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Which of the following are also called as "Ghost cell tumors"?: (A) Medulloblastoma, (B) Acoustic neuroma, (C) Primary CNS lymphoma, (D) Glioblastoma
Answer is C. Primary CNS lymphomas are also called as "Ghost cell tumors" as they show quick resolution after initiation of steroids.
Which of the following eating disorder is most common?: (A) Anorexia nervosa, (B) Bulimia Nervosa, (C) Binge eating disorder, (D) All have same prevalence
Answer is C. Binge eating disorder is the most common eating disorder followed by Bulimia nervosa and Anorexia nervosa.
Risk factor for suicide in depression are all except:: (A) Female, (B) Male > 45 years, (C) Child with conduct disorder, (D) Family history
Answer is A. Risk factor for suicide : Increased Risk Decreased Risk Male sex (men successfully commit suicide three times more often than women) Female sex (although women attemptsuicide three times more oftenthan men) A plan for suicide (e.g., decision to stockpile pills) No plan for suicide A means of committing sui...
30 year male with chronic diarrhoea, anemia, raised liver enzymes. Most likely associated with: (A) Antimitochondrial antibody, (B) Anti-endomysial antibody, (C) Anti-smooth muscle antibody, (D) Antinuclear antibody
Answer is B. Anti-endomysial antibody The clinical features are suggestive of celiac sprue0. The typical symptoms of celiac sprue are weight loss, chronic diarrhoea, abdominal distension, growth retardation anemia. Raised liver enzymes is not mentioned in many text books including Harrison. But according to C.M.D.T. 'M...
The radiopaque structure shown in the box is most likely:: (A) Lingual foramen, (B) Genial tubercle, (C) PCD, (D) None of the above
Answer is B. The genial tubercles (also called the mental spine) are located on the lingual surface of the mandible slightly above the inferior border and in the midline. They are bony protuberances, more or less spine-shaped, that often are divided into a right and left prominence and a superior and inferior prominenc...
Subconjunctival cyst is seen in QUESTION REPEATED: (A) Toxoplasmosis, (B) Cysticercosis, (C) Leishmaniasis, (D) Chagas disease
Answer is B. Parasitic cysts such as subconjuctival cyst is seen in Cysticercosis . Hydatid cyst and filarial cust are not infrequent in development countries. Common cystic lesions of conjunctiva are : Congenital cystic lesions Lymphatic cysts of conjunctiva Retention cysts Epithelial implantation cyst (traumatic cyst...
ACTH is increased in all except: (A) Exercise, (B) Emotions, (C) Evening, (D) Tumors
Answer is C. Adrenocoicotrophic hormone; hormone produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that stimulates the secretion of coisol and other hormones by the adrenal coex. Also called adrenocoicotropin, coicotropin.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-368
Hemiazygous vein crosses left to right at the level: (A) T8, (B) T10, (C) T12, (D) T6
Answer is A. Hemiazygos vein crosses from left to right at the level of T8, after piercing the left crus of diaphragm while ascending.
Deposition of Anti ds DNA Ab in kidney, skin, choroid plexus and joints is seen in:: (A) SLE, (B) Good pasture, (C) Scleroderma, (D) Raynauds disease
Answer is A. Answer is A (SLE): Antibodies against double stranded DNA (Anti, ds DNA) and Sm antigen (Anti Sm) are highly specific and viual!;' diagnostic of SLE - Robbins
Index of potency of general anesthesia: (A) Minimum alveolar concentration, (B) Diffusion coefficient, (C) Dead space concentration, (D) Alveolar blood concentration
Answer is A. Minimal alveolar concentrationIt is the lowest concentration of the anaesthetic in pulmonary alveoli needed to produce immobility in response to a painful stimulus (surgical incision) in 50% individualsIt is the measure of potency of inhalation Gas.(Refer: Morgan and Mikhail's Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th...
Test of detecting damage to cochlea -: (A) Caloric test, (B) Weber test, (C) Rinne's test, (D) ABC test
Answer is D. As discussed earlier absolute bone conduction test is a tuning fork test in which bone conduction of the patient is compared with BC of the examiner after occluding the external auditory meatus of both patient and examiner Bone conduction is a measure of cochlear function. Hence, ABC test is used to detec...
Drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is?: (A) Subcutaneous Adrenalin, (B) Intravenous Adrenaline, (C) Steroids, (D) Atropine
Answer is B. Intravenous Adrenaline REF: Harrison's Internal Medicinel7th ed> Chapter 311. Allergies, Anaphylaxis, and Systemic M astocytosis Anaphylaxis: Treatment Mild symptoms such as pruritus and uicaria can be controlled by administration of 0.3 to 0.5 mL of 1:1000 (1.0 mg/mL) epinephrine SC or IM, with repeated d...
