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Type of receptor present on T-cells are:: (A) IgA, (B) IgG, (C) Prostaglandins, (D) CD4 | Answer is D. Helper T cells
Carries CD4 marker.
Helps or induces immune responses.
Recognize antigen in association with class II MHC.
Macrophages are activated to kill intracellular microorganisms by secreting cytokines.
Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page:127 | |
A patient presented to emergency ward with massive upper gastrointestinal bleed. On examination, he has mild splenomegaly. In the absence of any other information available, which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic modality -: (A) Intravenous propranolol, (B) Intravenous vasopressin, (C) Intravenous p... | Answer is C. Medical management of Upper GI bleed PPI have been shown to reduce the risk for rebleeding and the need for surgical intervention Only 60-70% of patients with bleeding ulcer test positive for H.pylori ;after H.pylori Eradication there is no need for Longterm acid suppression Ref : Maingot's 10th/e p. 292, ... | |
Film speed best for detection of incipient caries:: (A) C, (B) D, (C) E, (D) F | Answer is B. None | |
NADA's criteria are used for -: (A) Assessment of child for degree of dehydration, (B) Assessment of child for degree of malnutrition, (C) Assessment of child for presence of hea disease, (D) Assessment of child for degree of mental retardation | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Assessment of child for the presence of hea disease o The assessment of a child for the absence or presence of Hea disease can be done with the help of some guidelines suggested by NADA and are called NADA's criteria. NADA's Criteria o Either one major or two minor criteria are necessary ... | |
Posterior columns sensations in lower limbs are lost in: (A) Vitamin A deficiency, (B) Vitamin B12 deficiency, (C) Vitamin C deficiency, (D) Vitamin D deficiency | Answer is B. Refer KDT 6/e p589 Deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to Megaloblastic anemia which is indistinguishable from folic acid deficiency Deficiency also have manifestations related to loss of myelin like Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord | |
Aspirated synol fluid in septic ahritis will have?: (A) Clear color, (B) High viscosity, (C) Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes | |
Which among the following country is a 'Rabies free country'?: (A) USA, (B) Russia, (C) Australia, (D) France | Answer is C. A "Rabies-free" area has been defined as one in which no case of indigenously acquired rabies has occurred in man or any animal species for 2 years. Australia, China (Taiwan), Cyprus, Iceland, Ireland, Japan, Malta, New Zealand, the U.K. and the islands of Western Pacific are all free of the disease. The L... | |
Balanced occlusion with noncuspaL teeth is achieved by: (A) Compensating curves, (B) Incisal guide, (C) Balancing ramps, (D) None | Answer is A. None | |
Cholecysto-venacaval line seperates which of the following ?: (A) Gallbladder and IVC, (B) Poa hepatis and IVC, (C) Caudate lobe and quadrangular lobe, (D) Right and left lobe of liver | Answer is D. Cholecysto-venacaval line (cantlie line) seperates right and left lobe of the liver. Cantlie line is an imaginary line that divides the liver into two planes. It extends from the midpoint of the gallbladder fossa at the inferior margin of the liver back to the midpoint of the IVC and contains the middle he... | |
All are true about Coho studies EXCEPT: September 2012: (A) Prospective, (B) Useful for rare diseases, (C) Necessary for incidence, (D) Costly as compared to case control studies | Answer is B. Ans: B i.e. Useful for rare diseases Case control studies Advantages Good for studying rare conditions or diseases Less time needed to conduct the study because the condition or disease has already occurred Lets you simultaneously look at multiple risk factors Useful as initial studies to establish an asso... | |
A woman has 2 kids. She presents with galactorrhoea and amenorrhoea for 1 year. The most probable diagnosis is :: (A) Pregnancy, (B) Pituitary tumor, (C) Sheehan's syndrome, (D) Metastasis to pituitary from other carcinoma | Answer is B. Ans. is b i.e. Pituitary Tumor | |
Which of the following statements about inhalation anesthetic agents is wrong?: (A) Sevoflurane is more potent than isoflurane, (B) Sevoflurane is less cardiodepressant than isoflurane, (C) Desflurane has lower blood-gas paition coefficient than sevoflurane, (D) Sevoflurane has a higher MAC than isoflurane | Answer is A. Sevoflurane is less potent than isoflurane as it lacks coronary vasodilating propeies. Ref: Handbook of Clinical Anesthesia By Barash, Cullen, Stoelting , 5th Edition, Page 216; Handbook of Clinical Anesthesia By Paul G. Barash, Bruce F. Cullen, Robe K. Stoelting, M. Christine Stock, 6th Edition, Page 231 | |
Which of the following is characterically not associated with the development of interstial lung disease: (A) Organic dusts, (B) Inorganic dusts, (C) Toxic gases, (D) None | Answer is D. All the mentioned are associated with interstial lung disease Interstitial lung disease may be caused by long-term exposure to hazardous materials, such as asbestos or coal dust, or it can be caused by an auto-immune disease such as rheumatoid ahritis. Once lung scarring occurs, it's generally irreversible... | |
Kawasaki disease is associated with all of the following features except-: (A) Erythema, (B) Posterior cervical Lymphadenopathy, (C) Thromobocytopenia, (D) Conjunctivitis | Answer is C. None | |
On accident there is damage of cervical spine, first line of management is:: (A) X-ray, (B) Turn head to side, (C) Maintain airway, (D) Stabilise the cervical spine | Answer is C. C i.e. Maintain airway Initial Evaluation And Emergency Care In Spinal Trauma All the trauma patients are at risk of spinal injury. Many of the spinal injury patients are multiple trauma victims and there fore require emergency treatment(' The treatment priorities are preserving life (15, ), limb, and func... | |
'A' pattern squint is due to which muscle: (A) Superior rectus, (B) Inferior rectus, (C) Superior oblique, (D) Inferior oblique | Answer is C. A pattern squint - superior oblique.
