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Drug used for kala-azar: (A) Diloxanide furoate, (B) Metronidazole, (C) Paromomycin, (D) Spiramycin | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e.,Paromomycin Drugs used for kala-azarParentral : Amphotericin-B (iv), Paromomycin (im), sodium stibogluconate (iv or im).Oral : Miltefosine | |
A 70 kg old athlete was posted for surgery, Patient was administered succinylcholine due to unavailability of vecuronium. It was administered in intermittent dosing (total 640 mg). During recovery patient was not able to respire spontaneously & move limbs. What is the explanation ?: (A) Pseudocholinesterase deficiency ... | Answer is B. B i.e. Phase 2 blockade produced by succinylcholine - Sch is depolarizing/ non competitiveQ M.R. with shoest duration of actionQ (3-5 min) d/t rapid hydrolysis by pseudo cholinesteraseQ. It causes dual/ biphasic blockQ. It increases K. (ie hyperkalemiaQ 1/t diastolic cardiac arrest), intraocular & intragas... | |
An 18-year-old presents with a well- circumscribed 2 cm mass in her right breast. The mass is painless and has a rubbery consistency and discrete borders. It appears to move freely through the breast tissue. What is the likeliest diagnosis?: (A) Carcinoma, (B) Cyst, (C) Fibroadenoma, (D) Cystosarcoma phyllodes | Answer is C. Fibroadenomas are most often found in teenage girls. They are firm in consistency, clearly defined, and very mobile. The typical feature on palpation is that they appear to move freely through the breast tissue ("breast mouse"). | |
Definition of Blindness when visual acuity is less than ___________ in better eye according to NPCB and WHO respectively: (A) < 3/60 and < 6/18, (B) < 6/18 and < 3/60, (C) < 3/60 and < 3/60, (D) < 6/18 and < 6/18 | Answer is C. None | |
A group tested for a drug shows 60% improvement as against a standard group showing 40% improvement. The best test to test the significance of result is-: (A) Student T test, (B) Chi square test, (C) Paired T test, (D) Test for variance | Answer is B. Ref: Parks 23rd edition pg 852 Chi-square test offers an alternate method of testing the significance of difference between two propoions.Advantage: it can also be used when more than 2groups are to be compared. Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 852 Tests of significance: Qualitative: Chi- square : 2 or more than ... | |
Most common malignant tumor of kidney:: (A) Papillary carcinoma, (B) Papillary adenoma, (C) Renal cell CA, (D) Wilms tumor | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Renal cell CARef: Robbins 9th ed. 1952* Robbins 9th ed. States: "by far the most common malignant tumor is renal cell carcinoma, followed by Wilms tumor, which is found in children.* Incidence of RCC is: 85%* M > F (2:1)* Most of the RCC are sporadio AD (familial)Must KnowKIDNEY CA (extract from R... | |
A 6 day old newborn infant develops lectonuria seizures and hypoglycemia. The likely diagnosis is?: (A) Aromatic amino aciduria, (B) Phenyl ketonuria, (C) Intrauterine infectious, (D) Tyrosinemia | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Aromatic amino aciduria | |
The PHP index is designed to: (A) Evaluate plaque and calculus on specific tooth surfaces, (B) Score plaque on specific tooth surfaces, (C) Scores plaque and gingivitis, (D) Scores plaque, calculus, gingivitis | Answer is B. None | |
Following acute failure of the left ventricle is the hea is man, pulmonary edema generally begins to appear when left atrial pressure approaches: (A) 7 mm Hg, (B) I5 mm Hg, (C) 20 mm Hg, (D) 30 mm Hg | Answer is C. Pulmonary edema is one of the most serious consequences of left ventricular cardiac failure. When the left ventricle fails or when the mitral valve fails, left atrial pressure (LAP) may increase substantially. The resulting increase in pulmonary capillary pressure (Pc) forces excess fluid filtration throug... | |