A 30-year-old woman presents with a heart murmur. There is a history of recurrent episodes of arthritis, skin rash, and glomerulonephritis. Blood cultures are negative. Laboratory tests for antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA are positive. Which of the following is the most likely cause of heart m...
Answer is A. In patients with systemic lupus erythematosus, endocarditis is the most striking cardiac lesion, termed Libman-Sacks endocarditis. Nonbacterial vegetations are seen on the undersurface of the mitral valve close to the origin of the leaflets from the valve ring (Libman-Sacks endocarditis). There is fibrinoi...
Third hea sound is seen in all except: (A) Athletes, (B) Mitral stenosis, (C) Constrictive pericarditis, (D) LVF
Answer is B. Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1448 The third hea sound (S3 ) occurs during the rapid filling phase of ventricular diastole. It can be a normal finding in children, adolescents, and young adults; however, in older patients, it signifies hea failure. A left-sided S3 is a low-pitched sound best heard over the left...
All the following drugs act on ionic channels except:: (A) Nicotine, (B) Insulin, (C) Glibenclamide, (D) Diazepam
Answer is B. None
A distinguishing characteristic of a maxillary first premolar that identifies it as right or left is the:: (A) Height of the lingual cusp, (B) Mesial inclination of the lingual cusp, (C) Flattened area beneath the contact on the distal surface, (D) Greater length of the mesial cusp ridge on the Lingual cusp
Answer is B. None
Most common site of perforation of tympanic membrane in acute suppurative otitis media is:: (A) Anterior superior quadrant, (B) Anterior inferior quadrant, (C) Posterior superior quadrant, (D) Posterior inferior quadrant
Answer is B. In acute suppurative otitis media, 85% of cases show a small perforation in antero-inferior quadrant of pars tensa. Perforations in this location were associated with smooth margins, good drainage of pus, and a orable clinical course. Hence this area is termed as "perforation zone". Only 15% of perforation...
EBV (epstein barr virus) causes all except: September 2005 & March 2013: (A) Glandular fever, (B) Burkitt's lymphoma, (C) Pancreatic carcinoma, (D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
Answer is C. Ans. C: Pancreatic carcinoma Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) causes infectious mononucleosis as a primary disease. The virus infects more than 90% of the average population and persists lifelong in peripheral B-lymphocytes. The virus is produced in the parotid gland and spread the oral route. Serology suggests th...
TRUE/FALSE about features of Pyloric stenosis: 1. Hypokalemic alkalosis 2. Peristalsis right to left 3. Commonly caused by carcinoma stomach 4. Retention vomiting is present 5. Commonly females are affected: (A) 1,2,3 true & 4,5 false, (B) 1,2,5 true & 3,4 false, (C) 1 true 2,3,4,5 false, (D) All are true
Answer is C. Hyperophic pyloric stenosis is more common in males. Male : female incidence is 4:1. Peristalsis is seen from left to right across the upper abdomen. Retention vomiting means vomiting due to any mechanical obstruction occurring usually hours after ingestion of a meal. In hyperophic pyloric stenosis the vom...
Among the following longest acting ocular beta-blocker is:: (A) Betaxolol., (B) Timolol., (C) Cartiolol., (D) Metoprolol.
Answer is A. Betaxolol is a cardioselective beta-blocker which can be used for the treatment of glaucoma.
All of the following are true about malignant otitis externa except:: (A) ESR is used for follow up after treatment, (B) Granulation tissues are seen on superior wall of the external auditory canal, (C) Severe hearing loss is the chief presenting complaint, (D) Pseudomonas is the most common cause
Answer is C. Severe hearing loss is not the chief presenting complaint in malignant otitis externa. A patient of malignant otitis externa presents with: Severe, unrelenting, deep-seated otalgia, temporal headaches, purulent otorrhea, possibly dysphagia, hoarseness, and/ or facial nerve dysfunction. The pain is out of p...
Patients with diabetes frequently report changing visual acuities when their glucose levels are chronically high. Which of the following could explain the fluctuating acuity with high blood glucose levels?: (A) Increased sorbitol in the lens, (B) Decreased fructose in the lens, (C) Increased oxidative phosphorylation i...
Answer is A. Fluctuating levels of sugars and sugar alcohols in the lens can cause fluctuating visual acuity. With high blood glucose, there would be increased levels of sorbitol in the lens. The lens does not contain mitochondria and cannot use the TCA cycle/electron transport chain to generate energy. Galactitol caus...
