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Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation?: (A) Maintenance of a patent airway, (B) To provide positive pressure ventilation, (C) Pulmonary toilet, (D) Pneumothorax
Answer is D. Pneumothorax requires urgent needle thoracocentesis and/or Intercostal drainage. Pneumothorax is a known complication of endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation and is certainly not an indication for the same.
Teratogenicity results when drugs are given during: (A) First trimester, (B) Second trimester, (C) Third trimester, (D) Soon after birth
Answer is A. None
Balloon valvotomy is successful in all of the following cases except –: (A) Congenital pulmonary stenosis, (B) Calcified mitral stenosis, (C) Mitral stenosis is pregnancy, (D) Congenital aortic stenosis
Answer is B. It is indicated in MS without calcification.
Hep Burn Osteometric board is used to measure-: (A) Length of long bones, (B) Length of flat bones, (C) Breadth of long bones, (D) Breadth of flat bones
Answer is A. Ans. 'a' i.e., Length of long bones o Hep Bum Osteometric board is used to accurately measure length of long bones.Hepburn Osteometric Boardo It is ait instrument used to measure length oflong bones.o It has a rectangular base with ruler fixed along one of its long sides,o An upright is fixed at one end of...
Which of the following drugs should be given in a patient with acute angle closure glaucoma .except: (A) Pilocarpine, (B) Clozapine, (C) Fluphenazine, (D) Paroxentine
Answer is A. Three drugs in the option i.e clozapine,fluph fluphen,paroxentine have anti-cholinergic propeies and should be avoided in angle closure glaucoma. Ref-KDT 6/e p426
Which among the following drug is contra-indicated in renal failure?: (A) Pethidine, (B) Morphine, (C) Fentanyl, (D) Atracurium
Answer is A. Renal failure patients given repeated doses of pethidine are prone to experience similar effects. All the other drugs are safe in renal failure. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed
Male-female differentiation of fetus occurs at: (A) 2-4 weeks, (B) 10-12 weeks, (C) 16-18 weeks, (D) 24-26 weeks
Answer is B. Genotype of embryo is established at feilization. But male and female embryos are phenotypically distinguishbletill week 6. Ref: Gray's 39e/p-1289
Synthesis of protein occurs on:: (A) Mitochondria, (B) Poly ribosomes, (C) Nucleus, (D) Golgi bodies
Answer is B. None
Traditionally scrotal carcinoma is associated with which of the following occupations?: (A) Chimney sweeps, (B) Mule spinners, (C) Coal worker, (D) Wood workers
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Chimney sweeps & 'b' i.e., Mule spinners * Carcinoma of the scrotum.* It is traditionally recognized as an occupational hazard for chimney sweeps and mule spinners.* It was described by Potts.* Unlike carcinoma of the penis, carcinoma of the scrotum is almost unknown in India and Asiatic ...
Which of the following organism causes a life-threatening gastroenteritis as a result of use of a broad spectrum antimicrobial agents: (A) Bacillus cereus, (B) Bacillus anthracis, (C) Clostridium botulinum, (D) Clostridium difficile
Answer is D. The use of broad spectrum antibiotics such as ampicillin and clindamycin has been associated with pseudomembranous colitis. Antibiotic administration results in the proliferation of drug resistant C. difficile that produces Toxin A (a potent enterotoxin with cytotoxic activity) and Toxin B (a potent cytoto...
Hep-2 cells are a type of-: (A) Primary cell cultures, (B) Diploid cell strain, (C) Continuous cell lines, (D) Explant culture
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c', i.e. Continous cell lines
Botulinum toxin acts by: (A) Secretion of Ach, (B) Synthesis of ACh, (C) Inhibits Ach release, (D) Muscle nerve block
Answer is C. Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed pg no:133 botulinum toxin and beta-bungaro toxin inhibits the release of Ach into the synapse
The commonest pancreatic tumor is:: (A) Ductal adenocarcinoma, (B) Cystadenoma, (C) Insulinoma, (D) Non islet cell tumor
Answer is A. M/C type - Adenocarcinoma Non-specific Tumour Marker - CEA Specific Tumour Marker - CA 19.9 Chemotherapy Regimen - Gemcitabine MC site of metastasis - Liver M/C site for CA pancreas - Head > Body > Tail Neuroendocrine Tumors (NET) of Pancreas- M/C NET of Pancreases - Non-Functional (PPOMA)- M/C functional ...
Bite cells are characteristic of -: (A) G6PD deficiency, (B) Thallasemia, (C) Hereditary spherocytosis, (D) Sideroblastic anaemia
Answer is A. Exposure of G6PD deficient red cells to high levels of oxidants causes cross linking of reactive sulfhydril groups on globin chains which become denatured and form membrane bound precipitates known as Heinz bodies. As inclusion bearing red cells pass through the splenic cords, macrophages pluck out the Hei...
