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A child scratches his hand with a pen. A red wheel appears which persists for 30 minutes. What would be the diagnosis?: (A) Contact urticaria, (B) Dermographism, (C) Pressure urticaria, (D) Atopy | Answer is B. Ans. b. DermographismWhite dermographism is seen in atopic dermatitisDermographism is seen in urticaria | |
Ideal contraceptive for a couple who are living separately in two cities and meets only occasionally:-: (A) Barrier methods, (B) OCPs, (C) IUCD, (D) Inj. DMPA | Answer is A. Ideal contraceptive for a couple who are living separately in two cities and meets only occasionally is Condom as long term contraception is not desirable. - Also OCPs and IUCD are required for long term contraception and both of them have few side effects too; so they are not desirable in this case. - Inj... | |
Which of the following is malignant intraocular tumor of children: September 2010: (A) Retinoblastoma, (B) Rhabdomyosarcoma, (C) Melanoma, (D) Chloroma | Answer is A. Ans. A: Retinoblastoma The most common primary malignant intraocular tumor in children is retinoblastoma. Neuroblastoma is the most common cause of orbital metastases in children. Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common orbital tumour of children. | |
The concept of One Stage Full Mouth Disinfection has been put forth to prevent: (A) Adhesion of microorganisms, (B) Proliferation of microorganisms, (C) Translocation of microorganisms, (D) Bacterial invasion | Answer is C. None | |
For extraction of mandibular molar, anesthesia is given to act on:: (A) Inferior alveolar nerve, (B) Buccal nerve, (C) Lingual nerve, (D) Masseteric nerve | Answer is A. None | |
After tonsillectomy, secondary haemorrhage occurs: (A) Within 24 hours, (B) After 2 weeks, (C) 5-10 post operative days, (D) After a month | Answer is C. After tonsillectomy primary haemorrhage occurs during surgery reactionary bleeding with in 24 hrs, secondary haemorrhage between 5-10 days Secondary haemorrhage is the result of sepsis and premature separation of the membrane Simple measures like removal of clots, application of adrenaline or hydrogen pero... | |
Treatment for scabies is: (A) Erythromycin, (B) Benzene hexachloride, (C) Piperazine, (D) Thiabendazole | Answer is B. (B) Benzene hexachloride | |
All the following manifestations suggest the development of lymphoma is sjogren syndrome except:: (A) High C4 Complement Levels, (B) Leucopenia, (C) Purpura, (D) Cryoglobulinemia | Answer is A. Low C4 Complement levels suggest the development of lymphoma. | |
1729. A 28 yr old female presented with malaise and generalised weakness since 6 month. Her appetite Is reduced and she has giddiness and palpitations on and off. There was no organomegaly. Laboratory Study showed normochromic to hypochromic anaemia and MCV-80. What Is the diagnosis: (A) Thalassemia minor, (B) Iron def... | Answer is B. <p> Iron deficiency anemia is much more common in women between the age of 20 & 45 yrs than in men.The onset of this anemia is generally slow .The usual symptoms are weakness ,fatigue ,palpitations ,dyspnoea on exeion & pallor of skin, sclera & mucous membrane.</p><p>Also MCV will be less than 80fl in iron... | |
According to WHO, exclusive breast milk is given upto –: (A) 6 months, (B) 4 months, (C) 8 months, (D) 10 months | Answer is A. Exclusive breast feeding : The baby should be given only breast milk and nothing else (not even water) for first 6 months of life. Weaning should be started by 6 months of age with semisolid food, in addition to continuing breast feeding.