Sudden death, right sided hea failure (cor pulmonale or cardiovascular collapse occur when ?: (A) Small pulmonary embolism, (B) Massive pulmonary embolism, (C) 60% or more of pulmonary aery is obstructed with emboli, (D) End aery obliteration
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., 60% or more of pulmonary aery is obstructed with emboli
All the following statement about clozapine are true except -: (A) It is used in schizophrenia, (B) May precipitate seizure, (C) May cause agranulocytosis, (D) Extrapyramidal side effects are seen
Answer is D. Clozapine It blocks D4, 5-HT, and α-adrenergic receptors. Despite of anticholinergic property, it causes hypersalivation. It also blocks H1-histaminic receptors. The important side effects are agranulocytosis & myocarditis. It can induce seizures even in nonepileptics. It causes weight gain and precipita...
Snowstorm appearance on ultrasonography is seen in-: (A) Hydatid cyst, (B) Pyogenic liver abscess, (C) Ectopic pregnancy, (D) Molar pregnancy
Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Molar pregnancy * "Snow storm appearance" or "bunch of grapes appearance" is characteristic of H. mole.
Which of the following region of spine is most commonly affected in rheumatoid ahritis?: (A) Cervical spine, (B) Thoracic spine, (C) Lumbar spine, (D) Sacral spine
Answer is A. Rheumatoid ahritis principally involves atlantoaxial joint of cervical spine. Atlantoaxial involvement of the cervical spine result in compressive myelopathy and neurologic dysfunction. Rheumatoid ahritis does not affect thoracic and lumbar spine except in unusual circumstances. Reference: Harrison's Princ...
Compared to hydrocoisone, maximum glucocoicoid activity is seen in ?: (A) Coisone, (B) Prednisolone, (C) Dexamethasone, (D) Methylprednisolone
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dexamethasone
All are causes of primary amenorrhea EXCEPT: (A) MRKH syndrome, (B) Sheehan's syndrome, (C) Kallmann's syndrome, (D) Turner's syndrome
Answer is B. Sheehan's syndrome Post paum pitutary necrosis. Occurs as a result of ischemic pituitary necrosis due to severe postpaum hemorrhage Presents as failure to lactate or to resume menses (Secondary amenorrhea) Other presentation: genital and axillary hair loss, asthenia and weakness, fine wrinkles around the e...
Minimum interval between 2 live vaccine immunization -: (A) 2 weeks, (B) 4 weeks, (C) 6 week, (D) 8 weeks
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b1 i.e., 4 weeks Basic principle of immunezationMinimum 4 week interval recommended between 2 live vaccine adminstration except OPVand oral thyphoid.Two or more killed vaccine may be administrated simultaneously or at any given internalA live and killed vaccine given simultaneously but at differen...
Opsnins is -: (A) C3a, (B) 1gM, (C) Carbothydrate binding proteins, (D) Selections
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., C3a Opsonin o A Substance capable of enhancing phagocytosis. o Complement (C3a) and antibodies are the two main opsonins.
Gottrons sign is seen in?: (A) Lupus erythematosus, (B) Dermatomyositis, (C) Scleroderma, (D) Bells palsy
Answer is B. None
Validity includes: (A) Sensitivity and specificity, (B) Precision, (C) Acceptibility, (D) None
Answer is A. None
With a sensitive test, hCG can be detected in maternal serum or urine by ------ after ovulation?: (A) 3 to 4 days, (B) 8 to 9 days, (C) 12 to 14 days, (D) 20 to 21 days
Answer is B. Detection of hCG in maternal blood and urine is the basis for endocrine assays of pregnancy. Syncytiotrophoblasts produce hCG in amounts that increase exponentially during the first trimester following implantation. With a sensitive test, the hormone can be detected in maternal serum or urine by 8 to 9 day...
Normal respiratory minute volume is?: (A) Tidal volume X Respiratory Rate, (B) Tidal volume/ Respiratory Rate, (C) TLC/ Respiratory Rate, (D) FRC/ Respiratory Rate
Answer is A. Ans. (a) Tidal Volume X Respiratory RateRef: Ganong 25th ed. 1629RMV: Respiratory minute volume: 500ml X 12 breaths/ min= 6L
Which of the following is known as the "guardian of the genome"-: (A) p53, (B) Mdm2, (C) p14, (D) ATM
Answer is A. The discovery of the tumor suppressor protein known as p53, and the process of uneahing its functions came about as a result the effos of thousands of scientists around the globe. In p53: The Gene that Cracked the Cancer Code, science writer Sue Armstrong takes a fresh look at the exciting breakthroughs an...
Which of the following hormone does not act through c-AMP:: (A) FSH, (B) Progesterone, (C) Estrogens, (D) GH
Answer is D. GH
Not a feature of Vogt Kayanagi Harada Syndrome is: (A) Sensorineural hearing loss, (B) Norma IQ, (C) Vitiligo, (D) Hyperpigmentation
Answer is B. Features of Vogt Kayanagi Harada Syndrome include Mental retardation.
