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Which of the following is not true about hypoxanthineguanine phosphoribosyl transferase?: (A) Predominantly present in liver, (B) Involved in purine metabolism, (C) PRPP is the substrate required, (D) Its deficiency leads to Lysch Nyhan disease. | Answer is C. "SALVAGE REACTIONS" CONVE PURINES & THEIR NUCLEOSIDES TO MONONUCLEOTIDES Conversion of purines, their ribonucleosides, and their deoxyribonuc]eosides to mononucleotides involves so- called "salvage reactions" that require far less energy than de novo synthesis. The more impoant mechanism involves phosphori... | |
Mercury affects which pa of the kidney ?: (A) PCT, (B) DCT, (C) Collecting duct, (D) Loop of Henle | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., PCT | |
Primary amenorrhoea is a feature of all EXCEPT: September 2012: (A) Turner's syndrome, (B) Stein-Leventhal syndrome, (C) Rokitansky-Kustner-Hauser syndrome, (D) Kallman syndrome | Answer is B. Ans. B i.e. Stein Leventhal syndrome | |
A 45 year old female presents with symptoms of acute cholecystisis . On USG there is a solitary gall stone of size 1.5 cm. Symptoms are controlled with medical management. Which of the following is the next most apppropriate step in the management of this patient.: (A) Regular follow up, (B) IV Antibiotics, (C) Laparos... | Answer is C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the gold standard treatment for gallstones,especially with symptoms or complications like acute cholecystitis.Some surgeons advocate urgent operation on a routine measure in cases of acute cholecystitis..Good results are obtained when the operation is undeaken within 5-7 day... | |
Prognosis of breast carcinoma is best determined by ?: (A) Oestrogen \/ progesteron receptors, (B) Axillary lymph node status, (C) Clinical assessment, (D) CT | Answer is B. .Treatment of breast cancer depends on clinical stage of disease and stagings involves assessing the most common lymph node draining the breast:ie axillary lymph node. according to TNM staging, the nodes are scored on 1 to 3 score 1 :no nodal involvement score 2: one to three nodes involved score 3:four or... | |
A 57-year-old man presents with hemoptysis and generalized weakness. His symptoms began with small-volume hemoptysis 4 weeks ago. Over the past 2 weeks, he has become weak and feels "out of it." His appetite has diminished, and he has lost 10 lb of weight. He has a 45-pack-year history of cigarette smoking. Physical ex... | Answer is C. Hyponatremia in association with a lung mass usually indicates small cell lung cancer (SCLC) with inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production by the tumor. About 10% of lung cancers present with a paraneoplastic syndrome. Tumors producing ADH or adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) are overwhelmingly... | |
Private Doctor refusing to treating a case of sexual offence and referring to govt hospital is: (A) Not an offence, (B) Punishable under 166 B IPC, (C) Punishable under 357 (c) Cr P C, (D) Punishable under 327 (c) Cr P C | Answer is B. Treatment of rape victim and information to police: All hospitals, public or private, should immediately provide first-aid or medical treatment, free of cost, to the survivor/victim of rape or acid attack, and should immediately inform the police . Denial of treatment of such victims is punishable under Se... | |
Which of the following is true about female health worker?: (A) Acts at PHC level, (B) Covers a population of 5000 population, (C) Chlorinates well at regular intervals, (D) Makes at least 3 post natal visits for each delivery | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) Covers a population of 5000 populationREF: Park 18th ed p. 809-810Under the multipurpose health worker scheme one health worker male and one health worker female are posted at each sub-centre, and are expected to cover a population of 5000.Female health worker makes at least 2 post natal visits... | |
One unit of fresh blood raises Hb% ( Hemoglobin concentration ) by: (A) 0.1gm%, (B) 0.5 gm %, (C) 1gm%, (D) 2 gm% | Answer is C. Single unit of whole blood raises Hb by 1 gm% and Hematocrit by 3% More than 70% of transfused cells will be ble after 24 hours Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pgno :138 | |
Coagulative necrosis is seen in:: (A) Brain, (B) Breast, (C) Liver, (D) All | Answer is C. Coagulative necrosis is a form of necrosis in which the underlying tissue architecture is preserved for at least several days after the death of cells in the tissue. The affected tissues take on a firm texture. Presumably, the injury denatures not only structural proteins but also enzymes, thereby blocking... | |
Incubation period of scabies is:: (A) 7 days, (B) 2 weeks, (C) 4 weeks, (D) 2-3 days | Answer is C. Scabies - Causative agent: Sarcoptes Scabies Var Hominis Incubation Period: 3-4 weeks after the infection is acquired. If pt. reinfested- ICP is 2 days | |
Which of the following phospholipid serves as a marker of apoptosis: (A) Phosphatidylinosital, (B) Phosphatidyl serine, (C) Phosphatidyl choline, (D) Phosphatidyl ethanolamine | Answer is B. Phosphatidyl serine is normally present on inner mitochondrial membrane, flipping of it to the outer mitochondrial membrane is seen in apoptosis. | |
