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The most common cause of Macular edema is: (A) Secondary glaucoma, (B) Cataract surgery, (C) Retinitis pigmentosa, (D) Uveitis | Answer is B. Macular edema refers to the collection of fluid in the outer plexiform(Henle's layer) and an inner nuclear layer of the retina, centered around the foveola.EtiologyIt is associated with a number of disorders. A few common causes are as follows:1. As postoperative complication following cataract extraction ... | |
Drug of choice for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is:-: (A) Haloperidol, (B) Imipramine, (C) Alprazolam, (D) Methylphenidate | Answer is D. Methylphenidate is the preferred drug for the treatment of attention deficit hyperkinetic disorder (ADHD). Other drugs used for this indication are amphetamines, atomoxetine and pemoline. Pemoline has been withdrawn due to life threatening hepatotoxicity. | |
Yaws is caused by: (A) T.pallidum, (B) T. Endemicum, (C) T. Peenue, (D) T. Carateum | Answer is C. Nonvenereal TreponemesDiseaseCauseBejelT.endemicumYawsT.peenuePintaT.carateumRef: Sherris Microbiology; 6th edition; Page no: 660 | |
A child attending classes in a preschool is noted by his teacher to have several skin lesions on his arms. The lesions are pustular in appearance and some have broken down and are covered with a yellow crust. Which of the following protects the most likely etiologic agent of this child's infection from phagocytosis and... | Answer is D. Streptococcus pyogenes, or Group A Streptococcus (GAS), produces a number of virulence factors. The M protein (d) is the organism's most important antiphagocytic factor, and it conveys serologic specificity-over 100 serotypes are now known. In the early stages of growth, the bacteria have hyaluronic acid (... | |
Conduit in gastric pull up is based on:: (A) Right gastric and right gastroepiploic artery, (B) Right gastric and left gastroepiploic artery, (C) Left gastric and right gastroepiploic artery, (D) Left gastric and left gastroepiploic artery | Answer is A. Ans. (a) Right gastric and right gastroepiploic arteryRef: Shackelford 7th Edition, Pages 518-520* Best conduit for esophagus after esophagectomy is stomach* This is based on the greater curvature part of stomach: So carefully preserve the Right gastro epiploic artery and Right gastric artery shown below. | |
After 20 weeks of gestation main contribution of amniotic fluid is by:: (A) Fetal urine, (B) Maternal serum filtered through placenta, (C) Transudate of fetal plasma through fetal skin, (D) Transudate across umbilical cord | Answer is A. Ans: a (Fetal urine) Ref: Dutta, 6th ed, p. 37After 20 weeks of gestation the main contribution of amniotic fluid is by fetal urine. The fetal daily urine output at term is about 400-1200 ml.Theories on origin of amniotic fliud1. Asa transudate from maternal serum2. As a transudate across umbilical cord or... | |
An 18-year-old male presented with acute onset a history of blurring of vision for the same duration on examination, the patient has quadriparesis with areflexia. Both the pupils are non-reactive.The most probable diagnosis is -: (A) Poliomyelitis, (B) Botulism, (C) Diphtheria, (D) Porphyria | Answer is B. Ans. b. Botulism | |
Which of the following is not true about atherosclerosis?: (A) Deposition of lipids on vessels, (B) Necrosis of Vessels, (C) Does not involve small aerioles, (D) It is an inflammatory response to endothelial injury | Answer is C. Atherosclerosis plaques develop inElastic aeries (aoa, carotid & iliac aeries )Large and medium-size aeries ( coronary & popliteal aeries )Systemic atherosclerosis - aeries supplying hea, brain, kidneys, lower extremities Consequences - Myocardial infarction , cerebral infarction, aoic aneurysms, periphera... | |
HOME should be carried out for:: (A) 1 minute., (B) 20-30 sec., (C) 10 sec., (D) 15-20 sec. | Answer is B. None | |
In civil cases, conduct money is decided by -: (A) Opposite pay, (B) Judge, (C) Doctor, (D) Witness | Answer is B. CONDUCT MONEY: It is the fee paid to a witness in civil cases at the time of serving the summons, to meet the expenses for attending a cou. If d fee is not paid, or if he feels that the amount is less, the witness can bring this fact to the notice of the Judge before giving evidence& Jude will decide the a... | |
A child speaks sentences at the age of ?: (A) 6 months, (B) 1 year, (C) 18 months, (D) 2 years | Answer is D. At 2 years, a child can make simple sentences and uses pronouns. | |
All of the following hereditary conditions predispose to CNS tumors, except -: (A) Neurofibromatosis 1 & 2, (B) Tuberous sclerosis, (C) Von-Hippel-Lindau syndrome, (D) Xeroderma pigmentosum | Answer is D. None | |
Urine flow rate is 10 ml/min, plasma inulin is 2 mg/ ml and urine inulin is 25 mg/ml. Which of the following statement is true ?: (A) Inulin clearance = GFR, (B) Inulin clearance > GFR, (C) Inulin clearance > GFR, (D) GFR cannot be calculated by above data | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inulin clearance = GFRMeasurement of GFRIf a substance is designated by letter 'X', the GFR is equal to the concentration of 'X' in urine (Ux) times the urine flow per unit time (v) divided by aerial plasma level of X (Px). | |
What is the new name for mental retardation in ICD-11?: (A) Intellectual disability, (B) Disorders of intellectual development, (C) Mental instability, (D) Intellectual deterioration | Answer is B. Mental retardation name DSM V: Intellectual disability ICD 11: Disorder of intellectual development | |
Dystrophic calcification means-: (A) Calcification in destroyed tissue with normal calcium level in blood, (B) t level of Ca++ deposits, (C) Calcification in normal tissue seen in hyperparathyroidism, (D) Calcification in destroyed tissues with hyper calcemia | Answer is A. Amyloidosis is the extracellular deposition of insoluble protein fibrils.