Most common site for carcinoid tumor in the abdomen: (A) Appendix, (B) Liver, (C) Intestines, (D) Pancreas
Answer is A. .CARCINOID TUMOUR It commonly occurs in appendix (65%), ileum (25%), other pas of GIT and rarely bronchus, testis, ovary. In the small intestine, carcinoids are most often seen within the terminal 2 feet of the ileum. * They arise from the enterochromaffin cells (Kulchitsky cells) found in the crypts of Li...
Which of the following drugs inhibit platelet cyclooxygenase reversibly?: (A) Alprostadil, (B) Aspirin, (C) Ibuprofen, (D) Prednisolone
Answer is C. NSAID'S Inhibit COX enzyme reversibly, Except Aspirin which is an irreversible inhibitor of this enzyme . Alprostadil -PGE1 and prednisolone do not inhibit cox enzyme .
All of the following are bullous lesions except -: (A) Pemphigus vulgaris, (B) Dermatitis herpetiformis, (C) Atopic dermatitis, (D) Pemphigoid
Answer is C. Primary blistering disorder Intraepidermal → Pemphigus vulgaris, P. foliaceous, P. vegetans, P. erythematosus. Subepidermal → Bullous pemphigoid, Dermatitis herpe4formis, Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita.
Holt Gram syndrome is characterized by: (A) ASD, (B) VSD, (C) TGA, (D) AR
Answer is A. None
Not a dietary source of vit. B12-: (A) Fish, (B) Meat, (C) Soya bean, (D) Liver
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' ie. Soyabean Vit B12 is present in foods of animal origin and is not present in foods of vegetable sources.
Intussusception is associated with:: (A) Submucous lipoma, (B) Subserosal lipoma, (C) Intramural lipoma, (D) Serosal lipoma
Answer is A. Ref: Bailey & Love's Short Practice of Surgery 25th Edition Chapter 66 Intestinal Obstruction Pages 1191-12 & Donald A, Antonio!i, " Gastrointestinal Autonomic Nerve Tumors, expanding the spectrum of gastrointestinal stromal tumors," Arch Pathol Lab Med: 1989: 113: 831-833.Explanation:IntussusceptionInvagi...
'Shrinking lung' is a feature of: (A) Rheumatoid ahritis, (B) SLE, (C) Systemic scleoris, (D) Polymyosities
Answer is B. Shrinking lung syndrome (SLS) is a rare complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) characterized by unexplained dyspnea, a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests, and an elevated hemidiaphragm.. This disorder is seen primarily during the later stages of SLE Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 533
A 40 years old patient who has been consuming cannabis regularly for last 20 years comes to you in withdrawal. What is the most frequently seen withdrawal symptom?: (A) Yawning, (B) Seizures, (C) Irritability, (D) Tremors
Answer is C. Irritability is the most common cannabis withdrawal syndrome Withdrawal symptoms- Irritability Depressed mood Sleep disturbances Headache
True regarding comparison values of cow and human milk are all except: March 2012: (A) Human milk has comparatively less of protein, (B) Human milk has comparatively less of calcium, (C) Human milk has comparatively less of minerals, (D) Human milk has comparatively less of lactose
Answer is D. Ans: D i.e. Human milk has comparatively less of lactose Comparison of human and cow link Protein in human milk is 1.1 g, whereas in cow milk it is 3.2 Calcium in human milk is 28 mg, whereas in cow milk it is 120 mg Minerals in human milk is 0.1 g, whereas in cow milk it is 0.8 g Lactose in human milk is ...
Most impoant element in treatment of diphtheria ?: (A) Antitoxin, (B) Tetracycline, (C) Erythromycin, (D) Penicillin
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Antitoxin Treatment of diphtheria . Administration of diphtherial antitoxin is the most impoant element in the treatment of respiratory diphtheria. . The primary goal of antibiotic therapy is to eradicate C. diphtheriae. Drugs currently used are erythromycin or procaine penicillin G. alte...
Which of the following drug is not needed to be present in tubular lumen for diuretic action?: (A) Chlohiazide, (B) Acetazolamide, (C) Mannitol, (D) Eplerenone
Answer is D. Aldosterone receptor antagonist Osmotic diuretics Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor Thiazides spironolactone, eplerenone inhibit the aldosterone channels located on the basal side cells of collecting tubule, so they are not secreted in lumen. They filter across the glomerulus and in the nephron it will attract ...
A patient presents to emergency with pinpoint pupil, salivation, lacrimation, tremors and red tears. Plasma cholinesterase level was 30% of normal. Most probable Diagnosis is:: (A) Organophosphate poisoning, (B) Datura poisoning, (C) Opioid poisoning, (D) Pontine hemorrhage
Answer is A. Ans. (A) Organophosphate poisoning(Ref: Katzung 12/e p110)These are characteristic features of anti-cholinestearse (organophosphate and carbamate) poisoning.Features of Organophosphate poisoning:* Muscarinic symptoms: Pin point pupil, salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastrointestinal distres...