V pattern squint - inferior oblique. | |
Pathergy test is used for: (A) Reither's syndrome ,, (B) Behchet's syndrome, (C) Lichen planus, (D) Atopic dermatitis | Answer is B. Pathergy phenomenon is defined as a state of altered tissue reactivity that occurs in response to minor trauma Although the exact mechanisms underlying pathergy phenomenon are unknown, skin injury caused by needle prick apparently triggers a cutaneous inflammatory response . Types of pathergy tests: Oral p... | |
The superior oblique muscle is supplied by: (A) 3rd cranial nerve, (B) 4th cranial nerve, (C) 5th cranial nerve, (D) 6th cranial nerve | Answer is B. Superior oblique muscle is supplied by fouh cranial nerve i.e,trochlear nerve. It supplies only the superior oblique muscle of the eyeball. Superior oblique muscle helps in depression,abduction and intoion. Note: When trochlear nerve is damaged, diplopia occur looking downwards; vision is single so long as... | |
Which of the following are physiological antagonists: (A) Adrenaline and Isoprenaline, (B) glucagon and insulin, (C) Isoprenaline and Propranolol, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. Adrenalin and histamine and glucagon, insulin are physiological antagonists Physiological antagonism - opp effect on the same physiological system by two drugs glucagon increases blood glucose, insulin decreases- blood glucose adrenaline- bronchodilatation histamine- broncho constriction Ref KD Tripathi 8t... | |
Which one is non-ionising radiation -: (A) MRI, (B) CT Scan, (C) X-ray, (D) Position emission scintigraphy | Answer is A. Ans- A. MRI. | |
Corticosteroids are contraindicated in all of the following except:: (A) Herpes zoster., (B) Varicella., (C) Pemphigus., (D) Herpes simplex. | Answer is C. None | |
Citrullinemia type I results from deficiency of the: (A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase, (B) Argininosuccinate synthase, (C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase, (D) Sucinyl Co-A synthase | Answer is B. (B) Argininosuccinate synthase# Citrullinemia type I (CTLN1) presents as a clinical spectrum that includes an acute neonatal form (the "classic" form), a milder late-onset form, a form without symptoms or hyperammonemia, and a form in which women have onset of severe symptoms during pregnancy or post partu... | |
Bismuth compounds are incorporated in root canal sealer materials because they are:: (A) Radio-opaque, (B) Germicidal, (C) Radiolucent, (D) Adhesive | Answer is A. Root canal sealers should be radiopaque, so that it can be visualized in the radiograph.
