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Commonest type of Retinal detachment?: (A) Rhegmatogenous, (B) Choroidal hemorrhage, (C) Exudative, (D) Tractional | Answer is A. Ans. a (Rhegmatogenous). (Ref Ophthalmology by Basak 4th/ 316; Kanski's 6th/349; Parson's 20th/311).The term rhegmatogenous is derived from the Greek word rhegma, which means a discontinuity or a break. A rhegmatogenous retinal detachment (RRD) occurs when a tear in the retina leads to fluid accumulation w... | |
Vaginal Ph in women of the reproductive age group is within which of the following range?: (A) 4-4.5, (B) 7-Jun, (C) 8-Jul, (D) 3-Jan | Answer is A. The healthy vagina of a woman of child-bearing age is acidic, with a pH normally ranging between 3.8 and 4.5. This is due to the degradation of glycogen to the lactic acid by enzymes secreted by the Doderlein's bacillus. This is a normal commensal of the vagina. The acidity retards the growth of many strai... | |
Screening test for sclerodema: (A) Anti-nuclear antibody, (B) Ul-Ribonucleoprotein antibody, (C) Anti- L.K.M. antibody, (D) Anti- topoisomerase antibody | Answer is A. Answer- A. Anti-nuclear antibodyANA is the screening method of choice for systemic rheumatic disease such as systemic lupus erythyematous (SLE), mixed connective tissue disease, Sjogren syndrome, scleroderma, CREST syndrome, rheumatoid ahritis, polymyositis, dermatomyositis. | |
A child was brought by his mother complaining nocturnal perianal pruritus and presence of adult worms in the stool. Which of the following is the most common intestinal infection in school-age children worldwide?: (A) Plasmodium vivax, (B) Enterobius vermicularis, (C) Entamoeba histolytica, (D) Strongyloides stercorali... | Answer is B. Enterobius vermicularis, the pinworm, is a common cause of intestinal infections worldwide, with maximal prevalence in school-age children. Enterobiasis is transmitted person-to-person ingestion of eggs after contact with the hands or perianal region of an infected individual, food or fomites that have bee... | |
Sociology-: (A) Study of human relationship, (B) Study of behaviour, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is C. sociology ; study of human relationships and behaviour for a better understanding of the pattern of human life. it also concerned with the effects on the individual of the ways in which other individuals think and act ref ;(page no;670)23rd edition of PARK's textbook of Preventive and Social medicine | |
Basophilic stippling is due to: (A) Ala synthetase deficiency, (B) Ferrochelatase deficiency, (C) 5' nucleotidase deficiency, (D) Ala dehdrogenase deficiency | Answer is C. (C) (5'- nucleotides deficiency) (880-H 18(tm))Lead intoxication is accompanied by an acquired deficiency of erythrocyte pryimidine-specific, 5'-nucleotidase.Genetically determined deficiency of this enzyme is associated with chronic hemolysis, marked basophilic stippling of erythrocytes on stained blood f... | |
Which of the following is not true regarding wilson's disease: (A) ATP7B mutation leading to impairment in copper metabolism, (B) Most specific screening test is Urinary excretion of copper, (C) Gold standard test is liver biopsy, (D) KF ring is present in upto 30% cases | Answer is D. KF ring is present in upto 99 % of cases.
ATP 7B mutation results in defective biliary copper excretion into bile as copper can't be incorporated into apoceruloplasmin.
Thus copper accumulates in excess amounts in liver and brain.
The copper accumulation in descemets membrane of cornea is manifested as KF ... | |
Clinical scenario with bag of worms: (A) Varicocele, (B) Hydrocele, (C) Torsion of testis, (D) Congenital hernia | Answer is A. Answer- A. VaricoceleA varicocele is a varicose (touous) dilatation of the vein draining the testis.C/FOn palpation, testicules may feels like a bag of wormsvaricocele is painless and the only complaint of the patient is swelling. | |
One of the following is an example of painless midline swelling :: (A) Branchial cyst, (B) Thyroglossal cyst, (C) Cystic hygroma, (D) Carotid body tumour | Answer is B. Ans is 'b' ie Thyroglossal cyst. Midline swelling of neck from above downwardsLudwig's anginaEnlarged submental lymph nodesSublingual dermoidLipoma in submental regionThyroglossal cyst Subhyoid bursitisGoitre Lipoma & enlarged lymph nodes in the suprasternal space of bumsRetrosternal goiterThymic swelling(... | |
At 9 weeks, approximate CRL in mm of a fetus would be:: (A) 8 mm, (B) 2.5 mm, (C) 9 mm, (D) 5 mm | Answer is B. Crown rump length(CRL) is measured from the top of the head to the bottom of buttocks excluding limbs.CRL between 9 and 11 weeks is the most accurate method of dating.Error is about +/- 5 days.CRL in cm +6.5 gives a rough estimate of gestational age in weeks.Uesful prior to amniocentesis and chorion sampli... | |
Oral contraceptive Pill (OCP) failure is seen with all except:: (A) Rifampicin, (B) Phenobarbitone, (C) Valproate, (D) Phenytoin | Answer is C. Drugs leading to OCP failure are: Rifampicin Tetracyclines Phenytoin Phenobarbitone Antifungals Cephalosporin Ritonavir for HIV (interferes with absorptionn of OCP) Ref: online resources (ncb.nlm.nih.gov) | |
Cholesterol from the liver is transpoed to the peripheral tissue mainly by:: (A) HDL, (B) LDL, (C) VLDL, (D) Chylomicrons | Answer is B. Low-density lipoprotein/ LDLIt is one of the five major groups of lipoproteins, which in order of size, largest to smallest, are chylomicrons, VLDL, IDL, LDL, and HDL, that enable transpo of multiple different fat molecules, as well as cholesterol, within the water around cells and within the water-based b... | |
