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Hydrogen peroxide is conveed to water and oxygen by enzyme?: (A) Superoxide dismutase, (B) Catalase, (C) Glutathione peroxidase, (D) Myeloperoxidase
Answer is B. Catalase, present in peroxisomes, catalyzes the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide (2H2O2 - O2 + 2H2O). Glutathione (GSH) peroxidases are a family of enzymes whose major function is to protect cells from oxidative damage 2 GSH (glutathione) + H2O2 - GS-SG + 2 H2O. myeloperoxidase conves H2O2 to a highly re...
Hypercalciuria is seen in:: (A) Hyperparathyroidism, (B) Vit. D intoxication, (C) Sarcoidosis, (D) All
Answer is D. Answer is D (All of the above): Hypercakiuria may be associated with Vitamin D intoxication (hypervitaminosis D), Sarcoidosis and hyperparathyroidism. Causes of Hypercalciuria-associated Nephrolithiasis in Children and Adults Idiopathic hypercalciuria Increased intestinal calcium absorption - Granulomatous...
Schneider's Ist rank symptoms seen in:: (A) Delusion, (B) Hallusination, (C) Schizoid personality, (D) Schizophrenia
Answer is D. D i.e. Schizophrenia
Killian's dehiscence is seen in -: (A) Oropharynx, (B) Nasopharynx, (C) Cricopharynx, (D) Vocal cords
Answer is C. Between these two parts of inferior constrictor exists a potential gap called Killian's dehiscence. It is also called the gateway to tear as perforation can occur at this site during esophagoscopy. It is also the site for herniation of pharyngeal mucosa in case of the pharyngeal pouch.
Hypsarrythmia in a child is due to-: (A) Grandmal epilepsy, (B) Petitmal epilepsy, (C) Myoclonic epilepsy, (D) Reflex epilepsy
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Myoclonic epilepsy Myoclonic epilepsy may be ? i) Infantile spasm or Infantile myoclonus or west syndrome ii) Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy Infantile spasm (Infantile myoclonus or west syndrome) o The onset is usually between 3-8 months of life o It is characterized by triad of ? i) Salaam ...
All of the following are adverse effects of thalidomide except :: (A) Myocarditis, (B) Constipation, (C) Peripheral neuropathy, (D) Sedation
Answer is A. Thalidomide was banned because of teratogenic effects (phocomelia). Now it has come again in the market for use as an anticancer drug in multiple myeloma and melanoma. Lenalidomide is its more potent and non-teratogenic derivative. Thalidomide most commonly causes sedation and constipation in cancer patien...
Neurotoxin is which snake -: (A) Viper, (B) Krait, (C) Sea snake, (D) None
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Krait Type of poisoningSnakeVasculotoxicVipersMyotoxicSea snakesNeurotoxicElapids- cobra, Krait, coral
Single gene defect causing multiple unrelated problems is called?: (A) Pleiotropism, (B) Pseudodominance, (C) Penetrance, (D) Anticipation
Answer is A. Pleotropism refers to single gene defect causing multiple traits. Penetrance- extent to which a paicular gene or set of genes is expressed in the phenotypes of individuals carrying it Pseudodominance- sudden appearance of a recessive phenotype in a pedigree, due to deletion of a masking dominant gene Antic...
Urinary bacterial count of 105 is insignificant, in the absence of symptoms, in all of the following conditions except -: (A) Pregnancy, (B) Healthy ambulatory male, (C) In a setting of antibiotics treatment, (D) Mid stream clean catch sample.
Answer is A. Significant growth of a Uropathogen in the absence of symptoms is termed Asymptomatic bacteriuria. Urinary bacterial count of 105 is significant in Pregnancy. Pathogens associated with UTI most commonly in pregnancy are most commonly E coli, along with Klebsiella, proteus, enterobacter, staphylococcus sapr...
Elastomers are: (A) Alginate, (B) Agar, (C) Polyethers, (D) Impression compound
Answer is C. According to Chemistry Chemically, there are four kinds of elastomers: Polysulfide Condensation polymerizing silicones Addition polymerizing silicones Polyether
Cotton fever is due to the abuse of:: (A) Amphetamine, (B) Heroin, (C) Phencylidine, (D) Cocaine
Answer is B. COTTON FEVER : Fever developing due to injection of a water extract of the cotton remaining after the heroin supply is used in a "bag"
What causes both destruction of bone and reduction of joint space?: (A) Tuberculosis, (B) Metastasis, (C) Multiple myeloma, (D) Lymphoma
Answer is A. (a)TB in spine involves- 2 Vertebra (Bone) + Disk (Cartilage)- Paradiscal- Anterior (to spinal cord)Note: Involvement of posterior elements and single vertebra is relatively rare in TB.