AL- Primary systemic amyloidosis
AA- Secondary amyloidosis
AF- Familial
Aβ2M- In ESRD
Diagnosed by abdominal fat pad aspiration showing apple green birefringence by polarized light microscopy with Congo red stain
High ESR, High ALP
S... | |
Drug used in RSV infection in children-: (A) Rituximab, (B) Palivizumab, (C) Penicillin, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. None | |
All of the following are acquired causes of hypercoagulability, except:: (A) Infection, (B) Inflammatory Bowel disease, (C) Myeloproliferative disorders, (D) Prolonged surgery > 1 hour | Answer is A. Infection is not an acquired cause of hypercoagulability. Hypercoagulability represents an exaggerated form that predisposes to thrombosis and blood vessel occlusion. Acquired causes of hypercoagulability includes: ? Cancer ? Immobility ? Lupus anticoagulant ? Nephrotic syndrome ? Estrogens, pregnancy ? An... | |
A pharma agent wants to introduce vaccine for 1 yr old and see its efficacy. The study design should be ?: (A) Coho study, (B) Clinical trial, (C) Field trial, (D) None | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Field trial Experimental epidemiology (Epidemiological Experiments) Experimental epidemiology is also called trial. Broadly speaking, a trial refers to putting something to a test. This allows the term to be used in reference to a test of a treatment for the sick or a test of a preventive... | |
A 20-year-old woman has an ovarian tumor removed. The surgical specimen is 10 cm in diameter and cystic. The cystic cavity is found to contain black hair and sebaceous material. Histologic examination of the cyst wall reveals a variety of benign differentiated tissues, including skin, cailage, brain, and mucinous gland... | Answer is D. Teratomas are benign tumors composed of tissues derived from all three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. They are most common in the ovary but also occur in the testis and extragonadal sites. Adenoma (choice A) is a benign tumor of epithelial origin. Chondroma (choice B) is a benign ca... | |
Ovulation occurs after the extrusion of:: (A) Primary oocyte, (B) Female pronucleus, (C) lstpolar body, (D) 2nd polar body | Answer is C. Ans. (c) 1st polar bodyRef.: D.C. Dutta 8th ed. / 21-22, 8th ed. / 21, 7th ed./17,19 | |
Most common cause of death in chronic dialysis patient is:: (A) Cardiovascular Disease, (B) Infection, (C) Malignancy, (D) Anemia | Answer is A. Answer is A (Cardiovascular Disease): The most common cause of death in patients on chronic dialysis is Cardiovascular Disease. After cardiovascular disease, infections are the second most common cause of death of patients receiving long-term dialysis. Cardiovascular disease is the most common cause of dea... | |
Distal renal tubular acidosis is associated with: (A) Oxalate stones, (B) Citrate, (C) Calcium stones, (D) Uric acid | Answer is C. None | |
1-3 beta-D-glucanassay for fungi is not used for?: (A) Aspergillus species, (B) Candida species, (C) Cryptococcus species, (D) Pneumocystis jirovecii | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Cryptococcus s(j. journal of ,\\,11crobiology 2013 Nov. 3478-3484 13-D-glucan is the component of fungal cell-wall of all fungus (except cryptococcus, zygomycetes and blastomyces dermatidis) which is detectable in case of invasive infection. Currently Fungitell assay is a FDA approved 13-DG assay ... | |
The drug of choice in an 80-year-old patient presenting with hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis -: (A) Oral hypoglycemic drugs, (B) Intermediate acting insulin, (C) Oral drug with intermediate acting insulin, (D) Sho acting insulin | Answer is D. Diabetic ketoacidosis is characterized by a serum glucose level greater than 250 mg per dL, a pH less than 7.3, a serum bicarbonate level less than 18 mEq per L, an elevated serum ketone level, and dehydration. Insulin deficiency is the main precipitating factor. Diabetic ketoacidosis can occur in persons ... | |
On barium swallow the downhill esophageal varices appear as -: (A) Mucosal folds above the carina, (B) Mucosal folds below the carina, (C) Mucosal folds at the carina, (D) A thick band | Answer is B. None | |
All are caused by RNA viruses, EXCEPT:: (A) HIV, (B) Dengue, (C) Herpangina, (D) Fifth disease | Answer is D. Fifth disease also known as erythema infectiosum is caused by erythovirus (Parvovirs) B19. Parvoviruses are linear, non segmented single stranded DNA virus. The various manifestations of human parvovirus B19 infection is; Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease) Polyahritis Aplastic crisis Chronic anemia Conge... | |