A four year old boy Tinu has normal developmental milestones except delayed speech. He is interested to watch spinning objects like fan and the washing machine. His parents struggle to get him interested in other children at home. People often comment that he is disinterested and self centred. What will be your thought...
Answer is A. Tinu's presentation is that of poor 'theory of mind' or lack of perspective taking, poor communication and social skills and obsessive interests in spinning objects, which is common in ASD (autism spectrum disorder). Autism is characterized by triad of impaired social development, disturbed communication a...
True about Arboviruses is -: (A) Yellow fever is endemic in India, (B) Dengue has only one serotype, (C) KFD was first identified in West Bengal, (D) Chikungunya is transmitted by Aedes aegypti
Answer is D. - chikungunya is a disease caused by group A virus, the chikungunya virus and transmitted by Aedes aegypti. - KFD was first recognized inas Shimoga district of Karnataka in India. - India is a yellow fever receptive area, that is an area in which yellow fever does not exist, but where conditions would perm...
NADPH oxidase deficiency causes impaired immunity which of the follwoing process?: (A) Chedickhigasi syndrome, (B) Chronic granulomatous disease, (C) Leucocyte adhesion defect type 1, (D) Leucocyte adhesion defect type 2
Answer is B. Chronic granulomatous disease is a rare, X-linked deficiency of NADPH oxidase activity which drastically impairs the ability of macrophages and neutrophils to destroy pathogens. Patients are especially vulnerable to mycobacteria, E coli, and staphylococcus since these organisms produces catalase to defend ...
A patient presented with numbness of little and ring finger, atrophy of hypothenar muscles. The nerve damaged will be?: (A) Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar, (B) Deep branch of ulnar, (C) Ulnar nerve before division into superficial and deep branches, (D) Posterior cord of brachial plexus
Answer is C. This is a case of cubital tunnel syndrome, which is caused by compression or irritation of the ulnar nerve as it passes under the medial epicondyle before it branches to deep and superficial branches. Symptoms are usually tingling and numbness in the cutaneous distribution of the ulnar nerve. In severe cas...
An elderly male accompanied by his son.The son tells his father has fever, cough, shoness of breath since 2 weeks. The patient is a known case of chronic bronchitis and diabetes. Travel history to Wuhan City, China is present. What is the symmetry of the causative virus?: (A) Naked helical symmetry, (B) complex symmetr...
Answer is C. The patient is suffering from coronavirus disease 2019. The symmetry of the causative virus is enveloped helical symmetry. Coronaviridae is a family of which have the following propeies: Unsegmented genome of positive-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses. They are enveloped viruses. They exhibit helical symm...
Multipleround to oval erythematous patches with fine central scale distributed along the skin tension lines on the trunk is highly suggestive of?: (A) Tinea versicolor, (B) Pityriasis rosea, (C) Lichen planus, (D) Seborrheic dermatitis
Answer is B. .
Leutic glossitis is an intra-oral manifestation caused by: (A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis, (B) Actinomycosis, (C) Trepenoma pallidium, (D) Streptococcus
Answer is C. None
About Langerhans cell histiocytosis, true are all except:: (A) Peak incidence less than 3 years of age, (B) Radiosensitive, (C) Diffuse form is known as Letterer-Siwe-disease, (D) Gonadal involvement occurs
Answer is D. d. Gonadal involvement occurs(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2484-2489; Ghai 8/e p 620-623)a. Peak incidence less than 3 years of age: True; More common and more severe in younger childrenb. Radiosensitive: True, as Bone lesions and Pituitary lesions, causing DI, respond well to radiotherapyc. Diffuse form is known ...
Which fruit juice helps in preventing UTI:: (A) Grape, (B) Raspberry, (C) Cranberry, (D) Orange
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e. Cranberry Cranberry juice has been traditionally used for the treatment and prophylaxis of urinary tract infection.Recent randomized controlled trials have demonstrated its utility in prophylaxis of UTIs but not for treatment.
Essential drug is?: (A) Drugs that has been developed specifically to treat a rare medical condition, (B) Those drugs that satisfy the health care needs of the majority of the population, (C) Those drugs that satisfy the health care needs of at least 50% of the population, (D) Drug that is to be used with in first hour...
Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) Those drugs that satisfy the health care needs of the majority of the populationREF: KDT 6th edition page 5Essential drugs (medicines), as defined by the World Health Organization (WHO) are "those drugs that satisfy the health care needs of the majority of the population; they should therefore ...
The Burrows in scabies is in the –: (A) Stratum basale, (B) Stratum granulosum, (C) Stratum corneum, (D) Dennis
Answer is C. Mite burrows into stratum corneum. These burrow is visible clinically as an irregular gray - brown line.