Radiopacity is provided by salts of heavy metals such as silver, barium and bismuth. | |
The appropriate media culture for a gram negative coccobacilli arranged in a school of fish , that causes STD with genital ulcers is: (A) Thayer Main media, (B) Blood agar with X and V factors, (C) Chocolate agar with isovitale X, (D) Tellurite blood agar | Answer is C. Chocolate agar enriched with 1%isovitalex is used to grow H.ducreyi. | |
Metastatic calcification is commonly seen in all of the following, except:: (A) Lungs, (B) Kidneys, (C) Gastric mucosa, (D) Cardiac valves | Answer is D. Dystrophic calcification is seen in cardiac valves (calcific valvular disease). Metastatic calcification principally affects interstitial tissues of: Gastric mucosa Kidneys Lungs Systemic aeries Pulmonary veins The common feature of all these sites, which makes them prone to calcification is that they can ... | |
Targeted intervention for HIV is done for all except -: (A) Commercial sex worker, (B) Migrant laborers, (C) Street children, (D) Industrial worker | Answer is D. <p> Targeted interventions for high risk group is to improve health-seeking behaviour of high risk groups and reducing their risk of acquiring STI and HIV. It includes female sex workers , men who have sex with men ,transgenders,injecting drug users,bridge populations and high risk behaviour migrants and l... | |
Radiological sign of ischemic colitis is: (A) Popcorn appearance, (B) Thumb print apperance, (C) Cobrahead app, (D) Inveed 3 sign | Answer is B. B i.e. Thumb printing | |
Neurotransmitter changes proposed in cases of Anxiety: (A) Increased NE, and decreased GABA and serotonin, (B) Decreased NE and serotonin, and increased Ach, (C) Decreased GABA and Ach, (D) Increased serotonin, and decreased NE and GABA | Answer is A. There are various neurotransmitters that is studied under the neurobiology of anxiety they are mainly as follows decreased GABA, hence benzodiazepines which acts on GABA is a onderful anti anxiety drug decrased serotonin , hence SSRI are used in management of all anxiety disorders increased norepinephrine,... | |
Compared with serum, CSF has: (A) A higher chloride concentration, (B) A higher protein concentration, (C) The same glucose concentration, (D) More lymphocytes per microliter | Answer is A. Compared with serum, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) has a higher chloride concentration. CSF is an ultrafiltrate of plasma. It is produced primarily by the choroid plexus cells in the lateral ventricles. From the lateral ventricles, CSF flows through the foramen of Munro into the third ventricle, through the aq... | |
ASHA ( accredited social health activist) works at: (A) Community level, (B) Village level, (C) PHC level, (D) District level | Answer is B. In NRHM at village level with 1000 population, one ASHA and AWWs are present Ref: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition | |
A 44 year old female has history of blunt trauma to the abdomen the best investigation is -: (A) USG, (B) CT Scan, (C) Complete Hemogram, (D) Abdominal X-ray | Answer is A. Answer- A. USGIf patient is hemodynamically stable and can be shifted - CT scan is the best.If patient is hemodynamically unstable (cannot be shifted) - USG is the investigation of choice. | |
Loeffler's serum slope doesn't contain: (A) Nutrient Broth, (B) Glucose, (C) Horse serum, (D) Sheep blood | Answer is D. LSS is used for the culture of C Diptheria It doesn't contain sheep blood .sheep blood is present in blood agar LSS is a type of enriched media Ref: CP Baveja 4th ed Pg:46 | |
All are true regarding propeies of common disinfectants, EXCEPT:: (A) Glutaraldehyde is sporicidal, (B) Hypochlorites are viricidal, (C) Alcohol is fungicidal, bactericidal not sporicidal, (D) Phenol usually requires organic matter to act | Answer is D. Phenol and its derivatives acts by denaturing proteins, especially in cell membrane. It is active aginst gram positive bacteria but its activity is reduced in presence of organic matter. Glteraldehyde is considered a chemical sterilant since it has a broad spectrum of activity inluding being sporicidal. It... | |
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Fondaparinux: (A) Factor Xa inhibition and Thrombin inhibition, (B) Factor Xa inhibition, (C) Antithrombin inhibitor, (D) Thrombin inhibition | Answer is B. The antithrombotic activity of fondaparinux sodium is the result of antithrombin III (ATIII) mediated selective inhibition of Factor Xa. ref - Harrisons internal medicine 20e pg851 | |
Hepatitis E clinically resembles -: (A) Hepatitis A, (B) Hepatitis B, (C) Hepatitis C, (D) Hepatitis D | Answer is A. Type E hepatitis was previously is mistaken for hepatitis A because of clinical and epidemiological similarities. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-550 | |
A 6-month-child presents with episodes of vomiting after ingesting fruit juice. Which of following enzyme deficiency is likely?: (A) Aldolase, (B) Fructokinase, (C) Glucose 6-phosphatase, (D) Hexokinase | Answer is A. a. Aldolase B(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 720-728, Ghai 8/e p 655-657)In the given scenario, the child becomes symptomatic after ingesting fruit juice, which is often sweet, containing sucrose and hence, glucose and fructose. So, he is suffering from Hereditary Fructose intolerance. | |
Most common cause of spontaneous abortion is?: (A) Chromosomal abnormality, (B) Uterine malformations, (C) Immunological, (D) Infections | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Chromosomal abnormalityREF: Dutta 6th ed p. 159Most common cause of spontaneous abortion is chromosomal abnormality, trisomy of chromosome 16. | |
Cranial part of accessory nerve supplies: (A) Sternocleidomastoid, (B) Trapezius, (C) Levator scapulae, (D) Levator palatini | Answer is A. Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius develop from branchial arch mesoderm and are supplied by spinal part of accessory nerve.
