaction | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Granulomatous reaction(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 208-211; 8th/pg 205-208; Illustrated Dictionary of Immunology by M.P.Arora - Page 501)Granulomatous reaction is an example of type IV hypersensitivitySerum sickness & Arthus reactions are examples of type III hypersensitivityShwartzman reaction is a non-i... | |
In colposcopy following are visualised except:: (A) Upper 2/3rdendocervix, (B) Cervical carinoma in situ, (C) Cervical polyp, (D) Cervical dysplasia | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following changes in C-MYC oncogene may be associated with colonic malignancy?: (A) Point mutation, (B) Amplification, (C) Rearrangement, (D) Deletion | Answer is B. C- MYC amplification may be responsible for Ca breast, Ca colon, Ca stomach and lung. L - MYC amplification is associated with Ca lung and bladder. N- MYC amplification is associated with neuroblastoma and Ca lung. Ref: Harrison, 17th Edition, Page 496 | |
Name of the curved laryngoscope ?: (A) Miller, (B) Macintosh, (C) Muller, (D) Merkel | Answer is B. Laryngoscopy (larynx + scopy) is a medical procedure that is used to obtain a view of the vocal folds and the glottis. Following are the types of the available laryngoscopes :- i) Straight blade: Miller ii) Curved blade: Macintosh | |
The hilum of the right lung is arched by:: (A) Recurrent laryngeal nerve, (B) Azygos vein, (C) Thoracic duct, (D) Vagus nerve | Answer is B. B i.e. Azygous vein | |
Half life of factor 8: (A) 4 hrs, (B) 8 hrs, (C) 24 hrs, (D) 30 hrs | Answer is B. Factor VIII is also called as anti hemophilic factor Its half life is 8-12 hrs Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pgno :138 | |
Most common cause of lower respiratory tract infection in 3 year old child is: (A) Klebsella, (B) H-influenza, (C) Streptococcal pneumonia, (D) Staphe aureus | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Streptococcal pneumonia | |
In which condition doctor is passive: (A) Classical psychoanalysis, (B) Psychoanalytic psychoanalysis, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is A. Classical Psychoanalysis No detailed history taking, mental status examination, or formalised psychiatric diagnosis is attempted. The patient is allowed to communicate unguided, by using 'free association'. The therapist remains passive with a non-directive approach; however, the therapist constantly chall... | |
Irradiation can be used to sterilize A/E -: (A) Bone graft, (B) Suture, (C) Artificial tissue graft, (D) Bronchoscope | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., BronchoscopeEndoscopes are sterilized by chemical methods Methods for sterilization of endoscopes Rigid endoscope - Autoclave Flexible - Glutaraldehyde Peracetic acidNowadays musculoskeletal tissue allografts are being increasingly used for knee reconstructive procedures.The soft tissue a... | |
Normal intraabdominal pressure is ?: (A) 0 - 8mmHg, (B) 10 - 15mmHg, (C) 15 - 20mmHg, (D) 20 - 26mmHg | Answer is A. Ans. is'a'i.e., 0 - 8 mmHgNormal intra-abdominal pressure is 0-6 mmHg. | |
True regarding fluorosis are all except –: (A) Fluorosis is the most common cause of dental caries in children, (B) Fluorosis can cause fluoride deposition in bones, (C) Defluoridation is done by Nalgonda technique, (D) Fluorosis can cause genu valgum | Answer is A. None | |
Conduction velocity of nerves is NOT affected by which of the following?: (A) Leprosy, (B) Motor neuron disease, (C) Hereditary neuropathy, (D) A.I.D.P | Answer is B. Motor neuron disease is at anterior horn cell, pyramidal neurons and not the nerves. Thus the conduction velocity in the nerves is normal. Leprosy - Affects nerves and both sensory nerve conduction /motor nerve conduction studies may demonstrate reduced amplitude in affected nerves but occasionally may rev... | |
Arteriole is: (A) Conducting vessel, (B) Resistance vessel, (C) Exchange vessels, (D) Capacitance vessel | Answer is B. Arterioles regulate the distribution of blood flow by altering their diameter to increase or decrease the peripheral resistance as required. | |