Immediate stiffnes postmoem occurs in :: (A) Cadaveric rigidity, (B) Cadaveric spasm, (C) Rigor mois, (D) Algor mois
Answer is B. B i.e. Cadaveric spasm
One week after an extended hysterectomy, the patient leaks urine per vaginum. In spite of the leakage, she has to pass urine from time to time. The most likely cause is :: (A) Vesico-vaginal fistula, (B) Ureterovaginal fistula, (C) Stress incontinence, (D) Overflow incontinence
Answer is B. Ureterovaginal fistula
Which of the following does not cause Polyuria?: (A) Interstitial nephritis, (B) Hypokalemia, (C) A.D.H insufficiency, (D) Rhabdomyolysis
Answer is D. Rhabdomyolysis leads to myoglobinuria which leads to blockage of tubules and thereby reduction of urine output. Interstitial nephritis is characterized by tubular damage leading to polyuria. Hypokalemic nephropathy in choice B and ADH insufficiency (diabetes insipidus) in choice C leads to Polyuria.
CCA can be palpated at: (A) Thyroid cartilage., (B) 1st tracheal ring., (C) Cricoid cartilage., (D) Arteries can never be palpated.
Answer is A. None
A patient who has suffered severe chest trauma in an automobile accident is found to have fluid in the right pleural space. A thoracentesis reveals the presence of chylous fluid in the pleural space, suggesting a rupture of the thoracic duct. In which regions of the thorax is the thoracic duct found.: (A) Anterior and ...
Answer is D. Posterior and superior mediastinum o Thoracic duct is the main lymphatic channel of the body that drains to the venous system from the body except the: -Right thorax -Right arm -Right head and neck o It begins as a continuation of the cisterna chyli at the level of the T 12 veebras. It passes to the right ...
All of the following are manifestations of congenital syphilis except:-: (A) Gumma, (B) Hutchinson's teeth, (C) Olympian brow, (D) Interstitial keratitis
Answer is A. Gumma- seen in teiary syphilis Late signs of Congenital syphilis Symptom/sign Descriptions Olympian brow Bony prominence of the forehead caused by persistent or recurrent periostitis Higoumenaki's sign Unilateral or bilateral thickening of the sternoclavicular third of the clavicle Saber shins Anterior bow...
What is the position of the leg in fracture neck of femur: September 2007: (A) Internal rotation deformity of less than 45 degree, (B) External rotation deformity of less than 45 degree, (C) Internal rotation deformity of more than 45 degree, (D) External rotation deformity of more than 45 degree
Answer is B. Ans. B: External rotation deformity of less than 45 degree Capsule of the hip joint prevents full external rotation in intra-capsular/ fracture neck of femur. So external rotation will be there but not significant, whereas in case of extra-capsular/inter-trochanteric femoral fractures, leg will be external...
Which one of the following is not a feature of renal aery stenosis?: (A) Hypeension responds well to drugs, (B) Kidneys may be asymmetrical, (C) Atherosclerotic plaques are common, (D) Serum creatinine may increase with ACE inhibitors
Answer is A. In renal aery stenosis - Hypeension is difficult to control with drugs. Patients often respond to Revascularization procedures like percutaneous renala aery angioplasty . There may be decline in GFR during therapy with ACE -inhibitors or ARB'S. Renal aery stenosis can be unilateral or bilateral, so kidneys...
CSF glucose level is: (A) Half the plasma glucose, (B) 2/3 plasma glucose, (C) 1/3 plasma glucose, (D) Same as plasma glucose
Answer is B. Answer is B (2/3 of plasma glucose):
All are true about communicability of Malaria, except-: (A) The number of gametocytes in blood increases with time, (B) Gametocytes appear in blood 4-5 days after the appearance of the asexual parasite, in vivax infection., (C) Gametocytes appear in blood 10-12 days after the appearance of asexual parasite, in falcipar...
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. The number of gametocytes in blood increases with time o A malarial parasite (Plasmodium) has got 2 hosts Man is the intermediate host Mosquito is the definitive host o Plasmodium undergoes 2 cycles of development - The asexual or human cycle The sexual or mosquito cycle o The mosquito cyc...
Xray aifact is: (A) A radiolucent area, (B) Any abnormal opacity in the radiograph, (C) Produced when patient moves while taking the film, (D) All of the above
Answer is D. Aifacts can present in a variety of ways including abnormal shadow noted on a radiograph or degraded image quality and have been produced by aificial means from hardware failure, operator error, and software (post-processing) aifacts. Common CausesImproper handling of the filmsErrors while processing the f...
On the basis of BMI obesity is labeled at: (A) 20, (B) 25, (C) 30, (D) 18
Answer is C. Body mass index (BMI) or Quetelet index:Defined as the body mass divided by the square of the body height, and is expressed in units of kg/m2BMIWeight status< 18.5 Underweight18.5-24.9 Healthy25.0-29.9Overweight>= 30.0Obese30.00-34.99 Obese class I35.00-39.99 Obese class II>= 40 Obese class IIIRef: Harriso...
