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Serum does not contain: (A) Fibrinogen, (B) Cerruloplasmin, (C) Albumin, (D) Globulin | Answer is A. Serum has essentially the same composition as plasma, except that its fibrinogen and clotting factors II, V, and VIII (Table 32-5). (Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology 23rd Edition page no.530) | |
Renal threshold for glucose is:: (A) 80 mg%, (B) 100 mg%, (C) 180 mg/dl, (D) 200 mg% | Answer is C. None | |
Forbe&;s disease is due to deficiency of: (A) Branching enzyme, (B) Debranching enzyme, (C) Myophosphorylase, (D) Hepatic phosphorylase | Answer is B. Glycogen storage disease type III is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder and inborn error of metabolism characterized by a deficiency in glycogen debranching enzymes. It is also known as Cori&;s disease in honor of the 1947 Nobel laureates Carl Cori and Gey Cori. Other names include Forbes disease in... | |
Adult worm of Echinococcus is found in:: (A) Dog, (B) Humans, (C) Domestic animals, (D) Felines | Answer is A. Ref. Textbook of Microbiology and Immunology BY Parija. – Compiled from Various chapters | |
All of the following are except- advantages of LMA: (A) More reliable than face mask, (B) Prevent aspiration, (C) Alternative to Endotracheal intubation, (D) Does not require laryngoscop & Visualization | Answer is B. LMA is also called Brain mask .It is a supraglottic airway device.It is intermediate between face mask and ETT. Used in difficult airway,in minor and day care surgeries,no muscle relaxant is necessary Disadvantage is it doesn&;t prevent aspiration of gastric contents. | |
In herpes simplex encephalitis, drugs used are, EXCEPT:: (A) Acyclovir, (B) Vidarabine, (C) Ganciclovir, (D) Amantadine | Answer is D. The most effective drug for herpes simplex encephalitis is acyclovir, given intravenously at a dosage of 10 to 15 mg/kg every 8 hours, with each dose given over 1 hour. Ganciclovir is an analogue of acyclovir which is active against all herpes viruses including Herpes simplex. Vidarabine is a purine nucleo... | |
NOT a hypolipidemic drug:: (A) Simvastatin, (B) Fenofibrate, (C) Somatostatin, (D) Fluvastatin | Answer is C. Ans. (c) SomatostatinRef. KDT 6th ed. / 235SOMATOSTATIN* Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of GH, TSH and prolactin by pituitary, insulin and glucagon by pancreas and most importantly. It inhibits most of G.I secretions gastrin and HC1.* It can be used in controlling esophageal varices and bleeding pepti... | |
Factors that produce acute pancreatitis include all of the following except: (A) Alcohol, (B) Hypercalcemia of parathyroid origin, (C) Gall stones, (D) Haemochromatosis | Answer is D. The two leading causes associated with acute pancreatitis are alcoholism and cholelithiasis, both of which are implicated in more than 80% of cases. Less common causes of acute pancreatitis include trauma, ischaemia, shock, extension of inflammation from the adjacent tissues, bloodborne bacterial infection... | |
Carbenicillin:: (A) Is effective in pseudomonas infection, (B) Has no effect in Proteus infection, (C) Is a macrolide antibiotic, (D) Is administered orally | Answer is A. Ans. (A) Is effective in pseudomonas infection(Ref: KDT 8/e p773)Carbenicillin is a penicillin congener effective against pseudomonas and indole positive proteus which are not inhibited by penicillin G or ampicillin/amoxicillin.It is inactive orally and excreted rapidly in urine. It is sensitive to penicil... | |
Topical immunomodulator used for the treatment of genital was is:: (A) Imiquimod, (B) Podophylline, (C) Interferon, (D) Acyclovir | Answer is A. Genital wa treatments that can be applied directly to your skin include: Imiquimod (Aldara, Zyclara). This cream appears to boost the immune system's ability to fight genital was. Avoid sexual contact while the cream is on your skin. It may weaken condoms and diaphragms and may irritate. One possible side ... | |
Within an hour after cementation of cast gold onlay patient complains of shooting pain every time the teeth comes together. Most probable explanation is?: (A) Supraocclusion of restoration, (B) Retained cement in gingival sulcus, (C) Excess acid in mix, (D) Galvanic current caused by gold onlay occluding with a large r... | Answer is D. None | |
All are true regarding staphylococcal toxin except ?: (A) Beta haemolysin shows hot cold phenomenon, (B) Mainly endotoxin, (C) Enterotoxin causes food poisoning, (D) Exfoliative toxin causes Reiter's syndrome | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mainly endotoxin Impoant facts about virulence factors . Clumping factor is bound coagulase which is responsible for the slide coagulase test. . Coagulase (free coagulase) - Acts along with a coagulase reacting factor (CRF) in plasma. - Eight type of coagulase have been identified, most h... | |