Ether was first used by:: (A) Preistly, (B) Moon, (C) Wells, (D) Simpson | Answer is B. Moon | |
In which of the following Arbiskov cells are seen ?: (A) Myelodysplastic syndrome, (B) Multiple myeloma, (C) Granulocytic sarcoma, (D) Leukemia cutis | Answer is C. Granulocytic Sarcoma Also known as Choloroma or myeloblastoma. It is a hematopoietic stem cell tumour. It is an extramedullary tumor of immature granulocytic series cells. It is a localised tumour forming a mass in the skin of orbital & periorbital tissue due to infiltration of tissues by leukemic cells. I... | |
Epistaxis in elderly person is most commonly due to:: (A) Foreign body, (B) Bleeding disorder, (C) Hypertension, (D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma | Answer is C. (c) Hypertension(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed. 680)The most common cause of epistaxis in an elderly person is hypertension.Foreign body is not seen at this age.Bleeding disorder will present with bleeding from multiple sites.Nasopharyngeal carcinoma presents with upper deep cervical lymph node. Nasal obstruction ... | |
A pregnant mother at 32 weeks gestation presents in preterm labour. Therapy with antenatal steroids to induce lung maturity in the fetus may be given in all of the following conditions except:: (A) Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hours, (B) Pregnancy induced hypertension, (C) Diabetes mellitus, (D) Chor... | Answer is D. “Corticosteroids can be given even in presence of maternal hypertension or diabetes mellitus, but should preferably be avoided if PROM is associated with definitive evidence of chorioamnionitis”
Meherban Singh 5/e, p 227
“Steroid treatment is contraindicated in presence of overt infection.”
Fernando Arias ... | |
Insulin inhibits ketogenesis by all except: (A) Inhibiting lipolysis, (B) Increased esterification of fatty acids, (C) Directing acetyl-CoA to TCA cycle, (D) Increasing b-oxidation | Answer is D. Insulin inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue due to inhibition of hormone-sensitive lipase Insulin depresses HMG CoA synthase and so ketogenesis is decreased In the presence of insulin, acetyl CoA is completely utilized in the citric acid cycle because oxaloacetate generated from glucose is available in pl... | |
Treatment for dendritic ulcer includes all except: March 2009: (A) Penetrating keratoplasty, (B) Acyclovir, (C) Steroids, (D) Debridement of the edges of the ulcer | Answer is C. Ans. C: Steroids Debridement of the edges of the ulcer with a moistened, fine cotton tipped applicators helps in reducing the load of active virus-infected cells. The standard treatment is idoxuridine drops/ trifluridine drops/ acyclovir 3% eye ointment/ 3% vidarabine ointment produces a resolution of herp... | |
Which of the following condition is associated with limitation of both adduction and abduction of the affected eye?: (A) Duane retraction syndrome Type 1, (B) Duane retraction syndrome Type 2, (C) Duane retraction syndrome Type 3, (D) Double elevator palsy | Answer is C. Weakness of both adduction and abduction of the eye is a feature of Duane retraction syndrome type 3. Duane retraction syndrome is a congenital, incomitant ocular motility disorder characterized by abnormal function of lateral rectus muscle in the affected eye together with retraction of the globe and narr... | |
The only one flexible minor connector is: (A) that connecting clasp assembly to major connector, (B) that connecting indirect retainer assembly to the major connector, (C) that joining the denture base to major connector, (D) that approach arm of a bar type clasp | Answer is D. None | |
In an infant born to a HIV infected mother, at what age of child the ELISA test can reliably diagnose HIV infection: (A) 18 months, (B) 9 months, (C) 12 months, (D) 3 months | Answer is A. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and Western blotting are used to initially detect HIV-specific antibodies but these tests are not used for diagnosis in patients younger than 18 months of age. This is because of the persistence of the maternal HIV antibody in infants younger than 18 months.