Opening of nasolacrimal duct is situated in:: (A) Superior meatus, (B) Middle meatus, (C) Ethmoid infundibulum, (D) inferior meatus | Answer is D. Also remember other structures opening in different meatuses.Superior meatus: Posterior ethmoid cellsMiddle meatus: Frontal sinus, maxillary sinus and anterior group of sinusesEthmoid infundibulum: A part of middle meatus, maxillary and sometimes the frontal sinus opens in itInferior meatus: Nasolacrimal d... | |
Not a pyrethram derivative?: (A) Cypermethrin, (B) Permithrin, (C) DDT, (D) Resmethrin | Answer is C. park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition *synthetic pyrethroids devoloped so far are tetramethrin,resethrin,prothrin and propahin *they are now being devoloped to replace natural pyrethrins some are found to be as much as 10ttimes as effective as naturally occuring pyrethrins . | |
A 23-year-old female presents with pelvic pain and is found to have an ovarian mass of the left ovary that measures 3 cm in diameter. Grossly, the mass consists of multiple cystic spaces. Histologically, these cysts are lined by tall columnar epithelium, with some of the cells being ciliated. What is your diagnosis of ... | Answer is A. The surface epithelial tumors of the ovary are derived from the surface celomic epithelium, which embryonically gives rise to the Mullerian epithelium. Therefore these ovarian epithelial tumors may recapitulate the histology of organs derived from the Mullerian epithelium. For example, serous ovarian tumor... | |
Ovarian tumor limited to true pelvis with Negative nodes histological confirmed seeding of abdominal poioned surface. The exact grading :: (A) III A, (B) III B, (C) III C, (D) IV | Answer is A. III A | |
Which of the following is NOT a grass-root level worker?: (A) Anganwadi worker, (B) Traditional bih attendant, (C) Village health guide, (D) Health administrator | Answer is D. GRASS ROOT LEVEL WORKERS Anganwadi worker: Works at village level Traditional bih attendant: Works at village level Village health guide: Works at village level ASHA: Works at village level Multipurpose worker: Works at sub-centre (5 villages) level. | |
Hydrogen ion is eliminated by: September 2005: (A) Kidney, (B) Lungs, (C) Liver, (D) Stomach | Answer is A. Ans. A: Kidney Cells of proximal and distal tubules secrete hydrogen ions which comes from carbonic acid For each hydrogen ion secreted, one sodium ion and one bicarbonate ion enters the interstitial fluid. | |
What is the action of marked muscle:: (A) Supination of the forearm and flexion of the elbow, (B) Flexion & Adduction of Shoulder joint, (C) Protraction of scapula forward around the thorax, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Ans. C. Protraction of scapula forward around the thoraxa. The muscle marked is Serratus anterior, it originates by nine or ten slips from either the first to ninth ribs or the first to eighth ribs. Because two slips usually arise from the second rib, the number of slips is greater than the number of ribs ... | |
Multiple radio opacities are seen in: (A) Multiple myeloma, (B) Cherubism, (C) Osteopetrosis, (D) Odontomas | Answer is D. None | |
Contraindication of Beta blockers include: (A) Bronchial asthma, (B) Variant angina, (C) Decompensated hea failure, (D) All the above | Answer is D. Beta blockers cause bronchospasm, vasospasm absolutely contraindicated in acute or decompensated CCF except for carvedilol, hea blocck,COPD,DM.Raynauds syndrome Ref: KD Tripathi; 6th ed; Pg 139. | |
Which of the following hormone have a GENOMIC action?: (A) Thyroid hormone, (B) 1,25 DHCC, (C) Coisol, (D) All of these | Answer is D. Several hormones, including adrenal and gonadal steroid hormones, thyroid hormones, retinoid hormones, and vitamin D, bind with protein receptors inside the cell rather than in the cell membrane. Because these hormones are lipid soluble, they readily cross the cell membrane and interact with receptors in t... | |
Most common site for impaction of gell stones in gall stone lieus is :: (A) Ist pa of duodenum, (B) IInd pa of duodenum, (C) Terminal ileum, (D) Colon | Answer is C. Answer is C (Terminal ileum):'Classically there is obstruction / impaction about 60 cm proximal to ileocaecal valve'- Bailey'The site of obstruction by the impacted gall stone is usually at the ileocaecal valve" provided that the more proximal S.I. is of normal calibre. - HarrisonsIf both choices come simu... | |
