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Neural tube defect is an adverse effect of :: (A) Valproate, (B) Phenytoin, (C) Diazoxide, (D) None | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following is an example of precipitation reaction?: (A) Widal Test, (B) Coomb's Test, (C) Counter Current immunoelectrophoresis, (D) Weil-Felix Test | Answer is C. Precipitation is a method for detecting an antigen-antibody reaction. When antigen and antibody combine in the proper propoions, a visible precipitate is formed. Optimum antigen-antibody ratios can be produced by allowing one to diffuse into the other, most commonly through an agar matrix (immunodiffusion)... | |
Most common anomaly of upper urogenital tract is -: (A) Uretero pelvic junction stenosis, (B) Ectopic uretheral opening, (C) Ureterocele, (D) Ectopic ureter | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Uretero pelvic junction stenosis o UPJ stenosis is most common abnormality in childhood and is more frequent in male children, characterised by narrowing usually on left side.o Overall, position & shape of kidney being most common one.o Horse shoe kidney is the most common and most freque... | |
Which of the following is not seen in papilledema: March 2009: (A) Marked venous engorgement, (B) Elevation of optic disc, (C) Cotton wool spots, (D) Prominent optic disc margins | Answer is D. Ans. D: Prominent optic disc margin Signs of papilledema: Early and mild Papilledema - Subtle gray peripapillary halo - Normal radial optic nerve head disrupted and nerve fibers accentuated by grayish opacity - Concentric folds of the retinochoroid Moderate Papilledema - Borders of optic disc become obscur... | |
Name of mumps vaccine is -: (A) Jeryl Lynn, (B) Edmonshon zagreb, (C) Schw'atz, (D) Moraten | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Jeryl lynn VaccineStrainso RubellaRA27/3o MeaslesEdomonston Zagreb strain (most common) Schwarts strain Mortaten straino MumpsJeryll Lynn straino Chicken poxOKA strainoBCGDanish 1331o JENakavam strain (MC), Beizing P3 strain, SA 14-14-2o Yellow fever17 Do MalariaSPf.66,Pf25o HIVmvA (modif... | |
Which of the following biochemical reaction is associated with substrate level phosphorylation?: (A) Fumarate to malate, (B) Succinate to fumarate, (C) Succinyl CoA to Succinate, (D) Acetoacetate to a-ketoglutarate | Answer is C. Conversion of succinyl CoA to succinate is an example of substrate level phosphorylation in which a high energy phosphate is generated from the energy trapped in the thioester bond of succinyl CoA. Enzyme succinic thiokinase catalyses this step. In this reaction a molecule of GDP is phosphorylated into GTP... | |
The sputum examination under DTP is done when the patient present with -: (A) Cough of 1-2 weeks duration, (B) Persistent cough of 1-2 weeks duration, (C) Hemoptysis, (D) Chest pain | Answer is C. <p> Hemoptysis Sputum examination under TB programme is done when patient presents with -cough more than 2 weeks. -fever with an evening rise. -hemoptysis. -unexplained weight loss. -reduced appetite. Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,21st edition,page no:392, 22nd edition,page no:3... | |
Which one of the following is not an objective of trituration?: (A) Remove oxides from powder particle surface, (B) Keep the amount of gamma-1 or gamma-2 matrix crystals to maximum, (C) Pulverize pellets into particles to aid in attack by mercury, (D) Achieve a workable mass of amalgam in minimum time | Answer is B. None | |
Largest branch of veebral aery is: (A) Anterior spinal, (B) Posterior spinal, (C) Anterior inferior cerebellar, (D) Posterior inferior cerebellar | Answer is D. Anterior inferior cerebellar aery is a branch of Basilar aery | |
An orthopedician adducts the flexed hip and gently pushes the thigh posteriorly in an effort to dislocate the femoral head of a neonate. What is this maneuver called?: (A) Galeazzi sign, (B) Ortoloni test, (C) Telescopic sign, (D) Barlow test | Answer is D. D i.e. Barlow testRef: Nelson, Textbook of Pediatrics, 20th edition, page 3274Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)Ranges from simple acetabular dysplasia, acetabular dysplasia plus subluxation to dislocation of the hip joint.Two major groups:Typical (otherwise normal individuals without defined syndrom... | |
True statement regarding ectopic pregnancy:: (A) Serum progesterone >25 ng/ml exclude ectopic, (B) p-hCG levels should be >1000 mlU/ml for earliest detection by TVS, (C) p-hCG levels should be <1000 mlU/ml for earliest detection by TVS, (D) Methotrexate is not used for treatment | Answer is A. If the serum beta hcg value is 1500 IU/L and an intrauterine pregnancy is not visualized in a TVS it is likely to be an ectopic .This is the level at which intrauterine gestational sac is seen and is called discriminatory zone (refer pgno:159 sheila 2 nd edition) | |
The Vitamin A activity of beta-carotene compared to that of retinol is?: (A) 2-Jan, (B) 4-Jan, (C) 6-Jan, (D) 8-Jan | Answer is C. Beta-Carotene (provitamin A):
This is found in plant foods. lt is cleaved in the intestine to produce two moles of retinal.
ln humans, this conversion is inefficient, hence beta-carotene possesses about one-sixth vitamin A activity compared to that of retinol.
