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An expectant mother feels quickening at:: (A) 12-18 weeks, (B) 16-20 weeks, (C) 26 weeks, (D) 24-28 weeks | Answer is B. Ans. is b, i.e. 16-20 weeksRef. Dutta Obs 9/e, p 63: Reddy 27/e, p 434"Quickening (feeling of life) denotes the perception of active fetal movements by the women. It is usually felt about the 18th week Q, 2 weeks earlier in multiparae. Its appearance is a useful guide to calculate the expected date of deli... | |
All of the following are causes of Renal Vein Thrombosis, Except:: (A) Membranous Nephropathy, (B) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, (C) Lupus Nephritis, (D) Post streptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN) | Answer is D. Answer is D (PSGN): Post streptococcal Glomerulonephritis has not been mentioned as a cause of Renal Vein thrombosis Nephrotic Syndrome: Common Renal pathologies causing Renal Vein Thrombosis Membranous Glomerulonephritis (strongest association) Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis Amyloidosis Lupus Ne... | |
Drug which do not cause hyperprolactinemia:: (A) Bromocriptine, (B) Haloperidol, (C) Reserpine, (D) Chlorpromazine | Answer is A. Ans. A. BromocriptineAll of the drugs listed are D2 blockers which are associated with hyperprolactinemia except bromocriptine which is D 2 agonist. | |
All of the following are indicators of air pollution except: (A) CO, (B) SO2, (C) Soiling index, (D) Smoking index | Answer is D. Soiling index or smoke index is used to monitor air pollution. Best indicators of air pollution are sulfur dioxide, smoke index, grit and dust measurement, coefficient of haze and Air pollution index. Smoking index is measured by multiplying the number of cigarettes smoked per day by the number of years th... | |
Sex determination in early pregnancy Is done by:: (A) X-rays, (B) Amniocentesis, (C) Ultrasound, (D) Hysteroscopy | Answer is C. Ultrasound | |
What is the rate of release of levonorgestrel into the uterus from Mirena, a progestin releasing intrauterine device?: (A) 20 microgm/d, (B) 30 microgm/d, (C) 50 microgm/d, (D) 70 microgm/d | Answer is A. Mirena is a progestin releasing device, it releases levonorgestrel into the uterus at a rate of 20 microgm/d. It has a T-shaped radiopaque frame, with its stem wrapped with a cylinder reservoir, composed of a polydimethylsiloxane-levonorgestrel mixture. Cu T 380A is another progestin releasing device. It h... | |
Which of the following can be givenorally -: (A) Cytosine ara, (B) Actinomycin D, (C) Doxorubicin, (D) Mesna | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Mesna o MESNA is given alongwith alkylating agents to prevent nephrotoxicity due to cyclophosphamide. o It can be administered intravenously or orally. Cytarabine Cytarabine (Ara C) is degraded by the enzyme cytidine deaminase. Cytidine deaminase is present in high concentrations in g.i. ... | |
Which of these is true regarding CML -: (A) Size of splenomegaly indicates prognosis, (B) Phagocytic activity of WBC is reduced, (C) Sudan black stain is specific for myeloblast, (D) All | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Size of splenomegaly indicates prognosis SOKAL INDEX is used for assessing the prognosis in CML. It includes 1. % of circulating blasts 3. platelet count 5. cytogenetic clonal evaluation 2. spleen size 4. age o The cytogenic hallmark of CML is presence of philadelphia chromosome (9:22). I... | |
Disulfiram like reaction is commonly caused by which of the following: March 2005: (A) Penicillin, (B) metronidazole, (C) Tetracycline, (D) erythromycin | Answer is B. Ans. B: Metronidazole Drugs causing Disulfiram like reaction Metronidazole Cefamandole Cefoperazone Chlorpropamide Sulfonylureas Quinacrine Griseofuvin Chloramphenicol Tinidazole Procarbazine Ritonavir Nitrofurantoin Chloramphenicol Chloral hydrate | |
Best Prognostic factor for head injury ?: (A) Age of patient, (B) Glasgow coma scale, (C) Mode of injury, (D) Presence of facial trauma | Answer is B. Glassgow Coma Scale (GCS) Maximum score - 15, minimum score - 3 Best predictor of outcome : Motor response Patients scoring 3 or 4 have an 85% chance of dying or remaining vegetative, while scores above 11 indicate only a 5-10% likelihood of death Table given as image Ref : Harrison's 19th edition Pgno :17... | |
The labial bow in activator is constructed with:: (A) 0.6mm, (B) 0.5mrn, (C) 0.7mm, (D) 0.8mm & slightly heavier | Answer is D. None | |
Urea cycle components are all except: (A) Urease, (B) Arginase, (C) Transcarbamoylase, (D) Arginosuccinase | Answer is A. l-Ornithine transcarbamoylase (EC 2.1.3.3) catalyzes transfer of the carbamoyl group of carbamoyl phosphate to ornithine, forming citrulline and ohophosphate. Argininosuccinate synthase (EC 6.3.4.5) links aspaate and citrulline the amino group of aspaate (reaction 3, Figure 28-16) and provides the second n... | |
Basal lamina of blood vessel in CNS is secreted by: (A) Endothelial cells, (B) Oligodendrocytes, (C) Microglia, (D) Astrocytes | Answer is A. None | |