Metabolism of a drug primarily results in: (A) Activation of the active drug, (B) Conversion of prodruv to active metabolite, (C) Conversion of lipid soluble drugs to water soluble metabolites, (D) Conversion of water soluble drugs to lipid solible metabolites | Answer is C. Ref-Katzung 10/e p50 After metabolism most of the drugs become inactive and their excreted through the kidney. Lipids soluble drugs wil be reabsprbed whereas water soluble drugs are easily excreted.thus, metabolism of drugs helps in the conversion of liquid soluble drugs to water soluble metabolites | |
A 43-year-old 190 cm man post a flight to Chennai presents with left-sided chest discomfort and dyspnea. On chest X-ray, there is a small area devoid of lung markings in the apex of the left lung. Diagnosis is?: (A) Spontaneous pneumothorax, (B) Myocardial infarction, (C) Acute cor pulmonale, (D) Aortic dissection | Answer is A. Ans. A Spontaneous pneumothoraxRef: CMDT 2019 pg. 325Spontaneous pneumothorax occurs from a rupture of an apical pleural bleb and is associated with tall, young males and is also seen with aeroplane ascent. | |
Which of the following properties make pyridostigmine different from neostigmine ?: (A) It is more potent, (B) It is longer acting, (C) It produces less muscarinic side effects, (D) It does not have any direct action on NM receptors | Answer is B. Though less potent than Neostigmine, Pyridostigmine has longer duration of action (3 to 6 hrs)
Duration of action of neostigmine is 0.5 to 2 hrs. | |
Drug of choice for bacterial vaginosis is :: (A) Metronidazole, (B) Ampicillin, (C) Ciprofloxacin, (D) Fluconazole | Answer is A. None | |
Aniseikonia is-: (A) Difference in the axial length of the eyeballs, (B) Difference in the size of corneas, (C) Difference in the size of pupils, (D) Difference in the size of image formed by the two eyes | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Difference in the size of image formed by the two eyes * Anisoeikonia is defined as a condition wherein the images projected on the visual cortex from the two retinae are abnormally unequal in size or shape. Causes may be : -i) Optical aniseikonia: - When the difference between refractive... | |
Middle meningeal aery passes through which foramen?: (A) Foramen rotundum, (B) Foramen spinosum, (C) Foramen ovale, (D) Jugular foramen | Answer is B. The middle meningeal aery is a branch of the first pa of the maxillary aery, given off in the infratemporal fossa. In infratemporal fossa, the aery runs upwards and medially deep to the lateral pterygoid muscle and superficial to the sphenomandibular ligament. Here it passes through a loop formed by the tw... | |
Denominator in General fertility rate is?: (A) Married women in reproductive age group in a given year, (B) Women in reproductive age group in a given year, (C) Married women in any specified age group, (D) Women in any specified age group | Answer is B. ANSWER: (B) Women in reproductive age group in a given yearREF: Parks textbook 20th edition page419Repeat from December 2008General fertility rate: Number of live births per 1000 women in reproductive age group in a given yearGeneral marital fertility rate: Number of live births per 1000 married women in r... | |
A patient presented in emergency with tachycardia, hyperthermia, bronchial dilatation and constipation. The person is likely to be suffering from overdose of:: (A) Atropine, (B) Organophosphorus compound, (C) Mushroom, (D) Paracetamol | Answer is A. Ans. (A) Atropine(Ref: Modi's Medical jurisprudence and Toxicology. 23rd, 2005/92, 403, 429-430, Goodman and Gilman 12/e p234-235)These are the characteristic features of anti-cholinergic overdose. | |
A 58-year-old woman presents with an irregular nodularity that has developed in her right breast over the past 3 months. Mammography demonstrates irregular densities in both breasts. A needle biopsy of one breast lesion is shown. An excisional biopsy of the contralateral breast shows similar histology. Which of the fol... | Answer is B. Lobular carcinoma in situ arises in the terminal duct lobular unit. Malignant cells appear as solid clusters that pack and distend the terminal ducts but not to the extent of ductal carcinoma in situ. The lesion does not usually incite the dense fibrosis and chronic inflammation so characteristic of intrad... | |
The following muscle is an opener of the glottis -: (A) Lateral cricoarytenoid, (B) Posterior cricoarytenoid, (C) Transverse arytenoid, (D) Inter arytenoids | Answer is B. Opener (abductor) of glottis is posterior cricoarytenoid. | |
True about hiatus hernia: (A) Surgery indicated in all symptomatic cases of paraesophageal, (B) Para-esophageal type is more complicated, (C) Para-esophageal type is common type, (D) Common in infants | Answer is A. HIATUS HERNIA is the most common type of a diaphragmatic hernia classified into type 1 -commonest, small, reducible and is the cephalad displacement of the gastro oesophagal junction into the mediastinum. type 2 -superior migration of fundus of the stomach alongside the GE junction type 3 -combination of b... | |
Which of the following staphylococcal protein is a superantigen-: (A) Exfoliative toxin, (B) Cytolytic toxin, (C) ProteinA, (D) Leucocidin | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Exfoliative toxin Examples of superantigeno Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome toxino Staphylococcal enterotoxinso Staphylococcal exfoliative (erythrogenic) toxino Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome toxino Certain nonhuman retroviral proteinso Yersinia pseudotuberculosiso Mycoplasma arth... | |
Base substitution of GAC (Asp) to GAG (Glu) is an example ofa) Point mutationb) Silent mutationc) Non-sense mutationd) Conserved mutatione) Non-conserved mutation: (A) b, (B) c, (C) ad, (D) ab | Answer is C. It is a point mutation because only single nucleotide is changed (C by G).