The commonest malignant tumour of the lids is: (A) Basal-cell carcinoma, (B) Squamous cell carcinoma, (C) Adenocarcinoma, (D) Melanocarcinoma
Answer is A. MALIGNANT TUMOURS Basal-cell carcinoma It is the commonest malignant tumour of the lids (90%) usually seen in elderly people. It is locally malignant and involves most commonly lower lid (50%) followed by medial canthus (25%), upper lid (10-15%) and outer canthus (5-10%). Clinical features: It may present ...
How much fraction of methyl mercury is absorbed from the Gut:: (A) 20%, (B) 50%, (C) 80%, (D) 100%
Answer is D. None
Point B in the treatment of carcinoma cervix receives the following dose of:: (A) 7000 cGy, (B) 6000 cGy, (C) 5000 cGy, (D) 10,000 cGy
Answer is B. Two important points in the radiotherapy of cancer cervix are
A 40-year old alcoholic develops cough and fever. Chest X-ray show an air-fluid level in the superior segment of the right lower lobe. The most likely etiologic agent is:: (A) Strept. pneumoniae, (B) H influenzae, (C) Legionella, (D) Anaerobes
Answer is D. Ans. D. AnaerobesOf the organisms listed, only anaerobic infection is likely to cause a necrotizing process Type III pneumococci have been reported to cause cavitary disease, but this is unusual. The location of the infiltrate suggests aspiration, also making anaerobic infection most likely. The superior s...
Myoclonus in children is best treated by :: (A) Clonazepam, (B) Sodium Valproate, (C) Phenobarbitone, (D) Ethosuximide
Answer is B. None
The antidote of poisoning due to Arninanita muscaria is: (A) Physostigmine, (B) Amyl nitrate, (C) Methylene blue, (D) Atropine
Answer is D. D i.e. Atropine Amanita muscaria & Amanita phalloides are poisonous mushrooms with parasympathetic (Cholinergic) symptoms. So AtropineQ is used as antidote in severe cases; but avoided in mild case as it excerhates delirium.
Baonella quintana causes:: (A) Trench fever, (B) Scrub typhus, (C) Endemic typhus, (D) Epidemic typhus
Answer is A. Ans. is. 'a' i. e., Trench fever
The main poion of the ovarian aery, vein, and nerves are carried to and from the ovary by way of the:: (A) Suspensory ligament, (B) Ovarian ligament, (C) Broad ligament, (D) Mesovarium
Answer is A. The suspensory ligament attaches the ovary to the pelvic wall and carries within its folds the main poion of the ovarian vessels and nerves. The ovarian ligament attaches the inferior pole of the ovary to the uterus. The broad ligament is a double-fold of parietal peritoneum, which hangs over the uterus (m...
Barr body is absent in -: (A) Kleinfelter, (B) Turner, (C) Super female, (D) None of the above
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i. e., Turner Barr body (Sex- chromatin)o It is a densely staining inactivated condensed 'X' chromosome that is present in each somatic cells of female,o It is found in the nucleus.o It is used as a test of genetic femaleness - it is possible to determine the genetic sex of an individual accord...
Which of the following is most likely to produce a junctional scotoma: (A) Meningioma, (B) Craniopharyngioma, (C) Pituitary gland enlargement, (D) All the above
Answer is A. Junctional scotoma is due to lesion at junction of Optic nerve and chiasma. Which is m/c due to meningioma.
Perversion with pain to self: TN 09; Maharashtra 11: (A) Transvestism, (B) Fetishism, (C) Sadism, (D) Masochism
Answer is D. Ans. Masochism
Which of the following H1 blocker has high anticholinergic activity :: (A) Cetirizine, (B) Chlorpheniramine, (C) Fexofenadine, (D) Astemizole
Answer is B. None
In acute inflammation endothelial retraction leads to: (A) Delayed transient increase in permeability, (B) Immediate transient increase in permeability, (C) Delayed prolonged increase in permeability, (D) Immediate transient decrease in permeability
Answer is C. ref Robbins 8/e p45,9/ep74 Several mechanisms may contribute to increased vascu- lar permeability in acute inflammatory reactions: * Endothelial cell contraction leading to intercellular gaps in postcapillary venules is the most common cause of increased vascular permeability. Endothelial cell con- tractio...
Aery of anatomical snuffbox?: (A) Radial, (B) Ulnar, (C) Brachial, (D) None
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., RadialAnatomical Snuffbox Triangular depression on the dorsal and radial aspect of the hand become visible when thumb is fully extended. BoundariesMedial/Posterior--Tendon of the extensor pollicis longus.Lateral/Anterior--Tendon of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus...