Staph. aureus causes vomiting in 2 hours after eating contaminated milk product . The mechanism of action is -: (A) Stimulation of C AMP, (B) Vagal stimulation, (C) Stimulation of C GMP, (D) Acts through ganglioside GM receptor | Answer is B. Option 1, 3 Increase in cyclic AMP/GMP-accumulation of sodium chloride in the intestinal lumen- Diarrhea. Option 2 Toxin Stimulates the vagus nerve and vomiting center of brain. Acts directly on the autonomic nervous system rather than on gastrointestinal mucosa. Option 4 Cholera toxin: binds to GM1 gangli... | |
A patient presents with Hb of 8 gm% , WBC count of 2000/mm3 and platlet count of 60000/mm3. What is your likely diagnosis?: (A) Thalassemia, (B) Sickle cell anemia, (C) Aplastic anemia, (D) Anemia of chronic disease | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) Aplastic anemiaREF: Harrison's 18th ed Ch: 107It's a straight forward diagnosis of Aplastic anemia since all the three cell lines of blood are reduced. The very basic question tests your knowledge of normal blood counts | |
Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by?: (A) ASD, (B) VSD, (C) TGA, (D) TAPVC | Answer is A. Holt-Oram syndrome: - Autosomal dominant disorder - Characterized by - skeletal abnormalities of hands and arms like: Hypoplastic/ absent thumbs, radii Triphalangism Phocomelia - Cardiac anomalies ASD 1st degree hea block TRIPHALANGISM phacomelia | |
Branch of facial nerve in facial canal: (A) Greater petrosal nerve, (B) Nerve to Stapedius, (C) Chordatympani, (D) All | Answer is D. A. i.e. Greater petrosal nerve; C. i.e. Chorda tympani; B . i.e. N. to stapedius | |
Ca Vulvaof the anterior pa will spread primarily to which of the following lymph nodes?: (A) Para-aoic, (B) Inguinal, (C) Obturator, (D) Femoral | Answer is B. Vulval Lymphatics: Superficial component - drains the anterior two-thirdvulva, to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes Deep drainage system - draining the posterior one-third vulva is to deep inguinal nodes, external iliac, and femoral nodes In Ca Vulva the lymphatic spread is usually to the inguinal lymph... | |
Protein di sulphide isomerase is involved in: (A) Protein synthesis, (B) Protein degradation, (C) Protein folding, (D) Protein quaernary structure formation | Answer is C. Disulfide bonds between and within polypeptides stabilize teiary and quaternary structures. However, disulfide bond formation is nonspecific. Under oxidizing conditions, a given cysteine can form a disulfide bond with the --SH of any accessible cysteinyl residue. By catalyzing disulfide exchange, the ruptu... | |
Most common precipitating factor for COPD is: (A) Environment, (B) Smoking, (C) Allergen, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. None | |
The differential diagnosis for pancytopenia with cellular bone marrow include the following except -: (A) Megaloblastic anemia, (B) Myelodysplasia, (C) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria, (D) Congenital dyserythropoietic anemia | Answer is D. None | |
Facial nerve palsy can be caused by -: (A) Cholesteatoma, (B) Multiple sclerosis, (C) Mastoidectomy, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ail of the above Causes of facial paralysis1. Central :-Brain abscess, pontine glioma, Polio, multiple sclerosis2. Intracranial part (cerebellopontine angle) :- Acoustic neuroma, meningioma, congenital cholesteatoma, metastatic carcinoma, meningitis3. Intratemporal part:-Idiopathic :- Bel... | |
Which is the thinnest pa of the lens of eye?: (A) Anterior pole, (B) Posterior pole, (C) Posterior capsule, (D) Apex | Answer is B. The lens is thinnest at the posterior pole. The crystalline lens is surrounded by a lens capsule. Lens capsule is a thin transparent elastic membrane secreted by the lens epithelial cells largely composed of type IV collagen. The capsule is 11- 15microm thick at the anterior pole. The posterior capsule thi... | |
A 60 year old man presented with watering from his left eye since 1 year. Syringing revealed a patent drainage system. Rest of the ocular examination was normal. A provisional diagnosis of lacrimal pump failure was made. Confirmations of the diagnosis would be by:: (A) Dacryoscintigraphy, (B) Dacryocystography, (C) Pre... | Answer is A. Ans. Dacryoscintigraphy | |
The type of mammary ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely to result in a palpable abnormality in the breast is -: (A) Apocrine DCIS, (B) Neuroendocrine DCIS, (C) Well differentiated DCIS, (D) Comedo DCIS | Answer is D. Carcinoma of the breast is divided into :
Carcinoma in situ → neoplastic cells is limited to ducts and lobules by the basement membrane.
