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Lordaceous spleen is seen in -: (A) Alcoholic hepatitis, (B) Chronic active hepatits, (C) Focal amyloidosis, (D) Diffuse amyloidosis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Diffuse amyloidosis Focal amyloidosis cause sago spleen | |
Central stellate scar on CT scans are seen in:: (A) Renal oncocytoma, (B) FNH, (C) Serous cystadenoma pancreas, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Central stellate Scar is seen in 1. FNH 2. Fibrolamellar HCC 3.Serous cystadenoma (Pancreas) 4.Renal Oncocytoma | |
Which of the following is the causative organism for formation of Baholin cyst?: (A) Candida, (B) Anaerobes, (C) Neissea, (D) Trichomonas | Answer is C. Baholin's glands (great vestibular glands) are located at the vaginal orifice at the 4 and 8 o'clock positions. Their ducts are lined with transitional epithelium and their obstruction secondary to inflammation may lead to the development of a Baholin's cyst or abscess. Baholin's cysts range in size from 1... | |
Supraspinatus injury leads to which of the following:: (A) Frozen shoulder, (B) Winging of scapula, (C) Cannot abduct, (D) Cannot adduct | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Cannot abductRef. Apley's System of Orthopaedics & Fractures, 8th ed. 281-82In case of supraspinatus injury, abduction is restricted.Function of Rotator Cuff Muscle* Supraspinatus: Assists deltoid in abduction of arm by fixing head of humerus against the glenoid cavity.* Infraspinatus & Teres mino... | |
Antidepressant drug is:: (A) Pimozide, (B) Haloperidol, (C) Thioridazine, (D) Citalopram | Answer is D. Classification I Reversible inhibitors of MAO-A (RIMAs) Moclobemide, Clorgyline II. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) NA + 5-HT reuptake inhibitors Imipramine, Amitriptyline, Trimipramine, Doxepin, Dothiepin, Clomipramine B. Predominantly NA reuptake inhibitors Desipramine, Noriptyline, Amoxapine, Reboxetin... | |
Which of the following about syncope is false: (A) Another term for fainting, (B) Is transient reversible loss of consciousness, (C) Caused by altered circulation, (D) None of the above | Answer is D. None | |
Metabolism of xenobiotics is done by -: (A) Cytochrome, (B) Cytochrome p450, (C) Cytochrome C, (D) Cytochrome A | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cytochrome p450 o Biotransformation reactions (metabolism) of drugs can be classified :A. Non-synthetic (phase I) reactions# Metabolism brings about a change in the drug molecule by:1. Oxidation2. Reduction3. Hydrolysis4. Cyclization5. Decyclization# The new metabolite may retain biologic... | |
Relationship of neurovascular bundle from above downward in intercostal space -: (A) Nerve -Artery - Vein, (B) Artery - Nerve -Vein, (C) Vein - Nerve - Artery, (D) Vein -Artery - Nerve | Answer is D. Ans. is'd' i.e., Vein - Artery - Nerveo All intercostal muscles are supplied by the intercostal nerves of the spaces in which they lie.o The neurovascular plane of thorax lies between internal intercostal and intercostalis initimi or innermost intercostal (transversus thoracis).o Neurovascular bundle lies ... | |
True about Post traumatic fat embolism syndrome is A/E: (A) Bradycardia occur, (B) Systemic hypoxia may occur, (C) Fracture mobility is a risk factor, (D) Associated diabetes pose a risk | Answer is D. D i.e. Associated diabetes pose a risk. Fat Embolism Syndrome A syndrome caused by an inflammatory response to embolized fat globules Symptoms usually occur 1-3 days after a traumatic injury and are predominantly pulmonary (shoness of breath, hypoxemia), neurological (agitation, delirium, or coma), dermato... | |
In the length tension relationship of skeletal muscle, the length at which active tension is maximum is:: (A) A, (B) F, (C) D, (D) E | Answer is D. Ans. (d) E(Ref: Guyton and Hall Physiology Review, 3rd ed/p.14)Active tension produced in the muscle is at point E.In the graph, A is the active tension curve.C is the passive tension curve. | |
Peripheral most unit for planning of Family planning and other services under RCH program is: (A) Sub-centre, (B) Block/ Taluka, (C) PHC, (D) District | Answer is A. The sub-centre level is the peripheral outpost of the existing health delivery system. Categorization Type A: Provide all recommended services except the facilities for conducting delivery is not available here. Type B (MCH sub-centre): All recommended services including facilities for conducting deliverie... | |
All are seen in organic psychosis except :: (A) Disorientation in place, time & person, (B) Clouding of conciousness, (C) Hallucination, (D) Normal common knowledge | Answer is D. D. i.e. Normal common knowledge | |
False about annular pancreas: (A) Associated with down syndrome, (B) Bilious vomiting, (C) Treatment is duodeno-duodenostomy, (D) Diagnosis is by ERCP | Answer is B. Non bilious voimiting is seen in annular pancreas. | |
Glucose detection can be done by the all except: (A) Glucose oxidase, (B) Ferric Chloride test, (C) Dextrostix, (D) Follin and Wu method | Answer is B. Ans: b (Ferric Chloride rest). Ref: Vasudevan 4th ed/p 191,102Ferric chloride test is positive in phenylketonuria and alkaptonuria. A transient blue green colour is seen when ferric chloride is added to the urine.Glucose oxidase test:-It is the most widely used. Used by autoanalysers. Glucose oxidase is ve... | |
All are cerebral neurotics except: (A) Opioids, (B) Alcohol, (C) Nux vomica, (D) Cannabis | Answer is C. Neurotics: Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 399 | |
Primary hemostasis is disturbed in: (A) Platelet disorder, (B) lupus anticoagulant, (C) hemophilia, (D) Liver disease | Answer is A. None | |
A scooter is hit from behind. The rider is thrown off and he lands with his head hitting the kerb. He does not move, complains of severe pain in the neck and is unable to turn his head. Well-meaning onlookers rush up to him and try to make him sit up. What would be the best course of action in this situation?: (A) He s... | Answer is C. Patients are usually transported to the emergency department on a hard backboard with neck immobilized by hard cervical collor.