Cysticercosis cellulosae causes infection with: (A) Taenia saginata, (B) Echinococcus granulosus, (C) Taenia solium, (D) Diphyllobothrium latum
Answer is C. None
Which of the following can be given orally?: (A) Cytosine arabinoside, (B) Cisplatin, (C) Doxorubicin, (D) Mesna
Answer is D. MESNA ,is a drug used to reduce the undesired side effects of ceain chemotherapy drugs. It is referred to as a "chemoprotectant." and prophylactic agent used to reduce the incidence of ifosfamide-induced hemorrhagic cystitis. How this drug is given: As an injection or infusion through the vein (intravenous...
This cream is appropriate for all of the following procedures Except: (A) Venipuncture, (B) Laceration repair, (C) Lumbar puncture, (D) Myringotomy
Answer is B. EMLA (eutectic mixture of local anesthetics) is a eutectic mixture of 5 percent lidocaine and prilocaine that is used to produce anesthesia over intact skin. Its primary use is to produce anesthesia before venipuncture and lumbar puncture. In other settings, this cream has been used for anesthesia of split...
Not a fungal infection is:: (A) Mycoses fungoides, (B) Tinea nigra Palmaris, (C) White Piedra, (D) Black Piedra
Answer is A. Ans: A (Mycoses fungoides) Ref: Rook's Dermatology, 8th ed.Explanation:Mycosis Fungoides/Sezary SyndromeMycosis fungoides and Sezary syndrome are different manifestations of a tumor of CD4+ helper T cellsClinically, the cutaneous lesions of mycosis fungoides typically progress through three somewhat distin...
Antisocial personality is seen with :: (A) Drug abuse, (B) Paranoid schizophrenia, (C) OCN, (D) None
Answer is A. A i.e. Drug abuse
All are viral causes of PUO except:: (A) EBV, (B) CMV, (C) HIV, (D) Leptospirosis
Answer is D. Ans: d (Leptospirosis) Ref: Harrison, 16 ed, p. 116, 17th ed, p. 132A quite straight forward question. The answer is leptospirosis because it is not a viral cause of PUOPUO: (Pyrexia of unknown origin)Definition:Temperature >38.3(IC on several occasionsOrA duration of fever of >3 weeksOrFailure to reach a ...
In disaster management following are practiced except: (A) Triage, (B) Rehabilitation, (C) Mass vaccination, (D) Disaster response
Answer is C. Disaster Management includes three aspects: 1. Disaster impact and response: Search, rescue, and first-aid * Field care * Triage * Tagging * Identification of the dead 2. Rehabilitation or recovery: * Water supply * Basic sanitation and personal hygiene * Food safety * Vector control 3. Mitigation: Measure...
A patient having cystic medial necrosis with necrotising aeritis is suffering from?: (A) Kawasaki disease, (B) Temporal aeritis, (C) Malignant hypeension, (D) Aooaeritis
Answer is D. Cystic medial degeneration . Smooth muscle loss . Fibrosis . Inadequate ECM synthesis . Accumulation of increasing amounts of amorphous proteoglycans Robbins 9 th edition page no. 345
A 27 year old female having a family history of autoimmune disease presents with the complaints of a skin rash and recurrent joint pains 3 months after delivering a baby. She is most likely to have which of the following disorders?: (A) Megakaryocytic thrombocytopenia, (B) Amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia, (C) Function...
Answer is D. Acquired factor VIII deficiency Muscle and soft tissue bleeds are common. Bleeding into a joint results in severe pain and swelling, as well as loss of function, but is rarely associated with discoloration from bruising around the joint. Life-threatening sites of bleeding include bleeding into the orophary...
Commonest cause of cataract: (A) Hereditary, (B) DM, (C) Trauma, (D) Age related
Answer is D. D i.e. Age related Radiation cataract is caused by exposure to almost all types of radiation energy such as infrared or heat (in glass-blowers or glass-workers, and iron-workers), irradiation caused by X-rays, gamma-rays or neutrons (in workers in atomic energy plant, survivors of atomic bomb and in patien...
All are metabolic causes of liver disease except: (A) Histiocytosis, (B) Hemochromatosis, (C) Gaucher's disease, (D) Wilson disease
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., HistiocytosisMetabolic liver diseases can be classified into 3 categories:Manifestations due to hepatocellular necrosis: Galactosemia, hereditary fructose intolerance, tyrosinemia type I, Wilson disease, Hemochromatosis and al -antitrypsin deficiency.Cholestatic jaundice :Al -antitrypsin ...