When vagus is cut. the undesirable effect is-: (A) Decreased gastric acid, (B) Increased constipation, (C) Delayed gastric emptying, (D) Recurrent ulcer | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Delayed gastric emptying After vagotomyo Acid secretion in decreaseso Gastric emptying for solids is delayed and hastened for liquids (due to loss of receptive relaxation of proximal stomach).o Diarrhoea & increase in frequency of stool is seen. | |
Which of the following finding is shown in the chest leads?: (A) Myocardial ischemia, (B) Myocardial injury, (C) Digoxin, (D) Digoxin toxicity | Answer is A. The hea rate is nearly 125bpm. Notice the predominant T wave inversion in V1-V3. This is seen in myocardial ischemia. Diagnosis of myocardial injury needs elevated cardiac biomarkers. Digoxin leads to ST segment depression Digoxin toxicity leads to Ventricular Bigeminy Causes of T wave inversion Normal in ... | |
Which one of the following is the most common problem associated with the use of condom :: (A) Increased monilial infection of vagina, (B) Premature ejaculation, (C) Contact dermatitis, (D) Retention of urine | Answer is C. Contact dermatitis | |
Little's area is situated in nasal cavity in:: (A) Anteroinferior, (B) Anterosuperior, (C) Posteroinferior, (D) Posteriorsuperior | Answer is A. LITTLE'S AREA (Anterior inferior pa of nasal septum) - Usual site for epistaxis in children. Four Aeries anastomose here and form Kiesselbach's Plexus. Anterior ethmoidal aery(Ophthalmic aery) Sphenopalatine(Maxillary aery) Septal branch of superior labial(Facial aery) Greater palatine aery(Maxillary aery)... | |
Which pa of the brain gets activated first to initiate skilled movements?: (A) Pons, (B) Basal ganglia, (C) Neocoex., (D) Cerebellum | Answer is C. Neocoex. FUNCTIONAL DIVISION OF CEREBRAL COEX: Divided into 2 areas - Primary coical area Both motor & sensory areas Includes Primary auditory coex, Primary olfactory area, Primary gustatory areas & Primary motor areas Association areas: Higher functions are related to association areas Other functions: Fi... | |
All of the following statements about carbohydrateantigen are true except aEUR': (A) It has lower immunogenicity, (B) Memory response is seen, (C) Cause polyclonal B cell stimulation, (D) Does not require stimulation by T cells | Answer is B. Memory response is seen Antigen Antigen is a substance that stimulates the production of antibody, when introduced into the body. Type of antigen A. Based on chemical nature - Based on chemical nature, antigens can be : - i) Proteins ii) Polysaccharide (Carbohydrates) iii) Lipids iv) Nucleic acids - Protei... | |
One gray of radiation is equal to:: (A) 1 rad, (B) 10 rad, (C) 100 rad, (D) 1000 rad | Answer is C. Ans. 100 rad | |
The single most important laboratory test for determining the virulence of staphylococci is: (A) Mannitol fermentation, (B) Hemolysis of sheep erythrocytes, (C) Detection of coagulase, (D) The catalase test | Answer is C. None | |
20-year-old female present with features of anemia. Blood tests: Hb-5g/dL, MCV - 52 fL, MCH-22 pg, PCV - 15%. Diagnosis?: (A) Phenytoin toxicity, (B) Fish tapeworm infection, (C) Hookworm infection, (D) Blind loop syndrome | Answer is C. The findings in the question are suggestive of iron deficiency anemia. Among given options, Hookworm infection can cause iron deficiency anemia due to chronic blood loss. Associated with megaloblastic anemia (vitamin B12/folate Deficiency): Phenytoin toxicity, Blind loop syndrome and Fish tapeworm (D. latu... | |
Which among the following drugs produces a dose ceiling effect?: (A) Morphine, (B) Alfentanyl, (C) Remifentanyl, (D) Buprenorphine | Answer is D. Buprenorphine is a paial mu receptor agonist. Unlike other opiates buprenorphine has a dose ceiling effect to its respiratory depressant dose response curve. Due to this effect, after the ceiling dose is reached additional dose of the drug will not elicit more respiratory depression. Reference: Clinical An... | |
The dose of anti-D immunoglobulin to be given to non- immune Rh D negative women after delivery is:: (A) 50 mgm, (B) 150 mgm, (C) 300 mgm, (D) 450 mgm | Answer is C. Ans. (c) 300 mgmRef : D. C Dutta 8th ed.l 387, 721 | |
Bacteriostatic anti TB drug ?: (A) INH, (B) Rifampicin, (C) Ethambutol, (D) Pyrazinamide | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ethambutol Remember the following facts All cell wall synthesis inhibitors are bactericidal. All antibacterial drugs that act on cell membrane are bactericidal. All first line antitubercular drugs are bactericidal except ethambutol that is bacteriostatic. All protein synthesis inhibitors ... | |