The head and neck to be aligned with the long axis of trunk and immobilized in supine position.
The patient should be secured so that in the event of emesis; the backboard may be ... | |
Delirium & dementia can be differentiated by?: (A) Loss of memory, (B) Apraxia, (C) Delusion, (D) Altered sensorium | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) Altered sensoriumREF: Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry 10th ed chapter-10Repeat Psychiatry 2013 Session 1, June 2010 | |
Most common site of rhabdomyosarcoma is:: (A) Orbit, (B) Nasopharynx, (C) Extremities, (D) Hypopharynx | Answer is A. Most common site of rhabdomyosarcoma is HEAD & NECK (orbit among the given options). RHABDOMYOSARCOMA Rhabdomyosarcoma arises from mesenchymal tissues. MC sites of origin: Head & neckQ (parameningealQ)>Extremities >Genitourinary tract >Trunk MC pediatric soft tissue sarcoma: RhabdomyosarcomaQ Associated wi... | |
MIS is secreted by?: (A) Sertoli cell, (B) Leidig cell, (C) Supporting cells, (D) Semeniferous tubules | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Sertoli cellREF: Ganong's 22nd ed chapter 23See previous question for explanation | |
A 30-year-old athlete complains of amenorrhea for 1 year. Her BMI is 20 kg/m2. LH and FSH are in low normal range. Clinical and USG findings are normal. Most likely cause is:: (A) Depression, (B) Excessive exercise, (C) Premature menopause, (D) Anorexia nervosa | Answer is B. Ans. is b, i.e. Excessive exerciseThis athlete has BMI =20kg/m2, i.e. she is underweightHer FSH and LH are in low normal rangeAll these findings point towards that either there is a problem in hypothalamus or pituitary.One of the causes of hypothalamic amenorrhea is excessive exercise which is the most pro... | |
Nikolsky's sign seen in all of the following, except:: (A) Bullous pemphigoid, (B) Mucus membrane pemphigoid, (C) Toxic epidermal necrolysis, (D) Scalded skin syndrome | Answer is A. Nikolsky's Sign
A bulla can be induced on normal-appearing skin if firm lateral pressure is exerted.
It is acharacteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris
Nikolsky's sign absent in- Bullous pemphigoid
Positive Nikolsky's Sign Present in
Pemphigus vulgaris
Pemphigus foliaceus
Familial benign pemphigus (Hal... | |
EBV positivity is higher in which type of Hodgkin lymphoma:: (A) Nodular sclerosis., (B) Mixed cellularity., (C) Lymphocyte depleted., (D) Lymphocyte rich. | Answer is B. None | |
Hypercalcemia in ECG is diagnosed by:: (A) Increased QT interval, (B) Decreased QT interval, (C) Increased PR interval, (D) Tall T waves | Answer is B. Answer is B (Decreased QT interval) Hypercalcemia is characterized by a decreased QT interval. | |
Allergic reactions to radiological contrast agents are -: (A) Anaphylactic reactions, (B) IgE mediated reactions, (C) Urticaria, (D) Edema | Answer is A. Acute non-renal reaction to a radiocontrast agent may be -
Non-IgE mediated anaphylactic reactions
Vasomotor / vasovagal reactions. | |
Type I hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by:: (A) IgG, (B) IgM, (C) IgD, (D) IgE | Answer is D. In immediate hypersensitivity (type I hypersensitivity)- the injury is caused by TH2 cells, IgE antibodies, and mast cells and other leukocytes. Mast cells release mediators that act on vessels and smooth muscle and pro-inflammatory cytokines that recruit inflammatory cells. | |
Which one of the following fungus does NOT infect hair? rpt: (A) Epidermophyton, (B) Microsporum, (C) Trichophyton, (D) Trichosporon | Answer is A. trichophyton- hair, skin and nail. microsporum- hair and skin. epidermophyton- skin and nail. REF:Baveja textbook of microbiology 4th edition. | |
An athletic teenage girl complains of anterior knee pain on climbing stairs and on getting up after prolonged sitting. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Chondramalacia Patellae, (B) Plica Syndrome, (C) Bipaite Patella, (D) Patellofemoral osteoahritis | Answer is A. CAUSES: Mechanical overload of the patellofemoral joint. a) Malcongruence - patellofemoral surfaces b) Malalignment -- extensor mechanism - weakness of vastus medialis ingle injury -- damage to aicular surface CLINICAL FEATURES * Introspective teenage girl or athletic young adult * Flat foot / Knock kneed ... | |
Which of the following is true about ventilation and perfusion in alveoli in an erect posture: (A) Ventilation/perfusion ratio is maximum at apex, (B) Ventilation/perfusion ratio is maximum at base, (C) Ventilation is maximum at apex, (D) Perfusion is maximum at apex | Answer is A. Apical alveoli have low ventilation and perfusion per unit volume of the lung, whereas the basal alveoli have high ventilation and perfusion.