The triple P procedure for placenta percreta involves all except:: (A) Pelvic devascularization, (B) Placental localization using USG, (C) Peripartum hysterectomy, (D) Myometrial excision for placental nonseparation | Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. Peripartum hysterectomyRef Fernando Arias 4/e, p 396Triple P procedure has been developed for placenta percreta as a conservative surgical alternative to peripartum hysterectomy. It consists of following 3 steps:1. Perioperative placental localization and delivery of fetus via transverse ut... | |
Routine second look endoscopy in the setting of non variceal upper GI bleeding is recommended in patients with:: (A) Rockall score 2, (B) Treated with epinephrine injection alone, (C) Cardiac disease, (D) Renal disease | Answer is B. Routine second look endoscopy in the setting of non variceal upper GI bleeding is recommended in patients with Patients who had an incomplete initial endoscopic examination Patients with clinically significant rebleeding Patients who are treated with epinephrine injection alone Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran... | |
Most common paranasal sinus involved by Fibrous dysplasia is?: (A) Maxillary sinus, (B) Frontal sinus, (C) Ethmoid sinus, (D) Sphenoid sinus | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Maxillary sinusREF: Ballenger's Otorhinolaryngology: Head and Neck Surge by James Byron Snow, PhillipA. Wackym, John Jacob Ballenge centennial ed p. 506Indirect repeat ENT 2012 Session 1 (see details of Fibrous dysplasia)See APPENDIX-49 "PARANASAL SINUSES" APPENDIX - 49Paranasal Sinuses:Paranas... | |
A child is spinned around by holding his hand by his father. While doing this the child started crying and does not allow his father to touch his elbow. The diagnosis is -: (A) Pulled elbow, (B) Radial head dislocation, (C) Annular ligament tear, (D) Fracture olecranon process | Answer is A. This is case of pulled elbow and a dramatic cure is achieved by forcefully supinating and then flexing the elbow. | |
Monitoring of rate of occurrence of specific conditions to assess the stability or change in health levels of a population is known as:: (A) Epidemiological surveillance, (B) Active surveillance, (C) Passive surveillance, (D) Sentinel surveillance | Answer is D. None | |
A 40 yr old male has a rash over groin with demarcated peripheral scaling and central clearing. It could be due to: September 2005: (A) Candidiasis, (B) Malassezia furfur, (C) Trichophyton, (D) Aspergillosis | Answer is C. Ans. C: Trichophyton Tinea cruris, a pruritic superficial fungal infection of the groin and adjacent skin, is the second most common clinical presentation for dermatophytosis The most common etiologic agents for tinea cruris include Trichophyton rubrum and Epidermophyton floccosum; less commonly Trichophyt... | |
Gnarled enamel is seen in:: (A) Proximal surface of tooth, (B) Cervical region of tooth, (C) Cusp tips of tooth, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. None | |
Drug used for penile erection -: (A) Sildenaphil, (B) Apomorphine, (C) Papaverine, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is'd'i.e., All of the above[Ref KDT fl/e p. 303-304 6 &/e p. 296; Katzung LLth/e p. 197)Drugs used in erectile dysfunctionPhosphodiesterase-S inhibitors (Sildenafil, Todafil, Vardenafil)Alprostadil (Prostaglandin El) | |
pH of vagina in pregnancy is -: (A) 4.5, (B) 7, (C) 8.5, (D) 11 | Answer is A. Ans-A i.e., 4.5 Physiological chanses in vaeina durine pres nancy:o The vaginal walls become hypertrophied, edematous and more vascular.o Increased blood supply to venous plexus surrounding the was Us gives bluish colouration of the mucosa jacquemier's sign).o The length of the anterior vaginal wall is inc... | |
Drug of choice of trachoma is-: (A) Penicillin, (B) Sulfonamide, (C) Tetracyline, (D) Chloramphenicol | Answer is C. 1. Topical therapy regimes. It is best for individual cases. It consists of 1 percent tetracycline or 1 percent erythromycin eye ointment 4 times a day for 6 weeks or 20 percent sulfacetamide eye drops three times a day along with 1 percent tetracycline eye ointment at bed time for 6 weeks. 2.Systemic ther... | |
The effect of sucking habit: (A) Is less favourable in vertical growth tendency than horizontal growth tendency., (B) Is less favourable in horizontal growth tendency than vertical growth tendency., (C) Any of the above can be true, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. None | |
In maple syrup disease, the amino acids excreted in urine are, EXCEPT:: (A) Valine, (B) Leucine, (C) Isoleucine, (D) Phenylalanine | Answer is D. Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), or branched-chain ketoaciduria, is caused by a deficiency in activity of the branched-chain -keto acid dehydrogenase Inborn error of metabolism of valine leucine and isoleucine associated with gross mental deficiency. Branched chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase is located... | |