It is a conserved mutation because altered AA has same properties as the original one (Both are acidic). | |
In endodontic practice, periapical radiographs are very useful in assessing the: (A) Length of the root canal, (B) Presence of infection in the pulp, (C) Vitality of the pulp, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Polycystic disease of the kidney may have cysts in all of the following organs except -: (A) Lung, (B) Liver, (C) Pancreas, (D) Spleen | Answer is A. None | |
Nerve supply of Glans penis is: (A) Genital branch of genito-femoral nerve, (B) Ilio-inguinal nerve, (C) Ilio-hypogastric nerve, (D) Pudendal nerve | Answer is D. Innervation of penis : nerves deriving from S2-S4. Sensory & sympathetic innervation: provided by the dorsal nerve of penis (terminal branch of pudendal nerve), which runs lateral to dorsal aery of penis. It Supplies both skin and glans. The sensory endings are more numerous on the glans). Ilioinguinal ner... | |
All of the following structures forms the boundaries of the quadrangular space which is present under the deltoid muscle in the shoulder region, from the posterior side, EXCEPT:: (A) Teres minor, (B) Teres major, (C) Surgical neck of humerus, (D) Long head of biceps brachii | Answer is D. Structures forming the boundaries of the quadrangular space from the posterior side are:Superiorly by teres minorInferiorly by teres majorLaterally by surgical neck of humerusMedially by long head of triceps brachiiContents of the quadrangular space are:Axillary nervePosterior circumflex humeral vesselsSag... | |
platelet activating factor causes all except:: (A) Vasoconstriction, (B) Bronchodilation, (C) Causes platelet aggregation, (D) transmits signals between cells | Answer is B. PAF is another phospholipid derived mediator having the following inflammatory effects: Platelet aggregation Vasoconstriction Bronchoconstriction At extremely low concentration, it may cause vasodilation and increased venular permeability Increases leukocyte adhesion to the endothelium (by enhancing integr... | |
Abductors of larynx are:: (A) Posterior cricoarytenoids, (B) Transverse arytenoids, (C) Cricothyroid, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Skin involvement in toxic epidermal necrolysis?: (A) < 10 %, (B) l0 - 20%, (C) 20 - 30%, (D) > 30% | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., > 30% Erythema multiforme It is an acute , often self limited eruption characterized by a distinctive clinical eruption, the hallmark of which is target lesions (Iris lesions). EM can present with wide spectrum of severity which can be classified into 1. Erythema multiforme minor It is si... | |
Coronary vasodilatation is caused by: (A) Adenosine, (B) Bradykinin, (C) Histamines, (D) Ergotamine | Answer is A. Refer kDT 7/e p536 It serves as a metabolic coupler between oxygen consumption andcoronary blood flow. ... Parasympathetic stimulation of the hea (i.e., vagal nerve activation) elicits modest coronary vasodilation(due to the direct effects of released acetylcholine on the coronaries). In some types of bloo... | |
Which of the laboratory test supports the diagnosis of preeclampsia: (A) Platelet count 103,000 / μ L., (B) Creatinine 1.14 mg / dL., (C) Alkaline phosphatase 138 IU / L., (D) Total protein of 258 mg in 24 hour urine. | Answer is A. Pre - eclampsia Diagnostic criteria
B.P > 140 /90 mmHg after 20 weeks in previously normotensive women
Proteinuria > 300 mg / 24 hours or
Protein : Creatinine ratio > 0.3 or
Dipstick 1 + Persistent.