Infan... | |
Vitamin A requirement in infant is -: (A) 350 mg, (B) 600 mg, (C) 800 mg, (D) 1000 mg | Answer is A. - daily intake of vitamin A recommended by ICMR for infants is 350 mcg retinol. - daily intake of vitamin A recommended by ICMR for infants is 2800 mcg beta carotene. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:616 <\p> | |
Sarcoma botryoides of vagina commonly occurs in which age group-: (A) <10 years, (B) 20-30 years, (C) 40-50 years, (D) 50-60 years | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., < 10 years * Sarcoma botryoides or botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma is a subtype of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, that can be observed in the walls of hollow, mucosa lined structures such as the nasopharynx, common bile duct, urinary bladder of infants and young children or the vagina in females, ... | |
A 70-year-old man with hypeension wakes up with severe chest pain and diaphoresis. On examination he has bounding pulses with wide pulse pressure. A diastolic murmur is heard along the right sternal border. Which of the following is the possible etiology?: (A) Aoic dissection, (B) STEMI with papillary muscle dysfunctio... | Answer is A. Option A= High B.P | Aoic dissection | Leads to Retrograde spread | develop Aoic Root dilation | Leads to develop Aoic Regurgitation- Diastolic Murmur Option B= STEMI with Papillary muscle dysfunction have systolic murmur. Option C= Myocarditis with functional regurgitation- Systolic murmur Option D= Flash... | |
All of the following about gastrointestinal carcinoid tumours are true, Except: (A) Small intestine and appendix account for almost 60% of all gastrointestinal carcinoid, (B) Rectum is spared, (C) 5 year survival for carcinoid tumors is > 60%, (D) Appendical carcinoids are more common in females than males | Answer is B. About 15% rectum is involved in a carcinoid tumour it arises from the submucosa with the overlying intact mucous membrane. Reference SRB 5 the edition page no. 877 | |
Obesity is associated with all of the following except:: (A) Osteoahritis, (B) Hypeension, (C) Gall stones, (D) Pancreatitis | Answer is D. Answer is D (Pancreatitis): Pancreatitis has no association with obesity. RISKS OF OBESITY INCLUDE THE FOLLOWING : A. Cardiovascular disease : -increased risk of atherosclerosis -increased risk of hypeension - increased risk of sudden death B. Pulmonary function : Sleep apnea and Right hea failure C. Gall ... | |
Syndrome characterized by an elaborate delusion that the patient is passionately loved by another person is also known as: COMEDK 15: (A) Ekbom's syndrome, (B) De Clerambault's syndrome, (C) Querulous paranoia, (D) Othello syndrome | Answer is B. Ans. De Clerambault's syndrome | |
Which one of the following is the treatment of choice in a child with inguinal hernia: (A) Bassini's repair, (B) Shouldice repair, (C) Herniotomy alone, (D) Lichtenstein reapir | Answer is C. None | |
When the concentration of the etchant is more than 50%, it forms a complex which prevents further dissolution. The complex is: (A) hydroxyapatite, (B) calcium phosphate, (C) monocalcium phosphate monohydrate, (D) none of the above | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following indications of deep brain stimulation is not FDA approved?: (A) OCD, (B) Major depression, (C) Parkinsonism, (D) Dystonia | Answer is B. FDA approved indications for deep brain stimulation are: a. Parkinson's disease and essential tremors b. Dystonia c. Obsessive compulsive disorder | |
An 18 yr old male presents with massive hematemesis; he has history of fever for the past 14 days for which he was managed with drugs; moderate splenomegaly is present; diagnosis is:: (A) NSAID induced duodenal ulcer, (B) Drug induced gastritis, (C) Esophageal varices, (D) None of the above. | Answer is C. Answer is C (Esophageal varices) Presence of massive haematemesis in the background of moderate splenomegaly suggests a diagnosis of esophageal varices secondary to poal hypeension. Esophageal varices : Most common presentation of esophageal varices is Hematemesis. 'Splenomegaly, sometimes with hiperspleni... | |
Most sensitive investigation to see intracranial bleed in a patient with head injury -: (A) MRI, (B) X-ray, (C) CT-scan, (D) Ultrasound | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., CT-scan o Has been explained in previous session | |