The difference between leukemia and leukemoid reaction is done by -: (A) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase, (B) Immature cells, (C) Total leukocyte count, (D) E.S.R. | Answer is A. Leukemoid reaction is defined as a reactive excessive leukocytosis in peripheral blood resembling that of leukemia in a subject who doesnot have leukemia. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score in the cytoplasm of mature neutrophils is high in leukaemoid reaction whereas reduced in CML .It is very usef... | |
A 32 year old woman presents with complaints of several months of burning substernal chest pain exacerbated by large meals, cigarettes, and caffeine. Her symptoms are worse when she lies on her back, especially when sleeping at night. Antacids often improve her symptoms. This patient is at risk for which of the followi... | Answer is B. This woman likely suffers from reflux esophagitis, a condition in which the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) does not adequately prevent acidic gastric contents from refluxing back into the distal esophagus. Most commonly, there is a defect in the LES mechanism itself, in addition to secondary causes such ... | |
Supra - amohyoid neck dissection is: (A) Lymph nodes I - V levels removed, (B) Lymph nodes I - III levels removed, (C) Lymph nodes I - V level removed along with IJV, SCM and spinal accessory nerve, (D) Lymph nodes I - III levels removed along with IJV SCM and spinal accessory nerve | Answer is B. None | |
Which of the following anticholinergic is used for peptic ulcer disease: (A) Dicyclomine, (B) Methacoline, (C) Pirenzepine, (D) Aclidinium | Answer is C. Pirenzepine is a M1 receptor antagonist.
Acetyl choline acts on M1 receptors present on gastric glands to increase acid secretion and Pirenzepine is used to treat peptic ulcer disease by blocking these receptors. | |
According to Miller's classification of increased tooth mobility, grade 3 would be: (A) 0.1 to 0.2 mm in horizontal direction, (B) Upto 1mm in horizontal direction, (C) > lmm in horizontal direction, (D) Mobility in horizontal and vertical direction | Answer is D. None | |
A pt. presents with hematuria of several days and dysmorphic RBC casts in urine. The site of origin is :: (A) Kidney, (B) Ureter, (C) Bladder, (D) Urethra | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' ie kidney " Isolated microscopic hematuria can be a manifestation of glomerular disease. The RBCs of glomerular origin are often dysmorphic."" Hematuria with dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts and protein excretion > 500 mg/day is virtually diagnostic of glomerulonephritis."SoDysmorphic RBCs - origin i... | |
All cause brain lesions except: (A) Giardiasis, (B) Tuberculosis, (C) Cysticercosis, (D) Bacteroides | Answer is A. (A) Giardiasis # G. lamblia is seen typically within the crypts in duodenum> It does not invade tissues, but remains tightly attached by means of the sucking disc to the epithelial surface in the duodenum and jejunum.> The diarrhoea in some cases may be steatorrhoeic with excess mucus and fat, but no blood... | |
Commonest cause of raised serum calcium is -: (A) Ecotopic secretion, (B) Parathyroid hyperplasia, (C) Parathyroid adenoma, (D) Parathyroid carcinoma | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Parathyroid adenoma o Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcemia overall. o The frequency of the various parathyroid lesions underlying the hyperfunction is as follows : ? Parathyroid adenoma - 75% to 80% Primary hyperplasia - 10% to 15% Parathyroid carcinoma- <... | |
MAC stands for: (A) Minimum alveolar concentration, (B) Minimal analgesic concentration, (C) Minimal anaesthetic concentration, (D) Maximum alveolar concentration | Answer is A. Minimum alveolar concentration is defined as the alveolar concentration of an inhaled anesthetic agent that prevents movement in 50% of patients in response to a standardized surgical stimulus. Low MAC - High potency MAC values of adult Halothane: 0.75 Sevoflurane: 2.0 Isoflurane: 1.2 Desflurane: 6.0 Enflu... | |
Hecht's pneumonia is a complication of: (A) Measles, (B) Mumps, (C) AIDS, (D) Mycoplasma | Answer is A. Hecht's pneumonia is a giant cell pneumonia in immunodeficient people,rare complication of measles. | |
Deflouridating material is:: (A) Duraphat, (B) Fluorprotector, (C) Brudevold's solution, (D) alumina | Answer is D. None | |
Suicide is most common in -: (A) Depression, (B) Alcohol dependence, (C) Dementia, (D) Schizophrenia | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Depression Causes/Risk factors for suicidePsychiatric disorders : - Depression (most common), alcoholism (2nd me), Drug/Substance dependence, Schizophrenia, Dementia.Physical illness : - Cancer, AIDS, Multiple sclerosis, Head trauma.Psychosocial factors : - Failure in love, marital diffic... | |
Most of the drug resistance occurs due to:(1996): (A) Transduction, (B) Translation, (C) Mutation, (D) Conjugation | Answer is D. Ans: d | |
In leprosy which of the following is not seen – a) Abnormal EMGb) Voluntary muscle wastingc) Decreased proprioceptiond) Decreased response to tactile sensatione) Increased response to tactile sensation: (A) a, (B) ce, (C) ac, (D) ae | Answer is B. Muscle deficit (voluntary muscle wasting) results in abnormal EMG.