Platelets < 100,000 / μ L
Creatinine > 1.1 mg / dL
Serum transaminase levels twice normal. | |
Craniospinal irradiation is employed in the treatment of:: (A) Oligodendroglioma, (B) Pilocytic astrocytoma, (C) Mixed oligoastrocytoma, (D) Medulloblastoma | Answer is D. Medulloblastoma | |
Madelung's deformity involves -: (A) Humerus, (B) Proximal ulna, (C) Distal radius, (D) Carpals | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Distal radiusMadelung's deformityo Madelung's deformity is a congenital disorder that affects growth of distal radius.o The primary defect is failure of normal growth of medial and palmar halves of the distal radial physis, leading to curvature in an medial (ulnar) and palmar direction,o ... | |
Oolani&;s test is used in: (A) congenital dislocation of knee, (B) Obstetric brachial plexus injury, (C) Developmental dysplasia of hip, (D) Tom Smith's ahritis | Answer is C. OOLANI&;STEST is used to test DDH in infants In this test the baby&;s thighs are held with the thumbs medially and the fingers resting on the greater trochanters; the hips are flexed to 90 degrees and gently abducted. In NORMAL baby, there is smooth abduction to almost 90 degrees. In CONGENITAL DISLOCATION... | |
Ideal substance for measuring GFR should have all characteristics except: (A) Should be secreted in tubules, (B) Should be non-toxic, (C) Should not remain in the body, (D) Should not be protein bound | Answer is A. The Ideal substance to measure GFR is Inulin or following reasons ; It is non-toxic; It is freely filterable by the glomeruli; it is not bound to proteins It is neither secreted nor reabsorbed by the tubules; It is not synthesized, stored, or destroyed by the kidney . Thus, Filtered inulin = excreted inuli... | |
Oakley fulthrope procedure is: (A) Agglutination test, (B) Precipitation test, (C) Flocculation test, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Antibody (antiserum) is incorporated in agar, poured into a tube and allowed to harden. A second layer of agar without antibody is placed above and allowed to solidify. Antigen solution is placed above the agar. The precipitin band appears in the plain agar column. Ref ananthnarayana and panikers microbiol... | |
A 75-year-old male presented with chief complaint of pain in the right shoulder. CXR is shown below. Which of the following could be the cause of pain in this patient?: (A) Pancoast tumor, (B) Sarcoidosis, (C) Subclan aery aneurysm, (D) Mesothelioma | Answer is A. CXR shows a mass in the right lung apex and there is associated destruction of the right 2nd and 3rd ribs posteriorly. A combination of an apical mass along with the destruction of the rib is characteristic of Pancoast tumor/ Superior Sulcus Tumor. MRI is a more sensitive investigation in identifying the e... | |
A 50-year-old woman undergoes neurosurgery for resection of a well-circumscribed intracranial neoplasm attached to the dura. The tumor compressed the underlying brain parenchyma without infiltration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?: (A) Aeriovenous malformation, (B) Glioblastoma multiforme, (C) Med... | Answer is D. The gross features of this dural-based tumor are consistent with meningioma, the most frequent benign intracranial neoplasm. It arises from meningothelial cells and histologically consists of whorls of elongated cells with scattered psammoma bodies. The benign behavior of this tumor is apparent from its "p... | |
Nodular growth of alveolus is seen in: (A) Paget's disease, (B) Osteomas, (C) Cementifying fibroma, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. None | |
Which is the commonest indication of classical cesarean section?: (A) Transverse lie, (B) Cord prolapse, (C) Dense adhesion in lower uterine segment, (D) Placenta praevia | Answer is C. ANSWER: (C) Dense adhesion in lower uterine segmentREF: William's obs 22nd e p- 5987Classical caesarean section is not done these days f however its done in cases where the lower segment is not approachable. Uterine incision is made on upper segment above the reflection of uterovesical fold of peritoneum.I... | |
All of the followoing non-mycobacterial microorganisms display acid fastness, EXCEPT:: (A) Nocardia, (B) Fusobacterium nucleatum, (C) Rhodococcus, (D) Isospora | Answer is B. Microorganisms other than mycobacteria that display some acid fastness includes Nocardia, Rhodococcus, Legionella micdadei, Protozoa Isospora and Cryptosporidium. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 1340 | |
Surgery of choice for chronic acquired dacryocystitis: (A) Dacryocystorhinostomy, (B) Dacryocystectomy, (C) Conjunctivo-cystorhinostomy, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dacryocystorhinostomy Treatment of chronic dacryocystitis Congenital Adult (acquired) Massage over lacrimal sac with antibiotic eye drops Conservative :- Massage, antibiotic drops, probing, Syringing (irrigation) with normal saline & syringing antibiotic solution Dacryocystorhinostomy (DC... | |
A mother presents to the neonatology OPD with her baby because of yellow extremities. On examination, there is petechial rash over the body, hepatosplenomagaly, microcephaly. What is the causative organism?: (A) CMV, (B) Rubella, (C) HSV, (D) Varicella | Answer is A. Features of congenital CMV infection are: petechial rash, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly, microcephaly, periventricular calcification, deafness, chorioretinitis,IUGR. congenital rubella syndrome: triad of cardiac defects, cataract and conductive hearing loss neonatal herpes presents as skin lesions with eye ... | |