Invasive carcinoma (infiltrating carcinoma) → cells invade beyond the basement membrane.
Caricnoma in situ :
It is of two types
A. Ductal carcinoma insitu (DCIS, intr... | |
Not a complication of gallstone: (A) Mucocele, (B) Diveiculosis, (C) Acute cholangitis, (D) Empyema of the gallbladder | Answer is B. Effects and complications of Gallstones In gallbladder In Bile duct In Intestine Silent stones Acute cholecystitis Chronic cholecystitis Mucocele Empyema Perforation Gangrene Carcinoma Obstructive jaundice Cholangitis Acute pancreatitis Gallstone ileus Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1492-1493 | |
Ujjwala is for -: (A) Child abuse, (B) Child trafficking, (C) Child labour, (D) None | Answer is B. Ujjawala ,a comprehensive scheme to combact trafficking was launched in infia by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.REF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-542 | |
Which of the following drug is useful in the prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis?: (A) Minocycline, (B) Doxycycline, (C) Cephalexin, (D) Rifabutin | Answer is A. Minocycline is used in acne and for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis.Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed Pg: | |
A 40 year old female patient presents with excessive bleeding. Patient gives a history of road traffic accident 5 hours ago and had a lacerated wound on lower back region. Blood grouping test reveals presence of Anti A antibody, Anti B antibody, Anti H antibody and Anti Rh D antibody in the serum. The blood group of th... | Answer is D. → Apart from A< B and O RBC of type O contains large amount of another antigen called H substance.
→ H substance is genetically different from ABO but is a precursor of A and B antigens.
→ An O group individual who inherits A or B genes but fails to inherit H gene from either parent is called Oh phenotype ... | |
IOC for Bronchiectasis -: (A) HRCT scan, (B) Spiral CT, (C) Bronchoscopy, (D) Pulmonary angiography | Answer is A. The best test to evaluate the destruction and dilatation of large airways which are filled with pus in Bronchiectasis is HRCT.
Spiral CT is preferred for pulmonary embolism.
Pulmonary angiography is done for lung sequestration and is gold standard for pulmonary embolism. | |
All of the following are neurologic channelopathies except -: (A) Hypokalemic periodic paralysis, (B) Episodic ataxias, (C) Familial hemiplegic migraine, (D) Huntington's disease | Answer is D. None | |
M/C ovarian cancer associated with endometriosis:: (A) Endometroid tumor, (B) Clear cell tumor, (C) Germ cell tumor, (D) Brenner tumor | Answer is B. Ans. is b, i.e. Clear cell tumorM/C ovarian cancer associated with endometrial cancer: Endometrioid tumorM/C ovarian cancer associated with endometriosis: Clear cell carcinoma | |
The only Sugar normaly absorbed in the intestine against a concentration gradient is :: (A) Xylose, (B) Mannose, (C) Glucose, (D) Ribose | Answer is C. C i.e. GlucoseFinal products of carbohydrate digestion in intestinal chyme are glucose & fructoseQ.The glucose transpo in intestine is an example of secondary active transpo i.e., the energy of glucose transpo is provided indirectly by active transpo of Na+ out of cell. Because glucose & Na+ share the same... | |
A young patient with a headache, epiphora, bilateral nasal obstruction but no fever. Diagnosis is: (A) Nasal polyp, (B) Juvenile angiofibroma, (C) Nasal carcinoma, (D) Rhinoscleroma | Answer is B. CLINICAL FEATURES 1. Age and sex. Tumour is seen almost exclusively in males in the age group of 10-20 years. Rarely, it may be seen in older people and females. 2. Profuse, recurrent and spontaneous epistaxis. This is the most common presentation. The patient may be markedly anaemic due to repeated blood ... | |
What is the recommended illumination for general office work?: (A) 100 lux, (B) 400 lux, (C) 900 lux, (D) 1000 lux | Answer is B. The recommended illumination for casual reading is 100 lux, 400 lux for office work, 900 lux for fine assembly and for watch making 2000 - 3000 lux is recommended. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 519. | |
All reduce lactation except - a) Maternal anxiety b) Retracted nipple c) Dehydration d) Diabetes e) Antibiotics: (A) abc, (B) abd, (C) cde, (D) ace | Answer is C. None | |
Lucio phenomenon is treated with:: (A) Steroids, (B) Lenalidomide, (C) Clofazimine, (D) Exchange transfusion | Answer is D. Lucio phenomenon seen in leprosy- recurrent crops of large, sharply marginated, ulcerative lesions paicularly on the lower extremities. These are frequently fatal as a result of secondary infection and consequent septic bacteremia. Neither glucocoicoids nor thalidomide is effective against this syndrome. O... | |
Complications of prematurity are all except: (A) Intra - ventricular hemorrhage, (B) Necrotising enterocolitis, (C) Retinitis Pigmentosa, (D) Periventricular leukomalacia | Answer is C. Retinopathy of prematurity is complication of prematurity. | |
WHO definition of normal sperm count:: (A) 10 million/ml, (B) 20 million/ml, (C) 40 million/ml, (D) 50 million/ml | Answer is B. Normal sperm count/ml i.e. sperm concentration is 20 million/ml. | |
Center of rotation for tipping is present at:: (A) Long axis of tooth, (B) Between B-L axis of tooth, (C) Between M-D axis of tooth, (D) Infinity | Answer is A. Uncontrolled tipping:
A single force is applied at the crown, whereby the tooth rotates around a point just apical to the CRes. The crown moves in the direction of the force and the apex of the root moves in the opposite direction. The CRes of the tooth also moves in the direction of the force.