Ventilation-perfusion ratio and the PaO2 is maximum at the apex. PCO2 is maximum at the base. | |
'Endemic Disease' means that a disease:: (A) Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy, (B) Is constantly present in a given population group, (C) Exhibits seasonal pattern, (D) Is prevalent among animals | Answer is B. Endemic refers to the constant presence of a disease or infectious agent within a given geographic area or population group without impoation from outside. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Page 88; Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park,... | |
The following are example of apoptosis except?: (A) Graft versus host disease, (B) Menstrual cycle, (C) Pathological atrophy following duct obstruction, (D) None | Answer is D. Ans. is 'None' | |
Regarding point source epidemic, false statement (s) is/are:a) Rapid rise & fallb) Only infectious disease can causec) Explosived) Cases occur even after incubation periode) No secondary wave: (A) ce, (B) bd, (C) cde, (D) eb | Answer is B. Features of point source (single exposure) epidemics
The exposure to the disease agent is brief and essentially simultaneous → single exposure.
Because disease agent enters into all exposed persons at same time → the resultant cases all develop within one incubation period of the disease.
The epidemic cu... | |
All of the following factors increases the level of respiratory neuron activity in the medulla, EXCEPT:: (A) Rise in the PCO2, (B) Rise in H+ concentration of aerial blood, (C) Rise in Po2, (D) Drop in Po2 | Answer is C. A rise in the PCO2 or H+ concentration of aerial blood or a drop in its Po2 increases the level of respiratory neuron activity in the medulla, and changes in the opposite direction have a slight inhibitory effect. The effects of variations in blood chemistry on ventilation are mediated respiratory chemorec... | |
All the following are characteristic of Turner Syndrome EXCEPT:: (A) Webbing of Neck, (B) Cubitus valgus, (C) Umbilical Hernia, (D) Coarctation of Aorta | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) Umbilical HerniaREF: Robbins 7th edition page 179, http://en.vrikipedia.org/wiki/Turner_syndromeTurner syndrome or Ullrich-Tumer syndrome (also known as 'Gonadal dysgenesis") encompasses several conditions in human females, of which monosomy X (absence of an entire sex chromosome, the Barr body... | |
Triglycerides are maximum in:: (A) Chylomicrons, (B) VLDL, (C) LDL, (D) HDL | Answer is A. A i.e. Chylomicron | |
A patient comes with sudden respiratory distress, on examination, bilateral basal crepts are present over chest suggestive of pulmonary edema with normal alveolar wedge pressure. The likely cause is: (A) Narcotic overdose, (B) Congestive hea failure, (C) Myocardial infarction, (D) Cardiogenic shock | Answer is A. Answer is A (Narcotic overdose): Pulmonary edema with normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure suggests a diagnosis of ARDS or non cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Narcotic overdose is the only non cardiogenic cause for pulmonary edema (ARDS) amongst the options provided and hence the answer here. | |
Which is the most important feature to differentiate carcinoma in situ from invasive carcinoma?: (A) Metastasis, (B) Anaplasia, (C) Number of mitotic spindles, (D) Breach in basement membrane | Answer is D. Penetration of basement membrane is the hallmark of invasive carcinoma. In carcinoma in situ basement membrane is not involved. | |
First case to come to notice of physician is:: (A) Primary case, (B) Secondary case, (C) Index case, (D) Referral case | Answer is C. Index case | |
Cariostatic level of fluoride in drinking water is:: (A) 1 ppm, (B) 1.5 ppm, (C) 2 ppm, (D) 2.5 ppm | Answer is A. Fluoridation is the adjustment of water supply to a fluoride content such that reduction of 50 to 70% in dental caries would occur without damage to teeth or other structures.