The following are predisposing factors for Esophageal carcinoma except: (A) Plummer-Vinson syndrome, (B) Tylosis palmaris, (C) Tylosis palmaris, (D) Benzene therapy
Answer is D. Answer is D (Benzene therapy) Benzene therapy has not been mentioned in the best of predisposing factors for carcinoma esophagus, and is the single best answer of exclusion. Predisposing factors for carcinoma esophagus : 1. Alcohol consumptionQ 2. Smoking cigarettes Q 3. Ingested Carcinogens Nitrates Q Smo...
Osteoporosis is seen in :: (A) Thyrotoxicosis, (B) Cushing's disease, (C) Menopause, (D) All of the above
Answer is D. Answer is D (All of the above) : Estrogen deficiency (Hypogonadal state) is known to cause osteoporosis. The most frequent estrogen deficient state is the cessation of ovarian function at the time of menopause. Thyrotoxicosis and Cushing's syndrome are known endocrine causes of osteoporosis.
Thaliomide is used in all except ?: (A) ENL, (B) HIV neuropathy, (C) HIV associated ulcer, (D) Behcet's syndrome
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., HIV neuropathy
Abruptio placentae occurs in all except:: (A) Smokers, (B) Alcoholics, (C) PET, (D) Folic acid deficiency
Answer is B. Abruptio placenta is premature separation of normally situated placentaQ resulting in hemorrhage. Risk factors: Increased maternal age - Increased parity Pre eclampsia - Chronic hypertension Preterm ruptured membranes pregnancy - Sudden uterine decompression as in hydramnios and twin Cigarette smoking - T...
Monogenic transmission of diabetes mellitus occurs in:: (A) Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (IDDM), (B) Non-insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM), (C) Latent Autoimmune Diabetes in Adults (LADA), (D) Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)
Answer is D. d. Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2760-2780, Ghai 8/e p 541-548)MODY refers to forms of diabetes are associated with monogenic defects in pancreatic b-cell function.
Bone Density is best studied by –: (A) CT scan, (B) DEXA scan, (C) MRI scan, (D) Bone scan
Answer is B. DEXA scan is the gold standard test for screening of bone density (to rule out asteoporosis).
Investigation of choice for lumbar prolapsed disc: (A) X-ray, (B) CT Scan, (C) MRI, (D) Myelogram Patt
Answer is C. Investigation of choice for PID at any level is MRI.
An athletic male with itchy lesion at groin as shown below, causative agent can be all EXCEPT:: (A) Trichophyton, (B) Microsporum, (C) Epidermophyton, (D) Aspergillus
Answer is D. Ans. d. AspergillusThe itchy lesion in picture is a typical dermatophyte infection, and its known Jock's itch or Tineacruris. It is also known as Dhobi's itch. Since it is a dermatophyte infection, it cannot be caused by Aspergillus.
True statement about treatment of intussusceptions: (A) Air enema, (B) Saline enema, (C) Ba enema, (D) Hydostatic reduction
Answer is A. In the infant with ileocolic intussusception, after resuscitation with intravenous fluids, broad-spectrum antibiotics and nasogastric drainage, non-operative reduction can be attempted using an air or barium enema (see Chapter 6, Fig. 6.14). Successful reduction can only be accepted if there is free reflux...
In comparison to breast milk, colostrum has higher content of:: (A) Carbohydrates, (B) Fat, (C) Sodium, (D) Potassium
Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. SodiumRef. Dutta Obs 7/e, p 148Colostrum is a deep yellow serous fluid secreted from breasts starting from pregnancy and for 2-3 days after delivery.CompositionIt has higher specific gravity and higher protein, Vitamin A, D, E, K, immunoglobulin, sodium and chloride content than mature brea...
All of the following infections are sexually transmitted, except:: (A) Candida albicans, (B) Echinococcus, (C) Molluscum contagiosum, (D) Group B streptococcus
Answer is B. Candida albicans, molluscum contagiosum virus and group B streptococcus are sexually transmitted diseases. Echinococcus granulosus is spread through feco-oral route. Sexually transmitted pathogens include : Bacteria such as Neisseria Gonorrhea, Chlamydia trachomatis, Mycoplasma hominis, Treponema pallidum,...