Preformed enterotoxins are formed by ?: (A) Clostridium tetani, (B) E.coli, (C) Shigella sonnei, (D) Clostridium perfringens | Answer is D. None | |
Smokeless gun powder is composed of ?: (A) KMnO4, (B) HCN, (C) Nitrocellulose, (D) Sulphur | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Nitrocellulose Smoke producing powder :- Black powder (black gun powder), Pyrodex. Smokeless powder :- Black powder plus nitrocellulose/nitrocellulose + nitroglycerine/nitroglycerine + nitrocellulose nitroguanidine. Semismokeless powder :- 80% black powder plus 20% smokeless powder. | |
Soap bubble appearance on Xray is seen in which bone tumor ?: (A) Osteogenic sarcoma, (B) Giant cell tumor, (C) Multiple myeloma, (D) Chondroblastoma | Answer is A. Ans. is 'A' i.e., Rheumatoid ahritis Repeat from previous sessions. See explanation-3 of session-3. | |
Which of the following is the organism causing chronic burrowing ulcer?: (A) Peptostreptococcus, (B) Streptococcus viridans, (C) Streptococcus pyogenes, (D) Microaerophilic streptococci | Answer is D. Chronic Burrowing ulcer is also known as Meleney's ulcer. This type of ulcer is caused by a hemolytic microaerophilic Streptococci, and usually develops after surgery on the intestinal or genital tract. Ref: A Manual On Clinical Surgery, By, S.Das,Page, 52, 53; Oxford Textbook Of Surgery, 2000, 2nd Edition... | |
Most common tumour in undescended testis is :: (A) Seminoma, (B) Teratoma, (C) Both of the above, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Approximately 95% of testicular tumors are derived from germ cells. Seminomas tend to remain localized in the testis for a longer period, are radiosensitive, and metastasize to lymph nodes, whereas nonseminomatous neoplasms metastasis sooner, are radioresistant, and tend to metastasize hematogenous routes.... | |
The following are DDT resistant except –: (A) Phlebotomos, (B) Culex fatigans, (C) Anopheles stephenci, (D) Musca domestica | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group ?: (A) Procaine, (B) Bupivacaine, (C) Lignocaine, (D) Mepivacaine | Answer is A. None | |
Which of the following disorder is an indication for the use of steroids in neonates?: (A) Brochopulmonary dysplasia, (B) Pulmonary hypoplasia, (C) Oesophagial atresia, (D) None | Answer is A. Bronchopulmonary disorder is a chronic lung disorder which occur in children born prematurely with low bihweight and who recieved prolonged mechanical ventilation to treat respiratory distress syndrome. Treatment modalities includes use of surfactant, inhalational glucocoicoids with beta 2 agonists . | |
Somatosensory area I largest representation is for: (A) Arm, (B) Leg, (C) Back, (D) Head | Answer is A. Coical areas for sensation from trunk and back are small, whereas large areas are concerned with impulses from hand and pas of mouth. And from the figure 11-4 it is evident that area for hand is more than face. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:175 | |
In trichomonas - vaginalis:: (A) Greenish discharge, (B) White curdy discharge, (C) Blood stained discharge, (D) Milky discharge | Answer is A. (Greenish discharge) (125-Smaw's 13th) (107-S14th)* Trichomoniasis - 70% show typical discharge, which is profuse, thin creamy or slightly green in colour irriting and frothy discharge (almost self diagnostic)Multiple small punctate strawberry spots on the vaginal vault and portio-vaginalis of the cervix {... | |
Regarding sudeck's osteodystrophy all are true except: (A) Burning pain, (B) Stiffness & swelling, (C) Erythematous & cyanotic discolouration, (D) Self limiting & good prognosis | Answer is D. D i.e. Self limiting & good prognosis - International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) has advocated the term complex regional pain syndrome type 1 (CRPS-1) for reflex sympathetic dystrophy and term complex regional pain syndrome type 2 (CRPS-2) to describe causalgia or similar signs and symptoms a... | |
Increased BMR is associated with -: (A) Increased body fat store, (B) Increased glvcognenesis, (C) Increased glycolysis, (D) Increased lipogenesis | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased glycolysis o Increased BMR is associated with hyper metabolic state which is characterized by :-Carbohydrate metabolismi) | Glycolysis| Gluconeogenesis| Glvcogenesis| GlyeogenolysisLipid metablism| Lipogenesis| Lipolysis| Cholesterol Synthesis| Triacylglycerol Synthesis| Lipopro... | |
Histone acetylation causes: (A) Increased Heterochromatin formation, (B) Increase Euchromatin formation, (C) Methylation of cystine, (D) DNA replication | Answer is B. Histone acetylation and deacetylation are the processes by which the lysine residues within the N-terminal tail protruding from the histone core of the nucleosome are acetylated and deacetylated as pa of gene regulation. Histone acetylation and deacetylation are essential pas of gene regulation. These reac... | |
A pregnant woman of >35 weeks gestation has SLE. All of the following drugs are used in treatment except:: (A) Methotrexate, (B) Sulfasalazine, (C) Prednisolone, (D) Chloroquine | Answer is A. Methotrexate is very effective in treating Systemic Lupus erythematosus(SLE) but during pregnancy, it can cross the placenta and cause the teratogenic effect to the fetus. The main teratogenic effect caused by Methotrexate is cleft palate, hydrocephalus, multiple defect, and fetal death. ESSENTIALS OF MEDI... | |