Autoantigen is ?: (A) Blood group antigen, (B) Forssman antigen, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is D. None | |
Which one of following is Polysaccharide vaccine:-: (A) Peussis, (B) Hepatitis B, (C) Meningococcal, (D) Yellow fever | Answer is C. Polysaccharide vaccines are: Typhim-Vi Pneumococcal vaccine Meningococcal vaccine Hib. | |
Vaccine which requires the most stringent conditions for storage: (A) DPT, (B) OPV, (C) BCG, (D) TT | Answer is B. Among the vaccines, polio is the most sensitive to heat, requiring storage at minus 20 degree Celsius. Vaccines which must be stored in the vaccine compaments are polio and measles. The cold chain is a system of storage and transpo of vaccines at low temperature from the manufacturer to the actual vaccinat... | |
As the alveolar bone height moves apically, center of resistance moves:: (A) Apically, (B) Coronally, (C) Mesially, (D) Infinity | Answer is A. None | |
Which among the following condition is positive for double stranded DNA antibody?: (A) SLE, (B) Sjogren's syndrome, (C) Scleroderma, (D) Mixed Connective Tissue Disorder | Answer is A. Serum antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) are found in nearly all individuals with active SLE. Antibodies to native double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) are relatively specific for the diagnosis of SLE. Anti-SSA or anti-SSB antibodies are seen in Sjogren's syndrome. Topoisomerase I antibodies (also known as Scl-70), Anti... | |
A 60 year old male was diagnosed as carcinoma right lung. On CECT chest there was a tumor of 5 ✕ 5 cm in upper lobe and another 2 ✕ 2 cm size tumor nodule in middle lobe. The primary modality of treatment is -: (A) Radiotherapy, (B) Chemotherapy, (C) Surgery, (D) Supportive treatment | Answer is C. None | |
The drug of choice for treatment of meningococcal meningitis is: (A) Piperacillin, (B) Ceftriaxone, (C) Ampicillin, (D) Meropenem | Answer is B. Ans. b. CeftriaxoneRef: Goodman Gilman 13th E/PI 035Ceftriaxone is the drug of choice for treatment of meningitis caused by H. influenza, N. meningitidis (meningococcal meningitis) and S. pneumoniae.Ampicillin is the drug of choice for treatment of meningitis caused by L. monocytogenes.Meningitis seen in p... | |
Which of the following topical agent boosts cell - mediated immunity in burns: (A) Mafenide acelate, (B) Silver nitrate, (C) Cerium nitrate, (D) Povidone iodine | Answer is C. Cerium nitrate boosts cell - mediated immunity and forms sterile eschar in burns. | |
A 40yr old patient developed high fever of sudden onset .Peripheral blood film showed malaria parasite pigment was yellowish brown and schizonts were 9-10microns and contained 20 merozoites each: (A) Pl vivax, (B) Pl falciparum, (C) Pl malariae, (D) Pl ovale | Answer is A. The features are consistent with the diagnosis of Pl vivax .yellow brown pigment-vivax Dark brown pigment-falciparum Ref: D.R. Arora. Medical parasitology 4th ed pg. 77 | |
The cells which lie outside blood testis barrier:: (A) Sertoli cells, (B) Spermatocyte, (C) Spermatid, (D) Leydig cells | Answer is D. Ans. is d, i.e. Leydig cellsBlood testis barrier is formed by Sertoli cells which keeps the growing germ cells (its all stages) separated from blood. | |
All are true about supraglottic laryngeal carcinoma except:: (A) It is the most common site for carcinoma larynx, (B) Involvement of upper & middle juglar Lymph nodes is seen, (C) Point on swelling is the most common symptom, (D) Stage T1 is treated by external beam radia therapy | Answer is A. Glottie part is the most common sites for carcinoma larynx followed by supraglottic & subglottic pats respectively. | |
Order of anastomosis in lung transplant:: (A) Pulmonary aery, pulmonary vein, bronchus, (B) Pulmonary vein, bronchus, pulmonary aery, (C) Pulmonary vein, pulmonary aery, bronchus, (D) Pulmonary aery, bronchus, pulmonary vein | Answer is B. Order of anastomosis in lung transplant pulmonary vein, bronchus, pulmonary aery. LUNG TRANSPLANTATION PROCEDURE SLT: Performed through posterolateral thoracotomyQ image on left side DLT: Performed through bilateral thoracotomy or median sternotomyQ Sequence of anastomoses in lung transplantation (PV By BA... | |