A 36-year-old woman with pneumococcal pneumonia develops a right pleural effusion. The pleural fluid displays a high specific gravity and contains large numbers of polymorphonuclear (PMN) leukocytes. Which of the following best characterizes this pleural effusion?: (A) Fibrinous exudate, (B) Lymphedema, (C) Purulent ex... | Answer is C. -The pleural effusion encountered in this patient represents excess fluid in a body cavity. Transudate-Edema fluid with low protein content Exudate-Edema fluid with high protein content. Purulent exudate or effusion contains a prominent cellular component (PMNs). Serous exudate or effusion is characterized... | |
Which of the following type of cell is concerned with the production of surfactant?: (A) Type I Pneumocytes, (B) Type II Pneumocytes, (C) Alveolar macrophages, (D) Clara cells | Answer is B. Pulmonary surfactant composed of myelin and lecithin is mainly secreted continuously by Type II pneumocyte beginning from 20th week of gestation. Also Know: Surfactant has both lipid (90%) and protein (10%) component. About half of the lipids are dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine and the remaining are phospha... | |
Wrong about Mother and Child Health programme is – a) Useful for children upto 12 years of ageb) It's objective is to prevent against chronic diseasesc) 100% immunization to be done by 200 A.D. against six vaccine preventable diseasesd) To decrease acute respiratory infections: (A) ac, (B) ab, (C) ad, (D) bc | Answer is B. None | |
Gene responsible for FAP is located at: (A) Chromosome 5, (B) Chromosome 8, (C) Chromosome 15, (D) Chromosome X | Answer is A. Familial adenomatous polyp(FAP) is inherited as an autosomal dominant neoplastic condition (chromosome 5q21). It has a high potential for malignant transformation. It presents in younger age group- 15-20 yrs; equal in both sexes. It commonly involves the large intestine but can also occur in stomach, duode... | |
The most impoant function of epithelioid cells in tuberculosis is -: (A) Phagocytosis, (B) Secretory, (C) Antigenic, (D) Healing | Answer is B. Epithelioid cells. These are so called because of their epithelial cell-like appearance, are modified macrophages/ histiocytes which are somewhat elongated, having a vesicular and lightly-staining slipper-shaped nucleus, and pale staining abundant cytoplasm with hazy outlines so that the cell membrane of a... | |
Developmental depressions on both mesial and distal sides of roots are seen in:: (A) Mandibular central incisor, (B) Maxillary canines, (C) Mesial root of mandibular 1st molar, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Deep concavities on distal surface are present in – Maxillary 1st premolar
Deep concavities on distal surface are present in – Maxillary 1st molar
Developmental depressions on both mesial and distal sides of roots are seen in – Mandibular central incisors, upper canines, mesial root of mandibular 1st molar... | |
Biological Methods of Treatments in Psychiatry include all except: (A) Electroconvulsive therapy, (B) Sub-convulsive ECT, (C) Psychosurgery, (D) Aversion therapy | Answer is D. (D) Aversion therapy # Biological Methods of Treatments in Psychiatry include:> Older methods (no longer used in clinical practice): Malarial treatment for general paralysis of insane Insulin coma therapy Atropine coma therapy Continuous sleep treatment Sub-convulsive ECT Chemical convulsive therapy Sleep ... | |
Cardiomyopathy is/are due to deficinency of:: (A) Selenium, (B) Phosphorus, (C) Boron, (D) Zinc | Answer is A. Ans.: A (Selenium) ' Selenium deficiency causes Keshan disease(endemic cardiomyopathy)"Shinde 7th/594Possible causes of cardiomyopathy include; www.may- odinic.com/heaith/cardiomyopa thy/DS00519/DSECTION# Long-term high blood pressure# Defects in heart valve# Heart tissue damage from a previous heart attac... | |
The following is lure for Mycoplasmas except:: (A) Multiply by binary fission, (B) Are sensitive to beta-lactam group of drugs, (C) Can grow in cell free media, (D) Require sterols for their growth | Answer is B. GENERAL CHARACTERISTICS OF MYCOPLASMAS: Very small(0.2-0.3 um) . Can pass through bacterial filters. Lack a rigid cell wall. Bound by a single trilaminar cell membrane that contains a sterol. Extremely pleomorphic varying in shape from coccoid to filamentous to other bizzare forms. Mycoplasma, Ureaplasma, ... | |
The most common cause of Anovulation is:: (A) Polycystic Ovarian Disease, (B) Hyperprolactinemia, (C) Premature ovarian failure, (D) Low ovarian reserves | Answer is A. WHO Classification for Anovulation Hypothalamic pituitary failure: Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism Hypothalamic pituitary dysfunction/PCOS: Normogonadotropic Hypogonadism Ovarian failure: Hypergonadotropic Hypogonadism Hyperprolactinemia Anovulation and ovulatory dysfunction can be caused by a number of fact... | |
Corpulmonale is heart disease due to:: (A) COPD affecting right ventricle, (B) Left ventricular failure, (C) Pericardial effusion, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following Artery supplies the thyroid gland?: (A) Internal carotid artery, (B) Thyrocrvical trunk, (C) Lingual artery, (D) Subclavian artery | Answer is B. Arterial Supply of thyroid gland:-
Mainly supplied by:
