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Cardiac output is increased by all except: (A) Exercise, (B) Pregnancy, (C) Hot atmosphere, (D) Standing from lying down | Answer is D. Standing from lying down because of pooling of blood in lower limb decrease in cardiac o/p by 20-30%Increasing factorsAnxiety and excitement (50-100%)Eating (30%)Exercise (up to 700%)High environmental temperaturePregnancyEpinephrine 2. Decreasing factorsSitting or standing from lying position (20-30%)Rapi... | |
An 8 year old boy presented with fever and bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy with prior history of sore throat. There was no hepatomegaly. The peripheral blood smear shows >20% lympho plasmacytoid cells. The most likely diagnosis is:: (A) Tuberculosis, (B) Infectious Mononucleosis, (C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia, (D... | Answer is B. Ans. B. Infectious MononucleosisThe given clinical situation suggests Infectious MononucleosisFeatures of Infectious Mononucleosis:* Cervical Lymphadenopathy* Fever* History of sore throat* >20% atypical lymphocytesHepatomegaly may be absent (Occurs only in 30% of cases) | |
Regarding Good pasture's syndrome all are true except: (A) Auto immune disease, (B) Anty body against collagen type IV alpha3 chain of GBM and pulmonary capillaries, (C) Diffuse bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, (D) Slowly progressive Renal failure | Answer is D. Good pasture's syndrome causes glomerulonephritis that results in rapidly progressive renal failure. | |
A 60-year-old man with diabetes acutely develops double vision and discomfort in his left eye. On examination, there is ptosis of the left eyelid, the eye is rotated down and out, and the pupil is 3 mm and reactive to light. The right eye is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) fourth nerve... | Answer is C. Third nerve palsy can result in ptosis of the eyelid. There is also loss of the ability to open the eye, and the eyeball is deviated outward and slightly downward. With complete lesions, the pupil is dilated, does not react to light, and loses the power of accommodation. In diabetes, the pupil is often spa... | |
Lethal midline granuloma arises from ?: (A) T-cells, (B) B-cells, (C) NK cells, (D) Macrophages | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., NK cellso Lethal midline granuloma or polymorphic reticulosis is a lymphoma of natural killer (NK) cells infected with EBV. | |
In near vision what is the change?: (A) Power of lens decreases, (B) Depth of focus increases, (C) Lateral recti contraction, (D) Zonular tension increases | Answer is B. Ans. b. Depth of focus increasesThe most common problems developed in adults between ages 41 to 60 may to seeing clearly at close distances, especially when reading and working on the computer.This normal change in the eyes focusing ability, called presbyopia. | |
In a community of 5000 people, the crude bih rate is 30 per 1000 people. The number of pregnant female is?: (A) 150, (B) 65, (C) 175, (D) 200 | Answer is A. Crude Bih rate: Annual number of live bihs per 1000 mid year population Here, CBR is 30 per 1000 population So for 5000 population - 30/1000 x5000 = 150 That implies, no of pregnant women is 150 Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 532 | |
A young male presents with fever, followed by headache, confusion, focal seizures and right hemiparesis. MRI shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Acute pyogenic meningitis, (B) Herpes simplex encephalitis, (C) Neurocysticercosis, (D) Carcinomatous... | Answer is B. Patient is showing features suggestive of herpes simplex encephalitis. Clinical manifestations in viral encephalitis includes altered level of consiousness (confusion, behavioral abnormalities), mild lethargy to coma, evidence of both focal or diffuse neurologic signs and symptoms and focal or generalized ... | |
The shake test shown below can be done to know:: (A) Whether vaccine was exposed to heat, (B) Whether vaccine had been frozen at some point of time in the cold chain, (C) Whether expiry date of vaccine has reached, (D) Whether the vaccine needs to be mixed with normal saline | Answer is B. Shake test: - Test done to check cold damage to Vaccine due to freezing. - Once the vaccine is frozen, it tends to form flakes which gradually settle to the bottom, after the l is shaken. - Thus, sedimentation occurs faster in a vaccine l which has been frozen as compared to control l. - These ls should be... | |
Largest embrasure lies between:: (A) Maxillary central incisors, (B) Maxillary central and Lateral incisor, (C) Maxillary canine and first premolar, (D) Maxillary lateral incisor and canine | Answer is C. None | |