Levator scapulae are supplied by a branch from dorsal scapular nerve and branches from C3, C4. | |
Maximum contribution of plasma osmolarity is by: (A) Urea, (B) Glucose, (C) Sodium, (D) Albumin | Answer is C. Sodium is the major contributor plasma osmolarity Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 50,51,52 | |
which of the following does not belong to CATOGORY B bioterrorism ?: (A) plague, (B) ricinus communis, (C) brucellosis, (D) q fever | Answer is A. High Priority Agents in bioterrorism : * Category A * Easily spread; high death rates * Anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, and selected hemorrhagic fever viruses * Category B * Moderately easy to disseminate * Brucellosis, food safety threats, Q fever, and other agents * Category C * Could be ... | |
A 23-year-old, sexually active man has been treated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection 6 times during the past 5 years. He now comes to the physician because of the increasing number and size of warty lesions slowly enlarging on his external genitalia during the past year. On physical examination, there are multiple 1... | Answer is C. Condyloma acuminatum is a benign, recurrent squamous epithelial proliferation resulting from infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, one of many sexually transmitted diseases that can occur in sexually active individuals. Koilocytosis is particularly characteristic of HPV infection. Candidiasi... | |
Which of the following drugs has a high affinity for 5–HT2 receptors in the brain, does not cause extrapyramidal dysfunction or hematotoxicity, and is reported to increase the risk of significant QT prolongation ?: (A) Chlorpromazine, (B) Clozapine, (C) Olanzapine, (D) Ziprasidone | Answer is D. None | |
RNA which contains codon for specific amino acid: (A) tRNA, (B) rRNA, (C) mRNA, (D) None | Answer is C. Amonng the different species of RNAs, it is only mRNAs that are linearly related to DNA and to polypeptide chain as an intermediary. It is this species of RNA that carries encoded message from the master molecule in the form of codons. It is these molecules that translate by decoding the information into p... | |
Characteristic features of Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome are all of the following except: (A) Absent uterus, (B) Absent vagina, (C) Anovulation, (D) 46 - XX | Answer is C. RKH Syndrome Vaginal aplasia or Hypoplasia Absent uterus As the ovaries function normally development of secondary sexual charecteristics is normal and ovulation is normal SHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:95,15th edition | |
Most common cause of neonatal meningitis -: (A) Staphylococcus, (B) E. coli, (C) H. influenze, (D) Pneumococcus | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., E. coli "Group B streptococcus followed by E.coli are the two most common causes of neonatal meningitis". Most common cause of neonatal meningitis --> Group B streptococcus (Str. agalactiae) Second most common cause of neonatal meningitis -- E.coli | |
Raynauds phenomenon is commonly seen in: (A) Upper limb of female, (B) Lower limb of female, (C) Lower limb of male, (D) Upper limb of male | Answer is A. . It is an episodic vasospasam,especially aeriolar spasam usually bilateral more often seen in upperlimb of females as a result of abnormal sensitivity to cold.Patient develops blanching,cyanosis qnd later flushing .usually medial four digits and palm are involved.Thumb is spared.If vasospasam becomes long... | |
Which of the following metal is considered as the principal hardener and gives red colour to the alloy?: (A) Platinum, (B) Palladium, (C) Copper, (D) Zinc | Answer is C. Copper when added to gold-based alloys, imparts a reddish color to the gold and hardens the alloy via a solid-solution or ordered-solution mechanism.
Ref: Craig’s 14th edition page 183, 184 | |
A child presents with pigmentation of one half of the face along with a history of multiple episodes of seizures. His X ray skull revealed the following finding. What could be the underlying diagnosis?: (A) Cerebral palsy, (B) Neurofibromatosis, (C) West syndrome, (D) Sturge Weber syndrome | Answer is D. The given X ray skull shows 'tram track calcification' seen in Sturge Weber syndrome, in which pigmentation of one half of face, along with seizures is seen. STURGE WEBER SYNDROME:- -Po wine stain of face involving the ophthalmic & maxillary division of trigeminal nerve -Contralateral focal seizures seen -... | |
When was the International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade Programme launched?: (A) 1975, (B) 1978, (C) 1984, (D) 1981 | Answer is D. The International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade Programme launched in 1981. Targets set were 100 percentage for water, both urban and rural, 80% for urban sanitation and 25% for rural sanitation. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 397. | |
Arias syndrome is also known as:: (A) Rotor syndrome, (B) Dubin johnson syndrome, (C) Crigler Najjar syndrome type I, (D) Crigler Najjar syndrome type II | Answer is D. Crigler najjar syndrome type II is also known as arias syndrome, is a hereditary disorder of bilirubin metabolism characterized by unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to reduced and inducible activity of hepatic bilirubin glucuronosyltransferase (GT). There is paial deficiency of bilirubin uridine diphosph... | |
Massive bleeding per rectum in a 70 yr old patient is due to -: (A) Diverticulosis, (B) Carcinoma colon, (C) Colitis, (D) Polyps | Answer is A. Causes of lower GI bleed in adults
Local anorectal diseases - hemorrhoids (most common), anal fissures.