Controlled ... | |
Relative polycythemia are caused by all of the following, EXCEPT:: (A) Dehydration, (B) High altitude, (C) Gaisbock syndrome, (D) Dengue haemorrhagic fever | Answer is B. High altitude is associated with physiological increase in erythropoietin levels resulting in secondary polycythemia and not relative polycythemia. Polycythemia refers to increase in RBCs, WBCs, and platelets, but in common practice is used to describe increased red cells or erythrocytosis. It can be prima... | |
Body fluids are classified under which catogory of waste: (A) Humanized waste, (B) Infectious waste, (C) Pathological waste, (D) Anatomical waste | Answer is C. None | |
Physical quality of life index is measured by all, Except: (A) Infant moality, (B) Life expectancy at age one, (C) Literacy, (D) Per capita income | Answer is D. (Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 24th edition, pg no: no: 17, 18)Human Development Index (HDI) Vs Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)HDIPQLIComponentsLongevity - Life expectancy at bih (LEdeg/LEdeg)Income (Real GDP per capita in PPP US$)Knowledge (Mean years of schooling - Gr... | |
All are synonymous to radial styloid fracture except: (A) Chauffer's fracture, (B) Hutchinson fracture, (C) Backfire fracture, (D) March fracture | Answer is D. None | |
Which of the following doesn't occur during the processing of RNA?: (A) Terminal addition, (B) Nucleoside modification, (C) Nucleoside cleavage, (D) Chemical hydrolysis | Answer is D. Precursor tRNA is processed to form mature tRNA. Alterations during processing are of three types: nucloelytic reactions, nucleoside modifications, terminal additions of nucleotides. Chemical hydrolysis is not a pa of RNA processing. Poly A tailing and 5'capping occurs in the processing of RNA. Methylation... | |
Which cranial nerve supplies lateral rectus muscle?: (A) Trochlear, (B) Trigeminal, (C) Abducens, (D) Glossopharyngeal | Answer is C. Ans. C Abducens* All the extraocular muscles are supplied by CN III except lateral rectus and superior oblique.* Lateral rectus supplied by--CN VI* Superior oblique supplied by--CN IVRemember- LR6;SO4 | |
Treatment of recently sputum positive case of pulmonary TB is: (A) RMP + INH + PZM, (B) RMP + INH + PZM + SMC, (C) RMP + INH + PZM + ETM, (D) RMP + INH + ETM | Answer is C. Ans. c (RMP + INH + PZM + ETM); (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/pg. 175)Treatment categories and sputum examination schedule in DOTS chemotherapy in IndiaTREATMENT REGIMENSPUTUM EXAMINATIONS FOR PULMONARY TBCategory of treatmentType of patientRegimenPret- reat- ment sputumTest at monthIF: result is-----THEN:New cases ... | |
RBC cast in the microscopic examination of the urine is an indicator of -: (A) Acute glomerulonephritis, (B) Acute Pyelonephritis, (C) Chronic glomerulonephritis, (D) Nephrotic syndrome | Answer is A. None | |
In a 27 yr old male most common cause of a colo-vesical fistula would be:: (A) Crohns disease, (B) Ulcerative colitis, (C) TB, (D) Cancer colon | Answer is A. Diveicular disease is the most common cause of colovesical fistula, followed by colon cancer and Crohn disease. Diveicular disease and colon cancer are rare in people younger than 40 years. Here this patient is young; hence the most suitable answer is Crohn's disease. Ref: ACP Medicine: Volume 1, 2007, Pag... | |
Number of structural gene in Lac operon: (A) 3, (B) 4, (C) 5, (D) 6 | Answer is A. Lactose operone or Lac operon The lac operon is a region of DNA in the genome of E. coli that contains following genetic elements ? i) Three structural genes :- These code for 3 proteins that are involved in catabolism of lactose. These genes are 'Z' gene (codes for P-galactosidase), 'Y' gene (codes for ga... | |
Chondroblastoma most commonly occurs in :: (A) Metaphysis, (B) Diaphysis, (C) Epiphysis, (D) Medullary cavity | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' ie Epiphysis Apley's orthopedics writes - "Chondroblastoma is one of the few lesion to appear primarily in the epiphysis" | |
Laudanosine is metabolic end product of: (A) Mivacurium, (B) Doxacurium, (C) Rocuronium, (D) Atracurium | Answer is D. Laudanosine is metabolic end product of atracurium. | |
Cephalic index 75- 80 is seen in: (A) Indians, (B) Europeans, (C) Chinese, (D) Mongolians | Answer is A. Cephalic index 1.Dolicocephalic ( long headed) 70-75 2.Mesaticephalic(medium headed) 75- 80 3. Brachycephalic( sho headed) 80-85 Present study aimed at working outcephalic index in Indian students. 100 students were taken as subjects and head length, head breadth were measured. Indian males had meancephali... | |