Absence of lamina dura in the alveolus occurs in:: (A) Rickets, (B) Osteomalacia, (C) Deficiency of vitamin C, (D) Hyperparathyroidism | Answer is D. Radiological Features of Hyperparathyroidism Subperiosteal resorption of terminal tufts of phalanges, lateral end of clavicle and symphysis pubis. Loss of lamina dura (i.e. thin coical bone of tooth socket surrounding teeth is seen as thin white line, is resorbed). Fig : Loss of Lamina Dura Brown Tumor Sal... | |
Drug of choice for hypertension in pregnancy-: (A) Hydralazine, (B) Methyldopa, (C) Labetalol, (D) Nifedipine | Answer is B. (B) (Methyldopa) (506 Dutta 7th)* Intravenous labetalol or hydralazine are drugs most commonly used to manage preeclampsia (56-H 8th).* Antihypertensive drugs are essential when the BP is 160/110 mm Hg to protect the mother from eclampsia, cerebral hemorrhage, cardiac failure and placental abruption.* Firs... | |
Most common ophthalmic complication of diabetes mellitus is: (A) Retinopathy, (B) Cataract, (C) Rubeosis iridis, (D) Vitreous hemorrhage | Answer is A. (A) Retinopathy # Most common ophthalmic complication of diabetes mellitus is diabetic retinopathy, with diabetic retinopathy being the most common preventable cause of blindness> Ocular features of diabetes mellitus: Blurring of vision Cataract formation Diabetic pupil Diabetic retinopathy Macular edema R... | |
Hyaline casts are seen in: (A) Acute tubular necrosis, (B) Thrombotic microangiopathy, (C) Normal urine, (D) Pyelonephritis | Answer is C. Hyaline casts
Normal urine , Febrile disease, diuretics thereapy, prerenal azotemia. | |
Absense of taste sensation is termed as:: (A) Hypogeusia, (B) Ageusia, (C) Dysgeusia, (D) Partial ageusia | Answer is B. (B) Ageusia # Ageusia is the loss of taste functions of the tongue, particularly the inability to detect sweetness, sourness, bitterness, saltiness, and umami (the taste of monosodium glutamate). It is sometimes confused for anosmia--a loss of the sense of smell. Because the tongue can only indicate textur... | |
Hutchinsons secondaries In skull are due to tumors in: (A) Lung, (B) Breast, (C) Adrenal, (D) Liver | Answer is C. Adrenal neuroblastomas are malig8nant neoplasms arising from sympathetic neuroblsts in Medulla of adrenal gland Neuroblastoma is a cancer that develops from immature nerve cells found in several areas of the body.Neuroblastoma most commonly arises in and around the adrenalglands, which have similar origins... | |
Which of the following constitute grievous injury-: (A) Incised wound of scalp, (B) Incised wound of thigh, (C) Fracture Tibia, (D) Laceration of the scalp | Answer is C. None | |
NiTi alloy shows superelasticity through:: (A) Conversion from Austenite to Martensite phase, (B) Conversion from Martensite to Austenite phase, (C) M wire phase, (D) Austenite + Martensite + R phase | Answer is A. Superelasticity and shape memory of NiTi alloys is because of phase transformation in their crystal structures when cooled from the stronger, high temperature form (Austenite) to the weaker low temperature form (Martensite). | |
Assessment of obesity by following measurement except: (A) Quetelet’s index, (B) Broca index, (C) Sullivan’s index, (D) Corpulence index | Answer is C. None | |
An elderly house wife lost her husband who died suddenly of Myocardial infarction couple of years ago. They had been staying alone for almost a decade with infrequent visits from her son and grandchildren. About a week after the death she heard his voice clearly talking to her as he would in a routine manner from the n... | Answer is D. D i.e. HaloperidolThe diagnosis of this lady is morbid grief When there is an exaggeration of one or more symptoms of normal grief or the duration becomes prolonged beyond 6 months without recovery, it is k/a morbid grief.Preoccupation with the memory of deceased is a characteristic featureQ.Idealization o... | |
All endothelial cells are involved in the production of thrombomodulin EXCEPT those found in:: (A) Hepatic circulation, (B) Cutaneous circulation, (C) Cerebral microcirculation, (D) Renal circulation | Answer is C. Endothelium of the blood vessels plays an active role in preventing the extension of clots into blood vessels. All endothelial cells except those in the cerebral circulation produce thrombomodulin. Ref: Review of Medical Physiology By Ganong, 22nd Edition, Page 543; Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th... | |
Heme is conveed to bilirubin mainly in:: (A) Kidney., (B) Liver., (C) Spleen, (D) Bone marrow. | Answer is C. C i.e. Spleen Breakdown of heme to bilirubin occurs in macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system mainly in the spleenQ also in the liver and bone marrow. | |
All of the following cause osteonecrosis except -: (A) Sickle cell anemia, (B) Corticosteroid use, (C) DIC, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., None of the above o Osteonecrosis is a pathologic process that has been associated with trauma, with numerous atraumatic conditions, and with therapeutic interventions, most commonly corticosteroid use and excessive alcohol intake. o Compromise of the bone vasculature, leading to the deat... | |