Which statement is FALSE regarding specific learning disorders (SLD): (A) The overall estimates of the prevalence of SLD range from 3-1096, (B) It is a type of neurodevelopmental dysfunctions, (C) Terms as dysgraphia or dyscalculia had been revolutionized, (D) Includes students did well in academic testing but not in i... | Answer is D. Specific developmental disorders of scholastic Skills (specific learning disorders) includes reading disorder, spelling disorder, disorder of arithmetical skills, and mixed disorder of Scholastic Skills. Dyslexia (reading disorder) is included in lCD-10 in a separate category of symbolic dysfunction. The t... | |
An 8-month-old child presented with reduced appetite, abdominal distension and pain and psychomotor retardation. The child was normal at bih and both parents are normal. O/E: - Hepatosplenomegaly Moderate lymphadenopathy Abnormal posturing of the limbs, trunk, and face Impaired voluntary rapid eye movements Cheery red ... | Answer is D. This is a case of Niemann-pick disease. 1. Autosomal recessive disease 2. Divided into 2 groups depending on deficiency: - Deficiency of acid sphingomyelinase enzyme- Type A and B Impaired intracellular cholesterol trafficking- Type C and D 3. Normal at bih 4. Presents with hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopa... | |
Feature of hydrops fetalis in a fetus can be due to:: (A) Ebstein barr virus, (B) Human papilloma virus, (C) Parvovirus B19, (D) Influenza Virus | Answer is C. Hydrops fetalis - Excessive destruction of the fetal red cells leads to severe anemia, tissue anoxemia and metabolic acidosis It is accumulation of fluid in the body of the fetus in two out of three compaments: ascites, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion Most common cause of immune hydrops fetalis - Rh... | |
Pulmonary endothelium is NOT concerned with which of the following:: (A) Lipoprotein lipase, (B) Plasminogen activator, (C) Thrombin, (D) Factor X | Answer is D. None | |
Carrier stage seen in -a) Poliob) Cholerac) Pertusis d) Plague e) Tetanus: (A) da, (B) abc, (C) dea, (D) ac | Answer is B. None | |
A 40-year old man presented with acute onset pain and swelling of left great toe. On X-ray, punched out lytic lesion seen on phalanx with sclerotic margins and overhanging bony edges. Diagnosis is:: (A) Gout, (B) Rheumatoid ahritis, (C) Psoriatic ahritis, (D) Reiter's syndrome | Answer is A. Ans. a. Gout | |
Which of the following statements is true concerning the vascular response to injury?: (A) Vasoconstriction is an early event in the response to injury, (B) Vasodilatation is a detrimental response to injury with normal body processes working to avoid this process, (C) Vascular permeability is maintained to prevent fuh... | Answer is A. After wounding, there is transient vasoconstriction mediated by catecholamines, thromboxane, and prostaglandin F2 (PGF2a). This period of vasoconstriction lasts for only five to ten minutes. Once a clot has been formed and active bleeding has stopped, vasodilatation occurs in an around the wound. Vasodilat... | |
60 yr old male presented with dysphagia. Mucosal biopsy is provided here which show?: (A) Squamous metaplasia, (B) Columnar metaplasia, (C) Anaplasia, (D) Connective tissue metaplasia | Answer is B. . | |
The most common ovarian cause of increased androgenic state is:: (A) PCOD, (B) Premature adrenarche, (C) Androgen secreting tumor, (D) Choriocarcinoma | Answer is A. (A) PCOD# Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS):> it was earlier known as Stein Leventhal syndrome. 1% female population suffers from PCOS, and the patients are mostly 15-25 years age.> PCOS includes chronic non-ovulation and hyperandrogenemia associated with normal or raised oestrogen (E2), raised, LH & low ... | |
Measles vaccine is not given before:: (A) 9 months, (B) 12 months, (C) 15 months, (D) 18 months | Answer is A. 9 months | |
All of the following are features if CD4 count drop below 50cells/ mmcubic, except: (A) HIV associated dementia., (B) CMV retinitis., (C) Disseminated mycobacterium avium intracellulare., (D) None. | Answer is A. None | |