In 1958, WHO produced the first report by an expert committee on water fluoridation (TRS 146) and concluded that drinking water con... | |
Temperature in autoclaving -: (A) 160degC for 45 minutes, (B) 170deg for 18 minutes, (C) 120degC for 15 minutes, (D) 126degC for 20 minutes | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 120degC for 15 minutes MethodTemperature (degC)Holding time (in minutes)Autoclave12115 12610 1343Hot air oven16045 17018 1807.5 1901.5 | |
Token economy is used in the treatment of: (A) Schizophrenia, (B) Depression, (C) Dementia, (D) Delirium | Answer is A. Token economy: It is a form of behavior modification designed to increase desirable behavior and decrease undesirable behavior with the use of tokens. Individuals receive tokens immediately after displaying desirable behavior. The tokens are collected and later exchanged for a meaningful object or privileg... | |
Tarsal tunnel syndrome is caused with which ahritis:: (A) Ankylosing spondylitis, (B) Osteoahritis, (C) Rheumatoid ahritis, (D) Psoriatic ahritis | Answer is C. Rheumatoid ahritis "Inflammation from rheumatoid ahritis results in a higher incidence of tarsal tunnel syndrome."- Current geriatric diagnosis,& treatment By C. Seth Landefeld, Robe Palmer, Mary Anne Johnson p459 "Carpal tunnel syndrome may be the presenting feature of rheumatoid ahritis."- Oxford textboo... | |
Hysteroscopical excision can be done for all EXCEPT:: (A) Uterine fundus fibroid, (B) Submucous fibroid, (C) Subserous fibroid, (D) Endometrial polyp | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Subserous fibroidRef: Shaws 15th ed. 1359* Uterine fibroids are noncancerous growths of the uterus that often appear during childbearing years. It is aka leiomyomas* They aren't associated with an increased risk of uterine cancer and almost never develop into cancer.Types* Intramural fibroids are ... | |
Length of ureter is:: (A) 15 cm, (B) 20 cm, (C) 25 cm, (D) 30 cm | Answer is C. 25 cm | |
A case of road traffic accident (A) came with head injury, BP is 90/60, pulse is 150/min. Which anesthetic agent should be used for induction.: (A) Thiopentone, (B) Ketamine, (C) Halothane, (D) Succinylcholine | Answer is A. A i.e. Thiopentone In head injury, induction is preferably done by thiopental or propofol (both neuroprotective)Q and a rapid onset NMBD (usually rocuronium or mivacurium) following adequate preoxygenation hyperventilation by mask. A barbiturate (thiopentone) - opioid - N20-NMBA technique is commonly used ... | |
Which of the following has the lowest Vitamin A: (A) Pappaya, (B) Mango, (C) Amla, (D) Orange | Answer is C. Ans) c (Amla) Ref Park 20th ed p 531Vitamin A is seen in most green and yellow fruits and vegetables Retinol equivalent of:* Ripe mango-313* Pappaya - 118* Orange - 25Amala is one of the richest source of Vit C both in fresh as well as in dry condition. | |
Plasma membrane of cell is bounded to cytoskeleton by which of the following?: (A) Spectrin, (B) Ankyrin, (C) Tubulin, (D) Laminin | Answer is B. In erythrocytes and most other cells ankyrin mediates the interaction between plasma membrane and cytoskeleton. Ankyrin also binds to the 100nm, rod shaped, antiparallel alpha beta heterodimers of spectrin and thus secures the cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane. Other membrane proteins with the same funct... | |
Best means of giving hepatitis B vaccine is: (A) Subcutaneous, (B) Intradermal, (C) Intramuscular deltoid, (D) Intramuscular gluteal | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Intramuscular Deltoid Prophalyxis against HBV . Both passive and active immunization are available for HBV infection prophylaxis. . Passive prophylaxis is by hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG). . Active immunization is by recombinant hepatitis B vaccine. . These are two recombinant vaccin... | |
Father’s blood group is ‘A’ & mother’s blood group is ‘AB'. Which of the following blood group is not possible in any of their children?: (A) A, (B) B, (C) O, (D) AB | Answer is C. None | |
Neutral amino acid is -: (A) Aspartate, (B) Arginine, (C) Glycine, (D) Histidine | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Glycine Neutral amino acidsAcidic amino acidsBasic amino acidsAlanineAspartic acid (aspartate)ArginineAspargingGlutamic acid (glutamate)HistidineCysteineGlycineGlutaminelsoleucineLeucineMethionineProlinePhenylalanineSerineThreonineTyrosineTryptophanValine Lysine | |
First agent shown to be effective in maniac phase of BPD is: (A) Lithium, (B) Valproate, (C) Lamotrigine, (D) Carbamazepine | Answer is A. .lithium was the frst agent to be used for mania it has mood stabilizing propey it was introduced by John F Cade it is liver friendly drug it has to be introduced in caution with renal derangements it can cause of hypothyroidim it should be given with caution with ACE inhibitors, NSAIDS, Angiotensin recept... | |