Airway noise originating in the nose, nasopharynx and oropharynx is known as:: (A) Stridor, (B) Steor, (C) Both of the above, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Stridor is a harsh noise produced by turbulent airflow through a paially obstructed airway. It may be inspiratory, expiratory, or both (biphasic). The term steor is used to describe airway noise originating in the nose, nasopharynx, and oropharynx; therefore, stridor is generally of laryngeal or tracheal o... | |
Hot flushes are experienced as a result of: (A) Increased noradrenaline, (B) Decreased estrogen, (C) Increased noradrenaline and decreased estrogen, (D) Increased noradrenaline and estrogen | Answer is C. Hot flushes are caused by noradrenaline, which disturbs the thermoregulatory system. Oestrogen deficiency reduces hypothalamic endorphins, which release more norepinephrine and serotonin. This leads to inappropriate heat loss mechanism. Other causes that can be associated with the symptom of hot flushes in... | |
In Alzheimer's disease (AD) which of the following is not seen:: (A) Aphasia, (B) Acalculia, (C) Agnosia, (D) Apraxia | Answer is B. B i.e. Acalculia | |
Parietal cells in the stomach secrete a protein crucial for the absorp on of vitamin B12 by the ileum. What is this protein?: (A) Intrinsic factor, (B) Gastrin, (C) Somatostatin, (D) Cholecystokinin (CCK) | Answer is A. . | |
How many parathyroid glands do humans have?: (A) 4, (B) 3, (C) 2, (D) 1 | Answer is A. Parathyroid glands: The parathyroid glands are small, yellowish-brown, ovoid or lentiform structures, usually lies between the posterior lobar borders of the thyroid gland and its capsule.
They are commonly 6 mm long, 3-4 mm across, and 1-2 mm from back to front, each weighing about 50 mg.
Usually, there a... | |
A 45-year-old man is worried about a dark pigmented skin lesion on his arm. The "mole" is 3 mm wide, symmetric with a regular border and even pigmentation. He reports no change in size or other symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?: (A) observation only, (B) excisional biopsy... | Answer is A. (a) Source: (Kasper, pp. 500-502) Observation alone is adequate for this lesion. The "ABCD" rules are helpful in distinguishing benign skin lesions from malignant melanoma. (A) asymmetry, benign lesions are symmetric; (B) border irregular, most nevi have clear-cut borders; (C) color variation, benign lesio... | |
Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia-: (A) 85% of the total should be indirect, (B) Hemolytic anemia, (C) Haemoglobin destruction ( bilirubin production), (D) 50% of the total should be indirect | Answer is A. Normal adults contain less than 1mg/dL of total bilirubin out of which less than 0.25 mg/dL is conjugated bilirubin. Unconjugated bilirubin is estimated by substracting direct bilirubin value (Harsh mohan page 593) | |
An epidemiological investigation undertaken to test the hypothesis regarding the causation of a disease is called: (A) Case control study, (B) Cohort study, (C) Prospective study, (D) Descriptive study | Answer is A. None | |
Diagnostic procedure for basal cell Ca -: (A) Wedge biopsy, (B) Shave, (C) Incisional biopsy, (D) Punch biopsy | Answer is A. None | |
All are first generation cephalosporins except :: (A) Cefadroxil, (B) Cefazolin, (C) Cephalexin, (D) Cefaclor | Answer is D. None | |
Uveoparotitis is seen in -: (A) SLE, (B) Sjogren's syndrome, (C) Rheumatoid arthritis, (D) Sarcoidosis | Answer is D. None | |
25 years old gentleman has repeated thoughts that he has not locked his car door properly and frequently checks it while driving. He also repeatedly checks locks in his house. Diagnosis is: (A) OCD, (B) OPCD, (C) Phobia, (D) Somatoform disorder | Answer is A. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) and obsessive compulsive personality disorders a(OCPD)two different types of disorders OCD is classified under anxiety disorders whereas OCPD is classified under personality disorder Patients with OCD have recurrent, irresistible, irrelevant and intrusive thoughts that a... | |
Most common false neurological sign is:: (A) Wasting of hands, (B) Abnormal unilateral pupil, (C) Diplopia, (D) Unilateral papilledema | Answer is C. Diplopia REF: Journal of Neurology, Neurosurgery Psychiatry 2003; 74:415-418 Doi:10.1136/ jnnp.74.4.415, Neurological signs have been described as "false localizing" if they reflect dysfunction distant or remote from the expected anatomical locus of pathology. False localizing signs occur in two major cont... | |
Umami taste is evoked by: (A) Glucose, (B) Glutamic acid, (C) Quinine, (D) Sodium chloride | Answer is B. Glutamic acid is responsible for umami taste Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 713,714,715 | |
The following anti T.B. drug should not be given to AIDS patient-: (A) The following anti T.B. drug should not be given to AIDS patient-, (B) Ethambutol, (C) Streptomycin, (D) Pyrazinamide | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rifampicin | |