Mid day meal programme comes under ?: (A) Ministry of Social Welfare, (B) Ministry of education, (C) Ministry of Human Resources Developments, (D) None
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ministry of education
Two important byproducts of HMP shunt are: (A) NADH and pentose sugars, (B) NADPH and pentose sugars, (C) Pentose sugars and 4 membered sugars, (D) Pentose sugars and sedoheptulose
Answer is B. The HMP shunt pathway has oxidative and non-oxidative phases. During the oxidative phase, glucose-6-phosphate is oxidized with the generation of 2 molecules of NADPH, and one molecule of pentose phosphate, with the liberation of one molecule of CO2. During the non-oxidative phase, the pentose phosphates ar...
Propronolol is useful in all except -: (A) Atrial flutter, (B) Parkinsonian tremor, (C) Thyrotoxicosis, (D) HOCM
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Parkinsonian tremor o Propranolol inhibits the tremors which are due to overactivity of adrenergic system b 2-receptor), e.g. in thyrotoxicosis. o But, parkinsonian tremor and intention tremor are not due to sympathetic overactivity --> b -blocker has no role. b -blockers are DOC for HOCM...
Vasa pre in a term gestation is managed by __________: (A) Rapid induction and delivery by vaccum, (B) Rapid induction and delivery by forceps, (C) Immediate LSCS, (D) Adopt vagos method and rapid vaginal delivery
Answer is C. Vasa Pre in a term gestation is managed by immediate LSCS. Management of vasa pre: Confirmed vasa pre not bleeding: Admit at 28-32 weeks, plan elective CS depending on fetal lung maturity Bleeding vasa pre: Delivery should be done by category 1 Emergency CS. (Categories based on urgency such as emergency, ...
Risk factor for bladder carcinoma is -: (A) Clonorcis sinensis, (B) Schistosoma hematobium, (C) Plasmodium, (D) None
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Schistosoma hematobium Risk factors for ca of BladderCigarette smoking is the main etiological factor and accounts for about 50% of bladder cancers.Occupational exposures to chemicalso The following compounds mav be carcinogenic # 2 naphthylamine-combustion gases and soot from coal# 4-ami...
most coomon benign tumor of parotid gland?: (A) pleomrophic adenoma, (B) wahins tumor, (C) mucoepidermoid tumor, (D) adenoid cystic tumor
Answer is A. Pleomorphic Adenoma : Epithelial Components Tubular and cord-like arrangements Cells contain a moderate amount of cytoplasm Mitoses are rare Stromal or "mesenchymal" Components Can be quite variable Attributable to the myoepithelial cells Most tumors show chondroid (cailaginous) differentiation Osseous met...
All are example for randomised control trials except-: (A) Natural experiments, (B) Clinical trials, (C) Risk factor trials, (D) Preventive trials
Answer is A. .the major type of randomised controlled trials includes, 1.clinical trials 2.preventive trials. 3.risk factor trials 4.cessation experimnts 5.trial of aetiological agents. 6.evaluation of health services. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 82
Stain used for the diagnosis of granulocytic sarcoma: (A) Myeloperoxidase, (B) Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase, (C) Non specific esterase, (D) Neuron specific esterase
Answer is A. .
Six penny bruise is seen in ?: (A) Manual strangulation, (B) Hanging, (C) Pedestrian injury, (D) Head injury
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Manual strangulation Six penny bruiseThese are discoid shaped bruises of about 1 cm in diameter resulted from fingeip pressure usually seen in neck region because of manual strangulation. These are called six penny bruise because of resemblance with six penny.
Which of the following is not a Deep Lymphoid tissue: (A) MALT, (B) GALT, (C) BALT, (D) DLT
Answer is D. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT): Small numbers of lymphocytes may be present almost anywhere in the body, but signifi cant aggregations are seen in relation to the mucosa of the respiratory, alimentary and urogenital tracts. These aggregations are referred to as MALT. Mucosa-associated lymphoid ti...
On ECG, ST segment elevation is seen in all of the following conditions except: March 2012: (A) Left ventricular aneurysm, (B) Acute pericarditis, (C) Myocardial infarction, (D) Hypocalcemia
Answer is C. Ans: D i.e. Hypocalcemia ECG changes and conditions ST elevation may signify myocardial infarction, pericarditis or left ventricular aneurysm QT prolongation may occur with congenital long QT syndrome, low potassium, low magnesium, low calcium etc.