Reference: Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3... | |
Prinzmetal angina is-: (A) Angina after extreme exertion, (B) Caused due to atherosclerotic blockade, (C) Caused due to spasm of artery, (D) Calcium channel blockers not effective | Answer is C. None | |
Insulin causes all of the following except: (A) Glycogenesis, (B) Glycolysiis, (C) Lipogenesis, (D) Ketogenesis | Answer is D. Refer Katzung 11/e p 731 Insulin inhibits the formation of ketone bodies, therefore it's deficiency can result in diabetic ketoacidosis | |
True statement about fatty acid:: (A) Polyunsaturated FA is essential for membrane structure, (B) Biologically arachidonic acid is essential to life, (C) Hydrogenated vegetable oils contains Trans fatty acid, (D) All | Answer is D. C, B, > A i.e. (Hydrogenated vegetable oils contains Trans fatty acid; Biologically arachidonic acid is essential to life >Polyunsaturated FA is essential for membrane structure) | |
Which of the following can cause toxic megacolon in 36 year old lady?: (A) Amoebic colitis, (B) IBS, (C) Ulcerative colitis, (D) Viral diarrhea | Answer is C. The hallmarks of toxic megacolon (toxic colitis), a potentially lethal condition, are nonobstructive colonic dilatation larger than 6cm and signs of systemic toxicity. The impoant etiologies of toxic megacolon include the following inflammatory causes: Ulcerative colitis Crohn colitis Pseudomembranous coli... | |
Percentage of cold nodules that becomes malignant are?: (A) 5%, (B) 15%, (C) 20%, (D) 40% | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) 20 %REF: Bailey and love 25th ed page 779See details of thyroid nodules in Surgery June 2011About 80% of discrete swellings are cold. The risk of malignancy is higher in "cold" lesions (20%) compared to "hot" or "warm" lesions (<5%). | |
In a rural clinic, a 3 year old girl child is brought by her mother and is emaciated. Her Hb was 5g/ dl. The girls also had edema over her knees and ankle, with discrete rash on her knees, angles and elbows. The most likely worm infestation causing these manifestations is?: (A) Hook worm, (B) Round worm, (C) Whip worm,... | Answer is A. None | |
Long acting beta agonist used once a day:: (A) Salmeterol, (B) Formoterol, (C) Indacaterol, (D) Terbutaline | Answer is C. Ans. C. IndacaterolRef: Katzung's Basic and Clinical Pharmacology 13th/ed, p340ExplanationAns. c. Indacaterol Ref: Katzung's Basic and Clinical Pharmacology 13th/ed, p340Explanationb agonistFeatures* Albuterol (salbutamol)* Terbutaline* Metaproterenol* Pirbuterol* Metered-dose inhalers* Bronchodilation is ... | |
Essential for tumor metastasis is-: (A) Angiogenesis, (B) Tumorogenesis, (C) Apoptosis, (D) Inhibition of Tyrosine kinase activity | Answer is A. Angiogenesis is the mechanism of formation of new blood vessels. It is very critical in establishing the metastasis at the new area. Basic Pathology, Robbins. Page no.: 194 | |
Large dose of EDTA are used in carbonic anhydrase enzyme inactivation. The mechanism by which EDTA act is -: (A) It chelates with the metal ions of the enzyme, (B) It combines with the substrate and reacts with the enzyme, (C) Combines with the substrate and doesn't react with the enzyme, (D) Enzyme-EDTA complex can no... | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., It chelates with metal ions of the enzyme o EDTA is a chelating agent and it has already been explained that chelating agent has legands (reactive groups) for metal binding. o These ligands of chelating agent bind to metal ions and cause chelation. o EDTA binds to zinc ion of carbonic anh... | |
Drug contraindicated in hyperiglyceridemia: (A) Fibrates, (B) Simvastatin, (C) Niacin, (D) Cholestyramine | Answer is D. Bile acid binding resins like cholestyramine causes increase in triglycerides and are thus contraindicated in patients with hyperiglyceridemia due to risk of development of pancreatitis. Statins - decrease LDL and increase HDL Niacin - decrease LDL and triglyceride, maximum increase in HDL Fibrates - decre... | |
Culture media for transport of stools in suspected case of shigellosis -: (A) Deoxycholate medium, (B) Blood agar, (C) Nutrient broth, (D) Buffered glycerol saline | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Buffered glycorol salineOrganismTransport mediaStreptococcus pyogenesPike's mediumNeisseriaStuart's medium, Amies mediumFor stool specimenBuffered glycerol saline, Carly-Blair, Stuart mediumSalmonella, ShigellaSach's buffered glycerol salineV choleraeVR medium, Cary-Blair medium, Autoclav... | |
All are true about SLE in pregnancy except?: (A) Increased anti Ro and La implies low risk for congenital hea block, (B) Steroids can be continued in pregnancy, (C) Recurrent aboions, (D) Disease may worsen during pregnancy | Answer is A. Increased anti Ro and La implies high risk of congenital hea block. Anti Ro antibody can be transmitted transplacentally and can lead to complete hea block leading to neonatal lupus. Steroids can be given in pregnancy as they fall in category A with no evidence of teratogenicity. But a placental enzyme 11 ... | |