Which of the following is involved in tumor metastasis cascade -: (A) Fibronectin, (B) E-Cadherin, (C) Type IV collagenase, (D) Tyrosine kinase | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following anti-tubercular drug is avoided in a HIV positive patient on zidovudine, lamivudine and indinavir therapy who develops TB?: (A) Pyrazinamide, (B) Isoniazid, (C) Ethambutol, (D) Rifampicin | Answer is D. RIFAMPACIN: Powerful enzyme inducer of the Hepatic Cytochrome P450 system. It increasesmetabolism of many drugs and as a consequence, can make them less effective, or even ineffective in some cases, by decreasing their levels in the plasma. Rifampicin can induce the metabolism of Indinavir and can result i... | |
TRUE about RU - 486 is :: (A) Used for inducing aboion in early week of pregnancy, (B) Used along with contraceptive pill, (C) Acts on the cytoplasmic receptor, (D) Used for preventing ectopic implantation | Answer is A. Used for inducing aboion in early week of pregnancy | |
Which of the following is sign of severe Dehydration in a child: (A) Lethargy, (B) Irritability, (C) Increased duration of skin pinch, (D) Suken eyes | Answer is A. Sunken eyes, mouth and tongue very dry , condition lethargy ,skin pinch goes back very slowly The patient has 2 / more signs there is severe dehydration Ref: Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 293 | |
Which of the following statements about contrast in radiography is true -: (A) Ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per two paicles in solution, (B) High osmolar contrast agents may be ionic or non ionic, (C) Gadolinum may cross the blood brain barrier, (D) Iohexol is a high osmolar contrast media | Answer is A. option A is correct : Ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per two paicles in solution Ionic dimers and non ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per one paicle in solution Non ionic dimers have six iodine atoms per one paicle in solution option B is incorrect : High osmolar agents (ionic monomers) are ... | |
A 6-year-old child presents with lesions on face, covered with honey colored crusts. Pruritus is present. The possible cause can be:: (A) Impetigo, (B) Herpes, (C) Chickenpox, (D) Molluscum contagiosum | Answer is A. Ans. a. ImpetigoNon bullous impetigo or impetigo contagiosa lesions have golden yellow, honey coloured crusting | |
In Medullary Carcinoma thyroid Tumour marker is-: (A) TSH, (B) Calcitonin, (C) T3, T4 and TSH, (D) Alpha Feto protein | Answer is B. None | |
Xylitol affects the MS stains by:: (A) Reduced adhesion are seen., (B) Less virulence properties are seen., (C) Less acid production are seen., (D) Anyone of the above. | Answer is D. None | |
Spigelberg criteria is used in:: (A) Ovarian pregnancy, (B) Abdominal pregnancy, (C) Cervical pregnancy, (D) Tubal pregnancy | Answer is A. Ans. is a, i.e. Ovarian pregnancySite of ectopicCriteria for diagnosisOvarian ectopicAbdominal ectopicCervical ectopicSpigelberg criteriaStuddiform ectopicRubin criteria/ Palmann criteria | |
Hemiparesis is NOT a feature of -: (A) Carotid artery occlusion, (B) MCA occlusion, (C) ACA occlusion, (D) Vertebral artery occlusion | Answer is D. None | |
Calculate degree of freedom Material Location X Y Glass 8 23 Cupboard 56 3 Metal 1 14: (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 3, (D) 4 | Answer is B. Degree of freedom = (C-1) (R-1) Given rows = 3 ; columns = 2 DOF = (2-1) (3-1) = 1x2 = 2 | |
Which of the following enzyme of TCA cycle is analogous to Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?: (A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, (B) Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase, (C) Malate dehydrogenase, (D) Succinate dehydrogenase | Answer is B. Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase catalyses an oxidative decarboxylation reaction similar to that of pyruvate dehydrogenase. uses the same coenzymes as the PDH complex (their E3 components are identical). Like PDH complex, its E2 is inhibited by arsenic. | |
Auditory area located in which lobe:: (A) Temporal, (B) Parietal, (C) Frontal, (D) Occipital | Answer is A. Most of the primary auditory cortex is in the temporal lobe, but the association auditory cortices extend over much of the insular lobe and even onto the lateral portion of the paritetal lobe | |
Classical symptom of endocervical polyp is: (A) Cervical prolapse, (B) Dyspareunia, (C) Intermenstrual bleeding, (D) Dysmenorrhea | Answer is C. Intermenstrual bleeding is classical symptom of endocervical polyp. | |
For teletherapy, isotopes commonly used are: (A) 1-123, (B) Cs-137, (C) Co-60, (D) Tc-99 | Answer is C. C i.e. Co-60 | |
The most likely inheritance pattern depicted in the following pedigree is:: (A) Autosomal dominant, (B) X-linked recessive, (C) X-linked dominant, (D) Autosomal recessive | Answer is C. . X-linked dominant | |