Second generation cephalosporin that can be used orally is: (A) Cefipime, (B) Cephalothin, (C) Cefaclor, (D) Cefadroxil | Answer is C. Ans. c (Cefaclor). (Ref. Pharmacology by KD Tripathi - 6th/pg. 704)GenerationOralParenteral1stCephalexinCefadroxilCephradineCephalothinCefazolin2ndCefaclorCefuroximeCefuroximeCefoxitin3rd QCefiximeCefpodoximeCefdinirCeftibuteCefoperazoneCefotanimeCeftizoximeCeftriaxoneCeftazidime4th--CefepimeCefpirome | |
Life span of house fly is?: (A) 5 days, (B) 10 days, (C) 1 month, (D) 1 year | Answer is C. The complete life cycle from egg to adult may take 5 to 6 days during summer in India, but at other times it may take 8 to 20 days. Flies do not generally live longer than 15 days in summer and 25 days during winter Eggs - 8 to 24 hours, Larvae - 2 to 7 days, Pupae - 3 to 6 days, Adults 5-20 says. Park's T... | |
Iceberg phenomenon is depicted by all of the following diseases except:: (A) Influenza, (B) Hypeension, (C) Measles, (D) Malnutrition | Answer is C. Iceberg phenomenon is not shown by diseases which have no carrier state such as: - Rabies - Tetanus - Measles - Rubella - Peussis Tip of iceberg Submerged pa of iceberg Composition Clinical cases Latent, inapparent, pre symptomatic, Undiagnosed cases and carriers Visibility to clinician Visible Invisible P... | |
Reticulocytes are stained by: (A) Methylviolet, (B) Brilliant cresyl blue, (C) Sudan black, (D) Indigo carmine | Answer is B. Ref Robbins 9/e p635 Reticulocytes are stained in living state in-vitro so staining with dyes like brilliant cresyl blue and new methylene blue is preferred road supra vital staining Brilliant cresyl blue is a supravital stain used for counting reticulocytes. It is classified as an oxazine dye | |
True about CSF finding in pyogenic meningitis is -: (A) CSF contains no organisms, (B) ↓Chloride ↓ glucose, (C) ↑T Glucose ↑protein, (D) ↑ Chloride,↓ glucose | Answer is B. None | |
In patient with anterior uveitis, decrease in vision due to involvement of posterior segment can occur because of: (A) Exudative RD, (B) Cystoid macular edema (CME), (C) Vitreal floaters, (D) Inflammatory disc edema | Answer is B. B i.e. Cystoid macular edema (CME) | |
An old patient Ram Kishore having asthma and glaucoma is to receive a b blocker. Regarding b blocking drugs:: (A) Metoprolol blocks b2 receptors selectively, (B) Esmolol's pharmacokinetics are compatible with chronic topical use, (C) Nadolol lacks b2 blocking action, (D) Timolol lacks the local anaesthetic effects of p... | Answer is D. Metoprolol is a cardioselective (b1 selective) blocker and not b2 selective. Esmolol is the shoest acting b -blocker and is useful for acute treatment. Nadolol is a non-selective b-blocker. It blocks both b1 as well as b2 receptors. Propanolol possesses maximum local anaesthetic activity whereas timolol la... | |
Which of the following is false about watermelon stomach: (A) Watermelon stomach is more common in females, (B) Causes upper GI bleeding, (C) Treatment is argon photocoagulation, (D) Dilated veins present in the fundus. | Answer is D. Dilated veins and capillaries are present in the antrum | |
Nerve injured in fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus -: (A) Anterior interosseous, (B) Median, (C) Ulnar, (D) Radial | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., UlnarSite of injuryNerve injuredFracture surgical neck humerusAxillary nerveFracture shaft humerusRadial nerveSupracondylar fractureMedian nerve (anterior interosseous branch)Medial epicondyle fractureUlnar nervePosterior dislocation of HIPSciatic nerveFibular neck fractureCommon peroneal... | |
Hydroxyethyl starch is used as:: (A) Plasma expander, (B) Inotropic agent, (C) Vasodilator, (D) Type of dextran | Answer is A. It is a blood volume expander used in treatment of hypovolemia; adjunct in leukapheresis to improve harvesting and increase the yield of granulocytes by centrifugation. Mechanism of Action: Produces plasma volume expansion by viue of its highly colloidal starch structure. Onset of action: Volume expansion:... | |
In a study, dye ABC is used to measure cardiac output and blood volume. The dye is replaced with a new dye XYZ which diffuses more rapidly out of the capillaries. This would affect the study by: (A) Normal cardiac output, altered blood volume, (B) Altered cardiac output, normal blood volume estimation, (C) Both altered... | Answer is A. In estimation of cardiac output by the dye, the dye is injected through a vein and then blood is collected from the artery after a single cycle through the heart. So there is no diffusion out through the capillaries in between. Hence the cardiac output is unchanged in the given scenario. But the measured b... | |