An orbital tumor has the following characteristics: Retrobulbar location within the muscle cone, well defined capsule, presents with slowly progressive proptosis, easily resectable, occurs most commonly in the 2" to 4th decade. The diagnosis is:: (A) Hemangiopericytoma, (B) Dermoid, (C) Capillary hemangioma, (D) Cavern... | Answer is D. Cavernous hemangioma Cavernous hemangioma is the most common benign, intraconal tumor in adults. Hemangiopericytoma is also retro bulbar intraconal lesion. found in adults but is a rare tumor. Moreover owing to its tendency to invade the adjacent tissues, its margins are less distinct than cavernous hemang... | |
Cillia can transport radiolabelled particle in antrum with:: (A) 1-20dm/min, (B) 20-30mm/sec, (C) 1-20mm/ min., (D) 20-30mm/min | Answer is C. Cilia can transport radiolabeled particles an average of 6mm/min, with a range of 1-20mm/min. Thus this transport can clear inhaled particles from nasal cavity in 10-20 min. | |
Following can lead to osteomalacia EXCEPT-: (A) Vit D deficiency, (B) Phosphorus deficiency in diet, (C) Gastrectomy, (D) Lack of exposure to sunlight | Answer is B. Calcium is the most abundant cation in the body and powerful homeostatic mechanisms control circulating ionised calcium levels . The WHO's dietary guidelines for calcium differ between countries, with higher intakes usually recommended in places with higher fracture prevalence. Between 20% and 30% of calci... | |
All the following inflammatory mediators are derived from the cells except: (A) Kinins, (B) Cytokines, (C) Histamine, (D) Leukotriene | Answer is A. . Kinins | |
Investigation of choice for subdural hemorrhage is?: (A) Angiography, (B) NCCT, (C) CECT, (D) MRI | Answer is B. Ans. (b) NCCTRef Appendix-81 for "Traumatic intracranial hemotomas | |
Hydatid disease of liver is caused by -: (A) Strongyloides, (B) Echinococcus granulosus, (C) Taenia solium, (D) Trichinella spiralis | Answer is B. The larval stage is present in the animals including man,giving rise to hydatid cyst.Sheep ,pigs,cattle ,horse ,goat and man may act as intermediate host. Hydatid cyst involve liver , lung,brain,hea,kidney,spleen,bone,musclesetc. Liver is the commonest site and right lobe is frequently involved.The disease... | |
A 30-year-old man has had cramping abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea for the past 4 days. On physical examination, there is diffuse tenderness on palpation of the abdomen. Bowel sounds are present. There are no masses and no organomegaly. A stool culture is positive for Shigella flexneri. The episode resolves spontane... | Answer is D. This patient developed enteritis-associated arthritis affecting the lumbar and sacroiliac joints several weeks after Shigella dysentery. He subsequently developed conjunctivitis and, most likely, uveitis. This symptom complex is a classic representation of a cluster of related disorders called seronegative... | |
Radiolucent periapical lesions have the following except: (A) Absence of lamina dura, (B) Hanging drop of oil effect, (C) Opaque diffuse appearance, (D) No movement on cone shift | Answer is C. The features of periapical inflammatory lesions vary depending on the time course of the lesion. More chronic lesions may show lytic (radiolucent) or sclerotic (radiopaque) changes, or both. The lamina dura around the apex of the tooth usually is lost.
In most instances, the periphery of periapical inflam... | |
Biological value of proteins refers to the: (A) Proteins efficiency ratio, (B) Proteins biologic value, (C) Protein energy ratio, (D) Calorific value | Answer is A. None | |
All are risk factors for preterm delivery except :: (A) Absence of fetal fibronectin at < 37 weeks, (B) Previous history of preterm baby, (C) Asymptomatic cervical dilatation, (D) Chylamydial infection of genital tract | Answer is A. Absence of fetal fibronectin at < 37 weeks | |
Antitumor activity is shown by all except -: (A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes, (B) Natural killer cells, (C) Basophils, (D) Macrophages | Answer is C. Ananthanarayanan and Paniker's textbook of microbiology 9th edition. cytotoxic T cells can kill and lyse target cells carrying new or foreign antigens including tumor,allograft and virus infected cells. Natural killer cells are natural defence against virus infected and malignant mutant cells. activated ma... | |
Immunoglobulins are produced by -: (A) Macrophages, (B) B-cells, (C) T-cells, (D) NK-cells | Answer is B. Immunoglobulin (Ig),is a large, Y-shaped protein produced mainly by plasma cells that is used by the immune systema Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:94 | |
Single most important feature to diagnose fetal aneuploidy:: (A) Increased nuchal translucency, (B) Absent nasal bone, (C) Cystic hygroma, (D) Abnormal ductus venosus flow | Answer is A. Ans: (a) Increased nuchal translucencyRef: Current Progress in Obstetrics and Gynecology, John Stud, Volume Page 17Ultrasound markers of fetal aneuploidy:Nuchal translucency is the single most powerful tool. More than 3 mm needs evaluationAbsence of nasal boneAbsence or reversal of flow in the ductus venos... | |
Ponderal's index for "small for gestational age" child: March 2013: (A) Less than 1, (B) Less than 2, (C) Less than 3, (D) Less than 4 | Answer is B. Ans. B i.e. Less than 2 Ponderal Index (for neonates) Calculated as Weight in gm X 100/ (length in cm)3 A child with ponderal index 3.0 or more can be considered overweight but in some conditions such as in maternal smoking, reduced length may also be implicated. An index between 2.5 and 3.0 is considered ... | |