What is the major source of extracellular cholesterol for human tissues?: (A) Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs), (B) Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs), (C) High-density lipoproteins (HDLs), (D) Albumin | Answer is B. The uptake of exogenous cholesterol by cells results in a marked suppression of endogenous cholesterol synthesis. Low-density human lipoprotein not only contains the greatest ratio of bound cholesterol to protein but also has the greatest potency in suppressing endogenous cholesterogenesis. normally suppre... | |
Hallucinations are -: (A) Feeling of familiarity with unfamiliar thing, (B) Alteration of perception of ones reality, (C) Misinterpretation of stimuli, (D) Perception occurring without external stimulation | Answer is D. None | |
Inferior tibiofibular joint is which type of joint: (A) Gomphosis, (B) Condylar, (C) Syndesmosis, (D) Synchondrosis | Answer is C. syndesmosis is a fibrous joint between two bones and linked by ligaments and a strong membrane. The distal tibiofibular syndesmosis is asyndesmotic joint. Ref: Maheshwari 6e pg 159,162,163. | |
Which is used in CA Breast?: (A) Daunorubicin, (B) Doxorubicin, (C) Cisplatin, (D) Actinomycin D | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Doxorubicin(Ref: Bailey 26/e p815, 25/e p844; Schwartz 10/e p550-551, 9/e p263)* In CAF regimen- Adriamycin (Anthracylcines- Doxorubicin or Epirubicin) is used* Anthracyclines have cardio toxicity | |
The hard palate contains: (A) Keratinized epithelium, submucosa, minor salivary glands, (B) Keratinised epithelium, absent submucosa, no salivary glands, (C) Non-keratinised epithelium, submucosa, minor salivary glands, (D) Non-keratinised epithelium, absent submucosa, minor salivary glands | Answer is A. The hard palate contains keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, has a submucosa, and contains minor salivary gland. The bony structure of the hard palate is covered by a firmly attached mucosa in the central pa. In the lateral pas, the hard palate also has a submucosal layer containing blood vessels. ... | |
Subtle presentation of hyperparathyroidism is:: (A) Psychiatric manifestation, (B) Neprocalcinosis, (C) Abdominal pain, (D) Asymptomatic hypercalcemia | Answer is D. Answer is D (Asymptomatic hypercalcemia) In view of the above facts from Harrison the best option to consider a 'subtle presentation' should probably be `asymptomatic hypercalcemia' | |
Which bullet may produce key hole entry wound?: (A) Tracer bullet, (B) Tandem bullet, (C) Dum-Dum bullet, (D) Yawning bullet | Answer is D. Yawning bullet is irregular pattern, thus producing key hole entry wound in some cases. | |
Cardinal signs of Inflammation are all except?: (A) Rubor, (B) Tumor, (C) Color, (D) Cyanosis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cyanosis o Cardinal signs of acute inflammation (celsus' signs): Rubor (redness), tumor (swelling), color (warmth), Dolor (pain). | |
Oral hypoglycemic drug that is less likely to cause hypoglycemia is:: (A) Repaglinide, (B) Gliclazide, (C) Rosiglitazone, (D) Glimipiride | Answer is C. Rosilglitazone are selective agonists for the nuclear peroxisome proliferator activated receptor,which enhances the transcription of several insulin responsive genes Metformin and glitazones- antihyperglycemic agents- no hypoglycemia but reduce excess plasma glucose levels REF: K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page... | |
A 66-year-old man with obstructive jaundice is found on ERCP to have periampullary carcinoma. He is otherwise in excellent physical shape and there is no evidence of metastasis. What is the most appropriate treatment?: (A) Radical excision (Whipple procedure) where possible, (B) Local excision and radiotherapy, (C) Ext... | Answer is A. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is treated with radical excision of the head of the pancreas along with the duodenum. Continuity of the biliary and GI tract is established by performing hepaticojejunostomy, pancreaticojejunostomy, and gastrojejunostomy (Figure below). The 5-year survival rate is high... | |
Reflux laryngitis produces -a) Sub- glottic stenosis b) Ca larynxc) Cord fixationd) Acute supra- glottitise) Laryngitis: (A) abe, (B) bcd, (C) cde, (D) acd | Answer is A. There are lots of controversies regarding the reflux laryngitis secondary to reflux gastrointestinal disease. But now some studies document that there is a clear relation between the two.