Which vitamin required for hydroxylation of proline: (A) A, (B) D, (C) C, (D) K | Answer is C. None | |
Afferents to basal ganglia rests in: (A) Striatum, (B) Globus pallidus, (C) Striatum, (D) Subthalamus nuclei | Answer is A. The main inputs to the basal ganglia terminate in the striatum. They include the excitatory coicostriate pathway from M1 and premotor coex. There is also a projection from intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus to the striatum (thalamostriatal pathway).Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, Twenty-Third ... | |
Maximum contraction of gall bladder is seen with:: (A) CCK, (B) Secretin, (C) Gastrin, (D) Enterogastrone | Answer is A. A i.e. CCK Most potent stimulus for causing gall bladder contraction is CCK-PZQ. | |
The most impoant stimulant of respiratory centre is:: (A) Alkalosis, (B) Decrease PCo2, (C) Increase PCo2, (D) Decrease Pao2 | Answer is D. Response to Co2, PaCO2 is most impoant factor in control of ventilation under normal conditions. PCo2 is most impoant input regulating magnitude of ventilation under resting conditions. Changes in alveolar ventilation have immediate, pronounced effect on aerial Pco2 (unlike Po2). Even slight alterations fr... | |
An 80-year-old woman presents with a 4-hour history of fever, shaking chills, and disorientation. Her blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg. Physical examination shows diffuse purpura on her upper arms and chest. Blood cultures are positive for Gram-negative organism. Which of the following cytokines is primarily involved in t... | Answer is D. Septicemia (bacteremia) denotes the clinical condition in which bacteria are found in the circulation. It can be suspected clinically, but the final diagnosis is made by culturing the organisms from the blood. In patients with endotoxic shock, lipopolysaccharide released from Gram-negative bacteria stimula... | |
A patient with blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg presents with pronounced cyanosis. Blood drawn from peripheral veins is observed to be chocolate brown in colour. The most likely diagnosis is:: (A) Methaemoglobinemia, (B) Hypovolemic shock, (C) Cardiogenic shock, (D) Hemorrhagic shock | Answer is A. Answer is A (Methaemoglobinemia) Pronounced cyanosis together with chocolate brown colour of 'freshly drawn blood suggests a diagnosis of methaemoglobinemia Methaemoglobinemia * * * Methaemoglobinemia is an uncommon but distinct cause of central cyanosis in the absence of hypoxemia or cardio vascular compr... | |
A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low grade fever and mild leucocytosis at 28 weeks ,the most likely diagnosis is: (A) Preterm labour, (B) Torsion of fibroid, (C) Red degeneration of fibroid, (D) Infection in fibroid | Answer is C. Red degeneration of fibroid: It results from softening of surrounding connective tissue The capillaries tend to rupture and blood effused out into the myoma causing a diffuse reddish discoloration The tumor it self assumes a peculiar purple red colour and develops a fishy odour,if the tumor is carefully ex... | |
Call Exner bodies are found in -: (A) Granulosa Cell Tumour, (B) Embryonal cell carcinoma, (C) Choriocarcinoma, (D) Androblastoma | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Granulosa Ceil Tumour "The formation of Call - Exner bodies is a distinct feature of granulose cells and can be readily recognised in certain types of granulosa cell tumours. " | |
Monteggia fracture is -: (A) Fracture of the proximal ulna with radial head dislocation, (B) Radial head subluxation, (C) Tear in interosseus membrane between radius and ulna with proximal ulna fracture, (D) Distal radius Fracture with injury to Distal radio ulnarjoint | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fracture of the proximal ulna with radial head dislocation Eponymous injuries of forearmNameInjuryMonteggia fracture dislocationFracture of upper third of ulna with dislocation of the radial headGalleazi fractureFracture of distal third of radius with dislocation or subluxation of inferio... | |
Commonest cause of esophageal perforation: March 2007: (A) Boerhaave syndrome, (B) Carcinoma of esophagus, (C) Acid ingestion, (D) Instrumentation | Answer is D. Ans. D: Instrumentation Instrumentation is by far the most common cause of perforation Boerhaave syndrome/Esophageal perforation, is rupture of the esophageal wall caused by excessive vomiting in eating disorders such as bulimia although it may rarely occur in extremely forceful coughing or other situation... | |
Sensory supply for skin over angle of jaw is: (A) Opthalmic nerve, (B) Mandibular nerve, (C) Cervical plexus, (D) Maxillary nerve | Answer is C. Cervial plexus supplies Skin over the angle of the jaw and over the parotid gland. Lower margin of the lower jaw | |