Earnest Klein has classified habits into: (A) Compulsive and non-compulsive habits, (B) Intentional and non-intentional habits, (C) Primary and secondary habits, (D) Pressure and non-pressure habits | Answer is B. None | |
Suspended animation is seen with -a) Electrocutionb) Strangulation hangingc) Drowningd) Burn: (A) a, (B) bc, (C) ad, (D) ac | Answer is D. None | |
According to European laryngeal Society, Subligamental cordectomy is classified as: (A) Type I, (B) Type II, (C) Type III, (D) Type IV | Answer is B. Subligamental cordectomy is classified as Type II Excision of vocal cord after splitting the larynx (cordectomy laryngofissure) Ref: PL Dhingra; Textbook of EAR, NOSE and THROAT; edition 6; page no 310 | |
Infeility can be defined as: UP 11; KCET 13: (A) Not conceiving after 3 years of marriage, (B) Not conceiving after 2 years of unprotected intercourse, (C) Not conceiving after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, (D) Not conceiving after 1 year of marriage | Answer is C. Ans. Not conceiving after 1 year of unprotected intercourse | |
The commonest cause of primary amenorrhea with ambiguous genitalia in a female with 46XX chromosome :: (A) 21 hydroxylase def., (B) 17 hydroxylase def., (C) 11 hydroxylase def., (D) Desmolase hydrolase def | Answer is A. A i.e. 21- hydroxylase deficiencyClassic 21 - hydroxylase deficiency is most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in new born (virilization) and primary amenorrheaQ. i.e. Pseudohermaphroditism of female childPrimary amenorrhea with VirilizationQ in females is in:- 21 - hydroxylase deficiency- 11 - Hydroxyla... | |
While going for oxidation in the mitochondria, free fatty acid are transpoed by:: (A) None of the above, (B) Albumin, (C) Globulins, (D) Chylomicrons | Answer is B. Free fatty acids (FFA)-also called unesterified (UFA) or nonesterified (NEFA) fatty acids--are fatty acids that are in the unesterified state. In plasma, longer chain FFA are combined with albumin, and in the cell they are attached to a fatty acid binding protein. Shoer chain fatty acids are more water-sol... | |
Sepsis of index finger will spread to?: (A) Thenar, (B) Mid-palmar, (C) Hypothenar, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. Ans. a (Thenar).Deep thenar space infection occurs in the potential space between the palmar aponeurosis and the fascia overlying adductor policis, which contains not only the flexor pollicis longus tendon plus the neurovascular (NV) bundles to the thumb, but also the NV bundle on the radial side of the in... | |
Spherocytosis of RBC is a common feature in -: (A) G6PD deficiency, (B) Sickle cell anemia, (C) CML, (D) All | Answer is A. None | |
Defective chromosome associated with De-George syndrome is -: (A) 7, (B) 15, (C) 17, (D) 22 | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., 22 This syndrome encompasses a spectrum of disorders that result from a small deletion of band q 11.2 on long arm of chromosome 22. Clinical features are considered to represent two different disorders :-1) Di George syndromeThese patients have thymic hypoplasia with resultant T-cell immu... | |
all are true about s1 except: (A) lower frequency than s2, (B) caused by closure of mitral valve, (C) heard at the end of ventricular systole, (D) better heard with diaphragm of stethescope | Answer is C. CHARACTERISTICS OF S1 Normally heard as fused single hea sound Medium to High Frequency Low Pitched Best heard with diaphragm M1 louder than T1 M1 best heard at apex T1 best heard at Left LSB Splitting can be heard in Expiration and L-LSB ref : harrisons 21st ed | |
Central dot sign is seen in: (A) Primary sclerosing cholangitis, (B) Liver Hamaoma, (C) Caroli's disease, (D) Polycystic liver disease | Answer is C. "central dot" sign: enhancing dots within the dilated intrahepatic bile ducts, representing poal radicles (seen in CT). | |
Which of the following is/are an example(s) of non-Mendelian inheritance?: (A) Genomic imprinting, (B) Uniparental disomy, (C) Mitochondrial inheritance, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Single-Gene Disorders with Non classic Inheritance. -This group of disorders can be classified into four categories: Diseases caused by trinucleotide-repeat mutations Disorders caused by mutations in mitochondrial genes Disorders associated with genomic imprinting Disorders associated with gonadal mosaicis... | |
The period of training for a village health guide is -: (A) 1 month, (B) 3 months, (C) 6 months, (D) 12 months | Answer is B. After selection village health guide undergoes a sho training in primary health care.The training is arranged in nearby health center,subcenter or any other suitable place for the duration of 200 hours ,spread over a period of 3 months.During training period they receive a stipend of Rs 200 per month (refe... | |
Which of the following minerals does not act as prosthetic group in enzymes?: (A) Copper, (B) Cobalt, (C) Selenium, (D) Manganese | Answer is D. None | |