Lorenzo oil used in treatment of:: (A) Gaucher disease, (B) Adrenoleukodystrophy, (C) Fabry's disease, (D) Hurler disease
Answer is B. Adrenoleukodystrophy- Bone marrow transplant & Lorenzo oil Enzyme replacement therapy for- Gaucher disease- Human recombinant acid b-glucosidase (Imiglucerase) Velaglucerase alfa Taliglucerase alfa Fabry's disease- Agalsidase beta Hurler disease- Aldurazyme
Surgery of choice for chronic duodenal ulcer is -: (A) Vagotomy + antrectomy, (B) Total gastrectomy, (C) Truncal vagotomy + pyloroplasty, (D) Highly selective vagotomy
Answer is D. Highly selective vagotomy Procedure of choice for chronic or intractable duodenal ulcers Nerves of Latarjet supplying the antrum are preserved (and hence gastric motility) Drainage procedure is not required Lowest Moality rate and side effects. Minimal chances of dumping Syndrome and gastric atony Relative...
Right hepatic duct drain all, Except: (A) Segment I, (B) Segment III, (C) Segment V, (D) Segment VI
Answer is B. Right hepatic duct drains into segment V, VI, VII, VIII and left hepatic duct drains into segment I, II, III, IV, the segment I have an independent supply of poal and hepatic veins. Reference SRB edition :5 page:593
Disclosing solution stains: (A) Food debris, (B) Material alba, (C) Micro organism, (D) Glycoprotein
Answer is D. None
Most common cause of ectopic ACTH production: (A) Renal cell carcinoma, (B) Hepatocellular carcinoma, (C) Small cell carcinoma lung, (D) Pheochromacytoma
Answer is C. None
All of the following are true about pachydermia laryngitis except: (A) Hoarseness of voice, (B) Premalignant condition, (C) Involves posterior pa of larynx, (D) Biopsy shows acanthosis and hyperkeratosis
Answer is B. PACHYDERMIA LARYNGIS It is a form of chronic hyperophic laryngitis affecting posterior pa of larynx in the region of interarytenoid and posterior pa of the vocal cords. Clinically, patient presents with hoarseness or husky voice and irritation in the throat. Indirect laryngoscopy reveals heaping up of red ...
The most common sequelae of tuberculous spondylitis in an adolescent is:: (A) Fibrous ankylosis, (B) Bony-ankylosis, (C) Pathological dislocation, (D) Chronic osteomyelitis
Answer is B. (b)- The usual outcome of healed tuberculosis in spine is the bony ankylosis and in peripheral joints like Hip and Knee Fibrous ankylosis is seen.
Biguanides acts by following except -: (A) |Insulin release from pancreas, (B) | Glycolysis, (C) | Gluconeogenesis, (D) | Insulin binding to its receptors
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., | insulin release from pancreash Biguanides acts by : o Suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis and glucose output from liver major action. o Enhance insulin mediated glucose disposal in muscle and fat (Increased peripheral utilization of glucose) by enhancing GLUT-I transpo from intracellular s...
A patient presented with renal cell carcinoma invading IVC and renal vein. False statement is:: (A) Pre-op biopsy is not necessary, (B) IVC involvement indicates inoperability, (C) Pre-op radiotherapy is not essential, (D) Chest X-ray should be done to rule out pulmonary metastasis
Answer is B. Patients with renal vein or IVC involvement by tumour but without evidence of metastatic disease remain surgical candidates. Occasionally, nephrectomy and removal of IVC tumour thrombus need to be done. Bench surgery and autotransplantation is performed for larger tumours in a solitary kidney. Chest X-ray ...
Preventable cuses of mental retardation are -: (A) Downs, (B) Phenylketonuria, (C) Cretinism, (D) Cerebral palsy
Answer is C. Ans. is `c' i.e., Cretinism Cretinism is due to deficiency of Iodine, which can be preventable.
A population of 100000 is under surveillance during an year. 100 cases were positive for malarial thick smear. What is the annual parasite index -: (A) 1 per 1000, (B) 2 per 1000, (C) 10 per 1000, (D) 20 per 1000
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1 per 1000 * Annual Parasite Incidence = (confirmed cases during one year/population under surveillancee) x 1000* Population under surveillance = 100000* Confirmed cases =100API =100------100,000x 1000 = 1* So, API is 1 per 1000 population.
Diatoms are -: (A) Algae, (B) Parasites, (C) Bacteria, (D) Fungi
Answer is A. Diatoms are unicellular algae.
Hydramnios is complicated by all except: March 2005: (A) Placenta abruptio, (B) Pre-eclampsia, (C) Post dated pregnancy, (D) Atonic Hemorrhage
Answer is C. Ans. C: Post Dated Pregnancy Complications during pregnancy: Pre-eclampsia (25%) Malpresentations Premature rupture of membranes Preterm labour Accidental hemorrhage Complications during labour: Early rupture of membranes Cord prolapsed Uterine ineia Retained placenta, postpaum hemorrhage
Earliest site of bone involvement in hematogenous osteomyelitis is ?: (A) Metaphysis, (B) Epiphysis, (C) Diaphysis, (D) Apophysis
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Metaphysis Pathophysiology of acute osteomyelitis Organism reach the bone through blood stream from a septic focus elsewhere in the body. Metaphysis of long bone is the earliest and most common site involved because : - i) Metaphysis is highly vascular ii) Commonest site is metaphysis. Th...