A 23-year-old male patient presents to the OPD with nausea, vomiting, & four episodes of loose stools. On history taking, he reveals to have consumed food from a restaurant 3 hours back. The most likely etiologic organism is: (A) Staphylococcus aureus, (B) Bacillus cereus, (C) Salmonella, (D) Vibrio cholerae | Answer is A. Staphylococcus causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 2-6 hrs after consuming contaminated food (other organisms causing food poisoning within the same time period of 2-6 hrs is Bacillus cereus-Emetic strains). Enterotoxin produced by Staphylococcus: It is a preformed toxin that is heat stable (Most of the ... | |
Radiation dose monitoring in occupational personal is done by: (A) TLD Badge, (B) Linear accelerator, (C) Collimators, (D) Grid | Answer is A. ref : david sutton | |
Drug that is mostly used to decrease the suicidal tendencies in Manic Bipolar Disorder: (A) Fluoxetine, (B) Lithium, (C) Carbamazepine, (D) Risperidone | Answer is B. (B) Lithium # With Lithium treatment, patients have been shown to present a decreased risk of suicide (especially when treated with Lithium) and a reduction of frequency and severity of their episodes, which in turn moves them toward a stable life and reduces the time they spend ill.> In order to maintain ... | |
Horner's syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:: (A) Miosis, (B) Enopthalmos, (C) Ptosis, (D) Cycloplegia | Answer is D. Cycloplegia is not a feature of Horner's syndrome. Ref:Walsh and Hoyt's Clinical Neuro-Ophthalmology: The Essentials By Frank Buon Walsh, Nancy J. Newman, William Fletcher Hoyt, Neil R. Miller, Valerie Biousse, John B. Kerrison, 2007, Page 304 | |
All have high hepatic clearance EXCEPT: (A) Labetalol, (B) Simvastatin, (C) Morphine, (D) Paracetamol | Answer is D. (D) Paracetamol HEPATIC CLEARANCE OF DRUGSLOWHepatic ClearanceINTERMEDIATEHepatic ClearanceHIGHHepatic Clearance* Carbamazepine* Caffeine* Lignocaine* Diazepam* Fluoxetine* Morphine* Ibuprofen* Midazolam* Pethidine* Phenytoin* Omeprazole* Propranolol* Warfarin* Paracetamol* Zidovudine> Low Hepatic Clearanc... | |
Most common site for diveiculosis is?: (A) Sigmoid colon, (B) Ascending colon, (C) Transverse colon, (D) Spleenic flexure | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sigmoid colon The sigmoid colon is the most common site of diveiculosis. | |
Green blue postmortem discoloration is seen in which poisoning -: (A) Cyanide, (B) Carbon monoxide, (C) Phosphorous, (D) Hydrogen sulphide | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hydrogen sulphide o Color of post-mortem staining in various poisoning:POISONCOLORCarbon mono-oxide and hypothermiaCherry redHCN, bumsBright redNitrites, potassium chlorate, potassium bicarbonateChocolate orNitrobenzene, acetanilide, bromates, aniline (causing methaemoglobinuria)Copper br... | |
Consent given by a person who is intoxicated with ethanol is invalid, this comes under: (A) Sec 87 IPC, (B) Sec 92 IPC, (C) Sec 90 IPC, (D) Sec 89 IPC | Answer is C. Refer the byte "Legal sections". | |
Anti-phospholipid Antibody syndrome is Characterized by all except: (A) Antibodies directed against phospholipid binding proteins., (B) Inhibition of syncytiotrophoblast differentiation., (C) Central nervous system involvement is least common., (D) High risk of placental infarction and early-onset pre-eclampsia. | Answer is C. Central nervous system involvement is one of the most prominent clinical manifestations in APLAS. | |
Injury caused to the pedestrian in a vehicular accident due to his/her striking onto the object on road is known as -: (A) Primary injury, (B) Secondary injury, (C) Acceleration injury, (D) Decceleration injury | Answer is B. Secondary injury is caused by person violently falling on ground (road) or on stationary object. | |
Pseudorosettes are seen in: (A) Retinoblastoma, (B) Ophthalmia nodosa, (C) Phacolytic glaucoma, (D) Trachoma | Answer is A. Microscopic pathological study in Retinoblastoma shows various patterns like Homer-wright Flexner wintersteiner Fleurettes Refer khurana 6/e | |
Patient died during surgery/under anesthesia, which among here applies for the surgeon?: (A) 174 (3) CrPC, (B) 174 CrPC, (C) 39 CrPC, (D) 176 CrPC | Answer is B. 174 CrPC- Procedure for inquest in unnatural death 174 (3) CrPC- Inquest rights for deaths of a married woman within 7 years of her marriage either by suicide or under any other suspicious circumstances. 39 CrPC- Public should intimate the police in case of any crime. 176 CrPC- It gives the procedure of in... | |
Plateau phase of cardiac muscle is due to: (A) East Na + channel opening, (B) Opeaning of Ca++Na+ channels, (C) Opeaning of Slow Ca++ channels, (D) Opeaning of K + channels | Answer is C. Ca2+ influx through more slowly opening Ca2+ channels produces the plateau phase The initial depolarization is due to Na+ influx through rapidly opening Na+ channels Repolarization is due to net K+ efflux through multiple types of K+ channels Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition ... | |
Nodes of Rouviere -: (A) Retropharyngeal node, (B) Parapharyngeal node, (C) Adenoids, (D) None | Answer is A. Retropharyngeal nodes are divided into medial and lateral groups.