Which of the following is the psychological defense mechanism by the virtue of which an individual blames others for his mistake?: (A) Rationalization, (B) Compensation, (C) Projection, (D) Regression | Answer is C. Placing unacceptable impulses in yourself onto someone else, i.e. placing blame for the unwanted event upon other is seen in projection. | |
Which of the following drug is used for smoking cessation?: (A) Varenicline, (B) Acamprostate, (C) Nalmefene, (D) Gabapentim | Answer is A. DOC for smoking cessation : Varenicline Nicotine patch and gum are also used. Bupropion is also used in smoking cessation. Varenicline: is paial agonist at neuronal nicotinic acetylcholine receptor in CNS. Patient taking varenicline should be monitored for suicidal thoughts, vivid nightmares and mood chang... | |
The cause for contact ulcer of vocal cord: (A) Voice abuse, (B) Smoking, (C) TB, (D) Valignancy | Answer is A. None | |
Familial polyposis coli is due to: (A) Abnormality of chromosomes five, (B) Abnormality of chromosomes, (C) Intestinal tuberculosis, (D) Intussusception | Answer is A. .desmoid tumour is often associated with the familial polyposis colon (FAP), osteomas, odontomes epidermal cysts-- Gardner's syndrome.it is usually due to genetic abnormality involving chromosome 5. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery ,ed 3,pg no 776 | |
A 33 year old woman has experienced episodes of fatigue, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion and carpal tunnel syndrome and macrocytic anemia. Best test for diagnosis shall be -: (A) Anti-beta 2 phospholipid antibodies, (B) Anti-smith antibody, (C) Antinulear antibody, (D) Assay for thyroid hormones | Answer is D. ANSWER- D. Assay for thyroid hormonesCarpel tunnel syndrome is a common complication of hypothyroidism and is often reversible with thyroid hormone therapy.Normally hypothyroidism is associated with normochromic anemia but may sometimes also cause macrocytic anemia. | |
An otherwise healthy, 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after being thrown off the back of a motorcycle. During the assessment, blood is noted at the urethral meatus. Which of the following statement is TRUE?: (A) A foley catheter should be inserted immediately., (B) Dislocation of the sacroiliac j... | Answer is B. Initially, advanced trauma life support (ATLS) protocol requires that airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC) to be maintained. Blood at the urethral meatus is an indication of lower urinary tract (bladder, urethra, penis) injury. Foley catheter should not be inserted until the integrity of urethra is ass... | |
Stereoanesthesia is due to lesion of: (A) Nucleus Gracilis, (B) Nucleus cuneatus, (C) Cerebral cortex, (D) Spinothalamic tract | Answer is C. (C) Cerebral cortex # Stereognosis:> The ability to identify objects by handling them with out looking at them is called stereognosis.> Ability obviously depends upon relatively intact touch & pressure sensation & is compromised when the dorsal columns are dam- aged.> It also has a large cortical component... | |
Caries estimated by all except: (A) Family member, (B) Genetic factors, (C) Cephalometric analysis, (D) Salivary flow | Answer is C. None | |
Which of he following is not a fibrous joint?: (A) Sutures of the skull, (B) First costochondral joint, (C) Tooth socket, (D) Inferior tibiofibular joints | Answer is B. Sutures of the skull, tooth socket and inferior tibiofibular joints are examples of fibrous joints. In fibrous joints bones are joined by fibrous tissue without any cavity. 3 types of fibrous joints are sutures, syndesmoses and gomphoses. Sutures occur between bones of the skull. In syndesmoses bones are c... | |
Prokinetic drug with extrapyramidal side effect is?: (A) Cisapride, (B) Domperidone, (C) Ondansetron, (D) Metoclopramide | Answer is D. Ans. (d) MetoclopramideRef KDT 6/e, p 642 | |
Which of the following is a derivative of Reichert's Cartilage?: (A) Stapes, (B) malleus, (C) Incus, (D) Sphenomandibular joint | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Stapes * Carilage of the second pharyngeal arch is called Reichert's Cartilage.* Derivatives of the Reichert's Cartilage includei) Stapesii) Styloid processiii) Stylohyoid ligamentiv) Small cornua of hyoidv) Superior part of the body of hyoid | |
Parietal branch of middle meningeal artery, which is closely related to cerebrum, it's involvement results:: (A) Hemiplagia of contralateral side., (B) Ipsilateral drafness., (C) Contalateral deafness, (D) All of the above. | Answer is C. Middle meningeal artery enters the middle cranial fossa through the foramen spinosun. In middle cranial fossa, it has an extradural course and divides into anterior frontal branch and posterior parietal branch.