A gastric biopsy is taken from a 42 year old man. As the pathologist inspects the specimen, he observes numerous, normal cuboidal-to-columnar cells with apical membrane-bound secretion granules in the gastric glands. From which area of the stomach was the biopsy most likely taken?: (A) Cardiac region, (B) Columns of Mo...
Answer is C. The pathologist saw normal chief cells, which are abundant in the body and fundus of the stomach. Chief cells secrete pepsinogen, which is stored in apical membrane- bound granules. The body and fundus of the stomach contain high concentrations of four other types of cells in the epithelium. The parietal (...
All are true about pleomorphic adenoma except:-: (A) Malignant transformation risk is high, (B) Mixed tumor, (C) Benign tumor, (D) Encapsulated
Answer is A. Risk of malignant transformation is low (3-5%) in pleomorphic adenoma. Malignant mixed tumors include cancers originating from pleomorphic adenomas, termed carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma, and de novo malignant mixed tumors. The risk for malignant transformation of benign pleomorphic adenomas is 1.5% with...
Which nerve is near to mandibular third molar (medial aspect) and is likely to be damaged while removing 3rd molar?: (A) Inferior alveolar nerve, (B) Buccal nerve, (C) Massetric nerve, (D) Lingual nerve
Answer is D. None
Laryngeal mask is contraindicated in all except-: (A) Oral tumor, (B) Ocular surgeries, (C) Massive maxillofac ial injury, (D) High risk of aspiration
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ocular surgeries Indications of LMA1. As an alternative to intubation wrhere difficult intubation is anticipated (difficult airway).2 To facilitate endo-tracheal intubation in a patient with difficult airw ays.Situations involving a difficult mask fit.Securing airw ay (as cardiopulmonary ...
All of the following muscles are supplied by accessory nerve except: (A) Palatopharyngeus, (B) Stylopharyngeus, (C) Palatoglossus, (D) Musculus uvulae
Answer is B. None
A 40 year old woman has severe, disabling rheumatoid ahritis. Rheumatoid factor is positive. What would a biopsy of the synovium of her knee most likely reveal?: (A) A nearly normal synovium with scattered inflammatory cells, (B) A non-proliferative synovitis with abscess formation, (C) A non-proliferative synovitis wi...
Answer is D. Severe rheumatoid ahritis causes a proliferative synovitis with extensive damage to the synovium of the joint. The synol membrane becomes markedly thickened (pannus formation), with edematous villous projections that extend into the joint space. The intense inflammatory infiltrate that is present is typica...
Wernicke's aphasia is seen due to lesion in?: (A) Precentral gyrus, (B) Inferior frontal gyrus, (C) Superior temporal gyrus, (D) Inferior temporal gyrus
Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) Superior temporal gyrusREF: Gray's anatomy 39th edition, page 415See previous question
Most common disease caused by CMV in a postrenal transplant patients:: (A) Pyelonephritis, (B) Meningitis, (C) Pneumonia, (D) GI ulceration
Answer is C. Ans. (c) PneumoniaRef: Bailey 26th edition, Page 1416* Most common viral infection following kidney transplant is CMV- which presents with Interstitial pneumonia
The best test to detect iron deficiency anaemia in a community with Iwo prevalence of iron deficiency is -: (A) PCV, (B) Serum iron, (C) Serum ferritin, (D) Iron binding capacity
Answer is C. None
Scrum pox is seen among ………………… players -: (A) Football, (B) Hockey, (C) Rugby, (D) Chess
Answer is C. None
In myocardial infarction the infarct acquires hyperemic rim with an yellow centre at: (A) 3-7 days, (B) 10-20 days, (C) 7-14 days, (D) 1-2 hours
Answer is A. 3 – 7 days Findings Gross examination at border Softening yellow-tan center Histopathology (light microscopy) Beginning of disintegration of dead muscle fibers Necrosis of neutrophils Beginning of macrophageremoval of dead cells at border
The predominant immunoglobulin in sulcular fluid is:: (A) Ig A, (B) Ig G, (C) Ig M, (D) Ig E
Answer is B. None
Middle lobe of prostrate is present in between:: (A) Prostratic urethra & Ejaculation duct, (B) Prostratic urethra & rectum, (C) Ejaculation duct & pubis, (D) Pubis and rectum
Answer is A. A i.e. Prostratic urethra & Ejaculation duct Board Review series AnatomyMedian lobe which lies between urethra and the ejaculatory duct is prone to benign hyperophy. QPosterior lobe, which lies behind the urethra and below the ejaculatory duct contains glandular tissue and is prone to carcinomatous transfo...