Superior thyroid arteries (this is branch of external carotid artery)
Inferior thyroid arteries (this is a branch of the thyrocervical trunk that arises from the subclavian artery) | |
The most widely used partial denture classification: (A) Kennedy, (B) Kennedy-Applegate, (C) Cumberland, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following inhibits rate limiting step of Norepinephrine synthesis: (A) Cocaine, (B) Amphetamine, (C) Metyrosine, (D) Bretylium | Answer is C. Metyrosine inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase enzyme, which mediates the rate limiting step of norepinephrine synthesis (i.e conversion of Tyrosine to Dopa). | |
Drug of choice for renal colic -: (A) Methadone, (B) Pentazocine, (C) Voveran, (D) Piroxican | Answer is C. None | |
Dye is injected in one of the extremities in a child and is followed by pain and swelling of upper limb, paraesthesias of fingers, stretch pain and normal peripheral pulses, management is:: (A) Aspiration, (B) Anti-Inflammatory, (C) Observation, (D) Fasciotomy | Answer is D. (d) Fasciotomy- As patient is clinically a case of compartment syndrome -pain on passive stretch and he has paraesthesias so fasciotomy is indicated.- Remember Pulses can be normal in compartment syndrome. | |
Number of holes per square inch of a standard mosquito net is?: (A) 100, (B) 150, (C) 250, (D) 175 | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) 150REF: Park 20th edition page 678"The size of the opening of mosquito net is of utmost importance- the size should not exceed 0.0475 inch in any diameter. The number of holes in one square inch is usually 150" | |
Bronchial secretion secretes -: (A) IgA, (B) IgE, (C) IgM, (D) IgG | Answer is A. In its secretory form, IgA is the main immunoglobulin found in mucous secretions, including tears, saliva, sweat, colostrum, and secretions from the genitourinary tract, gastrointestinal tract, prostate, and respiratory epithelium. It is also found in small amounts in the blood Ref: Ananthanarayan & Parker... | |
Primary' Health Care includes all, except -: (A) Proper housing, (B) Equitable distribution, (C) Intersectoral coordination, (D) appropriate technology | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Proper housing Primary heath careo "Primary health care is essential health care made universally accessible to individuals and acceptable to them, through their full participation and at a cost the community and country: can afford."o There are 4 main principles of primary health care :E... | |
IPPV can cause -: (A) Barotrauma, (B) Pleural effusion, (C) Missing, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. None | |
All of the following are attached to the greater trochanter of femur, EXCEPT?: (A) Gluteus minimus, (B) Gluteus medius, (C) Gluteus maximus, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. The greater trochanter provides attachment for the smaller gluteal muscles. Gluteus minimus is attached to its rough anterior impression and gluteus medius to its lateral oblique strip. The bone is separated from the tendon of gluteus medius by a bursa. The area behind is covered by deep fibres of gluteus ... | |
16-year-old girl with sho height, amenorrhea with widely spaced nipple. Karyotyping is;: (A) 45 X0, (B) 46 XO, (C) 47 XXX, (D) 46XY | Answer is A. Given features suggests the diagnosis of Turner's syndrome. Turner's syndrome Most common sex chromosomal disorder in phenotypic females. Results from complete or paial loss of one X chromosome (45, XO) Features: Sho stature Coarctation of aoa Cubitus valgus Streak ovaries, infeility, amenorrhea Peripheral... | |
A person presented with swelling of the right 3rd toe. X ray shows deposition of multiple crystals. A defect in which of the following pathway caused the problem.: (A) Purine salvage pathway, (B) Uric acid pathway, (C) Urea cycle, (D) CORI cycle | Answer is B. The probable diagnosis is gout . Gout is the most common inflammatory ahritis in men and in older women. It is caused by deposition of monosodium urate monohydrate crystals in and around synol joints due to abnormal purine metabolism . Ref Davidsons 23e p1013 | |
Following are the major symptoms of obsessive compulsive disorders -: (A) Contamination, (B) Pathological doubts, (C) Intrusive thoughts, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above o OCD has four major symptom patterns1) Contamination:- Contamination is the most common pattern of an obsession followed by washing (washer). Patients may literally rub the skin of their hands by excessive hand washing. The most common emotional response is anxiety.2) Patho... | |
Advantage of minimum mercury technique or Eames technique is all except: (A) High strength, (B) Sets quickly, (C) Needs no squeezing of excess mercury, (D) Greater plasticity and adapts well to cavity walls | Answer is D. None | |
True about vertebral artery -a) Enter skull through condylar canal.b) Branch of internal carotid arteryc) Branch of subclavian arteryd) Accompany sympathetic ganglione) Passes through foramen transversarium of cervical vertebrae: (A) abd, (B) acd, (C) cde, (D) ade | Answer is C. Vertebral artery enters skull (posterior cranial fossa) through foramen magnum.