The frontal branch is closely related to the motor area of cerebral cortex. It is the commonest ... | |
Indication of poor prognosis of systemic sclerosis is:: (A) Calcinosis cutis, (B) Renal involvement, (C) Alopecia, (D) Telangiectasia | Answer is B. * Patients with diffuse, rapid skin involvement have the highest risk of developing scleroderma renal crisis. Renal crisis occurs in about 10% of all patients with systemic sclerosis and is indicative of bad prognosis. * Renal crisis presents as accelerated hypeension, oliguria, headache, dyspnea, edema, a... | |
All are true about Neuroendocrine tumor of pancreas except:: (A) Insulinoma is MC, (B) VIP cause diarrhea, (C) Diarrhea is MC symptom of gastrinoma, (D) Somatostatinoma cause gall stone formation | Answer is C. “Insulinomas are the most common pancreatic endocrine neoplasms and present with a typical clinical syndrome known as Whipple’s triad" - Schwartz
Gastrinoma (Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome); The most common presenting symptoms are an abdominal pain (70-100%), diarrhea (37-73%). and gastroesophageal reflux dise... | |
Vestibulo ocular reflex is concerned with: (A) Archicerebellum, (B) Flocculonodular lobe, (C) Neocerebellum, (D) Occipital lobe | Answer is B. The flocculonodular lobe is phylogenetically the oldest pa of cerebellum has vestibular connections and is concerned with equilibrium and eye movements (vestibulo ocular reflex). Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:257. | |
A patient presented in casualty with a history of sudden onset palpitation, sensation of impending doom and constriction in his chest. This lasted for about 10-15 minutes after which he became all right. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?: (A) Phobia, (B) Personality disorder, (C) Generalized Anxiety disorder, (D) Pani... | Answer is D. This patient having typical symptoms lasting for about 15 minutes and becoming alright after that indicates that he is suffering from panic attack. In panic attack patients usually suffers from shoness of breath, tachypnea, tachycardia, tremor, dizziness, hot or cold sensations, chest discomfo, and feeling... | |
The term "id" in the structural model of the mind refers to: (A) Emotional pa of mind, (B) Rational pa of mind, (C) Moral pa of mind, (D) Conscience pa of mind | Answer is A. sigmund Freud was a pioneer in psychiatry he introduced the new school called PSYCHOANALYSIS he introduced the TOPOGRAPHICAL THEORY OF MIND he gave the concept of structural theory of mind he gave the concept of interpretation of dreams Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 1... | |
The term universal tumor refers to:: (A) Adenoma, (B) Papilloma, (C) Fibroma, (D) Lipoma | Answer is D. Lipomas are most common SUBCUTANEOUS LIPOMAS Also known as UNIVERSAL TUMOUR MC site: Trunk BRACKET CALCIFICATION is seen in lipoma of corpus callosum SURGICAL EXCISION is required for removal | |
What is the cause for luteal phase defect?: (A) Progesterone is inadequately secreted, (B) Excess estrogen is secreted, (C) Excess progesterone is secreted, (D) Both estrogen and progesterone are in excess | Answer is A. Luteal phase defect- In this condition, there is inadequate growth and function of the corpus luteum. There is inadequate progesterone secretion. The lifespan of corpus luteum is shoened less than 10days.As a result, there is inadequate secretory changes in the endometrium which hinder implantation.LPD is ... | |
Necrotising aerioritis with fibrinoid necrosis is characteristic of: (A) Immediate hypersensitivity, (B) Cell mediated immunity, (C) Ag-Ab complex mediated, (D) Cytotoxic mediated | Answer is C. Fibrinoid necrosis is a special form of necrosis, visible by light microscopy , usually in immune reaction in which complexes of antigens and antibodies are deposited in the walls of aeries. The deposited immune complexes together with fibrin that has leaked out of vessels produce a bright pink and amorpho... | |
Test of association between two variables is done by-: (A) X2, (B) Correlation, (C) Regression, (D) None | Answer is B. Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 852 In order to find out whether there is significant association or not between the two variables , coefficient or Corelation is calculated . r lies between -1 and +1 r near -1 : indicates strong negative correlation . r = 0 : indicates no association r near +1: indicates strong ... | |
A person on anti-tubercular drugs complained of deafness and tinnitus in one ear. Drug implicated is?: (A) Streptomycin, (B) Isoniazid, (C) Ethambutol, (D) Rifampicin | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) StreptomycinREF: KDT 7th ed p. 743Streptomycin causes nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity | |
Aerial enhancement and venous phase washout in a liver mass larger than 2 cm is diagnostic for: (A) Hemangioma, (B) Focal nodular hyperplasia, (C) Adenoma, (D) Hepatocellular carcinoma | Answer is D. . | |
NADA's criteria are used for:: (A) Assessment of child for degree of dehydration, (B) Assessment of child for degree of malnutrition, (C) Assessment of child for presence of hea disease, (D) Assessment of child for degree of mental | Answer is C. Answer is C (Assessment of child for presence of Hea disease) NADA's criteria are used for assessment of child for presence of hea disease. The assessment of a child for the presence or absence of hea disease can be done with the help of some guidelines suggested by 'V -I DA. These guidelines are called NA... | |