Iritis roseata is seen in:: (A) Leprosy, (B) Syphilis, (C) Tuberculosis, (D) Sarcoidosis
Answer is B. Ans. Syphilis
Most common cause of intracranial haemorrhage is -: (A) Sub arachnoid haemorrhage, (B) Intracerebral haemorrhage, (C) Subdural haemorrhage, (D) Extradural haemorrhage
Answer is B. None
Which of the following is NOT a component of Saint's triad?: (A) Esophageal diveicula, (B) Hiatus hernia, (C) Gall stones, (D) Colonic diveicula
Answer is A. Saint's triad is a medical condition of the concurrence of hiatus hernia,gallstones& diveiculosis of colon. Reference:SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page no:641.
After overnight fasting, levels of glucose transporters reduced in:: (A) Brain cells, (B) RBCs, (C) Adipocyte, (D) Hepatocyte
Answer is C. Ans. C. Adipocytes(Ref: Harper 29/e page 158, Harper 30/e page 192)GLUT-4 and InsulinGlucose uptake into muscle and adipose tissue is controlled by insulin, which is secreted by the islet cells of the pancreas in response to an increased concentration of glucose in the portal blood.In the fasting state, th...
Which of the following is the most severe form of Diptheria: (A) Nasal, (B) Cutaneous, (C) Nasopharynx, (D) Laryngopharynx
Answer is D. Ref: Harrisons, 19th ed. pg. 978* Diptheria is a nasopharyngeal and skin infection caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Toxigenic strains of C. diphtheria produce a protein toxin that causes systemic toxicity, myocarditis, and polyneuropathy.* The toxigenic strains cause pharyngeal diphtheria, while the ...
A 5-year-old child presents with a history of fever off–and–on for past 2 weeks and petechial spots all over the body and increasing pallor for past 1 month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 ems below the costal margin. The most likely diagnosis is –: (A) Acute leukemia, (B) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, (C...
Answer is A. Pallor (anemia), petechial spot (thrombocytopenia), fever (infection due to neutropenia) with splenomegaly suggest the diagnosis of acute leukemia. Further, the presence of splenomegaly eliminates aplastic anaemia and ITP as the possibilities "Splenomegaly and lymphadenopathy are extremely uncommon in ITP...
A 23-year-old male patient presented with a history of back pain, which is more in the morning and relieved by bathing in warm water. What is the likely additional finding present in this patient?: (A) Marrow fibrosis, (B) Distal phalangeal joint involvement, (C) Pleural nodules, (D) Decreased chest wall expansion
Answer is D. Ans. d. Decreased chest wall expansion (Ref: Harrison 19/e p2170, 18/e p2775)History of back pain, which is more in the morning and relieved by bathing in warm water is characteristic of spondylo arthropathy, like ankylosing spondylitis. Ankylosing spondylitis leads to extra-parenchymal restrictive lung di...
Drug given for antibiotic associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis and is part of anti H. Pylori treatment:: (A) Amoxicillin, (B) Vancomycin, (C) Metronidazole, (D) Clotrimazole
Answer is C. Ans. C. MetronidazoleTriple drug regimen given for H. Pylori include- clarithromycin, amoxicillin, tetracycline, metronidazole. Out of all these drugs metronidazole is drug of choice for pseudomembranous colitis.
True about pseudocyst of pancreas -: (A) Is a true cyst, (B) Common with penetrating trauma abdomen, (C) Treated with cystogastrostomy if size > 2 cm, (D) Can present from mediastinum to pubis
Answer is D. Answer is 'd' i.e. can present from mediastinum of pubis
Postponing paying attention of conscious impulse or conflict is mature defence mechanism known as: (A) Sublimation, (B) Suppression, (C) Humor, (D) Anticipation
Answer is B. Sublimation: Gratification of an impulse whose goal is retained but whose aim or object is changed from a socially objectionable one to a socially valued one. Suppression: Conscious or semiconscious decision to postpone attention to a conscious impulse or conflict. Humour:ove expression of feelings without...
Saccular diverticulum of extrahepatic bile duct in choledochal cyst is classified as -: (A) Type I, (B) Type II, (C) Type III, (D) Type IV
Answer is B. None
Embryologically hard palate develop from:: (A) Maxillary process, (B) Lateral palatine process, (C) Frontonasal process, (D) All of the above
Answer is D. None
Bone marrow biopsy is useful in the diagnosis of -: (A) CML, (B) ALL, (C) Aleukemic leukemia, (D) Hodgkins disease
Answer is C. None
Laminin is present in:(1998): (A) Lens, (B) Basement membrane, (C) Liver, (D) Lungs
Answer is B. Ans: b (Basement membrane)Ref: Robbin's, 7th ed, p. 105 & 6thed, p. 100
Which radiological procedure is used for studying vesico-ureteric reflux?: (A) Ascending pyelogram, (B) Cystogram, (C) Intravenous urogram, (D) Micturition cystourethrogram
Answer is D. The diagnosis of vesico ureteric reflux is made using micturition cystourethrogram. Other techniques used in diagnosing vesico ureteric reflux are simple or delayed cystography or voiding cinefluoroscopy. In a case of vesico ureteral reflux, cystogram may show one of the following findings: Persistently di...
