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True-regarding DNA-replication:: (A) Semi conservative, (B) Sister Chromatids are formed., (C) Follow base pair rule, (D) All of the above
Answer is D. All of the above
Nipple confusion means?: (A) Baby fed with a bottle finding it difficult and confusing to suckle at breast, (B) Baby not able to suckle with bottle, (C) Baby not able to feed with spoon, (D) Baby not able to feed with paladin
Answer is A. Ans. (a) Baby fed with a bottle finding it difficult and confusing to suckle at breastRef: OP Ghai 8th ed./153* A problem that may beset a bottlefed baby in which it forgets how to nurse on mother' nipple* Breastfeeding requires far more vigorous mouth and tongue motions and greater muscle coordination tha...
Which of the following releases single wavelength of energy?: (A) QTH, (B) PAC, (C) LED, (D) Argon lasers
Answer is D. None
Enzyme Transketolase requires ?: (A) FAD, (B) TPP, (C) PLP, (D) FMN
Answer is B. Transketolase reactions require thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP).Coenzyme can be classified according to the group whose transfer they facilitate.a) For transfer groups other than hydrogen :- Sugar phosphate, CoA-SH, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), Pyridoxal phosphate, Folate, Biotin.b) For transfer of hydrogen ...
What is seen earliest in USG?: (A) Yolk sac, (B) Fetal hea, (C) Chorion, (D) Placenta
Answer is A. Yolk sac is the first anatomic structure seen within gestational sac. By TVS, it can be seen as early as 5.5week By TAS, it is seen by 7 weeks. Ref:Datta Obs 9e pg 601.
Tennis Racquet cells: (A) Rhabdomyoma, (B) Rhabdomyosarcoma, (C) Histiocytoma, (D) Eosinophilic granuloma
Answer is B. Rhabdomyosarcoma An adjectival description for a relatively elongated cell, lesion, structure or radiological density that is globose at one end and elongated at the other, alike to the device used in game of tennis. Tennis racquet cell: A tennis-racquet-shaped variant of rhabdomyoblast seen in sarcoma bot...
Hidebound disease is:: (A) DLE., (B) Scleroderma., (C) Acrodermatitis enteropathica., (D) None.
Answer is B. Systemic Sclerosis: Scleroderma, dermatosclerosis, hidebound disease.
Patient with head injuries with rapidly increasing intracranial tension without hematoma, the drug of choice for initial management would be:: (A) Furosemide, (B) Steroids, (C) 20% Mannitol, (D) Glycine
Answer is C. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. It is used for Increased intracranial or intraocular tension (acute congestive glaucoma, head injury, stroke, etc.): by osmotic action, it encourages the movement of water from brain parenchyma, CSF and aqueous humor; The dose is 1-1.5 g/kg is infused over 1 hour as 20% sol...
Which is derived from thoracolumbar fascia -: (A) Medial arcuate ligament, (B) Lateral arcuate ligament, (C) Lacunar ligament, (D) Cruciate ligament
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lateral arcuate ligament o Thoracolumbar fascia covers the deep muscles of back of the trunk, o It is composed of three fascial layers -i) Anterior layer# It is the thinnest layer# Medially it is attached to transverse process of lumbar vertebrae.# Laterally it fuses with fascia transvers...
A patient with carcinoma lower 1/3 of oesophagus, receives chemo Radiotherapy and dysphagia shows complete response. What is the next step in management?: (A) Reassure, (B) Follow with CT scan every 6 months, (C) Esophagectomy, (D) EUS to look for residual disease
Answer is C. - Clinical trials and meta-analyses have shown that a C + surgery regimen could significantly improve the survival of locally advanced esophageal carcinoma patients compared to surgery alone - Endoscopic biopsy, endoscopic ultrasonography, MRI (at various sequences) and PET-CT all had shocomings for evalua...
Dennie-Morgan fold is seen in -: (A) Dermotomyositis, (B) SLE, (C) Psoriasis vulgaris, (D) Atopic dermatitis
Answer is D. dennie morgan fold-accentuated grooves or lines below the lower eyelid margins. seen in atopic dermatitis. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2534
Stereotactic radiosurgery is used in which of the following conditions?: (A) Metastatic brain tumors, (B) Aeriovenous malformations, (C) Trigeminal neuralgia, (D) All of the above
Answer is D. STEREOTACTIC RADIOSURGERY - SRS is a non-surgical radiation therapy used to treat functional abnormalities & small tumors of brain - Deliver precisely-targeted concentrated dose of radiation in fewer high-dose treatments to a defined volume in the brain Common uses of Stereotactic Radiosurgery (BAT) - Brai...
In MVP, you would expect the ejection click to be more accentuated and the murmur to move closer the first hea sound in a patient: (A) With marked anxiety, (B) Who is pregnant, (C) Who is passive leg lifting in the supine position, (D) On a beta blocker
Answer is A. Anxiety, with an increase in hea rate or decreasing venous return to the hea (standing), causes the click and murmur to occur earlier in systole (closer to S1). Lying down, squatting, sustained hand grip exercise, or passive leg lifting in the supine position increase venous return and cause the click and ...