Not be cultured in Sabouraund's agar -: (A) Blastomyces, (B) Coccidiodes, (C) Sporotrichum, (D) Rhinosporidium seeberi
Answer is D. None
The most common type of intussusception?: (A) Ileocolic, (B) Colocolic, (C) Ileoileal, (D) Retrograde
Answer is A. Ans. a (Ileocolic) (Ref. Bailey and Love 26th/pg. 114).ACUTE INTUSSUSCEPTION# Telescoping/invagination of one portion of the gut within an immediately adjacent segment; invariably it is the proximal into distal bowel. An intussusception is composed of three parts: the entering or inner tube; the returning ...
Holdswoh classification of thoracolumbar spine fracture is based on how many columns of spine?: (A) Two, (B) Three, (C) Five, (D) Four
Answer is A. Answer- A. TwoHoldswoh,s proposed two column concept of thoracolumbar spine fractureAntetior column : Consists veebral body, annulus fibrous, Anterior and posterior longitudinal ligamentsposterior column: Consists of veebral arch (pedicle, facets, laminae) and posterior ligaments (ligamentum flavum,intersp...
Chvostek’s sign is elicited by: (A) BP cuff in arm for 5 minutes, (B) Facial nerve stimulation by tapping over the parotid, (C) Tapping over extensor pollicis brevis, (D) Tapping over flexor retinaculum
Answer is B. The Clinical manifestations of hypocalcemia are mostly due to neuromuscular irritability.  The patients complains of paresthesias which are typically perioral or of the hands and feets  Tetany is the classic manifestation of hypocalcemia, the manifestations are :  Corpopedal Spasm o Laryngospasm o Seizures...
All of the following may be used to differentiate Central Retinal Venous Occlusion (CRVO) from ocular Ischemic syndrome due to carotid artery stenosis, Except –: (A) Dilated retinal vein, (B) Tortuous retinal vein, (C) Retinal artery pressure, (D) Opthalmodynamometry
Answer is A. Dilated retinal vein is seen both in CRVO and ocular ischemic syndrome; therefore, this feature cannot differentiate these two. However, in CRVO vein is tortuous while in ocular ischemic syndrome it is non-tortuous. Retinal artery perfusion pressure is decreased in ocular ischemic syndrome and is normal in...
The commonest clinical pattern of basal cell carcinoma is -: (A) Nodular, (B) Morpheaform, (C) Superficial, (D) Keratotic
Answer is A. • Locally invasive carcinoma, arises from the basal layer of the epidermis • MC type of skin cancer • 90% of BCC are seen in the face, above a line from the corner of mouth to lobule of ear. • MC site: Nose >Inner canthus of the eye, also known as Tear cancer. Types of BCC • Nodular: MC type of BCC, charac...
The origin of ovaries from: (A) Genital ridge, (B) Genital tubercle, (C) Wolffian duct, (D) Miillerian duct
Answer is A. None
Hyperprolactinemia is a side effect of: (A) Bromocriptine, (B) Levodopa, (C) Amantadine, (D) Metoclopramide
Answer is D. None
Rose-waaler test is: (A) Precipitation test, (B) Passive agglutination test, (C) Neutralisation test, (D) Complement fixation test
Answer is B. It is rapid slide haemagglutination test for detection of rheumatoid factor.
Medical treatment of ectopic pregnancy is :: (A) Methotrexate, (B) Progesterone, (C) Oestrogen, (D) Adriamycin
Answer is A. Methotrexate
A class C diabetic patient delivers at term, it is impoant to check her blood sugar levels immediately postpaum, since there may be a decrease in the insulin requirements of diabetic patients. This can be paly explained by :: (A) Increased food intake, (B) Decreased activity, (C) Decrease in plasma chorionic somatomamm...
Answer is C. Decrease in plasma chorionic somatomammotropin
True about third hea sound is-: (A) Present in constrictive pericariditis, (B) Absent in aoic aneurysm, (C) Absent in MS, (D) Present in cardiac yamponade
Answer is C. The third hea sound (S 3 ) occurs during the rapid filling phaseof ventricular diastole. It can be a normal finding in children,adolescents, and young adults; however, in older patients it signifieshea failure. A left-sided S 3 is a low-pitched sound best heard overthe left ventricular (LV) apex. A right-s...