The WHO recommends exclusive breast feeding for the first six month... | |
The skin overlying the region where a venous "cut-down" is made to access the Great saphenous vein is supplied by -: (A) Femoral nerve, (B) Sural nerve, (C) Tibial nerve, (D) Superficial peroneal nerve | Answer is A. Great saphenous vein on its course is accompanied by saphenous nerve which is a branch of femoral nerve. | |
Ketocanozole is useful in all except -: (A) T. cruris, (B) T.versicolor, (C) T.capitis, (D) T.corpoiris | Answer is C. None | |
'Second gas effect' is exerted by which of the following gas when co-administered with halothane:: (A) Nitrous oxide, (B) Cyclopropane, (C) Nitrogen, (D) Helium | Answer is A. Concentration-effect, second gas effect and diffusion hypoxia are seen with inhalational agents used in high concentrations (like N2O). | |
Mount Fuji sign is a feature of: (A) Fahr's disease, (B) Acute bleed, (C) Chronic bleed, (D) Tension pneumocephalous | Answer is D. Mount Fuji sign refers to the presence of gas (pneumocephalus) between the tips of the frontal lobes with a heaped-up appearance giving the appearance of Mount Fuji or M like appearance. | |
After falling on the pavement, a 72-year-old woman is found to have a fracture of the radius and ulna (Colles' fracture). What is true of this fracture?: (A) The fall occurs on the dorsum of the wrist., (B) Open reduction is most commonly indicated., (C) Younger men are generally affected., (D) The distal radial metaph... | Answer is D. The distal radial metaphysis is displaced dorsally. This fracture was described by Colles over 150 years ago. The impact is caused by a fall on the flexor surface of the wrist. The distal segment is displaced dorsally. The reverse injury, involving a fall on the extensor surface of the wrist and flexor def... | |
Identical twins may not have :: (A) Same DNA finger, (B) Same finger print pattern, (C) Same blood group, (D) Same HLA system | Answer is B. B i.e. Same finger print | |
Denominator of infant mortality rate is?: (A) Per live birth, (B) per 100 live births, (C) Per 1000 live births, (D) Per lakh live births | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Per 1000 live birthsRef: Park 20thed./488 | |
Increased ventilation at sta of exercise is due to?: (A) Stretch receptors, (B) Proprioceptors, (C) Pain receptors, (D) T PCO | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proprioceptors[Ref Ganong 23'd/e p. 636)In moderate exercise the abrupt increase in ventilation at the sta of exercise is due to psychic stimuli and afferent impulsE from proprioceptors in muscles, tendons and joints.Aerial pH, PCO2, and PO2, remain constant during moderate exercise becau... | |
A 19-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of primary amenorrhea. Her physical examination is normal, and she has female sex characteristics and breast development. The only abnormality is the absence of body hair. Among other investigations she also has genetic testing that reveals an XY chromosome patt... | Answer is C. Androgen receptor defect such as androgen insensitivity will result in the phenotypic characteristics seen in this patient. Other disease states due to abnormal intracellular receptors include cortisol resistance; vitamin D-dependent rickets, type II; thyroid hormone resistance; and pseudo-hypoaldosteronis... | |
Epitheliod granulomatous lesions are found in all of the following disease except: (A) TB, (B) Sarcoidosis, (C) Berylliosis, (D) Pneumocystis carinii | Answer is D. ref Robbins 9/e p98 Pneumocystis carinii causes bilateral diffuse pneumonitis in immunocompromised patients and no discernible disease in otherwise healthy individuals. Clinical features are to some extent age-dependent. In premature and debilitated infants, onset is subtle, staing with mild tachypnea. Wit... | |
Which of the following is not an extra aicular feature of Rheumatoid ahritis?: (A) Weight loss, (B) Pleural effusion, (C) Conjunctivitis, (D) Proteinuria | Answer is D. Answer- D. ProteinuriaExtra-aicular manifestations in RASystemic manifestations: Fever, weight loss, fatigue.Dermatological: Subcutaneous nodule.Cardio-pulmonary: Pericardial & pleural effusion, constrictive pericariditis, pulmonary fibrosis, lung nodules.Eye : Sjogren syndrome (Keratoconjunctivitis sicca)... | |
Vitamin required for hydroxyproline to proline conversion:: (A) Vitamin C, (B) Vitamin E, (C) Pvrodoxal PO4, (D) Biotin | Answer is A. A i.e. Vitamin C | |
Bone with a bone appearance is seen in: (A) Osteogenesis imperfecta, (B) Osteopetrosis, (C) Scurvy, (D) Rickets | Answer is B. Bone within bone appearance is seen in : Osteopetrosis Acromegaly Bisphophonate therapy sickle cell anemia Healed phase of rickets and scurvy. Normal neonate. | |
In pancreatic scanning radio-isotope used is: (A) Se75, (B) Cr51, (C) I131, (D) Tc99 | Answer is A. se75 is used for pancreatic scanning Cr51 is used to label red blood cells for measurement of mass or volume I131 is used for treating hypehyroidism and thyroid cancer I123 and Tc99 are used for thyroid scanning | |
UV radiation -: (A) Prevents formation of Pyrirnidine dimmers, (B) Stimulates formation of Pyrimi dine dimmers, (C) Purine dimmers, (D) None | Answer is B. The oncogenic effect of UV rays merits special mention because it highlights the impoance of DNA repair in car cinogenesis. Natural UV radiation derived from the sun can cause skin cancers (melanomas, squamous cell carcino mas, and basal cell carcinomas). At greatest risk are fair skinned people who live i... | |
A 41/2- year-old girl always had to wear warm socks even is summer season. On physical examination, it was noticed that she had high blood pressure and her femoral pulse was weak as compared to radial and carotid pulse. a chest radiograph showed remarkable notching of ribs along with their lower borders. This was due t... | Answer is B. None | |