There is decreased response to tactile stimulation (not increased).
Proprioception and vibration is not affected as leprosy spares posterior column | |
Approximate magnitude of completed family size is denoted by: (A) General fertility rate, (B) Total marital fertility rate, (C) Total fertility rate, (D) General marital fertility rate | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following antitussive can lead to hallucinations: (A) Morphine, (B) Dextromethorphan, (C) Diphenhydramine, (D) Aprepitant | Answer is B. Dextromethorphan is a NMDA antagonist used for Mild cough, which can lead to hallucination & addiction. | |
A 19-year-old fell from a cliff when he was hiking in the mountains. He broke his fall by grasping a tree branch, but he suffered injury to the C8-T1 spinal nerve roots. Sensory tests would thereafter confirm the nature of his neurologic injury by the sensory loss in the part of the limb supplied by which of the follow... | Answer is D. In a lesion of the lower trunk, or the C8 and T1 nerve roots, there is sensory loss on the medial forearm and the medial side of hand (dorsal and ventral). The medial cord is the extension of the lower trunk. The medial cord gives origin to the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve, which supplies the T1 der... | |
Impression plaster is: (A) Hydrophobic, (B) Hydrophilic, (C) Not compatible in wet sulcus, (D) Highly viscous | Answer is B. None | |
Integrity of the optic nerve is tested by except :: (A) Tangent Screen examination, (B) VER, (C) Perimetry, (D) ERG | Answer is D. Electroretinography (ERG) measures the electrical response of the retina to flashes of light, the flash electroretinogram, or to a reversing checkerboard stimulus, the pattern ERG (PERG).All other test in the option tests the integrity of optic nerve. Perimetry or Tangent Screen examination is used to exam... | |
Which of the following cardiac complications may develop in a 33 year old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) because of her underlying condition?: (A) Hemorrhagic pericarditis, (B) Infective endocarditis, (C) Libman-Sacks endocarditis, (D) Mitral valve prolapse | Answer is C. Libman-Sacks endocarditis affects patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Small granular vegetations consisting of fibrin develop on the undersurface of the leaflets of mitral and aoic valves. Fragments of vegetations may detach, resulting in embolism. Eventually, vegetations heal by organization... | |
Which is the first country in south east Asia to have eliminated trachoma?: (A) India, (B) Nepal, (C) Bangladesh, (D) Pakistan | Answer is B. 21 May 2018 - The World Health Organization (WHO) has validated Nepal for having eliminated trachoma as a public health problem - a milestone, as the country becomes the first in WHO's South-East Asia Region to defeat the world's leading infectious cause of blindness. Several criteria are used to assess a ... | |
One of the following is a sure sign of rape :: (A) Ruptured hymen in a girl aged 20 years, (B) Presence of semen in the posterior fornix in a girl age 20 years, (C) Presence of semen in the posterior fornix in a girl age 14 Years, (D) Presence of semen in the posterior fornix in a married girl age 16 years | Answer is C. C i.e. Semen in fornix in a girl < 14 years | |
All of the following bases are present in DNA, EXCEPT:: (A) Adenine, (B) Guanine, (C) Uracil, (D) Thymine | Answer is C. DNA contains only four different bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), thymine (T), and cytosine (C). DNA exists as a double helix in which A is always paired with T, and G is always paired with C. RNA contains the ribonucleotides of adenine, guanine, and cytosine, it does not possess thymine. Instead of thymin... | |
The strain which is used for production of BCG vaccine at commercial level is: (A) Danish-1331, (B) Tween-80, (C) Bacille Calmette Guerin, (D) PPD-RT-23 | Answer is A. None | |
An auto rickshaw ran over a child's thigh, there is a mark of the tyre tracks, it is an example of: AIIMS 10: (A) Patterned bruise, (B) Patterned abrasion, (C) Pressure abrasion, (D) Graze abrasion | Answer is B. Ans. Patterned abrasion | |
Dilantain (Phenytoin) is known to cause:: (A) Folic acid deficiency, (B) Biotin deficiency, (C) Thiamine deficiency, (D) Riboflavin deficiency | Answer is A. Folic acid deficiency | |