Most superior node of the lateral group is called the node of Rouviere.
Also know
Krause's node :- Lymph nodes situated at the jugular foramen. | |
Dose of vitamin A during pregnancy -: (A) 600 mg, (B) 800 mg, (C) 950 mg, (D) 350 mg | Answer is B. During pregnancy recommended allowance of vitamin A is 800mcg . REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 616 | |
Basis of division of anatomical segments of liver are all, EXCEPT:: (A) Hepatic aery, (B) Hepatic vein, (C) Poal vein, (D) Bile duct | Answer is B. The proper hepatic aery, poal vein, and common hepatic duct enter/exit the liver at the poa hepatis as the 'poal triad'. The central branch first divides into two larger branches, functionally subdividing the liver into left pas and right pas. The poal triad continue to ramify within the liver, forming a t... | |
Which one of the following hepatitis viruses have significant perinatal transmission –: (A) Hepatitis E virus, (B) Hepatitis C virus, (C) Hepatitis B virus, (D) Hepatitis A virus | Answer is C. Features of Hepatitis viruses | |
Yellow fluorescence on wood&;s lamp is seen in -: (A) Tuberous sclerosis, (B) Pseudomonas infection, (C) Tinea versicolor, (D) Erythrasma | Answer is C. PITYRIASIS VERSICOLOR:-Tinea versicolor.Macules with fine scaling.Causative organism: dimorphic fungi.genus Malassezia globosa and M.furfur. Clinical features:- Hypo/hyperpigmented macules with fine ,branny scales. The lesions may coalesce to involve large areas,forming map like structures. Scraping the su... | |
A 3-year-old girl has normal developmental milestones except the delay in speech. She has difficulty in concentration, communication and relating to others and does not make friends but plays with herself. Likely diagnosis is: (A) ADHD, (B) Autism, (C) Specific learning disorder, (D) Mental retardation | Answer is B. Autism Absent social smile Lack of eye to eye contact Lack of awareness of others existence or feelings and treats people as furniture Lack of attachment to parents and absence of separation anxiety No or abnormal social play prefers solitary games Marked impairment in making friends Absence of fear in pre... | |
HMB 45 is tumor marker for -: (A) Malignant melanoma, (B) Mesothelioma, (C) Bronchogenic carcinoma, (D) Pancreatic carcinoma | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Malignant melanoma Markers for melnnonaS-100 - 90% of tumors are positiveHMB-45 - More specific but less sensitive than S-100TA-90Important markersTumoro S-100. HMB-45o TA-90o NMP-22MelanomaMelanoma, colon & breast ca.Urinary bladder ca.Neuroendocrine tumors (small cell ca of lung, carcin... | |
Distichiasis is-: (A) Abnormal inversion of eyelashes, (B) Abnormal extra row of cilia, (C) Abnormal eversion of eyelashes, (D) Misdirected cilia | Answer is B. *Distichiasis i.e. an abnormal extra row of cilia taking place of meibomian glands. Ref: Khurana ophthalmology 7th/e p.386 | |
A newborn baby presents with absent anal orifice and meconuria. What is the most appropriate management:: (A) Transverse colostomy, (B) Conservative management, (C) Posterior saggital anorectoplasty, (D) Perineal V-Y plasty | Answer is A. The presence of meconium in urine reflects some form of communication between the urinary tract and rectum, and suggests a high type of anorectal malformation. Such patients require a diveing colostomy. The colostomy decompresses the bowel and provides protection during the healing of subsequent repair. Po... | |
Incidence of choriocarcinoma is seen more after:: (A) Ectopic pregnancy, (B) Spontaneous abortion, (C) Normal delivery, (D) Cesarean section | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Spontaneous abortion * Among all the cases of choriocarcinoma:# 50% develop following a hydatidiform mole#' 25% develop following an abortion# 20% develop following a full-term pregnancy and 5% develop following an ectopic pregnancy* As vesicular mole is not in the options, abortion is th... | |
BISAP score is used for to assess severity of: (A) Pancreatitis, (B) Pancreatic absess, (C) Pseudocyst of pancreas, (D) Pseudocyst of pancreas | Answer is A. None | |
On mammogram, all of the following are the features of a malignant tumor except:: (A) Spiculation, (B) Microcalcification, (C) Macrocalcification, (D) Irregular mass | Answer is C. Ans. C...MACROCALCIFICATION is seen in fibroadenomaAlso know Distinguishing features between benign and malignant lesions on mammogram Benign Malignant Opacity Smooth margin Ill defined margin, Irregular stellate, spiculated margin, comet tail Low density High density Homogeneous In homogeneous Thin halo w... | |