Large way vegetation are characteristic of?: (A) SLE, (B) SABE, (C) Both, (D) None
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., SABE
Not a content of sphenopalatine fossa: (A) Maxillary Artery, (B) Maxillary nerve, (C) Mandibular nerve, (D) Pterygopalatina ganglion
Answer is C. None
Anomalies of oral cavity most commonly found in which stage: (A) Embryonic, (B) Period Of Fertilization, (C) Period Of Fetus, (D) None
Answer is A. None
Drug of choice for treatment of intermediate uveitis is: (A) Cycloplegics, (B) Analgesics, (C) Steroids, (D) Antibiotics
Answer is C. Treatment for Intermediate uveitis : Intravitreal or Posterior Subtenon's Steroid injections : Triamcinolone acetonide Steroids may also be given by subconjuntival route or by Subtenon's route
Primary bile acid is?: (A) Deoxycholic acid, (B) Lithocholic acid, (C) Chenodeoxycholic acid, (D) None
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chenodeoxycholic acid Primary bile acids are cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid, which are synthesized from cholesterol in liver. In the intestine some of the primary bile acids are conveed into secondary bile acids, i.e., deoxycholic acid (formed from cholic acid) and lithocholic acid...
Which β1 selective blocker is used in glaucoma:: (A) Levobunolol, (B) Timolol, (C) Betaxolol, (D) Carteolol
Answer is C. None
What diagnosis is suggested by these spirography findings?: (A) Intrathoracic localized obstruction, (B) Fixed inspiratory obstruction, (C) Pneumothorax, (D) Restrictive lung disease
Answer is A. Answer A. Intrathoracic localized obstructionAn intrathoracic localized obstruction is demonstrated on spirography. The patient underwent flexible fiberoptic bronchoscopy, which revealed nearly complete (greater than 90%) occlusion of the distal trachea by a vascular mass. The patient recovered after endos...
Which is a yeast like fungi: September 2007: (A) Cryptococcus, (B) Candida, (C) Blastomyces, (D) Histoplasma
Answer is B. Ans. B: Candida Yeast like fungi grow paly as yeast and paly as elongated cells resembling hyphae.The latter form a pseudomycelium. Candida albicans is a pathogenic yeast-like fungus.
Which one of the following variants of renal cell carcinoma has the worst prognosis -: (A) Papillary, (B) Tubuloalveolar, (C) Chromophobe, (D) Sarcomatoid
Answer is D. None
Observation of yeast cells with multiple budding in tissue in the form of a “the shape shown in below pictomyograph ” is highly suggestive of: (A) Blastomycosis, (B) Cccidiodomycosis, (C) Paracoccidiodomycosis, (D) Histoplasmosis
Answer is C. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis causes paracoccidioido­mycosis. It is a dimorphic fungus that exists as a mold in soil and as a yeast in tissue. The yeast is thick­walled with multiple buds ("ship's wheel" appearance), in contrast to Blastomyces dermatitides, which has a yeast with a single bud that has a br...
Which of the following is the most significant component of a behavioral program developed to help a mother deal with a child having oppositional defiant disorder?: (A) Positive reinforcement, (B) Punishment, (C) School suspension, (D) Strict parenting
Answer is A. Positive reinforcement of promoting desirable behaviours through rewards is the most significant component of the program used to deal with ODD.
Most common cause of leukocoria in newborn is: (A) Congenital cataract, (B) Toxocara infection, (C) Retinoblastoma, (D) CMV infection
Answer is A. .
Which of the following is the site of bladder injury in abdominal hysterectomy is :: (A) Anterior wall, (B) Posterior wall, (C) Medial wall, (D) Lateral wall
Answer is B. Posterior wall
Paul -Bunnell test is positive in:: (A) Infectious mononucleosis, (B) Multiple myeloma, (C) Malignant nerves, (D) Rubella
Answer is A. None
A 10 year old child with aggressive, self mutilating behavior and poor concentration is brought with presenting complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output. Child's presentation is most likely due to the deficiency of which enzyme?: (A) HGPase, (B) Adenosine Deaminase, (C) APase, (D) Acid Maltase
Answer is A. The child in the question stem is showing features of Lesch nyhan syndrome caused by deficiency of HGPase. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase is an enzyme responsible for the formation of hypoxanthine to inosoic acid and guanine to guanylic acid. This enzyme deficiency can present in a complet...
A 56 year old man has been having bloody bowel movements on and off for the past several weeks. He repos that the blood is bright red, it coats the outside of the stools, and he can see it in the toilet bowl even before he wipes himself. When he does so, there is also blood on the toilet paper. After fuher questioning,...
Answer is C. The combination of red blood coating the stools and a change in bowel habit and stool caliber spells out cancer of the rectum in someone in this age group. Anal fissure is typically seen in young women who have very painful bowel movements with streaks of blood. Pain is the dominant symptom in this conditi...
What is the best procedure to control external hemorrhage in an event of accidental injury?: (A) Elevation, (B) Direct pressure, (C) Proximal tourniquet, (D) Aery forceps
Answer is B. Direct firm pressure applied over the bleeding area or the involved aery at a site that is proximal to the wound is the best way to control external hemorrhage. A firm pressure dressing is applied and the injured pa is elevated to stop venous and capillary bleeding if possible. If the injured area is an ex...