All the following muscles have dual nerve supply except: (A) Subscapularis, (B) Pectoralis major, (C) Pronator teres, (D) Flexor digitorum profundus | Answer is C. 1) Flexor digitorum profundus is supplied by - (i) Medial half by ulnar nerve and Lateral half by anterior interosseous nerve(C8 , T1) ( branch of median nerve ). 2)Subscapularis is supplied by - Upper and lower subscapular nerves ( C5 , C6 ). 3) pectoralis major is supplied by - Medial and lateral pectora... | |
One of the following is a characteristic of Henoch- Schonlein Purpura -: (A) Blood in stool, (B) Thrombocytopenia, (C) Intracranial hemorrhage, (D) Susceptibility to infection | Answer is A. None | |
Essential atrophy of choroid is due to inborn error of metabolism of amino acid:: (A) Cystine, (B) Cysteine, (C) Arginine, (D) Ornithine E Lysine | Answer is D. Ans. Ornithine E Lysine | |
The interior of right atrium is partially divided into two parts by -: (A) Crista terminalis, (B) Musculi pectinati, (C) Fossa ovalis, (D) Sinus venarum cavarum | Answer is A. Right atrium is divided into rough anterior and smooth posterior parts by crista terminalis. | |
Anterolateral avulsion fracture of the distal tibial physis is known as -: (A) Potts fracture, (B) Tillaux frascture, (C) Choparacture, (D) Jones fractture | Answer is B. Two unusual injuries of the growing ankle are the Tillaux fracture and the notorious triplane fracture. The TILLAUX fracture is an avulsion of a fragment of tibia by the anterior tibiofibular ligament; in the child or adolescent this fragment is the lateral pa of the epiphysis and the injury is therefore a... | |
Dextromethorphan differs from codeine in :: (A) Its antitussive action can be blocked by naloxone, (B) Depresses mucocilliary function of the airway mucosa, (C) Addiction common, (D) Causes no constipation | Answer is D. None | |
Which of the following is a preventable cause of mental retardation –: (A) Hypothyroidism, (B) Down syndrome, (C) Cerebral palsy, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Swimmer after coming out frm swimming pool presents with redness and mucopurulent discharge. There is no history of contact lens wear. On examination, no corneal involvement seen. Probable diagnosis is -: (A) Acanthamoeba keratitis, (B) Adul inclusion conjunctivitis, (C) Vernal keratoconjunctivitis, (D) Angular conjunc... | Answer is B. This is case of Swimming pool conjunctivits/granuloma-Which is adult inclusion conjunctivitis caused by chlamydia trachomatis. Ref: Khurana 7th/e p.73 & 4th/e p.63,68 | |
Normal paogram include all of the following EXCEPT: March 2013: (A) Cervical dilatation in X-axis, (B) Descent of head in Y-axis, (C) Sigmoid shaped curve, (D) Ale line followed 4 hours later by action line | Answer is A. Ans. A i.e. Cervical dilatation in X-axis Chas Paogram is: - Graphical representation of stages of labour; - Assessment of labour Cervicograph is: Graph showing relationship between cervical dilatation & labour | |
Growth of C diphtheriae in Tellurite agar occurs in -: (A) 2-4 hours, (B) 4-8 hours, (C) 8-12 hours, (D) 1-2 days | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 1-2 days * The usual media employed for cultivation of diphtheria bacillus are:-1) Loeffler's serum slope# It is used for rapid diagnosis as growth is shown within 4-8 hours.2) Tellurite blood agar (Tinsdale medium)# It acts as selective media, as tellurite inhibits growth of most other b... | |
Aspergillus causes all except: (A) Bronchopulmonary allergy, (B) Otomycosis, (C) Dermatophytosis, (D) Sinusitis | Answer is C. Dermatophytosis is caused by dermatophytes, which includes Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | |
The most commonly employed method for superficial, minimally invasive nodular Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)?: (A) Topical 5-fluorouracil, (B) Cryosurgery, (C) Electro-desiccation and curettage, (D) Mohs micrographic surgery | Answer is C. All given options are used for Rx of BCC, but Electro-desiccation and curettage (ED&C) is most commonly employed method for superficial, minimally invasive nodular BCCs and low-risk tumors. Wide local excision is selected for invasive, ill-defined, and more aggressive sub types of tumors, or for cosmetic r... | |
Regarding antibiotics true are: (A) No prophylaxis for clean contaminated surgery, (B) No prophylaxis for gastric ulcer surgery, (C) Prophylaxis for colorectal surgery, (D) Local irrigation with antibiotic contraindicated when systemic antibiotics given | Answer is C. In clean contaminated surgeries (ex : gastric) , Prophylactic antibiotics are used In contaminated surgeries , lke colorectal surgeries prophylactic antibiotics are used | |