Typhoid in first week of illness is best diagnosed by:-: (A) Serum widal test, (B) Stool culture, (C) Urine test, (D) Blood culture
Answer is D. Laboratory diagnosis of typhoid : 'BASU' mnemonic Test of diagnosis Time of diagnosis Remarks Blood culture 1st week Mainstay of diagnosis Antibodies (widal test) 2nd week Moderate sensitivity & specificity Stool culture 3rd week Useful for carries Urine test 4th week Useful for carries
Prostaglandin causing renal vasodilation:: (A) PGD2, (B) PGE2, (C) PGF2, (D) All
Answer is B. B i.e. PGE2 Blood vesselsPlateletsBronchiKidneyUterusPGE2VasodilationVariable effectDilatationVasodilatationRenin releaseContractionSoftening of cervix ContractionSoftening of cervixPFF2aVasodilation-Constriction-PGI2VasodilationAntiaggregatoryDilatationVasodilationRenin release?TXA2VasoconstrictionAggrega...
Cerberus is associated with development of:: (A) Head, (B) Lung, (C) Liver, (D) None of the above
Answer is A. The cells in the hypoblast (endoderm) at the cephalic margin of the disc form the anterior visceral endoderm, which expresses head forming genes, including OTX2, LIM1, and HESX1 and the secreted factor Cerberus. Ref: Langman's embryology 11th edition Chapter 5.
In which orthodontic movement utmost control is required: (A) Intrusion, (B) Extrusion, (C) Tipping, (D) Rotation
Answer is A. None
Acute onset of cough, stridor and respiratory distress in the absence of fever is suggestive of:: (A) Foreign body, (B) Acute asthma, (C) Aspiration Pneumonia, (D) Primary complex
Answer is A. Ans. A. Foreign bodyImmediate symptoms of foreign body inhalation include choking, coughing, increasing respiratory distress or difficulty in speaking.
Erythropoietin in kidney is secreted by: (A) Juxtaglomerular cells, (B) PCT cells, (C) Interstitial cells in peritubular capillaries, (D) Capillaries of glomerulus
Answer is C. Interstitial cells in paritubular capillaries releoses erythroportin in responce to hypoxia.
What is the reason for Thyroid Storm after Total Thyroidectomy?: (A) Due to Rough handling during Surgery., (B) Due to Inadequate preparation of patient, (C) Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve Injury, (D) Parathyroid Damage
Answer is B. Ans. (b) Due to Inadequate Preparation of PatientRef: Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition 229* It is a condition of hyperthyroidism accompanied by fever, central nervous system agitation or depression, cardiovascular dysfunction that may be precipitated by infection, surgery or trauma and occasionally by amiodarone ...
True statement about tetracycline is: (A) Inhibiting protein synthesis by binding to 50s ribosomes in susceptible microorganisms, (B) Tetracyclines have chelating property, (C) Tetracyclines have anabolic activity, (D) Tetracyclines are infrequently responsible for superinfection
Answer is B. None
'Alien limb' is characteristically seen in:: (A) Coico basal degeneration, (B) Diffuse Lewy body disease, (C) Fronto temporal dementia, (D) Alzheimer's disease
Answer is A. Coicobasal degeneration (CBD) is a slowly progressive dementing illness associated with severe gliosis and neuronal loss in both the coex and basal ganglia. CBD with unilateral onset presents with rigidity, dystonia, and apraxia of one arm and hand, sometimes called the alien limb when it begins to exhibit...
Baby 20 year old female complains of sudden onset palpitation and apprehension. She is sweating for last 10 minutes and fears of impending death. Diagnosis is -: (A) Hysteria, (B) Generalized anxiety disorder, (C) Cystic fibrosis, (D) Panic attack
Answer is D. The information in this question are: - 1) Sudden (abrupt) onset, 2) Palpitation, 3) Apprehension, 4) Sweating, 5) Sense of impending doom, 6) Symptoms lasts for few minutes (10 minutes). These are the features of panic disorder.
Which of the following is not caused by over expression of a trinucleotide repeat?: (A) Alzheimer's disease, (B) Fragile X, (C) Huntington disease, (D) Spinocerebellar ataxia Type 2
Answer is A. Ans: a (Alzheimer's disease) Ref: Ganong, 22nd ed, p. 215Alzheimer's disease is not caused by over expression of a trinucleotide repeat. The rest 3 options are examples of trinucleotide repeat diseases where as Alzheimer's is primarly a degenerative disease (Basal ganglia) resulting in movement disorder.So...
Irreversible dementia is caused due to:: (A) Subarachnoid hemorrhage, (B) Wilson's disease, (C) Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH), (D) Vascular dementia
Answer is D. Vascular dementia is a cause of progressive dementia due to impaired blood supply to the brain.