Population covered by a community health centre?: (A) 5000, (B) 30,000, (C) 100,000, (D) None | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 100,000 | |
The fastest type of nerve fibers are: (A) A, (B) B, (C) C, (D) All | Answer is A. According to erlanger and gasser classification, A fibers are myelinated and has large diameter The conduction velocity is 120m per second Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:73 | |
A 26-year-old patient presents with suspected pneumococcal meningitis. CSF culture is sent for antibiotic sensitivity. Which empirical antibiotic should be given until culture sensitivity result come?: (A) Penicillin G, (B) Ceftriaxone + metronidazole, (C) Doxycycline, (D) Cefotaxime + vancomycin | Answer is D. None | |
Form of vitamim D which is measured in serum ?: (A) Cholecalciferol, (B) 25 hydroxyvitamin D, (C) 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D, (D) 24,25 dihydroxyvitamin D | Answer is D. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 25 hydroxyvitamin DThough, 1, 25 dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) is the active form of vitamin D, its serum measurement does not provide any information about vitamin D status because it is often normal or elevated due to secondary hyperparathyroidism associated with vitamin D deficiency.... | |
High speed includes the R.P.M between: (A) 20000-50000, (B) 50000-100000, (C) 100000-200000, (D) above 200000 | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following factors are present in the final common terminal complement pathway?: (A) C4, (B) C3, (C) C5, (D) Protein B | Answer is C. C5, C6, C7, C8 and C9 are the factors present in common terminal pathway. The classic activation pathway, mannose-binding lectin activation pathway and alternative activation pathway converge on the final common terminal pathway. The cleavage of C3 by each pathway (classic activation pathway, mannose-bindi... | |
Peptic ulcer is caused by: (A) H. pylori, (B) Campylobacter jejuni, (C) Pneumocystis carinii, (D) Crypto sporidium | Answer is A. A. i.e. (H. pylori) (594 - Basic pathology 8th)PEPTIC ULCER - two conditions are key for the development of peptic ulcers1. H. pylori infection(i) 70 - 90% persons with duodenal ulcer(ii) 70% persons with gastric ulcers2. Mucosal exposure to gastric acid and pepsin* NSAIDs are the major cause of peptic ulc... | |
All are resected in whipples operation except:: (A) Duodenum, (B) Head of pancreas, (C) Portal vein, (D) Common bile duct | Answer is C. Ans is 'c' ie Portal vein Whipple's operation (Pancreaticoduodenectomy)is the most commonly performed operation for carcinoma of head of pancreas.It includes resection of: distal stomach - duodenumgall bladder - proximal jejunumCBD - regional lymphatics head of pancreasRestoration of gastrointestinal conti... | |
Prevalence of a disease depends upon the following?: (A) Incidence, (B) Duration, (C) Both of the above, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Both of the above Prevalence = Incidence 'x mean duration | |
The most common histologic type of thyroid cancer is -: (A) Medullary type, (B) Follicular type, (C) Papillary type, (D) Anaplastic type | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Papillary type [Ref: Schwartz 9/e p1361 (8/e p1417); Harrison 17/e p.2242 (16/e, p.2122)\o "Papillary carcinoma accounts for 80% of ail thyroid malignancies in iodine-sufficient areas and is the predominant thyroid cancer in children and individuals exposed to external radiation." - Schwa... | |
Transection of the brain stem at the mid-pontine level with bilateral vagotomy causes ______: (A) Ceasation of spontaneous respiration, (B) Continuation of regular breathing, (C) Irregular but rhythmic respiiration, (D) Apneusis | Answer is D. Transection of the brainstem at the midpoint level with bilateral vagotomy causes apneusis. At mid pontine level lesion, the apneustic centre is intact while the pneumotaxic centre is seperated. Concurrent removal of vagus inputs causes this kind of abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by deep, gasp... | |
The ureteric bud develops from ?: (A) mesonephric duct, (B) metanephric duct, (C) pronephric duct, (D) genital sinus | Answer is A. Development of kidneys - The definative human kidney arises from two distinct sources, 1). The secretory pa , I.e., excretory tubules or (nephrons) are derived from the lowest pa of the nephrogenic cord this pa is the metanephros, the cells of which form the metanephric blastema 2). The collecting pa of th... | |
True about treatment of carcinoma left colon with acute obstruction: (A) Haman's procedure, (B) Left colectomy with anastomosis, (C) Proximal colostomy, (D) All | Answer is D. Ans. is ' a ' , ' b ' , ' c ' | |