Banding technique most commonly employed for cytogenetic analysis: (A) G banding, (B) C banding, (C) R banding, (D) Q banding | Answer is A. G-banding (most common) R-banding Q-banding C-banding T-banding G stands for Giemsa R stands for "reverse" Q stands for Quinacrine Fluoroescent dye C stands for Constitutive heterochromatin or Centromere T stands for telomeres to produce a visible karyotype Dark regions are heterochromatin (AT) Light regio... | |
In a CA lung patient is suffering from dyspnoea, the palliation of dyspnoea is achieved by: (A) Morphine patch, (B) Diazepam, (C) Clobazam, (D) Haloperidol | Answer is A. Morphine is used for dyspnea in terminally ill cancer patients by : Both endogenous (b-endorphin) and exogenous (morphine) opioids modulate the perception of dyspnea by binding to opioid receptors. Proposed mechanisms whereby opioids relieve refractory dyspnea include decreasing respiratory drive with an a... | |
True about Moorens ulcer: March 2007, March 2013: (A) Painless condition, (B) Affects cornea, (C) Sudden loss of vision, (D) Bilateral in majority of cases | Answer is B. Ans. B: Affects cornea Mooren's ulcer is a rare, painful, inflammatory condition affecting one or both eyes that results in the destruction of corneal tissue. The cause of Mooren's ulcer is unknown. It is generally agreed that it is an autoimmune condition. Pain is almost always associated with the onset o... | |
Thanatology deals with: (A) Death in all aspects, (B) Postmortum findings, (C) Exhumation, (D) Body of offence | Answer is A. Ans) a (Death in all aspects) Ref.KNS Reddy 20th ed p 122Thanatology deals with death in all aspects.There is a progression from clinical death to brain death, biological death, biological death and then cellular death. Brain death follows immediately clinical death due to lack of oxygen. First the cerebra... | |
Spontaneous CSF leak associated with all except: (A) Increased intracranial tension, (B) Paial or complete empty sella syndrome, (C) Pseudotumour cerebri, (D) Low risk encephalocoele | Answer is A. spontaneous cerebrospinal fluid leak (SCSFL) is a medical condition in which the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) surrounding the human brain and spinal cord leaks out of the surrounding protective dural sac for no apparent reason. A spontaneous CSF leak, as opposed to traumatically caused CSF leaks, arises idiop... | |
Which of the following substances play a major role in regulating cell-cell and cell-matrix interaction in cementum?: (A) Sharpey's fibers, (B) Intrinsic fibers, (C) Proteoglycans, (D) Phosphoproteins | Answer is C. None | |
The enzyme which transcripts a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is:: (A) DNA polymerase, (B) RNA polymerase, (C) Reverse transcriptase, (D) Phosphokinase | Answer is C. Reverse transcriptase transcripts a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template. This enzyme is programmed to use a single-stranded RNA template, and to synthesize a complementary DNA (cDNA) strand. Ref: Measuring Gene Expression, Matthew B. Avison, 2007, Page 135 | |
Most important element in treatment of diphtheria -: (A) Antitoxin, (B) Tetracycline, (C) Erythromycin, (D) Penicillin | Answer is A. None | |
What is the rationale behind xenobiotic metabolism by CYP enzymes?: (A) increases water solubility, (B) increases lipid solubility, (C) conversion to an active metabolite, (D) makes it suitable to evaporate through skin surface | Answer is A. the aim of xenobiotics metabolism is to increase water solubility so that these compounds can be exceed through urine. (Ref-Goodman Gillman 12th/e p124/125) | |
Treatment of C. difficile infection: (A) Metronidazole, (B) Bacitracin, (C) Nitazoxanilide, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. d (All of the above) (Ref H-17th/820; KDT 6th!731; Table 123-2)Pseudomembranous enetrocolitis is associated with use of:Rx of Pseudomemb colitis:# Clindamycin# Metronidazole and vancomycin-drug of choice.# Aminoglycosides# Oral Rx for Cl. difficile-Asso Disease include:# Tetracyclines- Placebo or disc... | |
All are true about SALK vaccine except -: (A) It prevents paralysis, (B) Oral polio can be given as booster, (C) It is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients, (D) Easily transpoed | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., It is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients Advantages of IPV 1) Being an inactivated vaccine, it is safe to administer in - i) Persons with immunodeficiency ii) Persons undergoing coicosteroid or radiotherapy iii) During pregnancy 2) One or two doses of live vaccine (OPV) can be ... | |
All are associated with chronic osteomyelitis except-: (A) Amyloidosis, (B) Sequestrum, (C) Metastatic abnormality, (D) Myositis ossificans | Answer is D. Complications of chronic osteomyelitis
Following complications can occur : -
Acute exacerbation Growth abnormalities due to damage to adjacent growth plate: - Shortening, Deformities.