Which wall of hea is enlarged first in a patient with mitral stenosis ?: (A) Left atrium, (B) Right atrium, (C) Left ventricle, (D) Right ventricle | Answer is A. Wall of hea enlarged in mitral stenosis - left atria | |
This x-ray is suggestive of: (A) Tetralogy of fallot, (B) TAPVC, (C) Tricuspid atresia, (D) Ebstein's anomaly | Answer is A. Boot shaped heart - Tetralogy of fallot. | |
40-year-old male presents with fever and abdominal pain and diagnosed with HIV and TB. How will you give treatment?: (A) ATT and AIDS treatment simultaneously, (B) First ATT and then A, (C) ATT only, (D) First A and then ATT | Answer is B. If a patient is diagnosed with HIV & TB, treatment for TB should be given first, to decrease bacterial load in the body & decrease chances of immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome. Then, treatment of HIV should be given. | |
A 40 year old male brought to the emergency room with a stab injury to the chest.On examination pt is found to be hemodynamically stable. The neck veins are engorged and the hea sounds are muffled .The following statements are true for this pt except ?: (A) Cardiac tamponade is likely to be present, (B) a) Immediate em... | Answer is B. Ans is 'b' Immediate emergency room thoracotomy should be done There is no need for emergency thoracotomy in a hemodynamically stable pt. Cardiac tamponade is quite common in stab injuries to the chest. The classical signs of tamponade are:? (a) Muffled hea sounds (b) Distended neck veins k/a Beck's Triad ... | |
A one month old infant with a congenital cardiac lesion shows increased sweating during feeding. Which of the following is the sure sign of congestive cardiac failure in this infant?: (A) Basal crepitations, (B) JVP, (C) Pedal oedema, (D) Liver enlargement | Answer is D. Congestive hea failure (CHF) is unusual in childhood. When it does present, it is usually as a manifestation of congenital hea disease and is seen in the first year of life. The classic triad of symptoms for pediatric CHF is tachypnea, tachycardia, and hepatomegaly. There may also be a history of poor feed... | |
In which of the following conditions postmortem caloricity may be seen in death due to -: (A) Massive haemorrhage, (B) Cyanide poisoning, (C) Corrosive poisoning, (D) Septicemia | Answer is D. None | |
All of the following are true about Ondansetron except?: (A) Drug of choice for chemotherapy induced vomiting, (B) Dopamine antagonist, (C) 5HT3 antagonist, (D) Acts on CTZ | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dopamine antagonist Ondansetron is 5-HT3 receptor antagonist at CTZ and NTS, as well as in GIT. | |
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are first line treatment in:: (A) Gastrointestinal stromal tumors, (B) Receptor mediated neuroendocrine tumors, (C) Breast cancer, (D) Renal cell carcinoma | Answer is A. lmatinib This novel antineoplastic drug inhibits the tyrosine protein kinases in chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) cells and the ones that are activated by platelet derived growth factor (PDGF) receptor, stem cell receptor and c-kit receptor found in gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST), a rare tumour. Str... | |
The expression of the following oncogene is associated with a high incidence of medullary carcinoma of thyroid:: (A) p 53, (B) Her 2 neu, (C) RET proto oncogene, (D) Rb gene | Answer is C. - RET proto-oncogene is mutation is associated with medullary carcinoma of thyroid - RET proto-oncogene is mutated in MEN-2A & 2B syndromes, hence these are also associated with medullary carcinoma of thyroid. - Prophylactic thyroidectomy is indicated in pt with family history of RET mutation | |
For polymerase chain reaction which of the following is not required: (A) TAQ polymerase, (B) d-NTP, (C) Dideoxynucleotides, (D) Magnesium | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following is a part of secondary granules in neutrophils?: (A) Cathepsin G, (B) Lactoferrin, (C) Defensin, (D) Myeloperoxidase | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., LactoferrinLvsosomal enzymes:o These are present in the lysosomes of neutrophils and monocytes. Lysosomes contain two types of granules; Primary (azurophilic) and Secondary (specific) granules.Lvsosomal granulesPrimary (azurophilic) granulesSecondary (specific) granuleso Require high leve... | |
All of the following are features of Mobiz type I block except -: (A) Constant PR interval, (B) Normal QRS morphology, (C) Regular atrial rhythm, (D) Atrial rate - ventricular rate | Answer is A. None | |
The best indicator for a potential explosiveness of plague outbreak is-: (A) Total flea index, (B) Cheopis index, (C) Specific percentage of fleas, (D) Burrow index | Answer is B. Question repeated | |
A 4-year-old child presented with palpable purpura and polyahralgia without any frank ahritis along with colicky abdominal pain associated with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and the passage of blood and mucus per rectum. Urine examination revealed proteinuria and microscopic haematuria. Laboratory studies revealed mild le... | Answer is C. Perivascular neutrophils, leukocytoclasis and fibrinoid degeneration involving the small dermal blood vessels with subsequent hemorrhage in a skin biopsy of a patient with HSP. Skin biopsy showing positive immunofluorescence of the small blood vessels for IgA. Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) Acute immunoglo... | |
All of the following structures are at risk of damage in anterior cranial fossa fracture, EXCEPT?: (A) Ethmoid sinus, (B) Facial nerve, (C) Olfactory bulb, (D) Roof of nose | Answer is B. Fracture of the anterior cranial fossa can damage the roof of the orbit, roof of the nose, frontal, sphenoid and ethmoid sinus. It can result in anosmia, black eye, subconjunctival hemorrhage, bleeding into nose and mouth and CSF leak if meninges is involved. Fracture of the middle cranial fossa is accompa... | |