A 50 year old man presents with paresthesia. Hb = 6.8 gms/dl. Peripheral smear shows macrocytes and neutrophis with hypersegmented nuclei. Endoscopy reveals atroghic gastritis. Which of the following deficiency is more likely?: (A) Fotate deficiency, (B) Vitamin B12 deficiency, (C) Riboliavan deficiency, (D) Fotate def... | Answer is B. above clinical features point towards Vit B12 deficiency due to Pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia -Type II Hypersensitivityin which ABs are formedagainst intrinsic factorthus inhibits the binding of IF+B12. Intrinsic factor deficiency-Malabsorption of vitamin B12 - Megaloblastic anemia /Pernicious anemi... | |
Which of the following is a stage of intuitive thought appearance in jean-Piaget scheme :: (A) Senosorimotor, (B) Concrete, (C) Preoperational stage, (D) Formal operations stage | Answer is C. C i.e. Preoperational stage | |
Normal IOP is range is ____________: (A) 10 - 15 mmHg, (B) 5 - 10 mmHg, (C) 11 - 21 mmHg, (D) 9 - 25 mmHg | Answer is C. None | |
An expectant mother feels quickening at :: (A) 12-14 weeks, (B) 16-20 weeks, (C) 26 weeks, (D) 24-28 weeks | Answer is B. In second trimester the pregnant women feels much better ,the nausea vomiting and bladder frequency is almost gone She slowly stas feeling growing uterus per abdomen Of interest and excitement to her is the very first perception of foetal movement called quickening felt at around 18 weeks in a primigravida... | |
Renal transplantation, in which mother acts as a donor of one kidney to her son is an example of: (A) Autograft, (B) Heterograft, (C) Allograft, (D) Xenograft | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Allograft Transplantation terminologyAutograft:Tissue transplanted from one part of the body to another in the same individual.Also called an autotransplant.Isograft:Is a graft of tissue between two individuals who are genetically identical (i.e. monozygotic twins). Transplant rejection b... | |
Giving commission to other doctor is -: (A) Dichotomy, (B) Covering, (C) Professional secrecy, (D) Professional neglect | Answer is A. None | |
All of the following statements about Zenker's diveiculum are true Except:: (A) Acquired diveiculum, (B) Lateral X-rays on Barium swallow are often diagnostic, (C) False Diveiculum, (D) Out pouching of the anterior pharyngeal wall, just above the cricopharyngeus muscle | Answer is D. Ans is D i.e. Out pouching of the anterior pharyngeal wall, just above the cricopharyngeus muscle Zenker's diveiculum is out pouching of the posterior pharyngeal wall, where pharyngeal mucosa herniates through the Killian's dehiscence (the weak area between the upper oblique fibres and the lower horizontal... | |
The administration of succinylcholine to a paraplegic patient led to appearance of dysarrythmias, conduction abnormalities and finally cardiac arrest. The most likely cause is :: (A) Hypercalcemia, (B) Hyperkalemia, (C) Anaphylaxis, (D) Hypermagnesemia | Answer is B. None | |
The blood pressure measured by a sphygmomanometer: (A) Is lower than the intraaerial pressure, (B) Is higher than the intraaerial pressure, (C) Is same as the intraaerial pressure, (D) Is the same with different cuff sizes | Answer is B. At the point at which systolic pressure in the aery just exceeds the cuff pressure, a spu of blood passes through with each heabeat and, synchronously with each beat, a tapping sound is heard below the cuff.Ref: Ganong&;s Review of Medical Physiology 25th Edition. Page: 577 | |
A decrease in basal metabolic rate (BMR) is seen in which of the conditions?: (A) Obesity, (B) Hypehyroidism, (C) Feeding, (D) Exercise | Answer is A. Obesity by definition is an increase in the amount of adipose tissue mass or fat mass. Adipose tissue is relatively ine from a metabolic rate. Basal metabolic rate depends on the amount of metabolically active tissue or the lean body mass. An obese individual has higher propoion of fat relative to lean bod... | |
Patient with fixed dilated pupil, with iris atrophy and secondary glaucoma after penetrating keratoplasty is suggestive of.: (A) Benedict's syndrome, (B) Posner-Shlossman syndrome, (C) Kaufmann's syndrome, (D) Urrets Zavalia syndrome | Answer is D. Ans. d. Urrets Zavalia syndrome A fixed dilated pupil following penetrating keratoplasty is a well recognized if rare postoperative complication. The mydriasis following penetrating keratoplasty was first described by Castroviejo but it was Urrets-Zavalia who first published his observations on a series of... | |
Which of the following is not used for emergency contraception?: (A) Mifepristone, (B) IUCD, (C) Levonorgestrel, (D) Danazol | Answer is D. Emergency contraception should be given within 72 hours of unprotected sex. They interfere with postovulatory events which normally results in pregnancy and therefore known as incentives - As the most common method and drug is - levonorgestrel with success rate of 95 %.the tablets can be offered up to 120 ... | |
About first order kinetics,true statement is: (A) Clearance remains constant, (B) Fixed amount of drug is eliminated, (C) Half life increases with dose, (D) Decreases clearance with increased dose | Answer is A. Clearance is variable in zero-order kinetics because a constant amount of the drug is eliminated per unit time, but it is constant in first-order kinetics, because the amount of drug eliminated per unit time changes with the concentration of drug in the blood Ref-KDT 6/e p32 | |