A 64-year-old man, who is a chronic alcoholic, presents with fever, chills and increasing shoness of breath. The patient appears in acute respiratory distress and complains of pleuritic chest pain. Physical examination shows crackles and decreased breath sounds over both lung fields. The patient exhibits tachypnea, wit...
Answer is B. Klebsiella pneumoniae is the most frequent cause of gram-negative bacterial pneumonia. It commonly afflicts debilitated and malnourished people, paicularly chronic alcoholics. Thick, mucoid (often blood-tinged) sputum is characteristic because the organism produces an abundant viscid capsular polysac-chari...
The protein synthesis site of the cell body of neurons: (A) Nissl bodies, (B) Dendrites, (C) Axon, (D) All
Answer is A. The nissl bodies are the protein synthesis site in a neuron They are equivalent to rough endoplasmic reticulum Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition ,page number 676
Bounderies of anatomical snuff box are all except: (A) APL, (B) EPL, (C) EPB, (D) ECU
Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., ECU Anatomical Snuffbox Triangular depression on the dorsal and radial aspect of the hand become visible when thumb is fully extended. Boundaries Medial/Posterior - Tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. Lateral/Anterior - Tendon of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis long...
Endemicity of a disease means:: (A) Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy, (B) Is constantly present in a population, (C) Exhibits seasonal pattern, (D) Is prevalent among animals
Answer is B. Endemic Is the constant presence of a disease agent in a defined geographical area ; refers to 'usual or expected frequency' of a disease in a population. For instance, common cold is endemic because somebody always has one. Endemic diseases in India are : Measles, mumps, rubella, chicken pox, peussis, TB,...
Sulfasalzine is used in: March 2011: (A) Gout, (B) Irritable bowel disease, (C) Ulcerative colitis, (D) Idiopathic osteoahritis
Answer is C. Ans. C: Ulcerative Colitis The mainstay of drug therapy for mild and moderate ulcerative colitis is sulfasalazine and other aminosalicylic acid (ASA) compounds and coicosteroids Sulfasalazine It is a sulfa drug, a derivative of mesalazine (also called 5-aminosalicylic acid, or 5-ASA) Sulfasalazine is used ...
True about sentinel surveillance is: March 2011: (A) Continuous oversight of activities, (B) Supplements routine notification system, (C) Beneficial for malaria surveillance, (D) Keeps a check over health in border regions
Answer is B. Ans. B: Supplements routine notification Sentinel surveillance helps in supplementing notified cases (those given through routine surveillance system- passive and active) Sentinel surveillance It is the collection and analysis of data by designated institutions selected for their geographic location, medic...
Paget's disease of the nipple is: (A) Superficial manifestation of underlying breast Ca, (B) Galactocele, (C) Eczema, (D) All of the above
Answer is A. Paget's disease of the nipple is superficial manifestation of an intraductal breast carcinoma. The malignancy spreads within the duct up to the skin of the nipple and down into the substance of the breast. It mimics eczema of nipple and areola. In Paget's disease, there is a hard nodule just underneath the...
One of the following disorders is due to maternal disomy: (A) Prader Willi syndrome, (B) Angelman syndrome, (C) Hydatidi form mole, (D) Klinefelter syndrome
Answer is A. ref Robbins 9/e p173 Matetnal disomy is associated with disorders like prader Willi syndrome, angelman syndrome.
Continuous murmur is seen in all the following except:: (A) Aoic sinus of valsalva rupture, (B) Coarctation of Aoa, (C) AV malformations, (D) Peripheral pulmonary stenosis
Answer is D. Answer is D (Peripheral Pulmonary Stenosis) The 'num:11r of pglmonary stenosis is harsh systolic ejection murmur typically preceded by a systolic ejection sound. It is not a continuous murmur. Continuous murmurs result from continuous flow between a high pressure and low pressure area that persists through...
Looser's zones is seen in – a) Osteoporosis b) Hyperparathyrodismc) Osteomalacia d) Renal osteodystrophye) Paget's disease: (A) bcde, (B) abd, (C) abcd, (D) acde
Answer is A. Looser's zone or pseudofracture is pathognomonic for osteomalacia, However, it may occur rarely also in Paget's disease, Fibrous dysplasia, Hyperparathyroidism, Renal osteodystrophy, Hyperphosphatasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta.
Acquired blue blindness is a feature of: (A) Disease of optic nerve, (B) Disease of macula, (C) Increased sclerosis of the crystalline lens, (D) All of the above
Answer is C. Acquired Colour Blindness Acquired blue colour defect (blue blindness) : It may occur in old age due to increased sclerosis of the crystalline lens. It is owing to the physical absorption of the blue rays by the increased a.ambercoloured pigment in the nucleus. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-305
Most common cause for meningitis in adults: September 2009: (A) H.Influenzae, (B) N.meningitidis, (C) Staph.aureus, (D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Answer is D. Ans. D: Streptococcus pneumoniae Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of meningitis in adults of age over twenty years, accounting for nearly half of the cases. N. meningitidis accounts for nearly 25% of the cases. Staph.aureus and coagulase negative staphylococci are impoant causes of meningi...