Boorheave syndrome involves perforation of esophagus after: (A) Burns, (B) Acid ingestion, (C) Stress, (D) Vomiting | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Vomiting [Ref: CSDT 13th/ep.444 & 11th/e p. 490; Schwartz 9th/ep.874 & 8th/e, p. 906; Bailey & Love 25th/e p.1014 & 24th/ep.996}* Boerhaave's syndrome is spontaneous perforation of the esophagus, occuring usually due tosevere barotrauma when a person vomits against a closed glottis. The p... | |
Horner syndrome causes all, except:: (A) Enophthalmos, (B) Mydriasis, (C) Anhidrosis, (D) Narrowed palpebral fissure | Answer is B. Mydriasis | |
β - blocker toxicity is treated by: (A) Atropine, (B) Insulin, (C) Fomepizole, (D) Glucagon | Answer is D. Glucagon is used to treat Overdose of β - blockers
Fomepizole is used to Ethylene Glycol poisoning. | |
Investigation of choice for studying Renal Coical mass: (A) 99 Tc DTPA, (B) 53 Cr Study, (C) 99 Tc DMSA, (D) 99 Tc Pyrophosphate | Answer is C. C i.e. 99 - Tc - DMSA DTPA (Renogram) DMSA (Isotope Scanning) - DTPA is freely filtered at glomerulus with no - Tc.99 DMSA is used for renal morphological tubular reabsorption or excretion (i.e. GFR = (anatomic) imagine Excretory function) - This compound gets fixed in renal tubules & images - DTPA is usef... | |
Drugs commonly used in pre-anaesthetic medication are all except: (A) Diazepam, (B) Scopolamine, (C) Morphine, (D) Succinyl choline | Answer is D. Succinylcholine is a neuro muscular blocker used during induction of General anaesthesia. Drugs used in premedication include benzodiazepines like midazolam, diazepam; opioids like morphine, fentanyl; anticholinergics like atropine, scopolamine, glycopyrrolate. | |
All are the criteria for medical management of ectopic pregnancy except:: (A) Asymptomatic patient., (B) Serum r3-hCG level <2000 IU/L., (C) Pregnancy diameter <5 cm., (D) Unruptured tube. | Answer is C. Ans. C. Pregnancy diameter <5cmCriteria are:a. Asymptomatic patient.b. Serum b-hCGlevel<2000IU/L.c. Pregnancy diameter <2cm.d. Unruptured tube.e. Non-active bleeding.f. No fetal cardiac activity on USG.g. <100ml blood in the pouch of Douglas. | |
Stain with parasite having Charcot-Layden crystals but no pus cells:: (A) Giardia, (B) Taenia, (C) E. histolytica, (D) Trichomonas | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., E. histolytica(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1685; D.R. Arora, 2nd/e, p. 26, 27)* Fecal finding in amoebiasis are:I. Charcot-Leyden crystals.II. Positive test for heme.III. Paucity (lack) of neutrophils (pus cells). | |
A 75-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction 2 years ago, peripheral vascular disease with symptoms of claudication after walking half a block, hypeension, and diabetes presents with a large ventral hernia. He wishes to have the hernia repaired. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in h... | Answer is D. The patient should undergo persantine thallium stress testing followed by echocardiography to assess his need for coronary angiogram with possible need for angioplasty, stenting, or surgical revascularization prior to repair of his hernia. Although exercise stress testing is an appropriate method for evalu... | |
Hypokalemia is not present in :: (A) Vomiting, (B) Diarrhoea, (C) Patient on diuretics, (D) Chronic renal failure | Answer is D. None | |
Which of the following drugs used to treat MDR TB can cause hypothyroidism:: (A) Kanamycin, (B) Pyrazinamide, (C) Ethionamide, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Adverse effects of Ethionamide Gastro-intestinal: epigastric discomfo, anorexia, nausea, metallic taste, vomiting, excessive salivation, and sulfurous belching Psychiatric: hallucination and depression Hepatitis Hypothyroidism and goitre with prolonged administration Gynaecomastia, menstrual disturbances, ... | |
Classic Galactosemia is due to deficiency of:: (A) Hexosaminidase, (B) Glucocerebroside, (C) Sphingomyelinase, (D) Galactose-1-Phosphate-Uridyl-Transferase | Answer is D. Galactose 1-Phosphatase Uridyltransferase (GALT) the rate-limiting enzyme of galactose metabolism is deficient in galactosemia. Galactose undergoes an exchange reaction with UDP-glucose to produce glucose 1-phosphate and UDP-galactose, using the rate-limiting enzyme galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase ... | |
A female presents with placenta previa with active bleeding and blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and pulse rate of 140 bpm. The choice of anaesthesia for emergency cesarean section in this female is?: (A) General anesthesia with intravenous propofol, (B) General anesthesia with intravenous ketamine, (C) Spinal anesthesia,... | Answer is B. Ans. (B) General anesthesia with intravenous ketamine(Ref: Williams Obstetrics 24th/e p518; Morgan 4th/197-199)The patient is presenting with shock, so spinal anesthesia cannot be used. Among the general anesthetics, ketamine is drug of choice for induction in patients with low blood pressure. | |
Drug of choice in bacterial vaginosis is :: (A) Metronidazole, (B) Doxycycline, (C) Clindamycin, (D) Ciprofloxacin | Answer is A. Metronidazole | |
Which of the following statements is wrong regarding hematoma: (A) MRI needed to access haematoma, (B) GCS assessment helps in prognosis, (C) Haematoma must be operated, (D) All of the above | Answer is C. Ref. Sabiston Textbook of Surgery. Pg. 436
Hematoma
A hematoma is a localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels ,due to either disease or trauma including injury or surgery and may involve blood continuing to seep from broken capillaries .