Superantigens true is -: (A) They bind to the left of the MHC, (B) Needs to processed before presentation, (C) They are presented by APC'S to T cells, (D) Directly attached to lateral aspect of TCR b chain | Answer is D. Superantigens are a class of antigens that cause non-specific activation of T-cells resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and massive cytokine release. Superantigens bind first to the MHC Class II and then coordinate to the variable alpha or beta chain of T-cell Receptors . Reff: Ananthanarayan & Panik... | |
Which of the following is true about colour vision: (A) Independent of wavelength of light, (B) Depends on intensity discrimination, (C) Involves opponent colour cells, (D) Minimum at fixation point | Answer is C. Opponent theory for colour vision is proposed by Hering This theory states that the three primary colours red, blue and green oppose one another so that the opponent processing cells can't detect the presence of both colours at the same time Neurotransmitter stored in rods and cones is glutamate Ref: Ganon... | |
In which of the following ahritis erosion are not seen: (A) Rheumatoid ahritis, (B) Systemic lupus ehematosus, (C) Psoriasis, (D) Gout | Answer is B. Ref Semantischolar.org | |
Alvarado score is used for: (A) Acute cholecystitis, (B) Acute appendicitis, (C) Acute apncreatitis, (D) Acute epidydimitis | Answer is B. Answer- B. Acute appendicitisScoring system for Acute Appendicitis: Alvarado Score:The diagnosis of appendicitis is based primarily on clinical history and physical examination assisted by blood counts. A number of clinical and laboratory based scoring systems have been devised to assist diagnosis.The most... | |
Indication of fetal distress is:: (A) Decrease in fetal scalp blood pH, (B) Meconium staining, (C) Late deceleration of heart rate, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans: d | |
AED stands for?: (A) Automatic external defibrillator, (B) Automated external defibrillator, (C) Automatic electrical defibrillator, (D) Automated electrical defibrillator | Answer is B. ADE is automated external defibrilater An automated external defibrillator (AED) is a poable electronic device that automatically diagnoses the life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias of ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia,and is able to treat them through defibrillation, the a... | |
Fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of ?: (A) Aldolase B, (B) Fructokinase, (C) Triokinase, (D) Aldolase A | Answer is A. None | |
Which cardiovascular change is physiological in last trimester of pregnancy?: (A) Mid-diastolic murmur, (B) Occasional atrial fibrillation, (C) Shift of apical impulse laterally and upwards in left 4th intercostal space, (D) Cardiomegaly | Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. Shift of apical impulse laterally and upwards in the left 4th intercostal spaceRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 52; Williams Obs. 25/e, p 60-62, 119, 960Clinical findings related to cardiovascular changes occuring during pregnancy:Heart rate (resting) increases by about 10-15 bpm. QApex beat shifts t... | |
Na-K ATPase: (A) 3 Na out / 2K in, (B) 3Na in / 2K out, (C) 2Na out / 3K in, (D) 2Na in / 3K out | Answer is A. Na+-K+ATPase, which actively moves Na+and K+ against their electrochemical gradient. The electrogenic Na K ATPase plays a critical role in cellular physiology by using the energy in ATP to extrude 3 Na+ out of the cell in exchange for taking two K+ into the cell. (REF.GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY ... | |
Which of the following anaesthetic modality is to be avoided in sickle cell disease?: (A) General anaesthesia, (B) Brachial plexus block, (C) IV. Regional Anaesthesia, (D) Spinal | Answer is C. The complications of IVRA is mainly attributable to the use of the tourniquet. On inflation of the touniquet there is physiological deoxygenation. In patients with sickle cell disease this might lead to sickling crisis. In these patients IVRA causes stasis, local acidosis and hypoxia. Hence IVRA is best av... | |
Raynaud's phenomenon seen in all EXCEPT:: (A) Scleroderma, (B) Dermatomyositis, (C) Juvenile rheumatoid ahritis, (D) SLE | Answer is C. Juvenile rheumatoid ahritisREF: Schwaz's Principles of Surgery 9' edition Chapter 23. Aerial Disease, Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th edition Chapter 243 Table 243-1 "Raynaud's phenomenon is seen in Rheumatoid ahritis not Juvenile Rheumatoid ahritis" The term Raynaud's phenomenon applies to a heterogeneo... | |
All of the following can cause osteoporosis, except -: (A) Hyperparathyroidism, (B) Steroid use, (C) Flurosis, (D) Thyrotoxicosis | Answer is C. Osteoporosis It refers to reduction ofbone mass per unit volume (loss of matrix and defective mineralisation) (Fig. 9.47). Aetiology 1.Involutional 2.Endocrinological 3.Gastrointestinal 4.Haematological 5.Rheumatological 6.Collagen vascular Normal bone Type I (postmenopausal) and Type II (senile) Hypehyroi... | |