Dexmedetomidine is: (A) Selective alpha 2 blocker, (B) Agent of choice for conscious sedation, (C) Less sensitive to alpha 2 receptors than clonidine, (D) Good analgesic | Answer is B. Dexmedetomidine is alpha 2 agonist, more sensitive than clonidine. It is used to produce conscious sedation. | |
All of the following are features of MEN IIa, except-a) Pituitary tumorb) Pheochromocytomac) Medullary carcinoma thyroidd) Neuromas: (A) ad, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) ab | Answer is A. None | |
Which does not contribute to Enterobillary Fistula -: (A) Duodenal ulcer, (B) Gall stones, (C) Gastric ulcer, (D) Carcinoma gall bladder | Answer is C. None | |
Shoest acting non benzodiazepine sedative is:: (A) Zolpidem, (B) Zaleplon, (C) Zopiclone, (D) Midazolam | Answer is B. Amongst the three Z drugs, zaleplon has the shoest half life of one hours, half life of zolpidem is 2.4 hours whereas that zopiclone is 5 hours. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine | |
A 4-year-old male child presents with muscles weakness. His mother tells that her child has difficulty in climbing stairs and getting up from the floor. On muscle biopsy, small muscle fibrils and absent of dystrophic was found. What is the diagnosis out of given option?: (A) Beck's muscle dystrophy, (B) Duchenne muscul... | Answer is B. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Progressive weakness Calf muscle involvement Pseudo hyperophy Difficulty in climbing stairs Gowersign present (+) Wheel chair bound Patient Death - CHF/ Pneumonia CPK MM: Increased IOC: - PCR for dystrophin gene (Dystrophin gene absent) Rx: - Chest Physiotherapy NOTE:Immunohisto... | |
Which of the following is a Mortality Indicator?: (A) Life Expectancy, (B) Notification Rate, (C) DALY, (D) Bed turn-over ratio | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Life Expectancy* Life Expectancy is a 'Positive mortality indicator'ALSO REMEMBER* DALY is a type of disability rate* Bed turn-over ratio is a type of heath care utilization rate | |
In oral poisoning with carbamate insecticide_______ may be hazardous: (A) Pralidoxime, (B) Atropine, (C) Magnesium sulfate purgative, (D) Gastric lavage with activated charcoal | Answer is A. Refer kDT 7/e p 111 Oximes are in effective in carbamate poisoning. Rathre, this can worsen the poisoning due to weak anticholinesterase activity by its own | |
need for thinness inspite of being lean is a feuture of: (A) anorexia nervosa, (B) bulimia nervosa, (C) metabolic syndrome, (D) binge eating | Answer is A. Anorexia nervosa Anorexia nervosa is a eating disorder where the patient has decreased weight and altered body image and persistent desire to maintain thinness * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Inte... | |
Point shource epidemic is -: (A) Short term fluctuation, (B) Periodic fluctuation, (C) Long term fluctuation, (D) Secular trend | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Short term fluctuation * Point source (single exposure) epidemic is short term fluctuation.* There are three kinds of time trends or fluctuations in disease occurenceA. Short term fluctuations - epidemics.B. Secular trends or long term fluctuations.C. Periodic fluctuation. | |
The length of distal convoluted tubule is ?: (A) 2 mm, (B) 5 mm, (C) 8 mm, (D) 12 mm | Answer is B. B i.e., 5 mm | |
Which of the following is not a cause of features of primary hyperaldosteronism?: (A) Cushing syndrome, (B) Adrenal adenoma, (C) Adrenal hyperplasia, (D) Chronic CCF | Answer is D. Chronic CCF will lead to low GFR. The subsequent activation of RAAS will lead to increased renin and secondary aldosteronism. Causes of primary hyperaldosteronism : Conn syndrome (adrenal adenoma): 60% Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (Micronodular): 60% Cushing syndrome Syndrome of apparent mineralocoicoid e... | |
Not affected in multiple myeloma -: (A) IgG, (B) IgA, (C) IgM, (D) IgD | Answer is C. Types of monoclonal protein in multiple myeloma include IgG,(55%),IgA(21%), light chain only(22%), others(D,E,non-secretory about 2%).Reference :Davidson's principles & practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no 1046. | |
Whispering produces a sound of:: (A) 20-30db, (B) 30-40db, (C) 40-50db, (D) 50-60db | Answer is A. Sound levels of some noises: Whisper: 20-30db Normal conversation 60-70db Mechanical damage; 150-160db Acceptable noise levels: expressed in db (A), sound pressure levels conforming to weighing curve (A) acceptable noise level < 85dbAuditory fatigue > 90 dbPermanent hearing loss > 100 dbTympanic membrane d... |
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