False statement about post-dural puncture headache (PDPH):: (A) Breach of dura, (B) Onset of headache is usually 12-72 hours following procedure, (C) Commonly occipito - frontal in location, (D) Headache is relieved in sitting standing position
Answer is D. Post Dural puncture Headache Pathophysiology - CSF leak - ICP |es - Traction on nerve fibres originating from piamater Site - Occipital > Frontal > Retrorbital Duration - 7-10 days Pathognomic sign - Change in posture aggravates headache Predisposing conditions - Dura cutting needle (spinal needle)* Most c...
A 7 years old child from Bihar is having hypo pigmented anaesthetic patch on his face. What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Intermediate leprosy, (B) Pityriasis alba, (C) Nevus anemicus, (D) Nevus achromicus
Answer is A. Recurrent scaly hypopigmented macule on the face of a child - P. alba Recurrent scaly hypopigmented macule on the face of an adult - P. versicolor Resident of the endemic zone with an anaesthetic patch over face - Indeterminate leprosy
Mycobacterium tuberculosis was discoverd by ?: (A) Louis pasteur, (B) Robe koch, (C) Lister, (D) Jener
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Robe koch Scientist Associated with Fracastorius Proposed a contagium vivuin (cause of infectious disease) Von Plenciz Suggested that each disease is caused by a separate agent Augustino Bassi Earliest discovery of pathogenic microorganism Davaine and Pollender Observed anthrax bacilli in...
Which of the following is used for abdominal pregnancy: (A) Studiford criteria, (B) Speigelberg criteria, (C) Rubins criteria, (D) Rotterdam criteria
Answer is A. Studdiford criteria : To diagnose the abdominal pregnancy Both the tubes and ovaries are normal without any recent injuries Absence of uteroperitoneal fistula Presence of pregnancy related exclusively to the peritoneal surface and young enough to eliminate the possibility of secondary implantation followin...
Commonest stomach tumour which bleeds ?: (A) Adenocarcinoma, (B) Squamous carcinoma, (C) Lei om yosarcoma, (D) Fibrosarcoma
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e. Leiomyosarcoma
Farber&;s disease is due to the deficiency of: (A) Ceraminidase, (B) Sphingomyelinase, (C) Glucocerebrosisase, (D) Neuraminidase
Answer is A. Farber disease (also known as Farber&;s lipogranulomatosis, ceramidase deficiency, "Fibrocytic dysmucopolysaccharidosis," and "Lipogranulomatosis" is an extremely rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease marked by a deficiency in the enzyme ceramidase that causes an accumulation of fatty material...
Which of the following configuration is used in designing an RPD with Kennedy — Class II edentulous arch?: (A) Bilateral, (B) Tripod, (C) Quadrilateral, (D) Unilateral
Answer is B. None
A specific test for gout is -: (A) Raised serum uric acid level, (B) Raised uric acid in synovial fluid of joint, (C) Raised urea level, (D) Raised urease enzyme level
Answer is B. Demonstration of intracellular monosodium urate crystals (MSU) in synovial fluid from affected joint is diagnostic of gout.
In severe cases of anterior uveitis whole circle of pupil gets adhered to lens capsule resulting in:: (A) Occlusio pupillae, (B) Seclusio pupillae, (C) Festooned pupil, (D) Mydriatic pupil
Answer is B. Seclusio pupillae/ring synaechiae/annular synaechiae is seen in severe iritis or recurrent uveitis, in which whole circle of pupillary margin becomes tied down to the lens capsule. It can lead to secondary angle closure glaucoma. Note: Occlusio pupillae/blocked pupil occurs when exudation in uveitis is ext...
In RMNCH+A Staegy, what is plus ?: (A) Adolescent health, (B) Reproductive health, (C) DPT Vaccination, (D) Newborn health
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adolescent health The RMNCH+A strategy is based on provision of comprehensive care through the five pillars, or thematic areas, of reproductive, maternal, neonatal, child, and adolescent health, and is guided by central tenets of equity, universal care, entitlement, and accountability. Th...
Infection/ inflammation of all of the following causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes except:: (A) Isthmus of uterine tube, (B) Inferior pa of anal canal, (C) Big toe, (D) Penile urethra
Answer is D. D. i.e. Penile urethra Penile (spongy) urethra of male mostly drain to deep inguinal lymph nodes
Peripheral resistance is decreased in which type of shock -a) Hypovolemic shockb) Neurogenic shockc) Septic shockd) Cardiogenic shock: (A) a, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) bc
Answer is D. Septic shock has already been described → in hyperdynamic stage there is vasodilation and  ↓ TPR. Neurogenic shock Neurogenic shock occurs when there is Neurological injury as occur in head trauma or high cervical cord injury or cephalad migration of spinal anaesthesia. Interruption of sympathetic vasomot...