Protein of muscle which helps in relaxation is: (A) Nebulin, (B) Titin, (C) Desmin, (D) Calcineurin | Answer is B. Titin Location: Reaches from the Z line to the M line.Function: Largest protein in the body. Role in relaxation of the muscle.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 51 Muscle & the Cytoskeleton | |
Levamisole is used as all except -: (A) Single dose in ascariasis, (B) Immunostimulant, (C) Paralysis of worms by depolarisation, (D) Immunodepressant in high doses | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Immunodepressant in high doses Levamisol o Levamisole is an immunomodulator - restores depressed T cell function -3 Immunostimulant (not immunodepressant). o Single dose of levamisol can be used in ascariasis. Other uses --> A. duodenal (less active against N. americana). o It causes toni... | |
Which of following is not absorbed in PCT:: (A) Bicarbonate, (B) Sodium, (C) Phosphate, (D) H+ | Answer is D. D i.e. H+ | |
IPD records of patients are preserved for how many years ?: (A) 1 year, (B) 3 years, (C) 5 years, (D) 7 years | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3 years Medical Council recommends that the medical records of the indoor patient to be aintained for atleast a period of 3 years from the date of commencement of treatment. | |
The matrix band for restoring a Class-I with lingual extension is: (A) Tofflemire, (B) Ivory No.8, (C) Barton, (D) T band | Answer is C. None | |
Auditory pathway passes through -: (A) Medial geniculate body, (B) Lateral geniculate body, (C) Reticular formation, (D) Cerebellar fornix | Answer is A. Ans-A | |
Durck granuloma is seen in: (A) Congenital syphilis, (B) Cat scratch disease, (C) Histoplasmosis, (D) Cerebral malaria | Answer is D. Ans. (d) Cerebral malaria(Ref: Malaria - Page 76)In malignant cerebral malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum, brain vessels are plugged with parasitized red cells, causing ring hemorrhage which is accompanied by necrosis of surrounding parenchyma.The damage leads to formation of Durck's granuloma - colle... | |
All vaccines are given in disaster,except ?: (A) Cholera, (B) Influenza, (C) Measles, (D) Tetanus | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cholera Vaccines recommended in disasters o Following vaccines are recommended 1) Children < 10 years :- DPT, inactivated polio (IPV), H.influenzae type b (Hib), hepatitis B, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV), measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), varicella vaccine, influenza, hepatitis A and r... | |
The goal of NRR=1 can be best achieved by use of following contraceptive methods -: (A) Condom 72/year, (B) IUCD, (C) Vasectomy, (D) Oralpills | Answer is C. Sterilization is the most effective contraception to achieve NRR =1 Male sterilization Male sterilization or vasectomy being a comparatively* simple operation can be performed even in primary health centres by trained doctors under local anaesthesia. When carried out under strict aseptic technique, it shou... | |
All of the following agents can be given for induction of anaesthesia in children, EXCEPT:1: (A) Halothane, (B) Servoflurane, (C) Morphine, (D) Nitrous oxide | Answer is C. Morphine has pharmacokinetic differences in young individuals, that may predispose them to develop respiratory depression. So this drug should be used with caution in infants less than 6 months of age who are not ventilated. Drugs used in the induction of anesthesia in children are a mixture of oxygen and ... | |
Which of the following agents is of value in the postoperative care of the hemophilic patient?: (A) Vitamin K, (B) Monsel's solution, (C) Aminocaproic acid, (D) Factor 8 cryoprecipitate | Answer is C. None | |
A 6-year old child who presented with perianal pruritus, excoriation of skin and nocturnal enuresis was found to be infected with a parasite causing autoinfection. The causative agent is diagnosed by the -: (A) NIH swab method, (B) String test, (C) Hetrazan test, (D) Encysted larvae on muscle biopsy | Answer is A. The causative agent is Enterobius vermiculais & is diagnosed by NIH swab or perianal swab moistened with saline ie by applying the adhesive surface of cellophane tape to perianal skin in the morning & then this is examined on a glass slide inder microscope. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 1102 | |
A histological section of the left ventricle of a deceased 28-year-old male shows classic contraction band necrosis of the myocardium. Biological specimens confirm the presence of cocaine and metabolites. Activity of which of the following enzymes was most likely increased in the patient's myocardial cells sholy prior ... | Answer is B. Cocaine causes contraction band necrosis by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine, resulting in excessive vasoconstriction of coronary vessels, leading to ischemia and infarction of hea tissue. Under these pathological conditions, myocardial cells switch to anaerobic metabolism and therefore glycolysis b... | |