Used for averting smoking habit is -: (A) Buspirone, (B) Bupropion, (C) Methadone, (D) Venlafaxine | Answer is B. Antismoking drugs are :- Vareniciline, Bupropion, Amfebutamone, Clonidine, Rimonabant, Topiramate, Nortryptyline, Glucose, Mecamylamine. | |
Which route of drug administration avoids first pass hepatic metabolism and is used with drug preparation that slowly releases drugs for periods as long as seven days ?: (A) Topical, (B) Transdermal, (C) Sublingual, (D) Oral | Answer is B. None | |
Tick transmits all except -: (A) Relapsing fever, (B) Tick typhus, (C) Chagas disease, (D) Viral encephalitis | Answer is C. Chaga's disease: It is transmitted by reduviid bugs.They are also called conenose bugs, they are of large size. Adults have wings. These bugs live exclusively on the blood of animals including man and transmit Trypanosoma cruzi, the causative agent of Chaga's disease. Ticks are ectoparasites of veebrate an... | |
The dorsal pa of the ventral mesogastrium forms(2018): (A) A) Greater omentum, (B) B) Lesser omentum, (C) C) Faliciform ligament, (D) D) Lineorenal ligament | Answer is B. The lesser omentum is formed by two layers of peritoneum separated by a variable amount of connective tissue and fat. It is derived from the ventral mesogastrium. Ref:- Gray's anatomy, pg num:- 1101 | |
Antigaucomatous drug causing spasm of accommodation: (A) Timolol, (B) Pilocarpine, (C) Dorazolamide, (D) Latanoprost | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pilocarpine Ocular side effects of topical agents for POAG 13-blocker: Allergic blepheroconjunctivitis, corneal hyposthesia, blurred vision, dry eye, superficial punctate keratitis. Cholinomietics (pilocarpine): Blurred vision, miosis, accommodative spasm, browache. Sympathomimetics Non-s... | |
Increasing number of services in rural areas is a pa of -: (A) Intersectoral coordination, (B) Equitable distribution, (C) Appropriate technology, (D) None | Answer is B. Ref: 25th Ed K.Park's Textbook Of Preventive and Social Medicine | |
Placenta accreta is associated with all except :: (A) Placenta pre, (B) Uterine scar, (C) Multipara, (D) Uterine malformation | Answer is D. Risk factors for placenta accreta : Present placenta pre Previous H/o cesarean section Previous curettage Previous manual removal of placenta Previously treated Asherman syndrome Myomectomy Multiparity Advanced age Ref: Datta Obs 9e pg 394. | |
Recurrent dislocations are least commonly seen in:: (A) Ankle, (B) Hip, (C) Shoulder, (D) Patella | Answer is A. Complete dislocation of Ankle is rare because the talus cannot be completely dislocated from the joint unless all ligaments are torn. Recurrent ankle instability following ligamentous injury may be seen, but such instability is not associated with frank dislocations (although subluxation of joint may be se... | |
Ectopic ACTH is commonly secreted by: September 2007: (A) Small cell carcinoma of the lungs, (B) Pancreatic carcinoma, (C) Gall bladder malignancy, (D) Medullary carcinoma of thyroid | Answer is A. Ans. A: Small cell carcinoma of the lungs Endogenous Cushing's syndrome results from some derangement of the body's own system of secreting coisol. Normally, ACTH is released from the pituitary gland when necessary to stimulate the release of coisol from the adrenal glands. In pituitary Cushing's, a benign... | |
Pearl's index indicates:: (A) Malnutrition, (B) Population, (C) Contraceptive failure, (D) LBW | Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. Contraceptive failureRef: Dutta Obs 6th/ed, p532-532Pearl index indicates the effectiveness of a contraceptive or is an index of contraception failure.* It is expressed in terms of "failure rate per hundred women - years of exposure (HWY)".* Failure rate per HWY=No.ofpatientsobservedxmonths... | |
drug transpo mechanisms include: (A) passive transpo, (B) lipid solubility, (C) bioavavailability, (D) distribution | Answer is A. Ref-KDT 7/e p11-13 drugs are transpoed across the membrane by passive diffusion and filtration specialized transpo | |
Which can be used in pregnancy?: (A) ACE inhibitors, (B) Aldosterone, (C) AT receptor antagonist, (D) Propylthiouracil | Answer is D. Propylthiouracil is used for hyperthyroidism during pregnancy.
ACE inhibitors and Losartan should be avoided during pregnancy.