Antifungal used as cancer chemotherapeutic agent is :: (A) Flucytosine, (B) Nystatin, (C) Voriconazole, (D) Terbinafine
Answer is A. None
A 50-year-old woman presents with lower back pain of 3 weeks in duration. Radiologic studies reveal several discrete lytic lesions in the lumbar back and pelvis. Laboratory studies show elevated serum levels of alkaline phosphatase. Serum calcium, serum protein, and peripheral blood smears are normal. Aspiration biopsy...
Answer is B. Multiple lytic lesions associated with keratin-positive cells strongly suggest metastatic bone cancer. Metastatic carcinoma is the most common tumor of bone, and skeletal metastases are found in at least 85% of cancer cases that have run their full clinical course. The vertebral column is the most commonly...
Preventable causes of Mental Retardation are: (A) Downs, (B) Phenylketonuria, (C) Cretinism, (D) Cerebral palsy
Answer is C. Cretinism is congenital iron deficiency syndrome which can be preventable by intake in required amounts. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
Medial border of Hesselbach's triangle is formed by:: (A) Linea alba, (B) Linea semilunaris, (C) Inferior epigastric artery, (D) Conjoint tendon
Answer is B. Ans. (b) Linea semilunarisRef: Gray's 41st edn/1080-81; Keith L Moore clinical anatomy 4thed/ 193-4# HESSELBACH'S TRIANGLE* Medial border: Lateral margin the rectus sheath, also called linea semilunaris* Superolateral border: Inferior epigastric vessels* Inferior border: Inguinal ligament, sometimes referr...
Which of the following are ineffective against gram negative bacteria?: (A) Cefixime, (B) Metronidazole, (C) Vancomycine, (D) Gentamycine
Answer is C. Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic used in the prophylaxis and treatment of infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria. Cefixine is an oral third generation cephalosporin antibiotic. It has good activity for gram-negatives. Metroridozole is highly active against gram-negative anaerobic bacteria, such...
Ator fracture is -: (A) Fracture neck of talus, (B) Fracture scaphoid, (C) Fracture calcaneum, (D) Fracture 5th metatarsal
Answer is A. Fracture neck of talus results from forced dorsiflexion of the ankle. Typically this injury is sustained in an aircraft crash where the rubber bar is driven forcibly against the middle of the sole of the foot (ATOR&;s fracture), resulting in forced dorsiflexion of the ankle, the neck being a weak area, giv...
A 4-month-old child presents with excessive irritability & crying, unexplained hyperpyrexia, vomiting, difficulty feeding for last 15 days. On admission he has rigidity & visual inattentiveness; CT scan brain shows the following finding. What is the probable diagnosis?: (A) Alexander disease, (B) Krabbe disease, (C) Me...
Answer is B. Bilateral basal ganglia calcification is seen on CT brain in Krabbe disease. Fuher,Globoid cells are seen in microscopic exmaination,which is a diagnostic feature. C/F: Irritability, muscle weakness, feeding difficulties, episodes of fever without any sign of infection, stiff posture, and delayed mental an...
Raynaud’s syndrome occurs in all of the following except:: (A) SLE, (B) Rheumatoid arthritis, (C) Osteoarthritis, (D) Cryoglobulinemia
Answer is C. None
NVBDCP includes ail except?: (A) Malaria, (B) Filarial, (C) Kala azar, (D) KFD
Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Chikungimya o National Vector Borne Disease control programme (NVBDCP) includes 6 vector borne diseases- Malaria Dengue Filaria Kala azar JE Chikungunya fever 1. Chickungunya has been included now Health programmes In India o Since India become indepedent, several measures have been under...
The usefulness of the technique of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is explained by which of the following?: (A) Allodynia, (B) Central pain, (C) Gate theory of pain, (D) Referred pain
Answer is C. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is a method used to lessen severe, chronic pain by overly stimulating the involved neurons. This is thought to trigger inhibitory interneurons in lamina II of the spinal cord, thereby paially blocking the transmission of pain impulses. These interneurons are cons...
Which is must for prothrombin time?: (A) Thromboplastin, (B) Prothrombin, (C) Fibrinogen, (D) Fibrin
Answer is A. Prothrombin time test - Time needed for plasma to clot after addition of tissue thromboplastin and Ca2+ ions.
Fluroacetate inhibits -: (A) Citrate synthetase, (B) Aconitase, (C) Succinate dehydrogenase, (D) Alphaketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Answer is B. B i.e. Aconitase
Following angiography findings are most likely seen in which condition:: (A) Kawasaki, (B) PAN, (C) Takayasu, (D) Giant cell arteritis
Answer is B. Ans. B. PANImage shows angiographic vascular pathologya. Most probably it is seen in PAN (Polyarteritis nodosa)b. It is medium vessel vasculitis of renal & visceral vessels sparing the pulmonary circulationc. In PAN, small aneurysms are strung like the beads of arosary known as Rosary sign.