Vertebral artery is a branch of subclavian artery.
It is accompanied by sympathetic peri-arterial plexus, inferior cervical (stellate) sympathetic ganglion and ventral rami of 7th and 8th cervical spinal nerves.
Vertebral arter... | |
The following is true for Mycoplasmas except -: (A) Multiply by binary fission., (B) Are sensitive to beta-lactam group of drugs., (C) Can grow in cell free media., (D) Require sterols for their growth | Answer is B. None | |
Eruption of Deciduous Maxillary Central incisor occur at: (A) 8-9 months, (B) 10-11 months, (C) 19-20 months, (D) 15-16 months | Answer is A. None | |
Bristol cha is used fore: (A) Stool consistency, (B) Nocturnal enuresis, (C) Mental retardation, (D) Cognitive development | Answer is A. Answer- A. Stool consistencyThe Bristol stool scale(Bristol stool cha (BsC)) is a diagnostic medical tool designed to classifr the form of human feces into seven categories.The seven types ofstcol areType 1 Separate hard lumps, like nuts (hard to pass); also known as goat faecesType 2: Sausage-shaped but l... | |
Retentive grooves of a proximal box in a class II cavity prepared for amalgam should be:: (A) Sharp and elongated at the dentino enamel junction of the buccal and lingual walls, (B) Sharp and well defined extending from the gingival to the occlusal cavosurface angle along the buccal and lingual line angles, (C) Elongat... | Answer is C. None | |
2 yrs child weighing 6.7 Kg presents in the casualty with history of vomiting and diarrohea for last 2 days. On examination skin pinch over the anterior abdominal wall go quickly to its original position. Interpretation of skin-pinch test in this child will be:: (A) No dehydration, (B) Some dehydration, (C) Sever dehyd... | Answer is D. Skin pinch is less useful in infants or children with marasmus (wasting) or kwashiorkor (severe malnutrition with edema), or obese children. Ref: Kliegman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton, (2007), Chapter 85, "Fluid and Electrolyte Treatment of Specific Disorders", In the book, "Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics", ... | |
Middle superior alveolar nerve is a branch of which of the following nerve?: (A) Facial Nerve, (B) Lingual nerve, (C) Maxillary nerve, (D) Mandibular nerve | Answer is C. Middle superior alveolar nerve arise from infra orbital branch of maxillary nerve in the infra orbital groove and canal.Course of superior alveolar nerve:It is given off from the maxillary nerve just before its exit from the infra orbital foramen. It descends in a canal in the anterior wall of the maxillar... | |
Drug of choice for relapsing remitting multiple sclerosis is:: (A) Alpha IEN, (B) Beta IFN, (C) Gamma IFN, (D) Natalizumab | Answer is B. Answer is option 2,beta interferon Early treatment with high-dose interferon beta-1a reverses cognitive and coical plasticity deficits in multiple sclerosis. Mori F1, Kusayanagi H, Buttari F, Centini B, Monteleone F, Nicoletti CG, Bernardi G, Di Cantogno EV, Marciani MG, Centonze D. Author information Abst... | |
All are true about ischemia associated kidney injury, EXCEPT:: (A) Healthy kidneys account for 10% of total oxygen consumption, (B) Renal medulla is a most hypoxic region of the body, (C) Ischemia associated with rhabdomyolysis is more dangerous, (D) Healthy kidneys receive 30% of the cardiac output | Answer is D. Healthy kidneys receive 20% of the cardiac output and 10% of resting oxygen consumption. despite constituting only 0.5% of the human body mass. The renal medulla is the site of one of the most hypoxic regions in the body. Ischemia alone in a normal kidney is usually not sufficient to cause severe AKI. Clin... | |
Exposure of left subclan aery by supraclavicular approach does not require cutting of ?: (A) Sternocleidomastoid, (B) Scalenus anterior, (C) Scalenus medius, (D) Omohyoid | Answer is C. Scalenus medius lies posterior to the subclan aery and thus need not be divided to expose the aery. Whereas, sternocleidomastoid & scalenus anterior lie anteriorly and omohyoid lies superiorly and thus are cut during exposure of the subclan aery. | |
Bilayer cell membrane contains: (A) Cholesterol, (B) Triacyl glycerol, (C) Cholesterol ester, (D) Glycerol | Answer is A. The phospholipids are arranged in bilayers with the polar head groups oriented towards the extracellular side and the cytoplasmic side with a hydrophobic core (Fig. 2.4A). The distribution of the phospholipids is such that choline-containing phospholipids are mainly in the external layer and ethanolamine a... | |
Presence of Hbe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates -: (A) Simple carriers, (B) Late convalescence, (C) High infectivity, (D) Carrier status | Answer is C. HBeAg appears in blood concurrently with HBsAg or soon afterward. Circulating HBeAg is an indicator of active intrahepatic viral multiplication, and the presence in blood of DNA polymerase, HBV DNA and virions, reflecting high infectivity. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITI... | |