Functions of basal ganglia include: (A) Gross motor, (B) Skilled movements, (C) Emotions, (D) Maintenance of equilibrium | Answer is B. The clear and best known function of basal ganglia is planning and programming of motor functions. Mainly- Complex actions such as writing alphabets and skilled movements such as using scissors to cut. | |
Who described that P. intermedia is responsible for pregnancy gingivitis?: (A) Loesche, (B) Kornman, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is C. Kornman and Loesche reported that the subgingival flora changes to a more anaerobic flora as pregnancy progresses; the only microorganism that increases significantly during pregnancy is P. intermedia. | |
Which of the following is true about the main respiratory control neurons?: (A) image_question, (B) image_question, (C) image_question, (D) image_question | Answer is D. The main respiratory control neurons called the Pre-Botzinger complex (pre-BOTC), are located in the medulla. Pre-Botzinger complex (pre-BOTC) is located on the either side of the medulla, between the nucleus ambiguus and the lateral reticular nucleus. They send out regular bursts of impulses to inspirator... | |
Swelling of deep lobe of parotid gland presents as swelling in:-: (A) Parapharyngeal space, (B) Cheek, (C) Temporal region, (D) Below the ear | Answer is A. Swelling of deep lobe of parotid gland presents as swelling in parapharyngeal space. The parotid gland is the most common site for salivary tumours. Most tumours arise in the superficial lobe and present as slow-growing, painless swellings below the ear, in front of the ear or in the upper aspect of the ne... | |
Which of the following is not a parameter in Bishop's score: March 2009: (A) Cervical consistency, (B) Station of head, (C) Position of head, (D) Cervical length | Answer is C. Ans. C: Position of Head | |
Which of the following is primary prevention -: (A) Screening test, (B) Early diagnosis, (C) Use of mosquito net, (D) Restoration of lost function | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Use of mosquito net Level of preventionExampleso Primordial preventiono Discouragement from adapting a harmful lifestyle, e.g. smokingo Primary preventiono Immunization (vaccination)o Chemoprophylaxiso Nutritional supplementation programmeso Chlorination of watero Using a mosquito neto He... | |
The closest speaking space was suggested by:: (A) Pound, (B) McGrane, (C) Neswonger, (D) Silverman | Answer is D. The space between the teeth during casual repetition of the sound “s”. It is considered the closest relationship of the occlusal surfaces and incisal edges of the mandibular teeth to the maxillary teeth during function and rapid speech.
This phonetic method is one of the several techniques to determine ver... | |
The safest initial approach to open airway of patient with maxillofacial trauma is:: (A) Head tilt-chin tilt, (B) Jaw thrust technique, (C) Head lift-neck lift, (D) Heimlich procedure | Answer is A. None | |
Absolute contraindication for IUCD is/ are: (A) Puerperal sepsis, (B) Current STD, (C) Uterine anamoly, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Who category 4: absolute contraindications for use of IUP:
Immediate post spec abortion
Uterine anomaly
Pregnancy
Pelvic tuberculosis
Vaginal bleeding supicious/unexplaned
Current pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)/ Current STDs
Puerperal sepsis
Malignant trophoblast disease
Cervical cancer
Current STSs
E... | |
Which of the following complications is currently the major limitation to the long-term success of cardiac transplantation?: (A) Allograft rejection, (B) Graft aeriosclerosis, (C) Graft atherosclerosis, (D) Oppounistic infections | Answer is B. Currently, graft aeriosclerosis (AKA graft vascular disease) is the most impoant limit to the long-term success of hea transplantation. For unknown reasons, the coronary aeries of transplanted heas undergo intimal thickening associated with hyperplasia of myocytes and fibroblasts and deposition of matrix. ... | |
Infliximab -: (A) CD 20 antagonist, (B) 1L6 antagonist, (C) Chimeric antibody against TNF alpha, (D) Chimeric antibody against Her2-neu | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chimeric antibody against TNF alphaMonoclonal AntibodyTargetIndicationTrastuzumabTositumomabRituximabIbritumomabDaclizumabBasiliximabAbciximabPalivizumabInfliximabEtanerceptOfatumumabBelimumabEpratuzumabOcrelizumabAdalimumabAlefaceptAlemtuzumabBevacizumabCetuximabGemtuzumabEfalizumabOmali... | |
Which of the following ovarian tumors is most radiosensitive -: (A) Carcinoid, (B) Dysgerminoma, (C) Serous Cystadenocarcinoma, (D) Brenner tumor | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dysgerminoma o Dysgerminoma is the most radiosensitive among the ovarian tumors, but radiotherapy is not the treatment of choice as dysgerminoma occurs in pre - reproductive or reproductive age group and fertility is impaired with radiotherapy. | |
Preserved in manchester operation: September 2009: (A) Full length of cervix, (B) Competency of os, (C) Feility, (D) Menstruation | Answer is D. Ans. D: Menstruation Surgeon combines an anterior colporrhaphy with the amputation of the cervix, sutures the cut ends of the Mackenrodt's ligament in front of the cervix, covers the raw area on the amputated cervix with vaginal mucosa and follows it up with a colpoperineorrhaphy. It preserves menstrual an... | |
Red Color on color doppler suggests?: (A) Aerial Blood, (B) Venous Blood, (C) Flow towards the transducer, (D) Flow Away from the transducer | Answer is C. Color Doppler Imaging: Doppler imaging illustrates only the direction of flow, color coded mean velocities and the range of the mean velocities. Blood flowing towards the ultrasound transducer is conventionally depicted in a band of colors ranging from deep red (low velocity) to bright yellow (high velocit... | |