What is the approximate stress caused by polymerisation shrinkage of composite?: (A) 1 Mpa, (B) 5 Mpa, (C) 15 Mpa, (D) 30 Mpa
Answer is B. None
Axillary hair growth is caused by?: (A) Testosterone, (B) Estrogen, (C) Prolactin, (D) Estrogen in women and androgens in man
Answer is A. Testosterone REF: Ganong's 22nd ed p. 430 Secondary sexual hair production in both man and woman is under control of androgens
Neuronophagia is seen in -: (A) Amoebic encephalitis, (B) Poliomyelitis, (C) Tuberculer meningoencephalitis, (D) Cerebral malaria
Answer is B. None
A pulmonary disorder causes the alveoli to break down and coalesce into large air spaces. The lungs also lose elasticity and compliance is increased. A person who suffers from this disease will have: (A) Increased dead air space, (B) Increased vital capacity, (C) Decreased PCO2 in the blood, (D) Decreased anteroposteri...
Answer is A. None
Triglycerides are maximum in: (A) Chylomicrons, (B) VLDL, (C) LDL, (D) HDL
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e. Chylomicrons [Ref: Chatterjee & Shinde Biochemistry 6/e, p 338 (T21.2); Harper 26/e, p 206;Maximum content of TG's is seen in - Chylomicrons*Maximum content of exogenous TG's is seen in - Chylomicrons*Maximum content of endogenous TG's is seen in - VLDL*Maximum cholesterol is seen in - LDL...
A 55 years lady presented with sudden onset of severe pain in the eye with, Shallow anterior chamber. Treatment of choice is: (A) Atropine, (B) I/V mannitol & Acetazolamide, (C) Atenolol, (D) Steroids I/V
Answer is B. (1/V mannitol & Acetazolamide): (242-Nema 6th edition; 244-Khurana 5th/e)It is a case of Acute primary angle closure glaucomaImmediate medical therapy to lower IOP1. Systemic hyper osmotic agents* Intravenous mannitol (1 gm 1 kg body weight)* Oral hyperosmotics eg glycerol2. Systemic carbonic anhydrase inh...
Which of the following structure passes through the triangular interval of the arm?: (A) Radial nerve, (B) Axillary nerve, (C) Median nerve, (D) Ulnar Nerve
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Radial nerve RegionBoundariesContentsUpper triangular space of armSuperior: Teres minorInferior : Teres majorLateral: Long head of tricepsCircumflex scapular arteryLower triangular space of armSuperior: Teres majorMedial: Long head of tricepsLateral; Shaft of humerusRadial nerveProfunda b...
What is the function of DNA ligase ?: (A) Unwinding (denaturation) of dsDNA to provide an ssDNA template, (B) Seals the single strand nick between the nascent chain and Okazaki fragments on lagging strand, (C) Initiation of DNA synthesis and elongation, (D) Initiates synthesis of RNA primers
Answer is B. Ans. is 'b* i.e., Seals the single strand nick between the .......... ProteinFunctionDNA polymerasesDeoxynucieotide polymerizationHelicasesProcessive unwinding of DNATopoisomerasesRelieve torsional strain that results from helicase-induced unwindingDNA primaseInitiates synthesis of RNA primersSingle-strand...
Most common organ affected in blast injury:: (A) Liver, (B) Lungs, (C) Nervous tissue, (D) Skeletal system
Answer is B. Lungs
The cyclical flexion and extension motions of a leg during walking result from activity at which level of the nervous system?: (A) Cerebral coex, (B) Cerebellum, (C) Globus pallidus, (D) Spinal cord
Answer is D. The spinal cord has the intrinsic circuitry in the form of central paftern generators to produce the basic motions of walking.
Auerbachs plexus is present in the -: (A) Colon, (B) Esophagus, (C) Stomach, (D) All of the above
Answer is D. All of the above
A person of 60 years age is suffering from myositis ossificans progressive. The usual cause of death would be:: (A) Nutritional deficiency, (B) Bed sore, (C) Lung disease, (D) Septicemia
Answer is C. C i.e. Lung disease
A 29-year-old woman on oral contraceptives presents with abdominal pain. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen demonstrates a large hematoma of the right liver with the suggestion of an underlying liver lesion. Her hemoglobin is 6, and she is transfused 2 units of packed red blood cells and 2 units of fresh fr...
Answer is D. The patient has TRALI or transfusion-related acute lung injury which manifests as respiratory distress, hypoxemia, and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates not due to volume overload. The treatment of choice is respiratory suppo, including mechanical ventilation, as needed. The major risk factor for TRALI is tr...
All are absolute contraindication of OCP except:: (A) Pregnancy, (B) Thromboembolic disorder, (C) Hepatic failure, (D) Endometriosis
Answer is D. Ans. D. EndometriosisOCP are contraindicated in pregnancy, hepatic renal failure, thromboembolic disorder, breast CA, hypertension, diabetes. But in case of endometriosis, it regulates the irregular bleeding which is non-contraceptive use of OCP.