5day baby full term breast fed with bilirubin 14mg Idl weight is 2700g what should be done next ?: (A) Normal newborn care, (B) Phototherapy, (C) Exchange transfusion, (D) stop breastfeeding
Answer is A. Age Min TSB to sta phototherapy 24hrs > 10mg 1dL 48hrs >13mg 1dL 72hrs >15mg1dL 96hrs and beyond >18mg1dL Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
The paradoxical response of GH release to TRH is seen in -: (A) Prolactinoma, (B) Acromegaly, (C) Malnutrition, (D) Pitutary adenoma
Answer is B. TRH stimulates the secretion of prolactin as well as TSH, Normally it does not affect growth hormone secretion but in acromegaly TRH induced growth hormonal stimulation Occurs. Note: "In prolactinomas paradoxical response of TRH to prolactin occurs". In normal individuals, TRH stimulates prolactin releas...
How many mm from the limbus is the safest site of intravitreal injection?: (A) 1-2 mm, (B) 2-3 mm, (C) 3-4 mm, (D) 4-5 mm
Answer is C. (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 171)Intravitreal injection (distance from Limbus)For aphakics-3mmFor pseudophakes-3.5mmFor phakics-4mm
Which one of the following cofactors must be utilized during the conversion of acetyl-CoA to malonyel-CoA?: (A) Thiamine pyrophosphate, (B) Acyl carrier protein (ACP), (C) Biotin, (D) FAD
Answer is D. FAD The key enzymatic step of fatty acid syn thesis is the carboxylation of acetyl-CoA to form malonyl-CoA. The carboxyl of biotin is covalently attached to an E-amino acid group of a lysine residue of acetyl-CoA carboxylase. The reaction occurs in two stages. In the first step, a carboxybiotin is formed: ...
Which of the following is not consider to be a slow viruse diseases -: (A) Kuru, (B) Scrapie, (C) Creutzfeldt Jakob disease, (D) Sarcoidosis
Answer is D. kuru,scrapie,&CJD Are caused by slow virus REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.557
Sleepwalking occur in which stage of sleep -: (A) REM, (B) NREM stage, (C) NREM stage 3 or 4, (D) Can occur in any stage of NREM sleep
Answer is C. Sleep walking (somnambulism) is seen in stage 3 & 4 of NREM sleep.
Which one of the following device provides fixed performance oxygen therapy:: (A) Nasal Cannula, (B) Venturi mask, (C) O2 by T-piece, (D) SO2
Answer is B. B i.e. Ventimask Ventimask or venturimasks are high flow or fixed performance (performance not affected by changes in patient's tidal volume and respiratory rate) oxygen delivery devicesQ delivering accurate oxygen concentration
House Brackmann scale is for which nerve?: (A) Facial nerve, (B) Trigeminal, (C) Optic, (D) Hypoglossal
Answer is A. None
Nerve supply of tip of nose: (A) Ext nasal branch of ophthalmic division of, (B) Inferior orbital nerve, (C) Buccal br of mandibular nerve, (D) Orbital of maxillary n
Answer is A. Nerve supply General sensory nerves derived from the branches of trigeminal nerve are distributed to whole of the lateral wall: Anterosuperior quadrant is supplied by the anterior ethmoidal nerve branch of ophthalmic nerve. Anteroinferior quadrant is suplied by the anterior superior alveolar nerve branch o...
The scoring given in periodontal index for gingivitis is: (A) 1, (B) 2, (C) 4, (D) 6
Answer is B. None
Features of carcinoma penis include all except: March 2007: (A) Metastasize to inguinal lymph nodes, (B) Surgery is the treatment of choice, (C) Hypospadias is a premalignant lesion, (D) Circumcision provides protection
Answer is C. Ans. C: Hypospadias is a premalignant lesion Following as risk factors for penile cancer: Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, smoking, smegma, phimosis, treatment of psoriasis, age, and AIDS. The other etiologic factor most commonly associated with penile carcinoma is poor hygiene. Lichen sclerosus (also...
A 60-year-old male, chronic smoker, presented with fatigue and chest pain. On examination, there was inset left eyeball with drooping upper left eyelid and reduced left pupil size. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this condition?: (A) Squamous cell carcinoma involving the apex of his left lung, (B...
Answer is A. Most tumors of the apex of the lung are adenocarcinomas Pancoast tumors - apical lung tumors in the superior pulmonary sulcus tend to invade the neural structures around the trachea, including the cervical sympathetic plexus. Involvement of sympathetic fibers gives rise to severe pain in the distribution o...