Causes of death in drowning are all except : March 2009: (A) Vagal hyperactivity, (B) Asphyxia, (C) Ventricular fibrillation, (D) Laryngospasm | Answer is A. Ans. A: Vagal hyperactivity Causes of death in drowning: Asphyxia Ventricular fibrillation/ if an examination of the larynx reveals that a spasm occurred, the victim may have died from sudden exposure to the cold, which caused an immediate hea attack. Laryngeal spasm Vagal inhibition Exhaustion Injuries In... | |
Chloroquine is useful in: (A) Discoid lupus erythematous, (B) Rheumatoid ahritis, (C) Infectious mononucleosis, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. All of the above arr correct Refer KDT 6/e p 786 Discoid lupus erythematous Rheumatoid ahritis Infectious mononucleosis. Are Crct | |
Pulp chambers and root canals in deciduous teeth:: (A) Wide and deep, (B) Shallow and narrow, (C) Wide and narrow, (D) Shallow and wide | Answer is D. None | |
Length of lower esophageal sphincter -: (A) 1-2 cm, (B) 3-4cm, (C) 1-2 mm, (D) 3-4 mm | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3-4 cm "The cricopharyngeal sphincter is 2-3 cm, and the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is 3-4 cm long". - Textbook of GI Surgeryo Approximately 2 cm of the esophagus lie below the diaphragm in the abdomen (abdominal part of esophagus)o Within this portion of esophagus the abdominal par... | |
A 52-year-old man presents to the eye clinic with painless vision loss of his right eye. He describes the visual loss as a gradual progression from blurry to total blackout over the past two hours. He has no history of prior visual problems. Past medical history is significant for a myocardial infarction three years ag... | Answer is A. The visual cascade: 11-cis-retinal + opsin -> rhodopsin + light -> meta-rhodopsin II. Meta-rhodopsin II dissociates after light exposure to form all-trans-retinal. 11-cis retinal and opsin are essential first steps in generating the photochemical visual cascade. All-cis-retinal is not a pa of the visual ca... | |
In ESI programme central, state, Govt. Employee contribute to the fund. Employer's contribution is -: (A) 5.75%, (B) 4.75%, (C) 3.75%, (D) 2.75% | Answer is B. - ESI scheme is run by contributions by employees and employers and grants from central and state governments. - the employer contributes 4.75 percent of total wage bill. Reference: Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:816 <\p> | |
Random is Randomization Implies: (A) Unequal and known chances, (B) Equal and known chances, (C) Unequal and unknown chances, (D) Equal and unknown chances | Answer is B. None | |
The net diffusion of water from one solution of water from one solution through a semipermeable membrane to another solution containing a lower concentration of water is termed: (A) filtration, (B) diffusion, (C) osmosis, (D) brownian motion | Answer is C. Osmosis is defined as the diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane to a solution with a lower concentration of water.
Filtration is the process in which fluids are pushed through biologic membranes by unequal processes.
Diffusion (Brownian motion) is the random kinetic motion causing atoms and... | |
Reaction due to lysis of bacterial cell wall &necrotic cell product ?: (A) Ahus reaction, (B) Serum sickness, (C) Jerish herheximer reaction, (D) Infectious mononucleosis-ampicillin reaction | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Jerish herheximer reaction Ceain cell wall acting antibiotics cause rapid cell lysis and release of proinflammatory and/or toxic bacterial components, which induce inflammatory response in host. This produces a clinical syndrome known as Jarish-hersheimer reaction. The typical example is ... | |
Tonsillectomy is indicated in -: (A) Acute tonsillitis, (B) Aphthous ulcers in the pharynx, (C) Rheumatic tonsillitis, (D) Physiological enlargement | Answer is C. "Tonsillectomy is indicated when it is thought that tonsillar infection is producing secondary effects in other organs. Rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis develop as an antigen-antibody reaction to streptococcal infections. Though tonsillectomy does not help an established rheumatic heart disease... | |
All of the following are contraceptive implants except :: (A) Norplant, (B) Implanon, (C) Jadelle, (D) Mesigyna | Answer is D. Contraceptive implants are norplant, Implanon and Jadelle. Mesigyna is an injectable contraceptive. TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN SECOND EDITION PAGE NO 373 | |
Which of the following is best to sterilize heat labile solutions?: (A) Dry heat, (B) Autoclave, (C) Membrane filtration, (D) Pasteurization | Answer is C. Heat sensitive liquids like serum, vaccines, antisera, enzymes, antibiotic solutions and urea solutions can be sterilized by using membrane filtration. The filtration can be aided by using either positive or negative pressure | |
Atherosclerosis is due to: (A) HDL receptor defect, (B) Apo protein E deficiency, (C) Decreased LDL activity, (D) Decreased lipoprotein lipase | Answer is B. Atherosclerosis is a slowly progressive disease of large to medium-sized muscular aeries and large elastic aeries characterised by elevated focal intimal fibrofattyPlaques. Principal larger vessels affected are the abdominal aoa, descending thoracic aoa, internal carotid aeries and medium to smaller sized ... | |
Characteristics of glycoprotein -a) Protein linked with glycosidic bondb) Core proteinc) Sugar residues are long in carbohydrate portion of glycoproteind) Participate in cell surface recognition: (A) b, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) ad | Answer is D. The oligosaccharide units of a glycoprotein are covalently linked to the polypeptide by specific glycosidic bond, termed as the glycopeptide bond.