True statement about streptococcus faecalis ?: (A) Growns in 6.5% Nacl solution, (B) Are lactose fermenter, (C) Easily destroyed at 60 C for 30 minutes, (D) Classified on the basis of teichoic acid of cell wall | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Growns in 6.5% Nacl solution | |
In national vector borne disease control program which disease is not included?: (A) Malaria, (B) Yellow fever, (C) Japanese encephalitis, (D) Kala azar | Answer is B. Ans. (b) Yellow feverRef. K. Park 21sted./380* The National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme (NVBDCP) is implemented for the prevention and control of vector borne diseases such as: Malaria, Filariasis, kala-azar, Japanese encephalitis, Dengue and Chikunguniya.* Yellow fever is NOT a part of NVBDCP. | |
Last pa of the hea to be repolarised is:: (A) Apical epicardium, (B) Apical endocardium, (C) Epicardium of the base of LV, (D) Endocardium of the base of LV | Answer is B. Depolarization occurs from apex to base & endocardium to epicardium; Repolarization occurs from base to apex & epicardium to endocardium Last to depolarize are: Base of LV (epicardium) Pulmonary conus. Upper most pa of interventricular septum. Last to repolarise: Apex endocardium | |
Hassal's corpuscles are seen in:: (A) Thymus, (B) Spleen, (C) Bone marrow, (D) Lymph node | Answer is A. Hasal's corpuscles/thymic corpuscles are structures found in the medulla of the human thymus, formed from type VI epithelial reticular cells.They are named for Ahur Hill Hassall, who discovered them in 1849. | |
At the altitude of 6500 meters, the atmospheric pressure is 347 mmHg. What is the inspired PO2.: (A) 73 mm Hg, (B) 63 mm Hg, (C) 53 mm Hg, (D) 83 mm Hg | Answer is B. According to law of paial pressures : Pressure exeed by a gas in a mixture is directly propoional to its concentration in the mixture. In inspired gases; 20 % = O2 78% = N2 PH2O = 47 mmHg (air humidified with inspiration) =347 - 47 = 300 mmHg = gaseous component | |
Management of medulloblastoma in 1.5 year old. What is not done in curative therapy?: (A) Open surgery with leaving the tumour margins, (B) Chemotherapy, (C) Total cranial spinal irradination, (D) VP shunt for the obstructive hydrocephalus | Answer is A. . Treatment consist of relief of raised intracranial pressure,establishment of pathological diagnosis,removal of beningn tumors,decompressive surgeries for malignant tumor,shunt surgeries to drain CSF_ventriculo peritonial shunt or ventriculo atrial shunt,radiotherapy ,chemotherapy-temozolamide (Ref;SRB's ... | |
Sandfly can fly upto –: (A) 50 yards, (B) 100 yards, (C) 200 yards, (D) 300 yard | Answer is A. None | |
A middle aged female repoed with dull diffuse progressive headache of 2 months duration associated with episodes of vomiting and blurred vision at times. Cough increases the headache.Likely patient has: (A) Vascular headache, (B) Intracranial space occupying lesion, (C) Intracerebral hemorrhage, (D) Acute pyogenic meni... | Answer is B. A space-occupying lesion of the brain is usually due to malignancy but it can be caused by other pathology such as an abscess or a haematoma. Almost half of intracerebral tumours are primary but the rest have originated outside the CNS and are metastases Features of a headache indicating a high risk of a s... | |
Porcelain jacket crowns are contraindicated in: (A) Hypoplastic teeth, (B) Excessive horizontal overlap, (C) Decay is extensive but pulp is vital, (D) Excessive vertical overlap with little horizontal overlap | Answer is D. None | |
Which is not secreted by stomach?: (A) Lipase, (B) Pepsinogens, (C) HCI, (D) None | Answer is D. Gastric lipase is an acidic lipase secreted by the gastric chief cells in the fundic mucosa in the stomach. It is a weak fat-splitting enzyme. Pepsinogen is secreted by the chief cells of main gastric glands which are found in the body & fundus of stomach. It is a proteolytic enzyme. HCl is secreted by the... | |
Which of the following is an alternative to methadone for maintenance treatment of opiate dependence: (A) Diazepam, (B) Chlordiazepoxide, (C) Buprenorphine, (D) Dextropropoxyphene | Answer is C. The withdrawal symptoms can be managed by one of the following methods: 1. Use of substitution drugs such as methadone 2. Clonidine is a a2 agonist that acts by inhibiting norepinephrine release at presynaptic a2 receptors. 3. Naltrexone with Clonidine: Naltrexone is an orally available narcotic antagonist... | |
The MOST likely site of lesion in a patient with Wernicke's hemianopic pupil is:: (A) Optic nerve, (B) Optic tract, (C) Optic chiasma, (D) Optic radiation | Answer is B. Wernicke's hemianopic pupil indicates lesion in the optic tract. In this condition light reflex is absent when light is thrown on temporal half of the retina of the affected side and nasal half of retina of the opposite side. In this condition light reflex is present when light is thrown on nasal half of a... | |