A 43-year-old man with chronic hepatitis and liver cirrhosis is admitted with upper GI bleeding. He has marked ascites and shows multiple telangiectasias, liver palmar erythema, and clubbing. A diagnosis of bleeding esophageal varices secondary to portal hypertension is made. Portal pressure is considered elevated when...
Answer is C. Portal hypertension is suspected clinically if esophageal varices are detected, hypersplenism occurs, or ascites develop. Normal portal venous pressure is 5-10 mm Hg. Pressure may be measured indirectly by using hepatic venous wedge pressure (occlusive hepatic wedge pressure). About two-thirds of patients ...
In a patient with AIDS, chorioretinitis is typically caused by –: (A) Cytomegalovirus, (B) Toxoplasma gondii, (C) Cryptococcus neoformans, (D) Histoplasma capsulatum
Answer is A. The most common cause of chorioretinitis in AIDS is CMV.
All are true about persistent caliber aery except?: (A) Thermal coagulation, (B) Angiographic embolization, (C) Bleeds pin point mucosal erosion, (D) Deep enteroscopy
Answer is D. Persistent caliber aery is called Dieulafoy's lesion. It is a large calibre aeriole that runs beneath the gut mucosa and bleeds pinpoint mucosal erosion. For management of bleeding in Dieulafoy's lesion, endoscopic therapy like thermal coagulation or band ligation is effective. In case of failure to contro...
Dermal Nitrate test is done for the detection of-: (A) Gunpowder residue, (B) Seminal stains, (C) Blood stains, (D) Saliva
Answer is A. None
Dark ground microscopy is used to see?: (A) Refractile organisms, (B) Flagella, (C) Capsule, (D) Fimbriae
Answer is B. Darkfield / Dark ground microscope in which reflected light is used instead of transmitted light used in the ordinary microscope. Flagella are less than 0.02 um in thickness and hence beyond the limit of resolution of the light microscopes. They may in some instances be seen under dark field / Dark ground ...
Infant with hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia. hyperlipidemia and acidosis , diagnosis?: (A) Von Gierke's, (B) Cori's disaese, (C) Pompe's disease, (D) All of the above
Answer is A. In type 1 Glycogen storage disorder the usual clinical features are : hepatomegaly failure to thrive hypoglycemia, becomes worse after overnight fasting, an inability of the liver to release glucose into the blood. ketosis acidosis hyperlipidemia, since free fatty acids are mobilised excessively to provide...
Hairy cell leukemia&; is a Neoplastic proliferation of :: (A) T. cells, (B) B. cells, (C) Myeloid cells, (D) Macrophages
Answer is B. Hairy cell leukemia review : Presentation is with a triad of : Splenomegaly :often massive. However hepatomegaly is less common while lymphadenopathy is rare. Pancytopenia and thereby, resulting infections. Vasculitis like syndrome :Erythema nodosum and cutaneous nodules due to perivasculitis and PAN. Cour...
Bioavailability is:: (A) Amount of drug that reach the systemic circulation, (B) Drug metabolized in liver before the drug reaches the systemic circulation, (C) Drug metabolized in liver after the drug reaches the systemic circulation, (D) Maximum by rectal route
Answer is A. None
Beaded margin of eyelid is seen in?: (A) Erythema granuloma annulare, (B) Leprosy, (C) Granuloma annulare, (D) Lipoid proteinosis
Answer is D. Lipoid proteinosis REF: org/121/ case pre sentations/lipoid2/robati.html, http: //en .wikipedia. org/wiki/Urba chdeg70E2%80%93Wiethe_diseas e "Urbach--Wiethe disease (also known as lipoid proteinosis and hyalinosis cutis et mucosae) is a rare autosomal-recessive disorderwith fewer than 300 repoed cases sin...
A 40-year-old man presents with 5 days of productive cough and fever. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is isolated from a pulmonary abscess. The CBC shows an acute effect characterized by marked leukocytosis (50,000 WBC/mL), and the differential count reveals numerous immature cells (band forms). Which of the following terms bes...
Answer is A. Leukemoid reaction. Circulating levels of leukocytes and their precursors may occasionally reach very high levels (>50,000WBC/mL). Such a situation, referred to as a leukemoid reaction, is sometimes difficult to differentiate from leukemia. In contrast to bacterial infections, viral infections (including i...