Which of the following is not a part of ransons score?: (A) Amylase, (B) Lipase, (C) ALT, (D) None of the above
Answer is D. None
Which of the following statement on microalbuminuria is not true?: (A) Cannot be detected by routine lab tests, (B) Urine protein less than 30-299 pg/day is called microalbuminuria, (C) Microalbuminuria is an independent risk factor for cardiovascular risk in diabetic patients, (D) Microalbuminuria is the earliest mark...
Answer is B. The significance of microalbuminuria: Microalbuminuria is the finding of albumin in the urine not detectable by the urine dipstick which is sensitive to protein concentration > 1gm%. It precedes the decline in GFR and indicates the presence of renal and cardiovascular complications. Annual screening for mi...
Which of the following antigens are associated with cicatricial pemphigoid?: (A) BPAG2 and epiligrin, (B) HLA DR5 and HLA B8, (C) HLA DR52 and HLA DR3, (D) HLA DQB2
Answer is A. Cicatricial Pemphigoid: Autoimmune blistering disease associated with autoantibodies directed against basement membrane zone target antigens. Autoantibodies of IgG subclass, particularly IgG4, are associated with CP. IgA antibodies have also been detected. The two major antigens associated with CP are bul...
Local anaesthetics act by-: (A) Na channel inhibition inside gate, (B) Na channel inhibition outside gate, (C) K channel inhibition inside gate, (D) K channel inhibition outside gate
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Na channel inhibition inside gate o Local anesthetics act by inhibiting Na+ channels from inside.Mechanism of action of LAo Local anaesthetics block generation and conduction of nerve impulse at all part of neuron where they come in contact, without causing structural damage.o Thus not on...
Which of the following proteins binds with free hemoglobin in the plasma -: (A) Albumin, (B) Haptoglobin, (C) Pre-albumin, (D) Ceruloplasmin
Answer is B. None
38 years old Mala has Pap smear suggestive of HSIL.Colposcopy directed biopsy can reveal all, EXCEPT:: (A) CIN-1, (B) CIN-2, (C) CIN-3, (D) Cainsitu
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., CIN-1 * As per Bethesda system:# Low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (L-SIL) = CIN I# High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (H-SIL) = CIN II/CIN III/CIS
Mikulicz and russel bodies are characteristic of -: (A) Rhinoscleroma, (B) Rhinosporidiosis, (C) Plasma cell disorder, (D) Lethal midling granuloma
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rhinoscleroma o Biopsy of rhinoscleroma show's infiltration of submucosa writh plasma cells, lymphocytes, eosinophils, Mikulicz cells and Russell bodies. The latter two are the diagnostic features of the disease,Rhinoscleromao The causative organism is Klebsiella rhinoscleromatisor Frisch...
Neurotransmitter in striatal pathway is?: (A) Glutamine, (B) Glycine, (C) Serotonine, (D) Dopamine
Answer is D. The nigrostriatal pathway or the nigrostriatal bundle (NSB), is a dopaminergic pathway that connects the substantia nigra with the dorsal striatum (i.e., the caudate nucleus and putamen). Dopaminergic neurons of this pathway synapse onto GABAergic neurons. Glycine is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the c...
Which of the following pathways does not occur in mitochondria: (A) Beta oxidation, (B) Urea cycle, (C) Fatty acid synthesis, (D) Heme synthesis
Answer is C. Fatty acid synthesis takes place in cytoplasm. Beta Oxidation occurs in mitochondria. Heme synthesis and Urea cycle occur both in cytoplasm and mitochondria.
The above shown device is used for:: (A) Gestational age assesment, (B) Non-stress test, (C) Fetal aerial doppler, (D) Detect progression of labour
Answer is B. The above shown device is NST. The nonstress test measures the fetal hea rate in response to fetal movement over time. The term "nonstress" means that during the test, nothing is done to place stress on the fetus. If two or more accelerations occur within a 20-minute period, the result is considered reacti...
Which index would you use to assess the severity of periodontitis in epidemiological studies of a large population?: (A) PMA index, (B) Gingival index, (C) Periodontal index, (D) Sulcus bleeding index
Answer is C. None
True about tongue cancer:: (A) Most common type is adenocarcinoma, (B) Cervical lymph node metastasis is universally present, (C) MC site is on Lateral margin, (D) Slurring of speech is a common complaint
Answer is C. Ans. (c) MC site is on Lateral marginRef. Bailey & Love 26th ed. 713-14TONGUE CANCER* MC site is middle of lateral border or ventral aspect of the tongue.* MC histological type is squamous cell carcinoma.* MC complaint: Mid-irritation of tongue.* MC associated risk factors are tobacco and alcohol.* MC vari...