Pathological fracture
Joint stiffness
Sinus tract malignancy (very rare): - Squamous cell carcinoma
Amyloidosis | |
Relationship between the disease and social conditions: (A) Political science, (B) Social Psychalogy, (C) Social Pathology, (D) Social Sciences | Answer is C. None | |
Barbed broach is used for:: (A) Extirpation of pulp, (B) Enlargement of canal, (C) Obturation of canals, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Stapedius nerve is a branch of ?: (A) Trigeminal nerve, (B) Facial nerve, (C) Vagus nerve, (D) None | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Facial nerve Branches of facial nerve In fallopian (facial canal) :- Greater petrosal (greater superficial petrosal) nerve, nerve to stapedius, chorda tympani.At its exit from stylomastoid foramen :- Posterior auricular, digastric nerve, stylohyoid nerve.Terminal branches :- Temporal, zyg... | |
'Intermediate form' of Non Hodgkin's lymphoma is -: (A) Small noncleaved cell, (B) Diffuse, small cleaved cell, (C) Lymphoblastic, (D) Large cell immunoblastic | Answer is B. Working formulation of NHL for clinical use is as follows:
Low grade :
small lymphocytic
Follicular, predominantly small cleaved cell
Follicular mixed
Intermediate Grade :
1. Follicular predominantly large cell
2. Diffuse small, mixed, as well as large cell.
High grade : ... | |
When a person stands suddenly from lying down posture, there is: (A) Increased tone of capacitance vessels., (B) Increase efferent discharge from IX cranial nerve, (C) Decreased heart rate, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. (A) Increased tone of capacitance vessels. > It occurs due to noradrenergic impulses causing venoconstriction via their action on a1 and a2 - adrenergic receptors on systo veins. | |
True about Trendelenburg operation is: (A) Stripping of superficial varicose vein, (B) Ligation of perforators, (C) Flush ligation of superficial varicose veins, (D) Ligation of sho saphenous vein | Answer is C. Tredelenburg Operation Consists of saphenofemoral junction flush ligation & Greater saphenous vein (GSV) stripping All four tributaries (superficial Inferior epigastric, superficial circumflex iliac, deep & superficial external pudendal veins) is divided Ligate the GSV deep to all tributaries flush with th... | |
Sub-valvular Aoic Stenosis is known to be associated with all of the following, except:: (A) Aoic Regurgitation, (B) Coarctation of Aoa, (C) Tricuspid Valve Atresia, (D) Ventricular Septal Defect | Answer is C. Answer is C (Tricuspid valve atresia) Tricuspid Valve Atresia is not associated with Subvalvular Aoic Stenosis. Subvalvular Aoic Stenosis (Subaoic Stenosis) Subaoic stenosis is defined as obstruction to left ventricular outflow below the aoic valve. It is the second most common form of fixed aoic stenosis.... | |
Incubation period of Nipah virus: (A) 4 -14 days, (B) 2 - 6 days, (C) 3 -8 days, (D) 5 - 10 days | Answer is A. Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed Pg.310 | |
Drug indicated in case of subarachnoid hemorrhage:: (A) Nimodipine, (B) Amlodipine, (C) Diltiazem, (D) Verapamil | Answer is A. Ans. A. NimodipineNimodipine is cerebro selective calcium channel blocker. Given in patients with hemorrhagic stroke. Nicardipine also have similar effects. This drugs reverse the cerebral vasospasm. | |
Ayushman Bharat is: (A) Health education program, (B) Health protection scheme, (C) Health personnel training, (D) Health practicing guidelines | Answer is B. Ayushman Bharat is National Health Protection Scheme, which will cover over 10 crore poor and vulnerable families (approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) providing coverage up to 5 lakh rupees per family per year for secondary and teiary care hospitalization. Ayushman Bharat - National Health Protection Mis... | |
Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia is seen in:: (A) All, (B) AML, (C) CML, (D) CLL | Answer is D. About 15% of patients develop autoantibodies ( IgG )against their own red cells or platelets which leads to autoimmune hemolytic anemia. | |
A 56-year old man presented with bony pain. X-ray skull lateral view shows:: (A) Pagets disease, (B) Hyper osteosis frontalis, (C) Fibrous dysplasia, (D) Osteopetrosis | Answer is B. Ref. Grainger and Allison's Diagnostic Radiology. Page. 483
Pagets disease of bone affects each person differently . It includes :