Patient presented with loss of sensations in the lateral three and a half fingers. Which of the following will be an additional finding in this patient?: (A) Opponens paralysis, (B) Loss of sensation on hypothenar eminence, (C) Atrophy of adductor pollicis, (D) None of the above
Answer is A. This is the case of median nerve injury; sensation is lost over area supplied by median nerve. Findings: Injury or compression of median nerve at wrist (e.g. Carpal tunnel syndrome) can be tested by 1. Pen test for abductor pollicis brevis there is inability to touch the pen kept above the palm by thumb ab...
. In myocardial infarction, early light microscopic change is -: (A) Waviness of fibres, (B) Necrosis of fibres, (C) Round cell infiltration, (D) None
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Waviness of fibres
Infections transmitted from man to animals is known as: (A) Anthropozoonoses, (B) Zooanthroponoses, (C) Zoonoses, (D) Amphixenosis
Answer is B. None
The small intestine is characterized by basal crypts and superficial villi (Figure below). Where does cell division take place?Schematic representation of villi and crypts of Lieberkuhn: (A) Submucosa, (B) Crypts, (C) Villi, (D) Small-bowel lumen
Answer is B. Small-bowel turnover can be measured in rats by autoradiographic studies in which turnover of cells located in the crypts migrate along the villus toward the tip over a 2- to 3- day period. Intestinal villous mucosa undergoes hypertrophy and hyperplasia whenever an increased food load continuously enters t...
Aschoff bodies in Rheumatic hea disease show all of the following features, except -: (A) Anitschkow cells, (B) Epitheloid cells, (C) Giant cells, (D) Fibrinoid necrosis
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Epitheloid cell
Rituximab is used in all except: (A) NHL, (B) PNH, (C) RA, (D) SLE
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e. PNH Cancer cells express a variety of antigen.These antigens can be targeted by certain antibodies which are specifically directed towards those antigens. The antigen antibody reaction leads to death of the cancer cells.Antibodies {monoclonal antibodies) are now being prepared by immunizin...
Following are true about case control study except-: (A) Retrospective study, (B) Risk factor is present but not outcome, (C) Both outcome and risk factors have occured, (D) There is not risk to people in study
Answer is B. Case control studies often retrospective studies are common first approach to test causal hypothesis. In recent years, case control study has emerged as a permanent method of epidemiological investigation. Both exposure and outcome has occurred before the study. Study proceeds backwards from effect to caus...
Which of the following is a suicidal enzyme: (A) Cyclooxygenase, (B) Lipooxygenase, (C) 5-nucleotidase, (D) Thrombaxane synthase
Answer is A. Cyclooxygenase is a "Suicide Enzyme""Switching off " of prostaglandin activity is paly achieved by a remarkable propey of cyclooxygenase--that of self-catalyzed destruction; that is, it is a "suicide enzyme." Fuhermore, the inactivation of prostaglandins by 15-hydroxyprostaglandin dehydrogenase is rapid. B...
Depolarizing muscle relaxant –: (A) Scoline, (B) Ketamine, (C) Halothane, (D) Atracurium
Answer is A. None
Which of the following disease modifying anti–rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) is the drug of first choice ?: (A) Methotrexate, (B) Gold compounds, (C) D-penicillamine, (D) Anakinra
Answer is A. None
The predominant symptom/sign of pheochromocytoma is:: (A) Sweating, (B) Weight loss, (C) Ohostatic hypotension, (D) Episodic hypeension
Answer is D. Answer is D (Episodic Hypeension): The predominant manifestation of Pheochromocytoma is Hypeension which classically presents as Episodic Hypeension (Sustained Hypeension and Ohostatic Hypotension may also be seen). 'The dominant sign is Hypeension. Classically patients have episodic hypeension, but sustai...
Which of the following is best suited to diagnose acute apical periodontitis: (A) Percussion, (B) Thermal tests, (C) Electric pulp tests, (D) Anaesthetic test
Answer is A. None
Which of the following statements concerning the lateral horn of the spinal cord is true: (A) It contains postganglionic parasympathetic neurons, (B) . It gives rise to preganglionic sympathetic fibers, (C) It gives rise to a spinothalamic tract, (D) It is present at all spinal cord levels
Answer is B. It gives rise to preganglionic sympathetic fibers Lateral horns carry the autonomic neurons Posterior horns have sensory & anterior horns have motor neurons.
Which one of the following immunoglobulins constitutes the antigen binding component of B-cell receptor -a) IgAb) IgDc) IgMd) lgG: (A) a, (B) bc, (C) ac, (D) ad
Answer is B. B cells display immunoglobulin molecules on their surface. These immunoglobulins serve as receptors for a specific antigen, so that each B cell can respond to only one antigen or a closely related group of antigens. All immature B cells carry Ig M immunoglobulins on their surface and most also early Ig D. ...