Diverticulosis (2nd MC)
Vascular ectasias, angiodysplasias
Neoplasm (polyps & adenocarcinoma)
Colitis (Ischemic, infectious, & IBD)
Although hemorrhoids are the MC cause of bleeding per rectum, it c... | |
Collagen is found in all of the following, EXCEPT :: (A) Ligament, (B) Tendon, (C) Fibroblasts, (D) Aponeurosis | Answer is C. Fibroblasts produce type I collagen fibers that are found in tendons, ligaments and joint capsules. Type I collagen is found distributed throughout the body. It is found in fascia, tendons, ligaments, aponeuroses, capsule of glands, sclera, fibrocailage, bone and dentin.Type II collagen is found in hyaline... | |
A first rank symptom of schizophrenia is all Except: (A) Ambivalence, (B) Running commentary, (C) Thought inseion, (D) Somatic passivity | Answer is A. Ku Schneider First Rank Symptoms Second-Rank Symptoms Audible thoughts Voices arguing or discussing(commanding voices) Voices commenting on patient's actions (commenting voices) Made feelings Made impulses or drives Made volitional acts Thought withdrawal Thought inseion Thought broadcasting Delusional per... | |
Peak of prostaglandins occurs in what stage:: (A) 1st stage of Labor, (B) 2nd stage of Labor, (C) 3rd stage of Labor, (D) Before 1st stage of labor | Answer is C. Ans. (c) 3rd stage of LaborRef High risk pregnancy 4th ed. by James et.al, ch 75- Normal third stage of LaborThere are four stages of labor* The first stage is from the onset of true labor to complete dilation of the cervix.* The second stage is from complete dilation of the cervix to the birth of the baby... | |
Maximum dose of plain lignocaine (in mg) –: (A) 300, (B) 500, (C) 700, (D) 1000 | Answer is A. Maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine → 300 mg (4.5 mg/kg).
Maximum safe dose of lidocaine with epinephrine → 500 mg (7 mg/kg). | |
Two siblings with osteogenesis imperfect, but their parents are normal. Mechanism of inheritance is -: (A) Anticipation, (B) Genomic imprinting, (C) Germ line mosaicism, (D) New mutation | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Germ line mosaicism o In some autosomal dominant disorders (e.g. osteogenesis imperfecta) phenotypically normal parents have more than one affected child. This clearly violates the law of inheritance. Studies indicate that gonadal (germ line) mosaicism may be responsible for such unusual ... | |
Eukaryotic cell membranes are different from prokaryotic cell membranes. Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made up of all, EXCEPT:: (A) Carbohydrates, (B) Triglycerides, (C) Lecithin, (D) Cholesterol | Answer is B. In prokaryotes, the membranes are relatively simple, but in eukaryotes, cell membranes contain various glycosphingolipids, sphingomyelin, chains of oligosaccharides and cholesterol in addition to phospholipids and phosphatidylcholine (lecithin). Cholesterol is also present, often at nearly a 1:1 ratio with... | |
Most common malignant neoplasm of the eyelid is -: (A) Squamous cell carcinoma, (B) Basal cell Carcinoma, (C) Merkel Cell tumour, (D) Malignant Melanoma | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Basal cell Carcinoma There are 4 main types of evelid cancers:a. Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)# BCC is the most common type of eyelid tumour, accounting for about 85% of all eyelid tumours. It is also the most common type of cancer that occurs outside the eyeball.# BCC of the eyelid usually ... | |
Drug of choice for maintenance therapy in PSVT is-: (A) Amiodarone, (B) Lignocaine, (C) Verapamil, (D) Adenosine | Answer is C. Ans. is c' i.e., Verapamilo Amongst the options provided Verapamil is the drug of choice for maintenance therapy in pateints with PSVT.Treatment options for Supraventricular Tachycardiao Physiologic interventionRestValsalva maneuvers : Gag reflex, ice packs, etcCarotid massageAvoidance of inciting factors ... | |
Buspirone is an: (A) Anti psychotic, (B) Anti anxiolitic, (C) Anti depressant, (D) Anti hypertensive | Answer is B. (B) Anti anxiolitic> Buspirone is an anxiolytic psychoactive drug of the azapirone chemical class, and is primarily used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). | |
The elastic or plastic deformation to fracture a material is its:: (A) Toughness, (B) Brittleness, (C) Young's Modulus, (D) Proportional limit | Answer is A. None | |
a patient presented with rashes all over body sparing palms and soles .he doesnot have h/o of animal exposure this condition may be associated with ?: (A) epidemic typhus, (B) q fever, (C) RMSF, (D) ricktessial pox | Answer is A. Epidemic Typhus Epidemic typhus, also known as louse-borne typhus is an uncommon disease that is caused by bacteria called Rickettsia prowazekii. Epidemic typhus can be easily spread to people through contact with infected body lice. However epidemic typhus was responsible for millions of deaths in previou... | |
Mastoid reservoir phenomenon is positive in -: (A) CSOM, (B) Petrositis, (C) Coalescent otitis media, (D) Coalescent mastoiditis | Answer is D. Mastoid reserve phenomenon is filling up of meatus with pus immediately after cleaning. It is seen in mastoiditis.