Core protein is found in proteoglycans, not in glycoproteins.
The length of the oligosaccharide chain is relatively short (2-10 sugar residues) in glycoproteins... | |
Serological examination of a patient shows positive for anti gliadin antibodies. It is characteristic of the following condition:: (A) Tropical sprue, (B) Whipple's disease, (C) Celiac disease, (D) Intestinal lymphoma | Answer is C. Celiac sprue is due to hypersensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat products. The disease is associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8. Laboratory testing shows the presence of anti-gliadin, anti-tissue transglutaminase, and anti-endomysial antibodies in patients. Clinical presentation of celiac sprue in... | |
Tamoxifen causes ?: (A) Osteoporosis, (B) Endometrial hyperplasia, (C) Ovarian cancer, (D) Decreased triglyceride level | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Endometrial hyperplasia | |
Sigmund Freud gave various defense mechanisms. Which of the following is not a mature defense mechanism?: (A) Humor, (B) Projection, (C) Asceticism, (D) Altruism | Answer is B. Ans. B. ProjectionAll of the others are mature defenses. Anticipation is goal directed and involves realistic anticipation or planning for future inner discomfort. Suppression involves the conscious postponement of attention to a conscious impulse or conflict. Altruism uses constructive and instinctually s... | |
Which which laser is used in the management of after cataract: (A) Argon, (B) Krypton, (C) Nd-YAG, (D) Excimer | Answer is C. NdYAG is a photo disruptive laser and is used for both posterior capsulotomy and peripheral iridotomy Refer Khurana 6th edition page number 401 | |
True about Glomus- jugulare tumour -
a) Most common in male
b) Arises from non- chromaffin cells
c) Lymph node metastasis seen
d) Multicentric
e) Fluctuating tinnitus and conductive type of hearing loss seen: (A) acde, (B) abc, (C) bde, (D) bcde | Answer is C. Glomus tumor is more common in females.
Glomus tumor is also referred to as chemodectomy or nonchromaffin paraganglion.
Glomus tumor is a benign tumor, therefore lymph node metastats is not present.
Multicentric tumors are found in 3-10% of sporadic cases and in 25-50% of familial cases.
Fluctuating (Pulsa... | |
Most common neonatal disorder screened is:: (A) Neonatal hypothyroidism, (B) Neonatal hypehyroidism, (C) Hemoglobinopathies, (D) Congenital Dislocation of Hip | Answer is A. Most common neonatal disorder to be screened is Neonatal hypothyroidism (NNH) Blood sample is collected from Cord's Blood /fromheel prick after 24hrs of bih Test- measurement of T4 or TSH /both simultaneously. As a single method, T4 is more useful (greater precision and reproducibility) Congenital Hypothyr... | |
Hemoglobin is isolated from the erythrocytes of a young child with anemia. Hemoglobin electrophoresis reveals the presence of an unstable hemoglobin, known as hemoglobin Cranston (HbCr), containing an abnormal b-globin chain. The normal sequence of the b-globin gene (HbNl) and the sequence of the HbCr b-chain are prese... | Answer is D. Looking at the coding segment of the normal b-gene of hemoglobin, one should read the information codon by codon, as follows: AAG UAU CAC UAA GCU CGC 1 2 3 4 5 6 The normal b-globin gene has a stop codon (UAA) at the 4th position, therefore the last 2 codons (GCU and CGC) are not translated and do not code... | |
All the following aeries supply the Sternocleidomastoid except: (A) Superior Thyroid aery, (B) Posterior auricular aery, (C) Occipital aery, (D) Suprascapular aery | Answer is B. Blood supply of Sternocleidomastoid Upper 1/3: Occipital aeryMiddle 1/3: Superior Thyroid aeryLower 1/3: Suprascapular aery from thyrocervical trunkReference: Chourasia; 6th edition; 89th page | |
Comedons are characteristics of:: (A) Acne vulgaris, (B) Acne rosasea, (C) SLE, (D) d. Adenoma sebaceum | Answer is A. Ans is 'a' i.e, Acne vulgaris | |
A patient with primary Sjogren syndrome treated with tear replacement for symptomatic relief notes continued parotid swelling for the last 3 months. She also has enlarged posterior cervical lymph nodes. Evaluation shows leukopenia and low C4 complement levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Amyloidosis, (B) Ch... | Answer is D. Lymphoma is well known to develop specifically in the late stage of Sjogren syndrome. Common manifestations include: Persistent parotid gland enlargement Purpura Leukopenia Cryoglobulinemia Low C4 complement levels. - Most of the lymphomas are extranodal, marginal zone B cell, and low grade. Low-grade lymp... | |