Reflux laryngitis may have the following sequlae:
– Bronchospasm
– Chemical pneumonitis
– Refractory subglottic stenos... | |
Activation of classical complement pathway ?: (A) IgA, (B) IgG, (C) IgM, (D) IgD | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., IgM | |
The greatest incidence of bronchopleural fistula is follwing -: (A) Segmental resection, (B) Lobectomies, (C) Pneumonectomies, (D) Thorocotomy | Answer is B. None | |
Fusion of the caudal portions of the kidneys during embryonic development is most likely to result in which of the following congenital conditions?: (A) Bicornuate uterus, (B) Cryptorchidism, (C) Horseshoe kidney, (D) Hypospadias | Answer is C. During development, the kidneys typically "ascend" from a position in the pelvis to a position high on the posterior abdominal wall. Although the kidneys are bilateral structures, occasionally the inferior poles of the two kidneys fuse. When this happens, the "ascent" of the fused kidneys is arrested by th... | |
Mitochondrial chromosomal abnormaity leads to: (A) Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy, (B) Angelman syndrome, (C) Prader villi syndrome, (D) Myotonic dystrophy | Answer is A. Diseases caused by mutations in mitochondrial genes are rare. Because mitochondrial DNA encodes enzymes involved in oxidative phosphorylation, diseases caused by mutations in such genes affect organs most dependent on oxidative phosphorylation (skeletal muscle, hea, brain). Leber hereditary optic neuropath... | |
True about protooncogene-: (A) Impoant for normal cell growth, (B) Oncogenesis, (C) C-myc overexpression causes lymphoma, (D) Mutation causes Retinoblastoma | Answer is A. A proto-oncogene is a normal gene that could become an oncogene due to mutations or increased expression. Proto-oncogenes code for proteins that help to regulate cell growth and differentiation. Proto-oncogenes are often involved in signal transduction and execution of mitogenic signals, usually through th... | |
The CNS tumor present with calcification:: (A) Oligodendroglioma, (B) Astrocytoma, (C) Medulloblastoma, (D) Pheochromocytoma | Answer is A. Oligodendroglioma is associated with calcification. BT associated with calcification (COM):CraniopharyngiomaQ (most) > ODGQ (90%) > MeningiomaQ (20-25%) | |
True about plummer-vinson syndrome -a) Microcytic hypochronic anemia b) Sideroblastic anemiac) Common in old aged) Post cricoid carcinoma is commone) Oesophageal webs: (A) acd, (B) bde, (C) ade, (D) ad | Answer is C. None | |
Sellick manouever is used to prevent:: (A) Alveolar collapse, (B) Hypeension, (C) Aspiration of Gastric content, (D) Bradycardia | Answer is C. C i.e. Aspiration of Gastric content | |
A plant prick can produce sporotrichosis. All are true statements about sporotrichosis except: (A) Is a chronic mycotic disease that typically involves skin, subcutaneous tissue and regional lymphatics, (B) Most cases are acquired cutaneous inoculation, (C) Enlarged lymph nodes extending centripetally as a beaded chain... | Answer is D. Sporotrichosis is a chronic infection involving cutaneous, subcutaneous and lymphatic tissue. It is frequently encountered in Gardners, forest workers and manual labourers. It may develop in otherwise healthy individuals also. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | |
The major difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics is that: (A) The latter cause minimal or no increase in prolactin, (B) The former cause tardive dyskinesia, (C) The former are available as parenteral preparations, (D) The latter cause substantial sedation | Answer is B. The most impoant reason to classify the antipsychotics in typical and atypical agents is the occurrence of extrapyramidal symptoms. Typical antipsychotics have significant extrapyramidal symptoms such as parkinsonism, acute muscle dystonia and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects are negligible or minima... | |
Opsomyoclonus is encountered as C/F of-: (A) Meningioma, (B) Neuroblastoma, (C) Neurofibromatosis, (D) Excision | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Neuroblastoma o Neuroblastoma can present as paraneoplastic syndrome of autoimune origin manifesting as ataxia or oposmyoclonus (Dancing eyes and dancing feat). o In such cases primary tumor is in the chest or abdomen and the brain is negative for tumor. o Some tumor produce catecholamine... | |