Use of oral contraceptives increases the risk of which cancer -: (A) Colon, (B) Ovary, (C) Breast, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., breast * Important adverse effects of OCPs are: (1) Nausea, vomiting, headache (worsening of migraine), (2) breakthrough bleeding, (3) mastalgia, (4) weight gain, (5) acne and hirsutism, (6) cholasma and pruritis, (7) carbohydrate intolerance, (8) leg vein and pulmonary thrombosis, (9) co... | |
Most common location of accessory spleen: (A) Hilum of spleen, (B) Greater omentum, (C) Lesser omentum, (D) Duodenum | Answer is A. Accessory spleen, in other words supernumerary spleens, splenunculi, or splenules, results from the failure of fusion of the primordial splenic buds in the dorsal mesogastrium during the fifth week of fetal life. Incidence of accessory spleen in the population is 10%-30% of patients in autopsy series and 1... | |
Leaving (or forgetting) an instrument or sponge in the abdomen of the patient during a surgery and closing operation is:: (A) Contributory negligence, (B) Civil, (C) Corporate negligence, (D) Criminal negligence | Answer is D. Ans. d (Criminal negligence). (Ref. Textbook of FMT by Parikh 6th ed. 1.46)Contributory negligencea common law defence to a claim or action. It applies to a situation where a plaintiff claimant has, through their own negligence, caused or contributed to the injury they suffered. For example where a pedestr... | |
In a pregnant female, there is decreased requirement of the spinal anaesthetic agent because of all of the following except –: (A) Exaggerated lumbar lordosis, (B) Decreased volume of subarachnoid space, (C) Engorgement of epidural veins, (D) Increased sensitivity of the nerves to anaesthetic agent | Answer is A. A smaller dose of local anaesthetic is nedded to produce the same level of neuraxial block in pregnant women compared with nonpregnant women.
The causes may be :-
Compression of the inferior vena cava by the pregnant uterus causes "distension or engorgment" of the epidural venous plexus. This decreases t... | |
True statement regarding upper GI bleeds:: (A) It is bleeding up to ampulla of Vater, (B) Most common cause is variceal bleeding, (C) Rockall-Baylor scoring is used for risk stratification, (D) Most common management is endoscopic banding | Answer is C. UPPER GI BLEED: Bleeding up to Lig. of Treitz M/c cause- Non-variceal peptic ulcer bleeding Causes of upper gastrointestinal bleeding Condition % Ulcers 60 Oesophageal 6 Gastric 21 Duodenal 33 Erosions 26 Oesophageal 13 Gastric 9 Duodenal 4 Mallory-Weiss tear 4 Oesophageal varices 4 Tumour 0.5 Vascular les... | |
All of the following are seen in Lichen planus except?: (A) Max - Joseph spaces, (B) Civatte or colloid bodies, (C) Koebner's phenomenon, (D) Absent granular cell layer | Answer is D. Granular cell layer is absent in psoriasis where as Lichen planus is characterized by Hypergranulosis.
Necrotic / apoptotic keratinocytes are called as "colloid / civatte bodies" and spaces left at the dermo - epidermal junction are termed as "Max - joseph spaces".Both are seen due to autoimmune destructio... | |
In human body the action of surfactant is done by: (A) Sugar and salt, (B) Soap and water, (C) Lipid and protein, (D) Base and lipid | Answer is C. None | |
Noonan syndrome is characterized by all except: (A) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, (B) Dysplastic pulmonary stenosis, (C) Pectus excavatum, (D) Coarctation of aorta | Answer is D. Coarctation of aorta is not the cardiovascular manifestation in Noonan syndrome. | |
Pain Assessment Tool is best done by: (A) Ask patient, (B) Tachycardia, (C) Tachypnea, (D) Bradypnea | Answer is B. (B) TachycardiaPAT - Pain Assessment ToolParameters012Posture/tone ExtendedDigits widespreadShoulders raised off bedFlexed and/or tenseFists clenchedTrunk guardingLimbs drawn to midlineHead and shoulder resist posturingCryNo YesWhen disturbedDoesn't settle after handlingLoudWhimperingWhiningSleep patternRe... | |
Most fatal amoebic encephalitis is caused by ?: (A) E.histolytica, (B) Naeglaria, (C) E. dispar, (D) Acanthamoeba | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Naeglaria . Amongst the given options Naeglaria and Acanthamoeba cause amoebic encephalitis. " The prognosis of Naeglaria encephalitis is uniformaly poor, most patients die within a week."---Harrison "Acanthamoeba encephalitis follows a more indolent course."----- Harrison . So, amongst t... | |
In an adult, the hyoid bone is seen at which of the following level of the cervical veebrae?: (A) C2, (B) C3, (C) C4, (D) C5 | Answer is B. The hyoid bone is found at the level of third cervical veebrae in adults. It is situated above the thyroid cailage in the anterior wall of the hypopharynx in relation to the base of the tongue. It is made up of a body, bilateral greater cornua and bilateral lesser cornua. It is a sesamoid bone and is suspe... | |
Which of the following statements about Von-Hippel Lindau syndrome is true: (A) Multiple tumors are rarely seen, (B) craniospinal hemangioblastomas are common, (C) Superatentorial lesions are common, (D) Tumors of Schwann cells are common | Answer is B. Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17th edition. *In VHL somatic mutation of normal allele leads to retinal angiomas, CNS hemangioblastoma,pheochromocytomas and multicentric clear cysts,hemangiomas and adenomas of kidney | |