ACE inhibitors can cause fetal renal tubular dysplasia when used in second and third trimester leading to oligohydramnios,
fetal limb contractures, craniofacial deformities and hyp... | |
Frequency of renal involvement in HSP ?: (A) 20-40%, (B) >80%, (C) 40-60%, (D) 10% | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 40-60%The repoed incidence of renal involvement in HSP varies considerably between different studies.o This may be because of the different criteria used to describe the involvement & the variability of the length used to follow up.o In different studies incidence of pediatric renal invol... | |
A 23-year-old woman consults an obstetrician because of the onset of vaginal bleeding in what she considers to be the fifth month of pregnancy; however, examination reveals the uterus to be enlarged to the size of a 7-month pregnancy. Intravaginal ultrasound fails to detect a fetal heabeat and instead shows a "snowstor... | Answer is D. Hydatidiform mole should be suspected when the uterus is enlarged beyond the expected size for the time of the pregnancy. HCG is markedly elevated in this gestational trophoblastic disease. H. mole on ultrasound shows a "snowstorm pattern ". Preeclampsia and eclampsia are forms of toxemia of pregnancy mark... | |
The most common histologic type of thyroid cancer is: (A) Medullary type, (B) Follicular type, (C) Papillary type, (D) Anaplastic type | Answer is C. Papillary carcinoma accounts for 80% of all thyroid malignancies in iodine-sufficient areas and is the predominant thyroid cancer in children and individuals exposed to external radiation." The incidence of primary malignant tumours of the thyroid gland Also, remember - Thyroid carcinoma is the most common... | |
Not true about right kidney is:: (A) Right kidney is preferred over the left for transplantation, (B) It is lower than the left kidney, (C) Right renal vein is shorter than the left, (D) Right kidney is related to the duodenum | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Right kidney is preferred over the left for transplantationLeft Kidney is preferred over the right kidney - Reasons:* Left kidney is chosen for its long renal vein which makes surgery easier.* Right kidney is related with duodenum.* Right kidney is lower than left kidney. | |
All of the following are true regarding Down's Syndrome EXCEPT;: (A) Only found in female, (B) Simian crease, (C) Growth retardation, (D) Epicanthus with oblique palpebral fissure | Answer is A. Down's syndrome (Trisomy 21): Mental retardation Epicanthic folds and flat facial profile Simian's crease Umblical hernia Hypotonia Gap between first and second toe Congenital hea defects | |
A 49 yr old male with a 35-pack-year history of smoking presents with a painless left scrotal mass. Examination revealed microscopic hematuria, absence of AFP and LDH. The most probable cause of the scrotal mass is:: (A) Seminoma, (B) Renal cell ca, (C) Epididymitis, (D) Ca lung | Answer is B. Ans is 'b' i.e. Renal cell ca History of smoking suggests either Ca lung or Renal cell ca. Microscopic hematuria ors RCC. The painless left scrotal mass can be metastasis from RCC to the scrotum (which is rare but several cases have been repoed) or the mass could be varicocele. A secondary varicocele can b... | |
Which personality disorder/s can be a pa of autistic sPectrum of disorders?: (A) Schizoid, (B) Schizotypical, (C) Borderline, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Ans. D. All the aboveFollowing personality disorders can be diagnosed later in life in patients with childhood autistic spectrum of disorders: Borderline, Obsessive compulsive, narcissitic, paranoid, schizotypical and, avoidant, personality. | |
Principal cell in granuloma is: (A) Lymphocyte, (B) Histiocyte, (C) Langhyans, (D) Giant cell | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Histiocyte Granuloma is characteristic ofgranulomatous inflammation. o The major cell of granuloma is epitheloid cell which is a modified tissue macrophage (histiocyte) that has been transformed into epithelium like cell. | |
Which of the following is not seen in ARDS?: (A) Hypoxemia, (B) Hypercapnia, (C) Pulmonary edema, (D) Stiff lung | Answer is D. Ref: Harrison's 18/e p2206, 17/e p1680,1681 | |
Calcitonin is used in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:: (A) Hypervitaminosis D, (B) Postmenopausal osteoporosis, (C) Paget's disease, (D) Fanconi syndrome | Answer is D. The ability of calcitonin to block bone resorption and lower serum calcium makes it a useful drug for the treatment of Paget's disease, hypercalcemia, and osteoporosis. Fanconi syndrome is a disease of the proximal renal tubules of the kidney in which glucose, amino acids, uric acid, phosphate and bicarbon... | |
"Microsomia" is defined as: (A) Bih weight below 90th percentile, (B) Bih weight below 10th percentile, (C) Bih weight below 20th percentile, (D) Bih weight below 50th percentile | Answer is B. A neonate whose weight falls between the 10th and <90th percentile for gestational age is considered as Appropriate for gestational age (AGA). If the weight falls below the 10th percentile, the neonate is classified as Small for gestational age (SGA) or microsomic. If the weight falls at or above the 90th ... | |