Which of the following is an anticoagulant drug ?: (A) Heparin, (B) Ximelagatran, (C) Fondaparinux, (D) All of these
Answer is D. None
The following marker is used to assess the monoclonality in T-cells -: (A) Kappa and Lambda chain, (B) TCR gene rearrangement, (C) CD, (D) CD34
Answer is B. Molecular analysis of the rearrangement in T cell population can distinguish polyclonal lymphocyte proliferations from monoclonal expansions. Reference :Robbins basic pathology 9th edition pg no 100:
All are features of septic tank except:: (A) Ideal retention period-48 hours, (B) Minimum capacity-500 gallons, (C) Aerobic oxidation takes place outside, (D) Sludge is solids setting down
Answer is A. SEPTIC TANK: Is a water-tight masonary tank into which household sewage is admitted for treatment Is a satisfactory method of disposing liquid and excreta wastes from individuals dwellings, small groups of houses or institutions which have &;adequate water supply but donot have access to a public sewerage ...
a patient of age 65 years , who is obesity of bmi >40 , known diabetic and hypeensive .patient complaints of breathlessness , excessive sleeping during morning time with headache and with mood swings, what is drug that helps in resolving the symptoms ?: (A) salbutamol, (B) amoxitine, (C) phenylephrine, (D) modafinil
Answer is D. OSA-obstructive sleep apnea #Pathophysiology of OSA Tissue laxity and redundant mucosa Normal Anatomic abnormalities * Decreased muscle tone with REM sleep """&;"&;n * Airway collars, * Desaturation ( 02 ) * Arousal with restoration of airway * Sleep Fragmentation leading to Hypersomnoien, * Clinical featu...
in census literacy rate is assessed by:: (A) Attended literacy classes for one year, (B) Ability to write signature, (C) Ability to read and write, (D) Attended schooling
Answer is C. Ans: C (Ability to read and write) Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, K Park. 22nd edition. page no 44 7Explanation:Census is conducted once in 10 years in India.Literacy rate is assessed those above 7 years ageIn census it was first used in 1991 censusA person who can read and write with und...
Influenza virus has?: (A) 5 segments of SS RNA, (B) 8 segments of ds DNA, (C) 8 segments of ds DNA, (D) 8 segments of ssRNA
Answer is D. Influenza virus jad ss RNA , it is segmented& exists ad right piece REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.497
Chignon is:: (A) Cephal hematoma, (B) Artificial caput, (C) Scalp laceration, (D) Excessive moulding
Answer is B. A vacuum is applied (usually 0.2 kg/cm2 for vacuum extraction of a baby). The scalp is sucked into the cup and an artificial caput is produced. This chignon usually disappears in a few hours.
Gerlach tonsil is: (A) Palatine tonsil, (B) Lingual tonsil, (C) Tubal tonsil, (D) Nasopharyngeal tonsil
Answer is C. A collection of lymphoid tissue is present in the nasopharynx, behind the tubal opening. It is called the tubal tonsil, also known as Gerlach tonsil. It is continuous with the lateral pa of the pharyngeal tonsil. In Waldeyer's lymphatic ring, the most impoant aggregations are the right and left palatine to...
Structure related to deltopectoral groove ?: (A) Axillary aery, (B) Cephalic vein, (C) Baselic vein, (D) Radial nerve
Answer is B. Ans. is b' i.e., Cephalic veinDeltopectoral groove is a groove between deltoid muscle and pectoralis major muscle. It is traversed by cephalic vein
Hypopigmented patches can be seen in :: (A) Becker naevus, (B) Freckles, (C) Nevus Ito, (D) Nevus anemicus
Answer is D. D i.e. Naevus anemicus
Commonest presentation of congenital dislocation of the knee is -: (A) Varus, (B) Valgus, (C) Flexion, (D) Hyperextens ion
Answer is D. The patient presents with hyperextension deformity of the knee.
Puscher retinopathy is seen in patients with -: (A) Complication of chronic pancreatitis, (B) Occlusion of anterior retinal aery, (C) Head trauma, (D) Diabetes mellitus
Answer is C. Putscher's retinopathy is a disease where pa of the eye (retina) is damaged. Usually associated with severe head injuries, it may also occur with other types of trauma, such as long bone fractures, or with several non-traumatic systemic diseases. However, the exact cause of the disease is not well understo...
Mutation in which of the following gene is found in Marfan's syndrome?: (A) Collagen I, (B) Collagen IV, (C) Fibrillin I, (D) Fibrillin II
Answer is C. Marfan's syndrome is caused by recurrent de novo missense mutation in the fibrillin-1 gene. Fibrillin1 is a large glycoprotein that is a structural component of microfibrils. Fibrillin 1 is found in the zonular fibers of the lens, in the periosteum and elastin fibers of aoa. Defect in fibrillin gene accoun...