A hematoma is initially liquid in form spread among ... | |
Lymphatic drainage of upper outer quadrant of breast ?: (A) Anterior axillary, (B) Posterior axillary, (C) Paratracheal, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anterior axillary Most lymph, especially that from the superior lateral quadrant and center of breast, drains into the axillary lymph nodes, which, in turn, are drained by the subclan lymphatic trunk. Among the axillary nodes, the lymphatics end mostly in the anterior groups and paly the ... | |
Opsonization takes place through-: (A) C3a, (B) C3b, (C) C5a, (D) C5b | Answer is B. 1. All the three complement activation pathways(classical , alternate , lectin) lead to activation of C3, resulting in the production of C3b. Hence, C3b is considered as the central molecule in the activation of the complement cascade. 2. The C3b has two impoant functions to perform First, it combines with... | |
What is your diagnosis:-: (A) Orbital blow out fracture, (B) Orbital roof fracture, (C) Oculomotor nerve paralysis, (D) Retrobulbar hemorrhage | Answer is A. Following image shows a defect in the orbital floor and the 'tear drop' sign in the antrum characteristic of blow out fractures of orbit. WATER'S view on X-RAY is helpful in eliciting orbital blow out fracture | |
All are true about fully frozen Ice pack except:-: (A) Smallest component of cold chain, (B) Two vaccines are kept in two holes inside the ice pack, (C) Fill water up to horizontal mark with plain tap water, (D) Can store vaccines for 24hrs | Answer is D. Fully Frozen Ice Pack; Fill water up to horizontal mark with plain tap water. Smallest Component of cold chain. If there is any leakage such ice-packs should be discarded. 2 vaccines are kept in two holes inside the ice pack. Can maintain vaccine temeprature for 2-4 hours. | |
Most common presentation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma is?: (A) Neck mass, (B) Trotter's triad, (C) Ophtalmoplegia, (D) Glue ear | Answer is A. Ans. is'a'i.e., Neck mass(Ref: Dhingra Sn/e p. 265)Neck mass is the most common presentation (60-90%) due to cervical lymphadenopathy. | |
Sixth cranial nerve lies at?: (A) Midbrain, (B) Pons, (C) Medulla, (D) Cerebellum | Answer is B. Sixth cranial nerve which supplies the lateral rectus muscle of the eyeball. one nerve fibre supplies approximately six muscles fibers. Abducent nucleus is situated in the upper pa of the floor of fouh ventricle in the lower pons, beneath the facial colliculus.ventromedially it is closely related to the me... | |
Treatment of Ca Cervix IIIB include -: (A) Wertheims hysterectomy, (B) Schauta ' s hysterectomy, (C) Chemotherapy, (D) Intracavity brachytherapy followed by external beam radiotherapy | Answer is D. Ans-D i.e., Intracavity brachytherapy followed by external beam radiotherapy Stage 1IA * Invasion limited to the measured stromal invasion with the maximum depth of 5mm and not wider than 7 mm IA1 * Invasion of stroma not greater than 3 mm in depth and no wider than 7mmIA2 * Measured invasion of stroma gre... | |
Which of the following inhalational anesthetic agent is contraindicated in liver disease?: (A) Methoxyflurane, (B) Halothane, (C) Ether, (D) Isoflurane | Answer is B. Ans. b (Halothane). (Ref. Lee's synopsis of Anesthesia 12th ed. 163)Ether may cause a transient depression of liver function but does not cause significant damage.HALOTHANE# Dose: 0.5% (MAC 0.75%)# Actions: analgesic, anaesthetic# Advantages:- Potent and effective,- Allows for high FI02 delivery,- Bronchod... | |
X - linked inheritance of alport's syndrome is due to mutation of _________: (A) COL4A5 gene, (B) COL4B6 gene, (C) COL3A5 gene, (D) COL4A3 gene | Answer is A. Mutation of COL4A5 gene ⇒ X - linked inheritence
Mutation of COL4A3 ,COL4A4 gene ⇒ Autosomal inheritence | |
A chemical is tested for carcinogenicity by examining its mutagenic effects on bacterial cells in culture. Which of the following tests is used to make this determination?: (A) Ames test, (B) Nitroblue tetrazolium test, (C) Watson-Schwaz test, (D) Widal test | Answer is A. The test described is the Ames test, which measures damage to DNA and correlates well with carcinogenicity in vitro. It is relatively inexpensive to perform, compared to other tests of carcinogenicity, and is frequently used as a screening test for potential carcinogens. The nitroblue tetrazolium test is u... | |
Treatment of choice for a patient with acquired vesicoureteric reflux with UTI?: (A) Cotrimoxazole, (B) Bilateral reimplantation of ureter, (C) Injection of Collagen in the ureter, (D) Endoscopic resection of ureter | Answer is A. Acquired renal scarring results from an episode or repeated episodes of acute pyelonephritis caused by infected urine in the presence of VUR. Infection activates a cascade of mediators, which leads to renal epithelial cells damage. Treatment with antibiotics during the first week after infection appears to... | |
Which structure is present in the anatomical snuff box?: (A) Ulnar artery, (B) Radial artery, (C) Median nerve, (D) Radial nerve | Answer is B. Ans. B Radial arteryRef: BDC, 6th ed. vol. I pg. 122; Gray's 41st ed. pg. 790* The anatomical snuffbox is formed by the tendons of extensor polloicis longus and brevis, and abductor pollicis longus.* It has the radial artery running in the floor of the snuffbox, and the radial nerve passing to the dorsum o... | |
All are true of pond's fracture, except: CMC (Vellore) 13: (A) No brain damage, (B) Seen in infants, (C) Depressed fracture of the skull, (D) Shearing of the dura is not seen | Answer is C. Ans. Depressed fracture of the skull | |