True about fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver:: (A) Good prognosis than hepatocellular carcinoma, (B) Common in old age, (C) Associated with cirrhosis, (D) Associated with hepatitis B infection | Answer is A. “A distinctive variant of hepatocellular carcinoma is the fibrolamellar carcinoma, constituting less than 5% of HCCs. This tumor occurs in young male and female adults (20 to 40 years of age) with equal incidence, has no association with HBV or cirrhosis risk factors, and often has a better prognosis
It us... | |
A patient in emergency depament shows Mc Ewan sign. This sign is positive in the following condition:: (A) Cyanide poisoning, (B) Alcoholism, (C) Lead, (D) Arsenic poison | Answer is B. Mc Ewan sign is seen in stage of coma of acute alcohol intoxication. Stage of coma of alcohol intoxication: In this stage, the motor and sensory cells are deeply affected, speech becomes thick and slurring, coordination is markedly affected, causing the patient to become giddy, stagger and possibly to fall... | |
Sentinel lymph node is defined as -: (A) Primary LN draining tumor, (B) LN which is first excised during MRM, (C) LN nearest to tumor, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Primary LN draining tumor | |
Buonian line is seen in poisoning: (A) Lead, (B) Arsenic, (C) Copper, (D) Silver | Answer is A. Chr. Lead poisoning = Plumbism = Saturnism = Saturnine poisoning- ALA in urine, Coproporphyrin in urine, facial pallor, Basophilic stippling/Punctate basophilia (dark blue, pin-head spots in cytoplasm of RBCs), Buonian line (blue line gums' margin, PbS, 50-70% cases, near carious/diy teeth, Lead palsy, Pb ... | |
Avascular necrosis of bone is LEAST likely to be associated with?: (A) Osgood -Schlatter disease, (B) Legg-Perthes disease, (C) Long-term use of corticosteroids, (D) Sickle-cell disease | Answer is A. Avascular necrosis is an infarction of bone that is associated with (1) long-term corticosteroid use, such as in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (most common cause), (2) sickle-cell disease, (3) trauma, (4) Legg-Perthes disease, or (5) Kienbock disease involving the scaphoid (navicular) bone. Os... | |
All of the following are ketone bodies EXCEPT: (A) Alpha ketoglutarate, (B) Acetone, (C) Acetoacetate, (D) Beta-hydroxy butyrate | Answer is A. Primary ketone body-Acetoacetate.
Secondary ketone bodies- Acetone, Beta-hydroxybutyrate.
Neutral Ketone body-Acetone.
Ketone body excreted through lungs-Acetone.
Site of synthesis of ketone bodies-Liver mitochondria.
Organs which do not utilize ketone bodies-Liver, RBCs.
Rate limiting step of ketone body ... | |
Fasciculation are caused by: (A) Suxamethonium, (B) Pancuronium, (C) d-TC, (D) Vecuronium | Answer is A. Fasciculations are the characteristic feature of depolarising block. Succinylcholine is the depolarising muscle relaxant. d-tubocurare, vecuronium and pancuronium are the non-depolarising muscle relaxants. | |
A young man weighing 65 Kg was admitted to the hospital with severe burns in a severe catabolic state. An individual in this slate requires 40 KCal per Kg body weight per day 1 gm of protein/Kg body weight/da. This young man was given a solution containing 20% glucose and 4.25% protei. If 3000 ml of solution in infused... | Answer is C. Calories are calculated by catabolism of glucose (not proteins) Glucose: Amount of glucose in 20% glucose in 3000 ml of solution: 3000*20/100 = 600 gms. 1 gm glucose on catabolism produces: 4.2 KCal. 600 gms of glucose would produce: 600*4.2 = 2520 KCal. Protein: Percentage of protein in fluid: 4.25% Perce... | |
The most effective contraceptive available is:: (A) Combined Oral contraceptive pill, (B) Progestin injectable, (C) Third generation IUCD, (D) Centchroman | Answer is C. - Amongst the choices, third generation is most effective with a failure rate of only 0.2/HWY. PEARL INDEX OF DIFFERENT CONTRACEPTIONS: Male condoms 2-14 / HWY Female condoms 5-21 / HWY Centchroman 1.84 - 2.84 /HWY OCPs 0.1 - 2 /HWY Sterilization 0.1 / HWY Vaginal sponge 9-20 / HWY | |
Endogenous triglycerides in plasma aremaximally carried in -: (A) VLDL, (B) Chylomicrons, (C) LDL, (D) HDL | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., VLDL | |
'Cayenne pepper' stippling due to hemosiderin is found in :: (A) Erythroplasia of Queyrat, (B) Pagets disease, (C) Plasma cell balantitis of zoon, (D) Metronidazole | Answer is C. C i.e. Plasma cell balantitis of zoon | |
Vomiting centre is situated in which part of brain?: (A) Hypothalamus, (B) Amygdala, (C) Pons, (D) Medulla | Answer is D. The area postrema (AP) has been implicated as a chemoreceptor trigger zone for vomiting (emesis) for over 40 years. The AP is located on the dorsal surface of the medulla oblongata at the caudal end of the fourth ventricle. It is one of the so-called circumventricular organs that serve as an interface betw... | |
A 41 year old male complains of pain in lower right back tooth region. Intraoral examination reveals deep caries in relation to 47 and IOPA examination reveals deep dentinal caries not involving the pulp. Dentist excavates the caries and restored it with zinc oxide eugenol. Which of the following substance can be used ... | Answer is D. MANIPULATION
Powder/liquid system:
Powder/liquid ratio - 4:1 to 6:1 by weight.