A patient died during surgery. The relatives allege that death was due to negligence. According to a recent Supreme Cou judgment, doctor can be charged for Medical Negligence under section 304-A, only if:: (A) There is corporate negligence, (B) Negligence is from inadveent error, (C) There is gross negligence, (D) It f...
Answer is C. Ans. c. There is gross negligence A physician can be charged with criminal negligence in Section 304 A, when a patient dies from the effects of anesthesia during, an operation or other kind of treatment, if it can be proved that the death was the result if malicious intention, or gross negligence. "Section...
Localization in insulinoma is best with -: (A) Contrast computerized tomography, (B) Margnetic resonance imaging, (C) Somatostatin receptor scintigraphy, (D) Selective angiography
Answer is D. The insulinoma might be localized by noninvasive means, using ultrasound, CT scan, or MRI techniques. An indium-111 pentetreotide scan is more sensitive than ultrasound, CT, or MRI for detection of somatostatin receptor positive tumors, but not a good diagnostic tool for insulinomas. An endoscopic ultrasou...
The nerve mediating pain of External hemorrhoids is:: (A) Hypogastric nerve, (B) Inferior rectal nerve, (C) Pelvic splanchnic nerve, (D) Sympathetic plexus
Answer is B. -External hemorrhoids --> present below pectinate line , painful bleeding is present --> pain carried by Inferior Rectal Nerve (branch of pudendal nerve). -Internal haemorrhoids --> present above pectinate line --> painless bleeding is its feature.
Myelin sheath in the central nervous system is formed by: (A) Schwann cell, (B) Microglia, (C) Oligodendrocytes, (D) Protoplasmic astrocytes
Answer is C. Oligodendrocytes are responsible for myelination in the CNS. In the PNS, Schwann cells form the myelin sheath. The process of myelination begins before bih and is not complete until a year or more after bih. (Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of neuroanatomy, second edition, pg- 19)
Female presents with history of color change from pallor to cyanosis on exposure to cold in fingers. This condition is mostly associated with?: (A) Scleroderma, (B) Leukemia, (C) Lung infections, (D) Hepatosplenomegaly
Answer is A. A. i.e. Scleroderma Raynaud's phenomenon (i.e. cold/vibration/emotional stress-exposure Vt pallor --> cynosis & finally erythemaQ of digits, ear & tip of nose) is almost always present (along with skin sclerosis) and is often earliest featureQ of Systemic sclerosis (Scleroderm). It may precede extensive sk...
ESR is raised in -a) Sickle cell anaemiab) Multiple myelomac) Acute myocardial Infarctiond) Angina pectoris: (A) bc, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) ad
Answer is A. None
True statements are all except:: (A) Chromosome six has the genes for MHC, (B) Genes encoding complement proteins are located adjacent to class I, (C) Monocytes have MHC II antigens on their surface, (D) Class III does not encode complement
Answer is D. 1.) The gene encoding for MHC molecules are clustered on small segment of chromosome 6. 2.) MHC II molecules are present on all the APC's (Antigen Presenting Cells), and Monocyte are type of Antigen Presenting cell. 3.) Class III is present adjacent to Class I and Class II. 4.) Class III encodes for comple...
Hypothyroidism is caused by which of the following anti-tubercular drug -: (A) PAS, (B) Ethionamide, (C) Cycloserine, (D) Pyrazinamide
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., PAS Adverse effects of para-amino salicylic acid (PAS) --> Anorexia, nausea, epigastric pain, rashes, goiter (hypothyroidism), fever, malaise, liver dysfunction, and blood dyscrasias. Adverse effects of ethionamide :Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, hepatitis, optic or periphera...
During growth cycle of a child, usually at what age childhood ends and adolescence stas?: (A) 8 years, (B) 10 years, (C) 12 years, (D) 16 years
Answer is B. WHO/UN definitions: Adolescent - 10-19 years Youth - 15-24 years Young people - 10-24 years Ref: Ghai essential pediatrics, 6th edition, Page 66.
Which of the following can lead to infiltration of ear lobules, loss of nails and resorption of distal phalanges?: (A) Tuberculoid leprosy, (B) Lepromatous leprosy, (C) Indeterminate leprosy, (D) Any of the above
Answer is B. Ans. B. Lepromatous leprosy. (Ref. Harrison's 18th/pg. 1362)LEPROSYSpecific symptoms vary depending on the type of leprosy.# Tuberculoid leprosy: A rash appears, consisting of one or a few flat, whitish areas. Areas affected by this rash are numb because the bacteria damage the underlying nerves.# Lepromat...