1. Which does not pass through the aoic opening(2018): (A) A) Aoa, (B) B) Vagus nerve, (C) C) Azygos vein, (D) D) Thoracic duct | Answer is B. The aoic hiatus trans- mits the aoa, thoracic duct, lymphatic trunks from the lower posterior thoracic wall and, sometimes, the azygos and hemiazygos veins | |
Which of the following drug is given unsupervised as per National Health Programmes ?: (A) Rifampicin, (B) Ethambutol, (C) Clofazimine, (D) Dapsone | Answer is D. Dapsone is not required to be given under supervision . Under NLEP, Rifampicin and Clofazimine are given under supervision for both Multibacillary and Paucibacillary Leprosy. Rifampicin is given 600 mg once a month under supervision. Clofazimine is given 300 mg once a month under supervision and 50 mg dail... | |
A young male was found to be HBsAg positivity and HBe Ag negative. His liver enzymes were normal. The next step in management of this young male should be:: (A) Lamivudine therapy, (B) Lamivudine plus IFN therapy, (C) Sta IFN therapy, (D) Serial monitoring | Answer is D. Answer is D (Serial Monitoring) Antiviral therapy (IFN, Lamuvidene, Adefovir, Entecovir) for chronic hepatitis B is indicated.* patients with active HBV replication. Negative HBe Ag and Normal levels of liver enzymes suggest that the patient is either in a non replicative phase of chronic hepatitis, or, is... | |
Not a copper containing IUD ?: (A) CuT-200, (B) Nova -T, (C) Multiload-250, (D) LNG-20 | Answer is D. Ans. is `d i.e., LNG-20 LNG-20 is third generation IUD which does not contain cooper. Other three options are 2"d generation (copper containing) IUDs. | |
About Hepatitis 'A' true is -: (A) Causes mild illness in children, (B) 3% incidence of carrier state, (C) 10% transform into HCC, (D) Veical transmission never seen | Answer is A. Type A hepatitis is a subacute disease of global distribution, affect mainly children and young adults. The disease is milder in children in whom many infections may be antiicteric. REF:ANATHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:541 | |
Causative organism of which STD has safety pin appearance:: (A) LGV, (B) Chancroid, (C) Syphilis, (D) Herpes genitalis | Answer is C. Ans. is. 'c' i. e., Chancroid | |
Renin plays important role in -: (A) Renovascular hypertension, (B) Malignant hypertension, (C) Coronary artery disease, (D) Essential hypertension | Answer is A. None | |
Most common cause of thyrotoxicosis in childhood ?: (A) Toxic nodular goitre, (B) Toxic adenoma, (C) Graves disease, (D) Thryotoxicosis factitia | Answer is C. None | |
Acute hepatocellular failure in a patient of cirrhosis of liver is precipitated by -: (A) Upper gastrointestinal bleeding, (B) Large carbohydrate meal, (C) Portal vein thrombosis, (D) Intravenous albumin infusion | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following type of glaucoma is treated by Argon Laser Trabeculoplasty?: (A) Open angle glaucoma, (B) Secondary glaucoma, (C) Angle recession glaucoma, (D) Angle closure glaucoma | Answer is A. Laser trabeculoplasty is effective in the initial treatment of primary open-angle glaucoma. Application of laser (either argon or frequency-doubled Q-switched Nd:YAG) burns a goniolens to the trabecular meshwork facilitates aqueous out-flow by viue of its effects on the trabecular meshwork and Schlemm's ca... | |
Hemoglobin is present in :: (A) Hydrophilic pockets, (B) Hydrophobic pockets, (C) Pyrrole rings, (D) Cationic ring | Answer is B. Hemoglobin, a tetrameric protein of erythrocytes, transpos O2 to the tissues and returns CO2 and protons to the lungs. The heme in haemoglobin is surrounded by a hydrophobic pocket, which is necessary in order for it to bind oxygen reversibly without undergoing oxidation or other undesirable reactions. Ref... | |
Peussis vaccine side effect: (A) Local pain, (B) Excessive cry, (C) Fever, (D) All of above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Peussis vaccine Available as whole cell and acellular as DTPw and DTPa Primary immunisation at 6, 10, 14 weeks followed by booster dose 1'/2 year and 5 year. Whole cell causes more side effect than acellular Side effect-local pain, redness, fever, irritability, excessive ... | |
Which of the following drugs should not be used in the conduct of labour in a woman with rheumatic hea disease?: (A) Methylergometrine, (B) Carboprost, (C) Synctocin, (D) Misoprostol | Answer is A. Methylergometrine (product containing ergot alkaloids) has a tendency to produce vaso-constriction. When given intravenously or intramuscularly (usually during the third stage of labour) cause sudden sustained contraction of the uterus. This uterine contraction causes a sudden addition of about 500 ml of b... | |
Pus in burns form in -: (A) 2-3 Days, (B) 3-5 days, (C) 2-3 weeks, (D) 4 weeks | Answer is A. Ans. is `a' i.e., 2-3 days Burn wound will almost inevitably be colonised by micro oraganism within 24-48 hrs. |
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