The bottles are shaken gently. Measured quantity of powder and liquid is dispensed onto a cool glass slab. The bulk of the powder is incorporated into the liquid and spatulated thoroughly in a circular motion with a stiff blade... | |
Sampling error is classified as -: (A) Alpha error, (B) Beta error, (C) Gamma error, (D) Delta error | Answer is A. None | |
The parents of a 2-year-old boy with hyposadias (urethra opens on the ventral aspect of the penis) visit a genetic counselor to discuss the chances that a similar birth defect will occur in their future offspring. This birth defect shows which of the following patterns of inheritance?: (A) Autosomal recessive, (B) Auto... | Answer is C. The inheritance of a number of birth defects is multifactorial. Most normal human traits are inherited neither as dominant nor as recessive mendelian attributes, but rather in a more complex manner. For example, multifactorial inheritance determines intelligence, height, skin color, body habitus, and even ... | |
A 12-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with profuse rectal bleeding but appears to be free of any associated pain. Which of the following is the most common cause of severe rectal bleeding in the pediatric age group?: (A) Internal hemorrhoids, (B) External hemorrhoids, (C) Diverticulosis, (D) Ileal (Meckel) div... | Answer is D. Ileal (Meckel) diverticulum, which is an outpouching of the distal ileum, is twice as prevalent in males as in females. The diverticulum is clinically important because ulceration of the diverticulum with pain, bleeding, perforation, and obstruction is a complication that may require emergent surgery. Sign... | |
Valve of Hasner: (A) Opening of nasolacrimal duct, (B) Sphenoidal sinus opening, (C) Frontal sinus opening, (D) Ethmoidal sinus opening | Answer is A. Ref BDC volume3,6th edition pg 76Nasolacrimal duct begins at the lower end of the lacrimal sac, runs downwards, backward and laterally and opens into the inferior meatus of the nose.A fold of mucous membrane called hasners valve forms an imperfect valve at the lower end of the duct. | |
Sensory supply to tongue is by all, EXCEPT:: (A) Lingual nerve, (B) Vagus nerve, (C) Glossopharyngeal nerve, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. The sensory innervation of the tongue reflects its embryological development. The nerve of general sensation to the presulcal pa is the lingual nerve, which also carries taste sensation derived from the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve. The nerve supplying both general and taste sensation to the p... | |
Common sites of bleeding -a) Woodruff plexusb) Brown areac) Littles aread) Vestibular area: (A) a, (B) bc, (C) ac, (D) b | Answer is C. None | |
Spalding sign is seen in ?: (A) Drowning, (B) Mummification, (C) Maceration, (D) Starvation | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Maceration Dead born : A deadborn child is one which has died in utero and shows one of the following signs after it is completely born :? 1) Rigor mois : Rigor mois may occur in dead fetus before bih or at bih. 2) Maceration : Maceration is a process of aseptic autolysis. It occurs when ... | |
Which one of the following modes of intervention covers the process of advising a patient to change his lifestyle in order to prevent any risk factor for a disease ?: (A) Health promotion, (B) Specific protection, (C) Disability limitation, (D) Rehabilitation | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Health promotion | |
A 'case' in TB is defined as -: (A) X-ray positive, (B) Culture positive, (C) Sputum AFB positive, (D) Tuberculosis positive | Answer is C. - the case in tuberculosis is defined as the one in which sputum positive for acid fast bacilli is detected. Reference: Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:182 <\p> | |
Feature of acanthosis nigricans is: (A) Insulinoma, obesity & cutaneous hypopigmentation, (B) Insulin resistance, obesity, cutaneous hyperpigmentation, (C) Thickening of spinous Layer, insulin resistance, obesity, (D) Thickening of spinous layer, insulin resistance, lean | Answer is B. None | |
Most common hallucination in schjizophrenia is:: (A) Auditory, (B) Visual, (C) Olfactory, (D) Tactile | Answer is A. A. i.e. Auditory | |
Which of the following statements is false about Brucella?: (A) It causes undulant /Malta / Mediterranean fever, (B) Is is gram negative coccobacilli, (C) It can be killed by pasteurisation, (D) It is a strict anaerobe | Answer is D. Brucellae are strict aerobes and do not grow anaerobically. Brucellae consists of very small, non-motile, aerobic, Gram-negative coccobacillus that grows poorly on ordinary media and has little fermentative powers. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayana and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg:345 | |