Gottron’s papules Seen in?: (A) SLE, (B) MTCD, (C) Dermatomyositis, (D) Rheumatoid arthritis
Answer is C. DERM ATOM MYOSITIS: DM is a distinctive entity identified by a characteristic rash accompanying, or more often preceding muscle weakness. √ Heliotrope rash: The rash may consist of a blue-purple discolouration on the upper eyelids with edema √ Gottron's sign: A flat red rash on the face and upper trunk an...
A 67-year-old man with an 18-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for a routine physical examination. His temperature is 36.9 C (98.5 F), his blood pressure is 158/98 mm Hg and his pulse is 82/minute and regular. On examination, the physician notes a non tender, pulsatile, mass in the mid-abdomen. A plain ...
Answer is B. Cholestyramine and colestipol are bile acid sequestrants that bind bile acids in the intestine, thereby interrupting enterohepatic circulation of bile acids. This has an indirect effect to enhance LDL clearance and lower lipids in the blood. Atorvastatin and lovastatin are lipid-lowering drugs that competi...
Patient says he hears music every time when someone touches his thumb. This is an example of: (A) Reflex hallucination, (B) Functional hallucination, (C) Visual hallucination, (D) Extra campine hallucination
Answer is A. Functional hallucination : Here the stimulus and perecption are in same modality. v/s Reflex hallucination : Here the stimulus and pereception are in different modality.
Epipharynx is also called-: (A) Nasopharynx, (B) Oropharynx, (C) Laryngopharynx, (D) Hypopharynx
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Nasopharynx Epipharvnx / Nasophavnxo The part of the pharynx that lies above the soft palate; anteriorly it opens into the nasal cavities through the choanae;inferiorly, it communicates with the oropharynx through the pharyngeal isthmus; laterally it communicates withtympanic cavities thr...
Red man syndrome is caused by which drug:: (A) Linezolid, (B) Clindamycin, (C) Vancomycin, (D) Teicoplanin
Answer is C. Vancomycin is a glycopeptide antibiotic that releases histamine leading to "Red man syndrome"
DOC for migraine prophylaxis -: (A) Propranolol, (B) Valproate, (C) Topiramate, (D) Ethosuxamide
Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Propranolol Treatment and prophylaxis of migraineo For aborting an acute attack of migraine, sumatriptan (or any other triptan) is the drug of choice. Other drugs used for treatment are NSAIDs, ergotamine and dihydroergotamine, and intranasal butorphanol.o For Prophylaxis, Beta-blocker (p...
The percentage of copper in high copper alloy is:: (A) 10-12%, (B) 0 -6%, (C) 13-30%, (D) 20 -30%
Answer is C. None
Which ligament transfers weight from peripheral to axial skeleton?: (A) Coracoclavicular ligament, (B) Acromio-clavicular ligament, (C) Ligament of Bigelow, (D) Stemo-clavicular ligament
Answer is A. The gap anteriorly is filled by a syol bursa. The coracoclavicular ligaments have a vital role to play in movements of the pectoral girdle. The conoid ligament limits anterior movement of the scapula with respect to the clavicle. The trapezoid limits posterior movement between these two bones
Most common cause of stridor after birth:: (A) Laryngeal papilloma, (B) Laryngeal web, (C) Laryngomalacia, (D) Vocal cord palsy
Answer is C. (c) Laryngomalacia(Ref. Current Diagnosis & Treatment Otolaryngology, Lalwani, 3rd ed., 481; Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2; 333)Laryngomalacia, which is the most common congenital anomaly of the larynx, is the most common cause of congenital laryngeal stridor.Vocal cord palsy is the 2nd most common cause of ...
"Corner sign of park" is feature of:: (A) Scurvy, (B) Rickets, (C) Battered baby syndrome, (D) Sickle cell disease
Answer is A. Ans. A. ScurvyScurvy-Radiographic findings:1. Osteoporosis2. Pencil thin cortex3. Wimberger's sign4. Trummerfeld zone of rarefaction5. Corner sign of Park6. Line of Frankel7. Subperiosteal hemorrhage
Not true regarding retinal anatomy: (A) Most of the layers of retina are absent at foveala, (B) The layer of retina in contact with vitreous is retinal pigment epithelium, (C) Posterior pole consists of optic nerve head and macula, (D) Fovea has a zone where there is no blood supply
Answer is B. Layer in contact with vitreous is internal limiting membrane Foveal Avascular Zone- * No blood vessels in this zone * Geometric centre is centre of macula & Fixation point * Impoant landmark in FA * Ora serrata > Foveola: Thinnest pa of retina * Posterior Pole: Macula + Optic nerve head * Optic disc approx...
Septum secundum arises from -: (A) Bulbus cordis, (B) Primitive ventricle, (C) Primitive atrium, (D) Sinus venosus
Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Primitive atrium o The primitive atrium is divided into left and right atria by interatrial septum which is formed by fusion of septum primum and septum secundum. The sequnece of events are as follows# Septum primum arises from the roof of common atrium (primitive atrium) and grows caudal...