Ref. SK De, p 107, 98 | |
All are associated with MEN 2 except:: (A) Pheochromocytoma, (B) Islet cell hyperplasia, (C) Medullary carcinoma thyroid, (D) Parathyroid adenoma | Answer is B. Answer is B (Islet cell hyperplasia): Pituitary islet cell tumors/hyperplasia are associated with MEN- I syndromes and not with MEN II syndromes. | |
Ligamentum teres of the liver is a remnant of ________: (A) Umbilical aeries, (B) Umbilical vein, (C) Ductus venosus, (D) Ductus aeriosus | Answer is B. Ligamentum teres is a remnant of the umbilical vein. The vessels that are occluded soon after bih are in due to course replaced by fibrous tissue and forms the following ligaments: Fetal structure Adult structure Foramen ovale Fossa ovalis Umbilical vein Ligamentum teres Ductus venosus Ligamentum venosum U... | |
Regarding schick's test which of the following is false: (A) Erythematous reaction in both arms indicates, (B) Positive test means that person is immune to hypersensitivity diphtheria, (C) Diphtheria antitoxin is given intradermal, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. None | |
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency occurs in: (A) Emphysema, (B) Bronchiectasis, (C) Empyema, (D) Bronchogenic carcinoma | Answer is A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (A1AD or AATD) is a genetic disorder that may result in lung disease or liver disease. Onset of lung problems is typically between 20 and 50 years old. This may result in shoness of breath, wheezing, or an increased risk of lung infections Affected individuals often developem... | |
Pelkan spur is seen in -: (A) Rickets, (B) Scurvy, (C) Hemophilia, (D) All | Answer is B. Radiological features of scurvy: Palkan spur : metaphyseal spurs projecting at right angles to the shaft. White line of Frankel : calcified cailage in the metaphysis Trumefeld zone : zone of rarefraction below the white line of Frankel Wimburger sign : ring surrounding the ephiphyseal centres of ossificati... | |
All are true about primary hyperparathyroidism except -: (A) Nephrolithiasis, (B) Increased alkaline phosphatase, (C) Decreased calcium, (D) Loss of lamina dura | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Decreased calcium Clinical features of Hyperparathyroidism|||Symptomatic signs and symptomsAsymptomatico Recurrent nephrolithiasiso Peptic ulceration (abdominal pain)o Extensive bone resorptiono Mental changes; Psychiatric manifestations'Manifestation may be subtle and the disease many ha... | |
In sickle cell anaemia, the defect can be explained as having arisen from -: (A) A base inseion in DNA, (B) A base deletion in DNA, (C) A base substitution in DNA, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. C i.e. A base substitution in DNA | |
True about rigor mois are all, except: FMGE 08: (A) Seen immediately after death, (B) It last 18-36 h in summer, (C) It disappears in the sequence as it appears, (D) It last 24-48 h in winter | Answer is A. Ans. Seen immediately after death | |
Protoporphyrin levels >100 mg/dl indicates:: (A) Iron overload, (B) Lead poisoning, (C) Porphyria, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. Protoporphyrin is an intermediate in the pathway to heme synthesis. Under conditions in which heme synthesis is impaired, protoporphyrin accumulates within the red cell. This reflects an inadequate iron supply to erythroid precursors to suppo haemoglobin synthesis. Normal values are <30 mg/dL of red cells.... | |
Major clinical use of nimodipine is in:: (A) Raynaud's phenomenon, (B) Hypertension, (C) Angina, (D) Subarachnoid haemorrhage | Answer is D. Nimodipine:
It is a short-acting DHP which penetrates blood-brain barrier very efficiently due to high lipid solubility and has high affinity for the cerebral blood vessels.