True about Alphal antitrypsin deficiency is?: (A) Deficiency of protease inhibitor, (B) Autosomal recessive, (C) May cause cholestatic jaundice, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. ANSWER: (D) All of the aboveREF: Robbins 7th ed p. 913Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency:Due to protease inhibitor deficiencyIncreased neutrophill elastaseNeonatal cholestasis may occur,Hepatocellular carcinoma may also developPulmonary disease may occur in form of emphysemaGene located on chromosome 14 | |
Most common cause of upper GI bleed -: (A) Esophageal varices, (B) Erosive gastritis, (C) Peptic ulcer disease, (D) Trauma | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Peptic ulcer disease o Upper G1 bleed refers to GI bleed refers to GI bleed occuringproximal to the ligament ofTreitz (.Ligament ofTreitz is a fibromuscular band extending from the right crus of diaphragm to the duodeno-jejunal flexure)Causes of upper GI bleed (in descending order)o Pepti... | |
Following are the characteristics of vincent’s angina, except:: (A) Ulcerative gingivostomatitis, (B) Caused due to malnutrition, (C) A symbiotic infection, (D) Caused by Leptospira interrogans | Answer is D. None | |
Which appendix pain is referred to suprapubic region?: (A) Preileal, (B) Postileal, (C) Pelvic, (D) Paracolic | Answer is C. Ans. (c) PelvicRef: Internet SourcesDifferent positions of appendix will produce some typical symptoms:* Pelvic appendix -- suprapubic pain* Retroileal appendix -- can cause testicular pain due to irritation of spermatic artery or ureter | |
All are true about microscopic appearance of pilocytic astrocytoma, EXCEPT:: (A) Bipolar cells, (B) Rosenthal fibers, (C) Eosinophilic granular bodies, (D) Decrease in the number of blood vessels | Answer is D. Pilocytic astrocytomas (grade I/IV) are distinguished from the other types by their pathologic appearance and relatively benign behavior On macroscopic examination, a pilocytic astrocytoma is often cystic; if solid, it may be well circumscribed or, less frequently, infiltrative. On microscopic examination ... | |
A child presents with barotrauma pain.There is no inflammation of middle ear, management is:: (A) Antibiotics, (B) Paracetamol, (C) Suppurative, (D) Grommet tube inseion | Answer is C. Treatment consists of teaching the patient valsalva manoeuvre. If this fails, politzerization or Eustachian tube catheterization is carried out. If fluid is present a myringotomy may be necessary and occasionally in resistant cases, grommet inseion may be required until the middle ear mucosa has returned t... | |
Mallory's hyaline is seen in -: (A) Hepatitis C infection, (B) Amoebic liver abscess, (C) Indian childhood cirrhosis, (D) Autoimmune hepatitis | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following beta adrenergic agonist is used as an aerosol for treatment of bronchial asthma?: (A) Salbutamol, (B) Ketotifen, (C) Fluticasone, (D) Monteleukast | Answer is A. Ans: a (Salbutamol) Ref: KDT, 5 ed, p. 217Salbutamol (albuterol) is a highly selective beta 2 agonist.Inhaled salbutamol produces bronchodilation within 5 min and the action lasts for 2-4 hours.Drugs used tor bronchial asthma:Bronchodilators:a. Sympathomimetic-AdrenalineEphedrineIsoprenalinesalbutamolterbu... | |
Onion skin spleen is seen in: (A) SLE, (B) Sjogren's syndrome, (C) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, (D) Henoch shonlein purpura | Answer is A. Onion skin patten is due to Concentric Fibrosis seen in SLE. | |
Superficial Plamar arch is related to the?: (A) Distal end of fully extended thumb, (B) Distal end of fully flexed thumb, (C) Proximal end of the fully flexed thumb, (D) Proximal end of fully extended thumb | Answer is A. Superficial palmar arch is a direct continuation of the ulnar aery. The curve of the arch lies across the palm, in level with the distal border of the fully extended thumb. The arch is completed by anastomosing with the superficial palmar branch of the radial aery. | |
All are TRUE regarding health planning, except -: (A) Resiource planning and implementation, (B) Eliminating wasteful expenditure, (C) Creating demands for needs, (D) To develop best course of action for best results | Answer is C. Steps of health planning analysis of health situation Establishment of objectives and goal Assessment of resources Fixing priorities Write up formulated plan Programming and implementation Monitoring Evaluation (refer pgno: 870 park 23 rd edition) | |
Walsham's forceps are used to:: (A) Remove teeth, (B) Remove root, (C) Clamp blood vessels, (D) Reduce nasal bone fractures | Answer is D. None | |
A known case of TB is now resistant to Rifampicin and Isoniazid. Which of the following would be most appropriate in treating this patient?: (A) 6 drugs for 4 months; 4 drugs for 12 months, (B) 4 drugs for 4 months. 6 drugs for 12 months, (C) 6 drugs for 6 months; 4 drugs for 18 months, (D) 5 drugs for 2 months; 4 drug... | Answer is C. Ans. C. 6 drugs for 6 months; 4 drugs for 18 months* Resistance to rifampicin and isoniazid is termed as multiple-drug-resistant TB (MDR-TB). In such a case, 6 drugs are used for 6-9 months in an intensive phase followed by 4 drugs for 18 months in a continuous phase.* The number of drugs used for specific... | |
All of the following drugs act by increasing the secretion of insulin except?: (A) Exenatide, (B) Saxagliptin, (C) Rosiglitazone, (D) Glipizide | Answer is C. Exenatide ->GLP-1 analogue - incretin which release insulin. S/E: Pancreatitis Saxagliptin -> DPP4 inhibitor which inhibit the metabolism of GLP-1, therefore increase insulin. Rosiglitazone acts PPAR gamma receptor. Reverse insulin resistance, associated with increase cardiovascular risk, Fluid retention,e... | |