The best time of extraction in pregnancy is: (A) First trimester, (B) Second trimester, (C) Third trimester, (D) None of these
Answer is B. None
Select inappropriate statement regarding Cholera: (A) Incubation period 1-2 days, (B) Rice - watery diarrhoea, (C) Azithromycin is treatment of choice in adults, (D) It is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally
Answer is C. Cholera: - Caused by Vibrio cholera - ELTOR - MC subtype in India now. - Route of transmission - FECO-ORAL ROUTE - I.P - 1-2 days - Clinical feature: Rice-watery diarrhea - It is a notifiable disease locally, nationally and internationally. Groups Antibiotic of choice for cholera Adults Doxycycline Childre...
A 34-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of weakness and fatigue. There is no history of drug or alcohol abuse. A CBC shows megaloblastic anemia and a normal reticulocyte count. Further laboratory studies reveal vitamin B12 deficiency Anemia in this patient is most likely caused by which of the following?: (A)...
Answer is B. Autoimmune gastritis refers to chronic, diffuse inflammatory disease of the stomach that is restricted to the body and fundus and is associated with other autoimmune phenomena. This disorder typically features diffuse atrophic gastritis, antibodies to parietal cells and the intrinsic factor, and increased ...
Circumduction test is used for: (A) Anterior shoulder instability, (B) Posterior shoulder instability, (C) Inferior shoulder instability, (D) Either of above
Answer is B. Ref : essential ohopaedic maheshwari 9th ed
What is true for fixed prosthesis?: (A) It is difficult to remove prosthesis when cemented with cement having maximum compressive strength and low tensile strength, (B) It is difficult to remove prosthesis when cemented with cement having maximum compressive strength and low shear strength, (C) Cement is weakest phase ...
Answer is C. None
Pulled up cecum is seen in: (A) CA colon, (B) Carcinoid, (C) Ileocaecal tuberculosis, (D) Crohn's disease
Answer is C. Pulled up conical caecum is the finding seen in ileocaecal TB in Barium study X ray (enteroclysis followed by barium enema or barium meal follow through X ray) Reference : page 584 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition
Sturge weber syndrome is associated with –a) Port wine stainb) Cavernous hemangiomac) Lymphangiomad) hemangiosarcoma: (A) ab, (B) a, (C) ad, (D) bc
Answer is A. Clinical feature of Sturge-weber's syndrome  Unilateral facial nerves (port-wine stain) on upper face and eye lid. Cavernous hemangioma Seizures --> Focal tonic-clonic and contralateral to the site of nerves. Hemiparessis Transient stroke like episodes Visual defects Buphthalmos and glaucoma -k Same side....
Concentration of which is inversely related to the risk of coronary hea disease: (A) VLDL, (B) LDL, (C) HDL, (D) None
Answer is C. Role of LDL and HDL Recent studies have shown that atherogenic significance of the total cholesterol concentration must be viewed with restrictions. From numerous studies, it is now concluded that LDL is the carrier of 70 percent of total cholesterol and it transpos cholesterol to tissues and thus is most ...
Residual ridge resorption is:: (A) Directly proportional to the anatomic factor., (B) Indirectly proportional to the force., (C) Directly proportional to the damping effect., (D) Directly proportional to the bone-forming factors.
Answer is A. None
What is the most common site of an accessory spleen?: (A) Greater curvature of the stomach, (B) Gastrocolic ligament, (C) Splenocolic ligament, (D) Splenic hilum
Answer is D. Splenunculi- single or multiple accessory spleens MC site: near the hilum of the spleen > behind the tail of the pancreas The remainder are located in the mesocolon, greater omentum or the splenic ligaments. Significance- failure to identify and remove these at the time of splenectomy may give rise to pers...
Linitis plastica is a feature of -a) Hiatus herniab) Chronic gastric ulcerc) Lymphoma of stomachd) Diffuse carcinoma stomach: (A) ab, (B) bc, (C) bd, (D) cd
Answer is D. Linitis plastica Involvement of a broad region of the gastric wall or entire stomach by diffuse stomach cancer cause linitis plastica. It is also known as Brinton's disease. The appearance of stomach is like leather bottle. The other cause of linitis plastica are : Lye ingestion     Sarcoidosis           ...
The time duration for functioning of corpus luteum after ovulation in a nonpregnant female is:: (A) 5 days, (B) 10 days, (C) 14 days, (D) 30 days
Answer is B. Following ovulation, the corpus luteum develops from the remains of the dominant or Graafian follicle in a process referred to as luteinization. The human corpus luteum is a transient endocrine organ that, in the absence of pregnancy, will rapidly regress 9 to 11 days after ovulation. Luteolysis results fr...
Today vaginal sponge failure rate is?: (A) 5%, (B) 9%, (C) 16%, (D) 20%
Answer is B. Ans. (b) 9%Ref: Appendix-115 for "METHODS OF CONTRACEPTION"