1 Bones : Pain in the affected bones is the most common symptom of pagets disease of bone.
Skull in Pagets disease
osteoporosis circumscripta: large, well-defined lytic l... | |
Agoraphobia is -a) Fear of open spacesb) Fear of closed specesc) Fear of heightsd) Fear of crowded places: (A) b, (B) c, (C) ad, (D) ab | Answer is C. Formerly the term agoraphobia was used to denote phobias of open spaces alone but it is now used in a wider sence, i.e. irrational fear of places and situations from where escape might be difficult. Such places are public places, stores, crowd, travelling alone in bus, train or plane or in lift. | |
Trapping parasites using NETs is assisted by: (A) Neutrophils and Eosinophils, (B) Neutrophils and Monocytes, (C) Eosinophils and Monocytes, (D) Nk cells | Answer is A. NEUTROPHILS AND EOSINOPHILS EMPLOY NETS TO ENTRAP PARASITESIn addition to ingesting small microorganisms such as bacteria by phagocytosis, neutrophils and eosinophils can assist in the elimination of larger invaders by trapping them within webs called neutrophil extracellular traps or NETsRef: Harper&;s Bi... | |
a-helix of protein is: (A) Primary structure, (B) Secondary structure, (C) Teiary structure, (D) Quaery structure | Answer is B. a-Helix: A peptide chain forms regular helical coils called a-helix. Type of secondary protein structure. These coils are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between carbonyl O of 1st amino and amide N of 4th amino acid residues. Thus in a aa aa-helix intrachain hydrogen bonding is present. The a aa aa-helices ca... | |
Common sites for mongolian spot are -: (A) Face, (B) Neck, (C) Lumbosacral area, (D) All | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lumbosacral area Mongolian spots are blue or slate - gray macular lesions which occur most commonly in pre-sacral area (mainly in lower back & buttocks) but may be found over the posterior thighs, legs, and shoulders. | |
Threshold level for neuronal action potential-: (A) -70 mv, (B) +70 mv, (C) -55 mv, (D) +55 mv | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., -55 mv * The action potential, which is recorded using an intracellular electrode, has following phases : -1) Resting stage:# This is the resting membrane potential before the action potential. At rest, membrane is said to be "polarized" because - 70 mV negative membrane potential (RMP) t... | |
Which of the following includes the classical triad of ' enlarged upper part of uterus, soft lower part of body and firm cervix 'during early pregnancy?: (A) Hegar's sign, (B) Jacquemier's sign, (C) Osiander's sign, (D) Goodell's sign | Answer is A. Ans. a (Hegar's sign). (Ref Dutta, Obstetrics, 6th ed., p 65)SIGNS OF EARLY PREGNANCY1Jacquemier's or Chadwick's sign (eighth week)Dusky hue of vestibule and anterior vaginal wall.2Osiander's sign (eighth week)Increased pulsations felt through lateral fornices.3Goodell's sign (sixth week)Softening of cervi... | |
All are true about Experimental trials except:: (A) Can’t double blind in animal trials, (B) All animal trials are unethical, (C) Can’t do interim analysis, (D) Are always prospective | Answer is A. None | |
Acute Hepatitis B can be earliest diagnosed by ?: (A) IgM anti HBc ab, (B) Hbs Ag, (C) IgC anti HBc abs, (D) Anti HBs Ag ab | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., IgM anti HBc Ab . This is controversial question. . Some people (including me) are in our of IgM anti HBc abs, while other think HBs Ag is the correct answer. . With HBs Ag one can make the diagnosis of HBV infection, but to confirm acute infection, IgM anti HBc is required. See following... | |
Recommended reflection factors include each of the following, except –: (A) Ceilings 80%, (B) Roofs 40%, (C) Walls 50 to 60%, (D) Furnitures 30 to 40% | Answer is B. None |
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