One of the following molecules acts as a mobile electron carrier in the respiratory chain: (A) Ubiquinone, (B) FADH2, (C) FeS, (D) Cytochrome b
Answer is D. Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 13; The Respiratory Chain & Oxidative Phosphorylation
Symptom of hypoglyemia is -: (A) Sweating, (B) Bradycardia, (C) Chest pain, (D) Breathlessness
Answer is A. Ref - Davidsons 23e p739
True about DNA structure: (A) Purines are adenine and guanine & pyrimidines are uracil and cytosine, (B) Waston and Crick discovered structure in 1973, (C) Deoxyribose - phosphate backbone with bases stacked inside, (D) Mainly consists of left handed helix
Answer is C. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) stores information for the synthesis of specific proteins. DNA has deoxyribose as its sugar. DNA consists of a phosphate group, a sugar, and a nitrogenous base. The structure of DNA is a helical, double-stranded macromolecule with bases projecting into the interior of the molecu...
A 36-year-old female presents with heavy menstrual bleeding. She has one child of 7 years. USG shows a single 3x3 cm submucosal fibroid. Hemoglobin is 10.5 gm/dl. What is the best treatment option for her?: (A) GnRH injection, (B) UAE, (C) Hysteroscopic myomectomy, (D) Laparoscopic myomectomy
Answer is C. Ans. is c, i.e. Hysteroscopic myomectomyThis patient is having heavy menstrual bleeding due to fibroid, i.e. she is symptomatic and hence management has to be done. Best management in fibroid is surgery. Since she is only 36 years and has one child We will go for myomectomy.Submucous fibroid <5cm, should b...
All of the following are true about dermatitis herpetiformis except:: (A) Severe itchy skin lesions over extensor surfaces, (B) Most of the patients have underlying coeliac disease, (C) It is characterized by IgE anitbodies against TTG : Tissue transglutaminase, (D) Dapsone is the drug of choice
Answer is C. IgA antibodies are seen against TTG.
Delta bilirubin is ______ bilirubin _____ bound to albumin.: (A) Conjugated, covalently, (B) Unconjugated, non-covalently, (C) Conjugated, noncovalently, (D) Unconjugated, covalently
Answer is A. Delta bilirubin or biliprotein is the fraction of conjugated bilirubin that is covalently bound to albumin. This is responsible for the lab finding of persistent hyperbilirubinemia even after the disappearance of jaundice in cases of obstructive jaundice. -Chromatographic fractionation of serum bilirubin: ...
Cushing syndrome as paraneoplastic syndrome is seen with all malignancies, EXCEPT:: (A) Bronchial carcinoid, (B) Thymus, (C) Medullary carcinoma thyroid, (D) Papillary carcinoma thyroid
Answer is D. Paraneoplastic Syndrome Ectopic Hormone Typical Tumor Hypercalcemia of malignancy Parathyroid hormone-related protein Squamous cell (head and neck, lung, skin), breast, genitourinary, gastrointestinal 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D Lymphomas Parathyroid hormone Lung, ovary Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) Renal, lung Synd...
Prevention of emergence of risk factor is -: (A) Primordial prevention, (B) Primary prevention, (C) Secondary prevention, (D) Tertiary prevention
Answer is A. It is the prevention of the emergence or development of risk factors in countries or population groups in which they have not yet appeared.
Blalock and Taussig shunt is done between -: (A) Aoa to pulmonary aery, (B) Aoa to pulmonary vein, (C) Subclan aery to pulmonary vein, (D) Subclan vein to aery
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Aoa to Pulmonary Aery Blalock Taussig shunt consists of subclan aery (br. of aoa) and pulmonary aery anastamosis. This inturn actually establishes a shunt between the aoa (Via the subclan aery) and the pulmonary aery. Management of T.O.F. Medical Management Limited to management of compli...
Accessory meningeal artery enters cranial cavity through:: (A) Foramen lacerum, (B) Foramen rotundum, (C) Foramen spinosum, (D) Foramen ovale
Answer is D. Accessory meningeal artery is a branch of 1st part of Maxillary artery.  It enters the cranium by passing through foramen ovale. It supplies meninges and infratemporal fossa.
The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except: (A) Frequent cause of anterior midline neck masses in the first decade of life, (B) The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline, (C) Incision and drainage is the treatment of choice, (D) The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of tongue
Answer is C. Thyroglossal cysts are the most common cause of midline neck masses. Can occur anywhere along the path of the thyroglossal duct, from the base of the tongue to the suprasternal notch (in the midline) Treatment must include excision of the whole thyroglossal tract, which involves removal of the body of the ...
A 10 year old child develops hematuria after 2 days of diarhoea. Blood film shows fragmented RBCs. Which of the following is likely diagnosis-: (A) Acute pyelonephritis, (B) Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy, (C) Haemolytic uremic syndrome, (D) Haemolytic crises
Answer is C. None