Loss of Direct and consensual light reflex Is due to
lesion of: (A) Trigeminal nerve, (B) Occulomotor nerve, (C) Trochlear nerve, (D) Abducens nerve | Answer is B. None | |
Dukes classification is used for: (A) Pancreas carcinoma, (B) Gastric carcinoma, (C) Urinary bladder carcinoma, (D) Colo-rectal carcinoma | Answer is D. Dukes' classification was originally described for rectal tumours but has been adopted for histopathological repoing of colon cancer as well. Dukes' classification for colon cancer is as follows: A: confined to the bowel wall; B: through the bowel wall but not involving the free peritoneal serosal surface;... | |
A 19-year-old female with sho stature, wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhea most likely has a karyotype of: (AI 2003): (A) 47, XX + 18, (B) 46, XXY, (C) 47, XXY, (D) 45 X0 | Answer is D. Given features suggests the diagnosis of Turner's syndrome. Turner's syndrome Most common sex chromosomal disorder in phenotypic females. Results from complete or paial loss of one X chromosome (45, XO) Characterized by hypogonadism in phenotypic females. | |
RNA polymerase is: (A) DNA dependent RNA polymerase, (B) RNA dependent DNA polymerase, (C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase, (D) RNA dependent RNA polymerase | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., DNA dependent RNA polymerase The major enzyme involved in transcription (i.e. synthesis of DNA to RNA) is RNA polymerase.It is DNA dependent RNA polymerase.DNA dependent DNA polymerase DNA plymerase (In DNA replication)DNA dependent RNA polymerase - RNA polymerase (In transcription)RNA de... | |
White infarct is seen in:: (A) Lung, (B) Heart, (C) Intestine, (D) Ovary | Answer is B. None | |
Lateral aberrant thyroid is node from: (A) Papillary cancer, (B) Follicular cancer, (C) Thyroid lymphoma, (D) Medullary cancer | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Papillary cancerRef: Page 765. Bailey and love 26th edition* Lateral aberrant thyroid is a metastatic node from papillary cancer which is not palpable | |
Which of the following statements about High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) is false:: (A) HDL increases oxidation of LDL, (B) HDL reduces foam cell production by LDL, (C) HDL is the best predictor of CAD, (D) HDL helps to clear lipids from atheromas | Answer is A. HDL prevent oxidation of LDL in complex in vitro models as a result HDL function as a naturally acting antioxidant which protect vessel wall from oxidative damage and resulting atherogenesis. Ref: Current Pharmaceutical Design, Page 6. | |
Which among the following is an impoant step in acute inflammation?: (A) Vasoconstriction, (B) Vascular stasis, (C) Vasodilation and increased vascular permeability, (D) Margination of leukocytes | Answer is C. Stages of acute inflammation:Vasodilation (after a transient vasoconstriction) Increased vascular permeabilityMovement of white blood cells from blood vessels into soft tissue at the site of inflammation: The steps required are rolling, pavementing, and transmigration. Chemotaxis is the process by which wh... | |
Mercaptopurine is: (A) Purine analogue, (B) Nucleoside analogue, (C) Pyrimidine analogue, (D) Anti tumor antibiotics | Answer is A. Ref: Katzung, 14th ed. pg. 960; KDT, 6th ed. pg. 820* Mercaptopurine is synthetic purine used in cancer chemotherapy.* Use: Childhood acute leukemia. | |
In multibacillary leprosy, the follow-up examination after adequate treatment should be done yearly for –: (A) 3 years, (B) 3 years, (C) 5 years, (D) 10 years | Answer is C. Surveillance after treatment
Clinical surveillance of cases after completion of treatment is an important part of the current recommendations for multidrug therapy.
It is essential for the assurance of the long-term success of treatment and for the early detection of any relapses.
The recommendations are... | |
In all of the following enzyme deficiencies, hyperammonemia is a common feature, EXCEPT:: (A) Argininosuccinate synthetase, (B) Carbamoyl Phosphate synthetase (CPS-I), (C) Ornithine transcarbamoylase (OTC), (D) Ornithine amino transferase | Answer is D. Excess ornithine from urea cycle is taken by enzyme OAT (Ornithine amino transferase) OAT deficiency leads to gyrate atrophy. In this deficiency, plasma, urine, spinal fluid and aqueous humour concentration of ornithine levels are 10-20 times higher than normal Hyperammonemia is absent because urea cycle i... | |
Interleukin secreted by macrophages, stimulating lymphocytes is:: (A) IL-1, (B) INF alpha, (C) TNF alpha, (D) IL-6 | Answer is A. Macrophages release IL-1 which stimulates the T-helper cells.
The T-cells in response proliferate and release IL-2 which in turn stimulates still further T-cell proliferation and B cell proliferation and differentiation into plasma cells.