It is believed to selectively relax cerebral vasculature and is approved for prevention and treatment of neurological deficit due ... | |
Structure held by forceps is seen in: (A) Stomach, (B) Appendix, (C) Colon, (D) Duodenum | Answer is C. Appendix Epiploica is one of the numerous pouches of the peritoneum filled with fat and attached to the colon. | |
HPV causes which change in cervical epithelium: (A) Induction of apoptosis, (B) Induction of necrosis, (C) Immortalization of epithelial cells, (D) By stimulating telomerase | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Immortalization of epithelial cells o HPV selectively infects the epithelium of skin and mucous membrane and may immortalize the keratinocytes leading either asymptomatic infection, or warts or neoplasia.o Products of E-genes (E6, E7) are related to immortalization or malignant transforma... | |
Most common site for lymphoma in AIDS patients is: (A) CNS lesions, (B) Spleen, (C) Thymus, (D) Abdomen | Answer is A. Ref Robbins 9/e p254, 8/e p529,7/e p549 Pathogenesis of CNS Involvement The pathogenesis of the neurologic manifestations in AIDS deserves special mention because, in addition to the lymphoid system, the nervous system is a major target of HIV infection. Macrophages and cells belonging to the monocyte-macr... | |
All of the following statements about the control of micturition are true Except: (A) An individual with a spinal cord injury at L1 can still have a micturition reflex, (B) The micturition reflex can occur without voiding any urine, (C) Bladder volume can be more than double that present when the first urge to void occ... | Answer is D. Micturition is initiated by activation of afferent sensory fibers located in the wall of the bladder; these fibers sense the degree of stretch of the bladder wall. In addition, these sensory fibers travel back to the spinal cord sacral dorsal roots. The sensory information that reaches the spinal cord also... | |
DOC FOR INVASIVE ASPERGILLOSIS?: (A) VORICONAZOLE, (B) POSACONAZOLE, (C) AMPHOTERICIN B, (D) CASPOFUNGIN | Answer is A. REF : KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED | |
Capitonnage is used in treatment of: (A) Choledochal cyst, (B) Dermoid cyst, (C) Hydatid cyst, (D) Renal cyst | Answer is C. Methods of management of the residual cavity after cyst evacuation External tube drainage Capsulorrhaphy Capitonnage Myoplasty Omentoplasty Internal collapse Introflexion Marsupialization Introflexion plus omentoplasty Cysto jejunostomy or cysto gastrostomy Ref: Blumga 5th edition Pg no : 1045 | |
Intermittent dysphagia is caused by -a) Strictureb) Reflux esophagitisc) Achalasia cardiad) Pharyngeal diverticululame) Diffuse esophageal spasm: (A) ab, (B) bc, (C) de, (D) bd | Answer is C. None | |
In a newborn child, we generally see: (A) Maxillary protrusion, (B) Maxillary retrusion, (C) Mandibular protrusion, (D) Mandibular retrusion | Answer is D. Pre-dentate period
At birth, the newborn has a small face, large head and small chin.
Textbook of orthodontics OP Kharbanda page 458 | |
The most important clinical fmding in a case of head injury is -: (A) Pupillary dilatation, (B) Level of consciousness, (C) Focal neurological deficit, (D) Fracture skull | Answer is B. Conscious level determined on Glasgow coma scale. | |
Electrical synapse is closely associated with: (A) Neuromuscular junction, (B) Tight junction, (C) Gap junction, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Cell junction forms tunnels that join the cytoplasm of two cells. They help in the transmission of electrical activity from one cell to another. (REF: TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY GEETHA N 2 EDITION, PAGE NO - 18) | |
Cells of the Organ of Coi which are vulnerable to noise induced damage are ?: (A) Inner hair cells, (B) Outer hair cells, (C) Deiter's cells, (D) Cells of Hensen | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Outer hair cells | |
Rough endoplasmic reticulum is the site of synthesis for: (A) Protein, (B) Cholesterol, (C) Carbohydrate, (D) Fat | Answer is A. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is concerned with Protein synthesis*
Initial folding of the polypeptide chains with the formation of disulfide bonds Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is concerned with Steroid synthesis
* Detoxication processes As sarcoplasmic reticulum plays important role in skeletal and cardiac m... | |
All agents can be given for induction of anaesthesia in children except ?: (A) Halothane, (B) Sevoflurane, (C) Morphine, (D) N2O | Answer is C. Morphine is not an inducing agent.