Which of the following drug used in the Management of Pulmonary Hypeension acts by inhibiting Phosphodiesterase enzyme?: (A) Epoprostenol, (B) Bosentan, (C) Nifedipine, (D) Sildenafil | Answer is D. First line drugs for Functional class II-III PAH : cGMP Signaling Modulators: PDE-5 Inhibitors - Sildenafil, Tadalafil, Vardenafil cGMP Signaling Modulators: sGC Stimulator - Riociguat Endothelin Receptor Antagonists - Bosentan, Ambrisentan First line drugs for Functional class IV PAH: IP Receptor Agonists... | |
Energy requirement for pregnant women doing moderate physical activity with body weight 55 kg: (A) 2280, (B) 2580, (C) 2730, (D) 2630 | Answer is B. Group Category / Age Body weight (Kg) Net energy (Kcal/d) Protein (g/d) Man Sedentary work Moderate work Heavy work 60 2,320 2,730 3,490 60.0 Woman Sedentary work Moderate work Heavy work Pregnant woman Lactation 0-6 m 6-12 months 55 1,900 2,230 2,850 +350 +600 +520 55.0 78 74 68 Infants 0-6 months 6-12 mo... | |
An alcoholic patient with history diabetic nephropathy and liver failure is posted for open abdomen surgery. The most appropriate muscle relaxant in this patient is:: (A) Cisatracurium, (B) Rocuronium, (C) Vecuronium, (D) Rapacuronium | Answer is A. Cisatracurium is a stereoisomer of atracurium that is four times more potent. Like atracurium, it undergoes degradation in plasma at physiological pH and temperature by organ-independent Hofmann elimination. The resulting metabolites (a monoquaternary acrylate and laudanosine) have no neuromuscular blockin... | |
Vertibular Schwannoma, spinal cord astrocytoma, meningioma are seen in: (A) Tuberous sclerosis, (B) Neurofibromatosis - 1, (C) Von Hippel - lindeu syndrome, (D) Neurofibromatosis - 2 | Answer is D. Neurofibromatosis - 2 :
Vertibular Schwannoma.
Meningioma.
Spinal cord ependymoma.
Spinal cord astrocytoma. | |
Aspirin is associated with-: (A) Reye’s syndrome, (B) Sjogren syndrome, (C) Reitersvnderome, (D) None of above | Answer is A. Reye Syndrome
Secondary Mitochondrial hepatopathy.
H/o viral injection (Influenza, varicella) & salicylate interactions higher mortality rate.
LFT (raised enzyme with normal bilirubin).
Sjogren’s syndrome
Autoimmune disorder.
A/w generalised dryness (dry mouth-xerostomia, dry eye-keratoconjuncvis sicc... | |
Definitive diagnosis of acute pancreatitis is done by-: (A) Lipase, (B) S. alkaline phosphatase, (C) Increased Ca++, (D) Hyperglycemia | Answer is A. Ans - A. Serum lipase activity increases in parallel with amylase activity and is more specific than amylase. A serum lipase measurement can be instrumental in differentiating a pancreatic or nonpancreatic cause for hyperamylasemia. | |
A 25 year old person sustained injury in right eye. He developed right comeal opacity following the injury. Left eye was already having poor vision. Corneoplasty of right eye was done and vision was restored. Medicolegally such injury is labelled as :: (A) Grievous, (B) Simple, (C) Dangerous, (D) Serious | Answer is A. Injuries classified as Grievous by Section 320 of IPC: Emasculation Permanent privation of the sight of either eye Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear Privation of any member or joint Destruction or permanent impairing of the powers of any member or joint Permanent disfiguration of the head or... | |
Mechanism of action of tacrolimus is ?: (A) Inhibition of transcription of IL 2, (B) Inhibition of translation of IL 2, (C) Inhibition of calcineurin, (D) Both 'a' and 'c' | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Both 'a' and 'c' | |
Detoxication of drugs is controlled by: (A) Cytochrome, (B) Cytochrome p450, (C) Cytochrome, (D) Cytochrome A | Answer is B. Cytochrome p450 enzymes are microsomal enzymes that are involved in phase I metabolism of many drugs,
Most of the drugs are metabolized by CYP 3 A4 isoform. Drug metabolizing enzymes The drug-metabolizing enzymes are divided into two types :
1. Microsomal These are located on smooth endoplasmic reticulum p... | |
Homonymous hemianopia with sparing of pupillary reflexes Is a feature of lesions of: (A) Lateral geniculate body, (B) Optic radiations, (C) Visual coex, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Lesions of lateral geniculate body These produce homonymous hemianopia with sparing of pupillary reflexes, and may end in paial optic atrophy. Lesions of optic radiations Pupillary reactions are normal as the fibres of the light reflex leave the optic tracts to synapse in the superior colliculi. Lesions of... | |