Which of the following is not a feature of Heat stress: (A) Hyperpyrexia, (B) Syncope, (C) Cramps, (D) Numbness | Answer is D. Effect of Heat stress Heat stroke: Body temperature >110degF, Delirium, Convulsions, Absence of sweating Heat hyperpyrexia Heat exhaustion Heat cramps Heat syncope Ref : Park 25th edition Pgno : 784 | |
A patient of alcohlic liver faliure requires general anesthesia AOC is: (A) Ether, (B) Halothane, (C) Isoflurane, (D) Methoxyflurane | Answer is C. C i.e. Isoflurane - IsofluraneQ is volatile anesthetic agent of choiceQ in patients with liver disease because it has the least effect on hepatic blood flow. - CisatracuriumQ is neuromuscular blocking agent of choiceQ owing to its unique non hepatic metabolism. | |
All are true regarding cryptococcal infection except -: (A) Occurs in immune-deficient states, (B) Capsular Ag in CSF is a rapid method of detection, (C) Anticapsular Abs is protective, (D) Urease test +ve | Answer is C. 1. Capsular antigen detection from CSF or serum by latex agglutination test is a rapid and sensitive (95%). 2. Cryptococcus gives Urease test positive. 3. Anticapsular Abs is not protective 4. Predisposing factors: Patients with advanced HIV infection with CD4 T-cell counts < 200/ml is the most impoant ris... | |
Neonatal hypothermia can be prevented by all of the following EXCEPT?: (A) Warm chain, (B) Cold chain, (C) Kangaroo Mother care, (D) Radiant warmer | Answer is B. Neonatal hypothermia induces peripheral vasoconstriction leading to increased metabolism- Hypoxia Hypoglycemia Metabolic acidosis. Components of the warm chain 1. Thermal care in delivery room 2. Warm resuscitation 3. Immediate drying 4. Skin-to-skin contact 5. Breast feeding 6. Bathing postponing 7. Cloth... | |
Most common route of infection of Kidneys in T.B. is: (A) Direct invasion, (B) Hematogenous, (C) Lymphatic, (D) Ascending | Answer is B. None | |
Substrate level phosphorylation is seen in reaction catalyzed by which enzyme of citric acid cycle?: (A) Pyruvate kinase, (B) Succinate thiokinase, (C) Phosphoglycerate kinase, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. The reaction involves a substrate level phosphorylation whereby a high energy phosphate is generated from the energy trapped in the thioester bond of succinyl CoA. The enzyme is succinate thiokinase (step 5, Fig.18.2). A molecule of GDP is phosphorylated to GTP and succinate is formed. The GTP can be conve... | |
Rickets is due to -a) Loss of calcium in urineb) Increased mobilisation of calcium from bonec) Decreased absorption of calciumd) Loss of phosphate in Urine: (A) ab, (B) bc, (C) bd, (D) cd | Answer is D. Rickets is a metabolic disorder characterized by deficient mineralization of bone.
Rickets may be due to : -
Vit D deficient → ↓ absorption of calcium (Vit D dependent rickets).
Increased phosphate excretion due to defective reabsorption → Vit D resistant rickets. | |
7-Methyl guanosine cap is present in: (A) M-RNA, (B) t-RNA, (C) r-RNA, (D) DNA | Answer is A. Eukaryotic mRNA synthesis results in a pre-mRNA precursor that contains extensive amounts of excess RNA (introns) that must be precisely removed by RNA splicing to generate functional, translatable mRNA composed of exonic coding and 5' and 3' noncoding sequences. # All steps--from changes in DNA template,R... | |
All of the following are true about peritonsillar abscess, except:: (A) Bulge in soft palate, (B) Does not involve floor of mouth, (C) Abscess is collected lateral to the superior constrictor, (D) Trismus is commonly associated | Answer is C. (c) Abscess is collected lateral to the superior constrictor(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 3; 626)The abscess is collected in the peritonsillar space medial to the superior constrictor.Rest all are true. | |
What is Falanga:: (A) Beating on soles with blunt object, (B) Beating on ear with both palms, (C) Beating on the abdomen, (D) Suspension by wrists | Answer is A. Beating on ear with both palms | |
Which of the following type of wa is treated by local application of podophyllin?: (A) Plantar wa, (B) Genital wa, (C) Verruca Wa, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. Treatment of anal condyloma depends on the location and extent of disease. Small was on the perianal skin and distal anal canal may be treated by the topical application of bichloracetic acid or podophyllin. Imiquimod is an immunomodulator that recently was introduced for topical treatment of several viral... | |
The following statements regarding insulin resistance in diabetic patients are true except:: (A) It is more common with huminsulin, (B) It may occur in the presence of infections, (C) It may be due to antibodies to insulin, (D) Use of glucocorticoids may be useful in severe cases | Answer is A. Insulin resistance in diabetic patients has been defined as insulin requirement of more than 2 U/kg/day for control of hyperglycemia or prevention of ketosis for more than 3 days in the absence of any complications. Stressful conditions (when there is excess of glucocorticoids and other hyperglycemic hormon... | |
True statement about Vi polysaccharide vaccine is:: (A) Has many serious systemic adverse reactions, (B) Has many serious local side effects, (C) Has many contraindications, (D) Can be administered with yellow fever and hepatitis A vaccine | Answer is D. Can be administered with yellow fever and hepatitis A vaccine "The Vi polysaccharide vaccine can be co-administered with other vaccines relevant for international travelers such as yellow fever and hepatitis A and with vaccines of the routine child hood immunization programs"- Park There are two anti typho... |
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