Triacylglycerol and Cholesteryl ester are: (A) Non polar lipids, (B) Polar lipids, (C) Amphipathic lipids, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. In general, lipids are insoluble in water since they contain a predominance of non polar (hydrocarbon) groups. However, fatty acids, phospholipids, sphingolipids, bile salts, and to a lesser extent, cholesterol contain polar groups. Therefore, a part of the molecule is hydrophobic, or water insoluble; and ... | |
which level the somites initially form ?: (A) Thoracic level, (B) Cervical level, (C) Lumbar level, (D) Sacral level | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cervical levelThe first pair of somites develop a sho distance posterior to the cranial end of the notochord, and the rest of the somites from caudally."By the 20" day, the first pair of somites have formed in neck region." Textbook of embryologyParaxial mesoderm differentiates into somit... | |
All are common sites of primary for bone metastasis except-: (A) Breast, (B) Prostate, (C) Brain, (D) Kidney | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Brain o Metastatic bone disease is the commonest malignancy of bones and is much more common than primary bone tumors.o The commonest sites for bone metastases are vertebrae (most common), pelvis, the proximal half of the femur and the humerus.o Extremities distal to elbow and knee are le... | |
Mendelsons syndrome is:: (A) Aspiration of gastric contents, (B) Aspiration of nasal mucous, (C) Hypersensitivity to inhalational anesthetics, (D) Faulty intubation syndrome | Answer is A. Aspiration of gastric contents | |
Agoraphobia is commonly associated with:-: (A) Schizophrenia, (B) Bipolar disorder, (C) Panic disorder, (D) OCD | Answer is C. Agoraphobia: An irrational fear of open spaces or places where reaching a secure or safe base is difficult Commonest phobia encountered in clinical practice More common in women than men Panic disorder is commonly associated with agoraphobia Can cause significant dysfunctionality The individuals suffering ... | |
Earliest symptom showing improvement from classical triad of Wernicke's incephalopathv. to thiamine therapy ?: (A) Ataxia, (B) Ophthalmoplegia, (C) Confusion, (D) All are equally responsive | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ophthalmoplegia Response to thiamine treatment in Wernicke's encephalopathy Ocular symptoms :- Earliest to respond, ophthalmoplegia (ocular palsies) improves within hours of thiamine administration. However, horizontal nystagmus may persist. Ataxia :- Ataxia responds more slowly than ocul... | |
Chicken pox is infective: (A) 2 days before and 5 days after rash appearance, (B) 2 days before and 2 days after rash appearance, (C) 4 days before and 4 days after rash appearance, (D) 4 days before and 5 days after rash appearance | Answer is A. None | |
Sulphur of cysteine are not used/utilised in the body for the following process/product:: (A) Help in the conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate, (B) Thiosulphate formation, (C) Introduction of sulphur in methionine, (D) Disulphide bond formation between two adjacent peptide | Answer is C. Ans. C. Introduction of sulphur in methionine.Methionine is an essential amino acid, so it cannot be synthesized from Cysteine.But Sulphur of cysteine is donated by sulphur of methionine.This is called transulfuration reaction.PLP is the coenzyme of transulfuration.The reaction is catalysed by Cystathionin... | |
Not true about angioneurotic edema ?: (A) Pitting edema of face, lips and mucous membrane, (B) C1 Esterase inhibitor deficiency can cause it, (C) Extreme temperature exposure can provoke it, (D) Known with ACE inhibitors | Answer is A. Edema of angineurotic-edema is non-pitting.
C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency can cause hereditary angioneurotic edema.
Angioedema is a well known adverse effect of ACE inhibitors. | |
Following are Granulomatous vasculitis except: (A) Churg Straus disease, (B) Takayasu's aeris, (C) Wegener's granulomatosis, (D) Buerger's disease | Answer is D. . | |
The most common site of metastasis in neuroblastoma?: (A) Lung, (B) Liver, (C) Lymph nodes, (D) Veebrae | Answer is C. Metastatic spread, which is more common in children older than 1 yr of age at diagnosis, occurs local invasion or distant hematogenous or lymphatic routes. The most common sites of metastasis are the regional or distant lymph nodes, long bones and skull, bone marrow, liver, and skin. Lung and brain metasta... | |
Which of the about the composition of new ORS is wrong?: (A) NaCl-2.6 grams\/litre, (B) KCI - 1.5grams \/litre, (C) Glucose - 13.5 grams\/litre, (D) Total osmolarity - 300 mmol\/1 | Answer is D. Total osmolarity is 245 mmol/litre. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:224. <\p> | |
Root value of femoral nerve?: (A) Dorsal divisions of ventral primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4, (B) Ventral divisions of ventral primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4, (C) Ventral divisions of dorsal primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4, (D) Dorsal divisions of dorsal primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4 | Answer is A. Root value of Femoral nerve: Dorsal divisions of ventral primary rami of lumbar 2, 3, 4 segments of spinal cord.Ref: Chaurasia; Volume 2; 6th edition; Page no: 62 |
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