The most impoant action of beta-blockers in glaucoma is :: (A) Membrane stabilizing effect, (B) Refinal neuron protecting effect, (C) Decrease in the production of aqueous humor, (D) Pupillary constriction | Answer is C. Ref: KD Tripathi pharmacology 7th edition (page.no: 144) Topical b blockers are one of the first-line drug for glaucoma In contrast to miotics, the b blockers do not affect pupil size, the tone of ciliary muscle or outflow facility, but lower i.o.t. by reducing aqueous formation. This probably results from... | |
A 6 year old girl is easily distracted in class and exhibits poor scholastic performance. Seizures are precipitated by hyperventilation. What is the probable diagnosis?: (A) Myoclonic seizures, (B) Absence seizures, (C) Atonic seizures, (D) Myoclonia | Answer is B. Typical absence seizures are characterized by sudden, brief lapses of consciousness without loss of postural control. The seizure typically lasts for only seconds, consciousness returns as suddenly as it was lost, and there is no postictal confusion. Although the brief loss of consciousness may be clinical... | |
Inheritence of ichthyosis vulgaris is :: (A) X linked dominant, (B) X linked recessive, (C) Autosomal dominant, (D) Autosomal recessive | Answer is C. C i.e. Autosomal dominant | |
The following antibiotic accentuates the neuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium:: (A) Streptomycin, (B) Erythromycin, (C) Penicillin G, (D) Chloramphenicol | Answer is A. * Aminoglycosides (like streptomycin and gentamicin) can accentuate the neuromuscular blockade produced by competitive blockers (like pancuronium). * Mechanism of neuromuscular blockade produced by aminoglycosides is the inhibition of presynaptic release of ACh. | |
Biosynthesis of glucuronic acid requires the: (A) Oxidation of UDP glucose, (B) Oxidation of glucose 6-phosphate, (C) Oxidation of 6-phophoguconate, (D) Oxidanation of glucose | Answer is A. Glucuronic acid is a sugar acid derived from glucose, with its sixth carbon atom oxidized to a carboxylic acid. In living beings, this primary oxidation occurs with UDP-a-D-glucose (UDPG), not with the free sugar.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 120 | |
All nerves pass thorugh greater sciatic notch except ?: (A) Superior gluteal nerve, (B) Inferior gluteal nerve, (C) Sciatic nerve, (D) Obturator nerve | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Obturator nerve | |
Steroids are useful in treating Tuberculosis patient with-: (A) Endobronchial tuberculosis, (B) Tuberculous osteomyelitis, (C) Lymphadenitis, (D) Pneumonia | Answer is C. Glucocoicoids reduce inflammation and limit tissue damage; they are currently recommended when treating pericardial ,lymphadenitis patients having TB or meningeal disease, and in children with endobronchial disease. They may confer benefit in TB of the ureter, pleural effusions and extensive pulmonary dise... | |
Intravascular hemolysis occurs in:: (A) Hereditary spherocytosis, (B) Autoimmune haemolytic anemia, (C) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, (D) Thalassemia | Answer is C. PNH is a disease that results from acquired mutations in the phosphatidylinositol glycan complementation group A gene (PIGA), an enzyme that is essential for the synthesis of certain cell surface proteins.
Red cells, platelets, and granulocytes deficient in these GPI-linked factors are abnormally susceptib... | |
Graveyard of ENT surgeon: (A) Pyriform Fossa, (B) Bucco Labial sulcus, (C) Tonsilolingual sulcus, (D) Peritonsillar space | Answer is C. Tonsilolingual sulcus is seat of carcinoma usually missed by ENT doctor in OPD to check. | |
Compression of a nerve within the carpal tunnel products inability to: (A) Abduct the thumb, (B) Adduct the thumb, (C) Flex the distal phalanx of the thumb, (D) Oppose the thumb | Answer is A. FLEXOR RETINACULUM Transverse carpal ligament. Strong fibrous band which bridges anterior concavity of carpus and conves it into osseofibrous tunnel callef carpal tunnel for the passage of flexor tendons of the digits. Rectangular.Formed due to thickening of deep fascia in front of carpal bones. Attachment... | |
The main difference between composite and amalgam as restorative material is:: (A) Occlusal wear, (B) Durability, (C) Retention, (D) Manipulation | Answer is A. None |
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