Sevoflurane is the agent of choice and is used in N2O + O2 gas mixture. Halothane is the second choice inducing agent. | |
The cofactor involved in sulphur containing amino acid metabolism is which of the following?: (A) Folic acid, (B) Biotin, (C) Vitamin B1, (D) Vitamin B12 | Answer is D. While both folic acid and vitamin B12 are involved in sulphur containing amino acid metabolism, vitamin B12 acts as cofactor and folate acts as substrate. | |
An ultrashort acting β–blocker devoid of partial agonistic or membrane stabilizing action is:: (A) Esmolol, (B) Timolol, (C) Atenolol, (D) Pindolol | Answer is A. None | |
Pudendal nerve is related to:: (A) Ischial spine, (B) Sacral promontory, (C) Iliac crest, (D) Ischial tuberosity | Answer is A. Branches of the sacral plexus, the pudendal nerve, and nerve to the obturator internus leave the pelvis through the lower pa of the greater sciatic foramen, below the piriformis.They cross the ischial spine with the internal pudendal aery and immediately re-enter the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foram... | |
Carcinoma which arises in the thyroglosal cyst is -: (A) Papillary carcinoma, (B) Follicular, (C) Anaplastic, (D) Medullary | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Papillary carcinoma o Thyroid carcinomas arising after radiation or in thyrogiossal cyst are papillary type. Various genes involved in thyroid carcinomas areo Papillary-o Tyrosine kinase receptors RET or NTRK1o RAS mutationo BRAF oncogeneo Follicular-o RAS oncogene (NRAS, HRAS and KRAS)o ... | |
True about Acrodermatitis enteropathica is?: (A) Lifelong treatment required, (B) Autosomal dominant disorder, (C) Wound healing is not affected, (D) Zinc absorption is normal | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Lifelong treatment requiredREF: Rook's 8rh ed p. 59.73Acrodermatitis enteropathica:Rare autosomal recessive diseaseZinc absorption is lowDisease starts at weaning when child is not given milkPhotophobia is seen, vescicobullous lesions may be seenGrowth is retarded and wound healing is poorZinc ... | |
Most common metabolite of progesterone excreted in urine is _________: (A) Pregnanelone, (B) Pregnanetriol, (C) 17-hydroxy pregnanolone, (D) Pregnanediol | Answer is D. Pregnanediol is an inactive metabolic product of progesterone. A test can be done to measure the amount of pregnanediol in urine, which offers an indirect way to measure progesterone levels in the body. The principal pathway of the metabolism of progesterone is believed to be progesterone - pregnanedione -... | |
A 50 years old man was recently diagnosed to be having coronary artery disease. There was no added risk factors except for a LDL value of 150-165mgs/dl. The single drug most appropriate for initial therapy is: (A) Gemfibrozil, (B) Nicotinic acid, (C) Bile acid binding resins, (D) Statins (Any) | Answer is D. Answer: d) Statins (any)DYSLIPIDEM1AType of disorderLipo Proteins increasedLipids elevatedRisk of CADtreatmentTri GlyceridesCholesterolICM+++NormalNoNoneIIaLDLNormal+++++StatinsIIbVLDL and LDL+++++++Statins, fibrates, nicotinic acidIIIIDLand CM++++++FibratesIVVLDL++Normal++Fibrates, nicotinic acidVVLDL and... | |
Which of the folloss mg features is not shared between `T cells' and 'II cells': (A) Positive selection during development, (B) Class I MHC Expression, (C) Antigen Specific Receptors, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Ans. a. Positive selection during development | |
A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dl and ESR 18 mm 1st hour. Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphate 28 KA units and blood urea 32 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case –: (A) Nutritional ricicets, (B... | Answer is C. You can solve the question just looking at calcium value. Amongst the given options only hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia.
The patient in question has an increased serum Ca', decreased serum phosphorus and increased values of alkaline phosphatase, all of which characterize hyperparathyroidism. | |
Receptors on cell membrane that activate ion channel after binding with agonists are: (A) Nicotonic Cholinergic, (B) Muscarinic Cholinergic, (C) Optoid n receptors, (D) All | Answer is A. A i.e. Nicotinic cholinergic receptorReceptors with intrinsic ion channelThese cell surface receptors enclose ion selective channels (Na+, Ca2+, CO within their molecule. Agonist binding opens the channels & causes depolarization / hyperpolarization depending on the ion that flows through.This includes: - ... | |
Causative agent for the following lesion on Penis:: (A) Treponema pallidum, (B) HPV, (C) EBV, (D) HHV6 | Answer is B. Ans. (b) HPV.The image shows dry, raised verrucous lesions caused by human papilloma called as Condylomata acuminat.Image source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> | |
Muscle relaxant excreted exclusively by kidney is:: (A) Scoline, (B) Atracurium, (C) Vecuronium, (D) Gallamine | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e. Gallamine 'Urinary Excretion of Gallamine is>95%. Its biliary excretion is <1 %."-Lee, 12/eGallamineIt is nephrotoxic so C/I in Renal Failure *.It crosses placenta so C/I in Pregnancy *.Some important facts about Muscle Relaxants which are frequently asked:M.R. undergone Hoffman's eliminat... | |
Inventor of orthopantomographic machine is:: (A) Hounsfield, (B) Roentgen, (C) Kell, (D) Numata | Answer is D. Paatero and, independently, Numata were the first to describe the principles of panoramic radiography. Figure given shows a schematic view of the relationships between the X-ray source, the patient, the secondary collimator and the image receptor during panoramic image formation. | |
Soiling index is measure for -: (A) Air pollution, (B) Water pollution, (C) Faecal contamination, (D) Milk contamination | Answer is A. Arts, is 'a' i.e., Air pollution Monitoring of air pollutiono Monitoring of air pollution is done by : -Sulphur dioxide.Gritt and dust measurement.Co-efficient of haze.Air pollution index.Smoke or soiling index |
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