Thus
Macrophages release→IL-1*
T-helper cells release→ IL-2* | |
Which of the following is associated with acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis -: (A) Rhabdovirus, (B) Enterovirus, (C) Calcivirus, (D) Echovirus | Answer is B. Acute hemorhagic conjunctivitis is caused by Enterovirus 70. REF:ANATHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:493 | |
In traumatic brain injury, Glasgow outcome score of 4 stands for: (A) Good recovery, (B) Moderate disability, (C) Severe disability, (D) Persistent vegetative state | Answer is B. Glasgow Outcome Score (GOS)Good recovery 5Moderate disability 4Severe disability 3Persistent vegetative state 2Dead 1Bailey and Love 26e pg:320 | |
Which of the following cardiac valves is not commonly involved in rheumatic fever?: (A) Mitral, (B) Aoic, (C) Pulmonary, (D) Tricuspid | Answer is C. In chronic disease the mitral valve is viually always involved. The mitral valve is affected in isolation in roughly two thirds of RHD, and along with the aoic valve in another 25% of cases. Tricuspid valve involvement is infrequent, and the pulmonary valve is only rarely affected. | |
Which of the below given bone is best suitable for sex determination: (A) Skull, (B) Pelvis, (C) Femur, (D) Tibia & Fibula | Answer is B. Ans. (B) Pelvis"Krogman's degree of accuracy"The accuracy of estimating the sex from skeletal remains depends upon the number of bones available.If the entire skeleton is available, the accuracy is 100%;Pelvis alone is available, it is 95%Skull alone, it is 90%Skull + pelvis, the accuracy is 98% | |
All are catalase positive Except: (A) Shigella flexineri, (B) Shigella boydii, (C) Shigella dysentriae type I, (D) Shigella sonnei | Answer is C. S.dysenteriae (subgroup A): This species of mannitol non-fermenting bacilli consists of ten serotypes. It is indole negative and is the only member of the family that is always catalase-negative. S.flexineri, S.boydii, and S.sonnei are catalase positive. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Aanthanarayan and pan... | |
Pneumatosis Intestinalis is associated with?: (A) Necrotising Enterocolitis, (B) Gall Stone ileus, (C) Diveiculosis, (D) Hirschsprung Disease | Answer is A. Pneumatosis Intestinalis is the presence of intramural air seen in Stage IIb of Necrotising Enterocolitis / Intestinal ischemia. | |
Earliest detection of pregnancy by ultrasound is by:: (A) Gestation sac, (B) Fetal node, (C) FSH, (D) Fetal skeleton | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. Gestational sac "The first definitive sonographic finding to suggest pregnancy is visualization of the gestational sac." First sign of intrauterine pregnancy is presence of yolk sac within the gestational sac.deg Extra Edge The position of a normal gestational sac is in the mid to upper uter... | |
The drug that causes first dose phenomenon in elderly patients -: (A) Metformin, (B) Prazosin, (C) Acarbose, (D) Noradrenaline | Answer is B. The side effect postural hypotension also known as "First Dose Hypotension" is observed with drugs ending with 'zosin' eg. Prazosin, Terazosin,Doxazosin These drugs cause blocking of a1 receptors, leading to vasodilation, that can cause Postural Hypotension. Acarbose - Inhibition of intestinal absorption o... | |
Definitive criteria for PID is: (A) Tubo-Ovarian abscess on USG, (B) Cervical erosion, (C) Temparature > 37.5 degrees, (D) Infeility | Answer is A. Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease manifest as Hydrosalpinx Chronic pyosalpinx Tubo ovarian abscess or cyst Tubercular tubovarian masses Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 340. | |
A 25 years old male c/o recurrent abdominal pain but biochemical assays and ultrasound abdomen is normal. He also complains of constant headaches. He suddenly complains of loss of vision of bilateral eyes. Ophthalmologist finds nothing on examination. Symptoms are most probably due to: (A) Bilateral optic neuritis, (B)... | Answer is D. Ans. D. Factitious disorderFactitious disorderIt is also known as Hospital addiction, hospital hoboes, or Professional patient.The term Munchausen syndrome is used for those patients who repeatedly simulate or fake diseases (intentionally) for the sole purpose of obtaining medical attention. There is no ot... | |
Osmolality of plasma is mainly contributed by: (A) Glucose, (B) Sodium, (C) Urea, (D) Uric acid | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following denotes the trend of events that pass with time?: (A) Frequency polygon, (B) Histogram, (C) Line chart, (D) Pie diagram | Answer is C. Ans. c (Line chart) (Ref. Text book of biostatistics by B K Mahajan, Vlth /pg. 20; Park PSm 22nd/788)Line diagrams are used to show the trend of events with the passage of time.Type of dataQualitative dataQuantitative dataDefinitionCharacteristics same, only frequency variesCharacteristics as well as frequ... | |
Which of the following tests are used to screen for gestational diabetes in a 22 year old primigravida?: (A) Oral glucose tolerance test, (B) Fasting blood sugar, (C) Glycocyalted hemoglobin measurement, (D) Random glucose challenge | Answer is D. Glucose challenge test (GCT) is commonly used in screening for gestational diabetes. No special preparation is needed for this test. Fifty grams of oral glucose is given between 24-28 weeks of gestation irrespective of the time or the meal and blood glucose is determined 1 hour later. A plasma value of 140... |
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