Which of the following statement regarding measurement of BP with sphygmomanometer versus intra aerial pressure measurements is true?: (A) It is less than intravascular pressure, (B) It is more than intravascular pressure, (C) It is equal to intravascular pressure, (D) It depends upon blood flow | Answer is B. The measurement of aerial pressure using a sphygmomanometer bag with a standard arm cuff is subject to inaccuracy leading to falsely high aerial pressure readings. Using sphygmomanometer blood flow is detected. The accuracy of blood pressure measurement is affected by the cuff size. Inadequate cuff size re... | |
The earliest sign of iron deficiency anaemia -: (A) Increase in iron binding capacity, (B) Decrease in serum ferritin level, (C) Deorease in serum iron level, (D) All the above | Answer is B. <p>Plasma ferritin is a measure of iron stores in tissues & is the single test to confirm iron deficiency .It is a very specific test. In the course of development of anaemia, firstly storage iron(ferritin) depletion occurs during which iron reserves are lost without compromise of the iron supply for eryth... | |
Most potent bronchodilator among inhalational anesthetic agents is: (A) Isoflurane, (B) Sevoflurane, (C) Halothane, (D) Desflurane | Answer is C. Effect of inhalational agents on respiratory systemAll inhalational agents are bronchodilators -Halothane cause maximum bronchodilatation. The inhalational agent of choice in asthmatics (intravenous anaesthtic of choice is ketamine).All inhalational agents cause respiratory depression to some extent - Maxi... | |
Compared to the other antidepressant drugs miazapin has the distinct ability to act as an antagonist of:: (A) Beta receptors, (B) D2 receptors, (C) Alpha 2 receptors, (D) 5-HT receptors | Answer is C. Ref: KDT 8th ed Miazapine blocks presynaptic [?]2 receptors on NA and 5-HT neurons. This increases the release of both NA and 5-HT. It also inhibits 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors. | |
Primary sites of lymphocyte production are: (A) Bone marrow and Thymus, (B) Spleen and Lymph nodes, (C) Lymph nodes and mucosa associated lymphoid tissue, (D) Spleen and mucosa associated lymphoid tissue | Answer is A. None | |
All is true about von Hippel Lindau syndrome except:: (A) Hemangioblastomas seen in craniospinal axis, (B) Multiple tumors common, (C) Tumors of Schwann cells are common, (D) Supratentorial lesions are uncommon | Answer is C. C i.e. Tumors of Schwann cells are common Von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome is associated with multiple hemangioblastomasQ of infratentorial craniospinal axis, retina and pancreas. Supratentorial HB are uncommonQ. | |
Nucleus ambiguus is composed of:: (A) 7,9,10 cranial nerve nucleus, (B) 7,9,11 cranial nerve nucleus, (C) 9,10,11 cranial nerve nucleus, (D) 7,10,11 cranial nerve nucleus | Answer is C. Ans. C. 9,10,11 cranial nerve nucleusCells in nucleus ambiguus contain motor neurons associated with three cranial nerves (rostral pole = C.N. IX = glossopharyngeal; middle part = C.N. X = vagus; caudal pole = C.N. XI = spino accessory). Axons arising from nucleus ambiguus pass laterally and slightly ventr... | |
At what age a child's height is expected to be 100 cm?: (A) 2 years, (B) 3 years, (C) 4 years, (D) 5 years | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) 4 yearsREF: Essence of Paediatrics Prof. MR Khan 4th ed page 59, Clinical Pediatrics by D. N. Chatterjee page 18 A simple rough formula for calculation height from 2-14 years is:Height in inches = (2.5 x age in years) + 30* Thus the expected height at 4 year of age = (2.5 x 4) + 30 = 40 inches*... | |
True about mesenteric vein thrombosis ?: (A) Peritoneal signs are always present, (B) Invariably involves long length of bowel, (C) I.V. Heparin is the treatment of choice, (D) Surgery can lead to sho-bowel syndrome | Answer is D. Answer is 'd' i.e. Surgery can lead to sho-bowel syndrome Peritoneal signs are present in less than half the cases. Any length of bowel may be involved depending on the level and extent of thrombosis. Resection of the nonble bowel along with its mesentry is the treatment of choice. Heparin is given in all ... | |
Dysphagia caused by in Plummer Vinson Syndrome is due to: (A) Stenosis, (B) Web, (C) Stricture, (D) Ulceration | Answer is B. (Web) (1024-25-LB) (737, 1043-B &L 25th)Plummer-Vinson Syndrome (Brown-Kelly Paterson syndrome or sideropenic dysphagia)* Young women with iron deficiency anaemia and dysphagia referred high in the neck.* The dysphagia was said to be caused by spasm or a web in the post-cricoid area. The patients were said... | |
Most common cause of ectopic ACTH production-: (A) Renal cell carcinoma, (B) Hepatocellular carcinoma, (C) Small cell carcinoma lung, (D) Pheochromacytoma | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Small cell carcinoma lungo Ectopic ACTHproduction accounts for 10-20% cases of cushings syndromeo Small cell lung carcinoma (SCLC) is by far the most common causes of ectopic ACTH.# If accounts for more than 50%cases of cushings syndrome due to ectopic ACTH production.Other carcinomas ass... |
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