All are hypercoagulable states, except :: (A) Protein C resistance, (B) Factor V Leiden deficiency, (C) Antiphospholipid antibody, (D) Polycythemia | Answer is B. Answer is B (factor V Leiden deficiency) Factor V Leiden mutation (or T Factor V Leiden levels) are associated with a hypercoaguable state and not a Factor V Leiden deficiency. Inherited Defective inhibition of coagulation factors Factor V Leiden (resistant to inhibition by activated protein C) - Antithrom... | |
Parasites not transmitted through soil:: (A) Pin worm, (B) Hookworm, (C) Tapeworm, (D) Roundworm | Answer is C. Ans: (c) TapewormRef: K.D. Chatterjee, 13th edition, Page 212-222Nematodes based on mode of infection:Mode of InfectionOrganismsIngestionEggsEnterobius , Ascaris , Irichuris (EAT)Larva within intermediate hostDrancunculus medinensisEncysted larva in muscleTrichinella spiralisPenetration of skinStrongyloide... | |
Which of the following does not undergo phosphorylation by protein kinases?: (A) Threonine, (B) Tyrosine, (C) Asparagine, (D) Serine | Answer is C. Phosphorylation occurs at the hydroxyl groups of serine, threonine, and tyrosine. A protein kinase is a kinase enzyme that modifies other proteins by chemically adding phosphate groups to them (phosphorylation). Phosphorylation usually results in a functional change of the target protein (substrate) by cha... | |
All the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in an APH patient except: (A) 37 weeks, (B) IUD, (C) Transverse lie, (D) Significant bleeding | Answer is C. The definite management - comprises prompt delivery, this is considered when ever The patient has her first bout of bleeding after 37 completed weeks. Successful conservative treatment brings the patients upto 37 weeks. If the initial or a subsequent bout of bleeding is very severe Patient is in labour Evi... | |
Note a delayed type of hypersensitive reactions -a) Arthus reactionb) Bronchial asthmac) Hemolytic anemiad) Multiple sclerosis: (A) ab, (B) bc, (C) abc, (D) bcd | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome :: (A) Triple screen test, (B) Amniocentesis, (C) Chorionic villous biopsy, (D) Ultrasonography | Answer is B. Ans. is b i.e. Amniocentesis In a pregnant lady with H/0 previous Down syndrome, the chances of recurrence are increased. Extensive screening should be carried out in all such females. Now in the question given - female is presenting at 18 weeks and investigation of choice is being asked which will definat... | |
Hypersensitivity angitis is seen in -: (A) SLE, (B) Polyaeritis nodosa, (C) Henoch schonlein purpura, (D) Buergers disease | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Henoch schonlein purpurao HSP is not hypersensitivity angitis. But the best answer amongst the given options is HSP because it is the most impoant differential of hypersensitivity angitis.Hypersensitivity angitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis or hypersensitivity angitis or leukocytoclastic ... | |
Train of four is characteristically used in concern with-: (A) Malignant hypehermia, (B) Non -depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, (C) Mechanical ventilation, (D) To check hemodynamic parameters | Answer is B. Train of four is used for monitoring neuromuscular block during anaesthesia. Fade on TO4 is the characteristic feature of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockage. | |
The commonest site of lodgement of a pulmonary embolus is in the territory of -: (A) Rt. lower lobe, (B) Rt. upper lobe, (C) Lt. lower lobe, (D) Lt. upper lobe | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lt. upper lobe | |
Plummer vinson syndrome is characterised by all except: (A) Glossitis, (B) Esophagal webs, (C) Megaloblastic anemia, (D) Esophagal dysplasia | Answer is C. rare disease characterized by difficulty swallowing, iron-deficiency anemia, glossitis, cheilosis and esophageal webs.Treatment with iron supplementation and mechanical widening of the esophagus generally provides an excellent outcome. | |
Which of the following drug is an enzyme inducer?: (A) Rifampicin, (B) Isoniazid, (C) Ketokonazole, (D) Erythromycin | Answer is A. (Ref: Katzung, 14th ed. pg. 59; KDT, 6th ed. pg. 27)Enzyme induction involves microsomal enzyme in liver as well as in other organ.It increases the rate of metabolism 2 - 4 fold. Therefore, effect of drug decreases.Enzyme inhibitors also involves microsomal enzyme.It inhibits the microsomal enzyme, which d... | |
Trantas spots are seen in –: (A) Vernal conjunctivitis, (B) Eczematous conjunctivitis, (C) Ophthalmia nodosa, (D) Tularemia | Answer is A. Tranta's spots (Horner tranta's spots) are discrete white raised dots along the limbus and are composed of degenerated eosinophils. |
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