Examine the renal histopathology slide. What is the probable diagnosis?: (A) Membranoproliferative GN, (B) Rapidly profilerative GN, (C) Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis, (D) Diabetic nephropathy | Answer is C. The presence of diffuse involvement of glomeruli and histologically showing enlarged hyper cellular glomeruli is suggestive of Acute infectious GN. It can be both infectious and non-infectious (SLE) but the most common infectious acute proliferative GN is post streptococcal GN. So, the likely answer is pos... | |
Diveiculum most common site is: (A) Sigmoid colon, (B) Ileum, (C) Ascending colon, (D) Transverse colon | Answer is A. Sigmoid diveiculitis Diveicular disease refers to acquired pseudo diveicular outpouchings of the colonic mucosa and submucosa. Rare below 30yrs but prevalence approaches 50% beyond 60yrs. Diveicula generally are multiple and the condition is referred to as diveiculosis. PATHOGENESIS Colonic diveicula tend ... | |
"Inflation of lungs induces fuher inflation" is explained by:: (A) Hering-Breuer inflation reflex, (B) Hering-Breuer deflation reflex, (C) Head's paradoxical reflex, (D) J-reflex | Answer is C. C i.e Head's paradoxical reflex.Inflation of lungs, under ceain conditions, enhances inspiratory activity.Since inflation induces fuher inflation of lungs, the reflex is considered paradoxical.The vagal fibers mediating Head's paradoxical reflex carry information originating in receptors present in lungs.T... | |
Flexner-Wintersteiner rossette is seen in-: (A) Hepatoblastoma, (B) Nephroblastoma, (C) Neuroblastoma, (D) Retinoblastoma | Answer is D. Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition the microscopic structures of retinoblastoma characteristically arranged in rossettes. The rossettes are of 2 types 1. Flexner Wintersteiner rossettes characterised by small tumor cells arranged around a lumen with their nuclei away from the lumen. 2. Homer Wrig... | |
Merkels cells of Epidermis are derived from: (A) Neural tube, (B) Notochord, (C) Neural crest, (D) Neural pore | Answer is C. (C) Neural crest # MERKEL CELLS, which are believed to be derived from the neural crest, contain many large (50-100 nm) dense-cored vesicles, presumably containing transmitters, which are concentrated near the junction with the axon. F.S. Merkel referred to these cells as Tastzellen or "touch cells" Merkel... | |
A patient of 18 years of age presents with sudden agonising pain in the groin and the lower abdomen. The patient feels nausea and gives a history of vomiting. On physical examination, the testis seems high. The cremasteric reflex is lost. What is the most possible cause?: (A) Epididymo-orchitis, (B) Mumps orchitis, (C)... | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Testicular torsion.Testicular torsion is most common between 10 and 25 years of age, although a few cases occur in infancy. Typically, there is sudden agonising pain in the groin and the lower abdomen. The patient feels nauseated and may vomit. Torsion of a fully descended testis is usually easily... | |
Pleomorphism is seen in:: (A) Chickenpox, (B) Rubella, (C) Smallpox, (D) Toxocara | Answer is A. (Chickenpox): Ref: (134-Park 20th)* Chickenpox shows pleomorphic rash i.e. different stages of the rash evident at one given time because rash appears in successive crops | |
Laparoscopic cholecystectomy done in a patient with cholelithiasis.Pathology report shows adenocarcinoma with invasion of muscle layer. CT was normal. Further tit is:: (A) Wait and regular follow up, (B) Wedge hepatic resection with lymph node dissection, (C) Excise all port sites, (D) Radiotherapy | Answer is B. None | |
Placental alkaline phosphates is marker of:: (A) Theca cell tumour, (B) Teratoma, (C) Choriocarcinoma, (D) Seminoma | Answer is D. PLAP-most useful marker for bulk disease. Tumour marker for seminoma is PLAP. BETA HCG is also raised in 5-10% of pure seminomas as they contain syncytiotrophoblast like giant cells. | |
Cimetidine inhibits the metabolism of all of the following drugs except.: (A) Phenytoin, (B) Warfarin, (C) Ketoconazole, (D) Diazepam | Answer is C. Ans. (C) Ketoconazole(Ref: KDT 8th/e p698)Cimetidine is a potent inhibitor of microsomal enzymes. It prolongs the half lives of warfarin, theophylline, phenytoin, oral hypoglycemic agents, alcohol and benzodiazepines. |
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