Chocking is constricting device within the barrel at the muzzle end of -: (A) Revolver, (B) 303 rifle, (C) Shot gun, (D) Semiautomatic pistol | Answer is C. The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology ; Dr k.s narayan reddy ; 28th edition ; pg.no 122 The choke bore present in a shot gun ,the distal 7-10 cm of the barrel is narrow . There are some shotguns which have a small poion of their bore near the muzzle end rifled ,which are called "paradox gun" . | |
Which of the following is lined by transitional epithelium: (A) Stomach, (B) Colon, (C) Urethro verical junction, (D) Prostate | Answer is C. INDERBIR SINGH&;S TEXTBOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY-PAGE NO:321 Both in the male and female,the greater pa of urethra is lined by pseudo stratified columnar epithelium.a sho pa adjoining the urinary bladder us lined by transitional epithelium | |
Most common cause of death in amyloidosis is ?: (A) Hea failure, (B) Renal failure, (C) Sepsis, (D) None | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hea Failure `Most common cause of death is hea failure and/or abnormal cardiac rhythm' Essentials pathology | |
Who proposed the classification of primary dentition based on distal surface of second molar?: (A) Angle, (B) Baume, (C) Simon, (D) Dewey | Answer is B. Classification of Primary Dentition given by Baume, 1959 | |
Paragonismus westermani is commonly called: March 2005: (A) Lung fluke, (B) Tapeworms, (C) Intestinal flukes, (D) Liver flukes | Answer is A. Ans. A: Lung fluke Paragonismus westermani Preferred definitive host: Carnivores (e.g. felids, canids, viverids, and mustelids), rodents, and pigs. Reservoir hosts: Humans Vector/intermediate hosts: Snail of Family Thieridae; - Crab-Eriocheir japonicus. Organs affected: Mainly the bronchioles of the lungs,... | |
In pregnancy :: (A) Plasma fibrinogen levels are increased, (B) Fibrinogen levels are decreased, (C) Thyroglobulins are decreased, (D) IgD are markedly increased | Answer is A. Plasma fibrinogen levels are increased | |
Singer&;s Alkali denatuaion test is performed for:: (A) Rh incompatibility, (B) Vasa Pre, (C) Abruptio placenta, (D) Preterm labour | Answer is B. Singer&;s alkali denaturation test is performed for Vasa Pre. Detection of nucleated RBCs using apt test or Singer&;s alkali denaturation test is diagnostic of vasa pre. It is based on the fact that fetal hemoglobin is resistant to alkali denaturation. Both Apt and Kleihauer-Betke Test can be used to detec... | |
Regarding phenytoin all are true except: (A) Potent microsomal enzyme inducer, (B) Highly protein bound, (C) At lower concentration it follows zero order kinetics, (D) With increasing dose, the T 1/2 increases | Answer is C. At lower concentration it follows zero order kinetics A child with respiratory infection and membrane over peritonsillar area is suspected of having Diptheria. Both Blood Tellurite media & Loeffler serum slope can be used for culture but Diptheria is one emergency so the media in which it can be cultured q... | |
True about follicular cysts of ovary are all except: (A) Functional cyst of ovary, (B) Most-common in young, menstruating women, (C) Independent of gonadotropins for growth, (D) Women with cystic fibrosis have increased propensity to develop follicular cysts. | Answer is C. Follicular cysts are dependent on gonadotropins for growth. | |
IUGR babies on delivery are called:: (A) Growth retarded, (B) Small for date, (C) Low bih weight, (D) Preterm | Answer is B. Small for date | |
Heterophile antibody test is done for: September 2010: (A) Rickettsial infections, (B) Infectious mononucleosis, (C) Smallpox, (D) Japanese encephalitis | Answer is B. Ans. B: Infectious mononucleosis A heterophile agglutination is a test that measures the agglutination of the red blood cells of sheep by the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis. Diagnostic tests are used to confirm infectious mononucleosis but the disease should be suspected from symptoms prio... | |
Gallstone are associated with which Neuro Endocrine Tumour :-: (A) Insulinoma, (B) VIPoma, (C) Somastostatinoma, (D) Glucagonoma | Answer is C. Somatostatinoma syndrome is a triad of diabetes mellitus, diarrhea and gallstones, but also includes weight loss and hypochlorhydria. | |
A 69 year old male presents with an episode of slurring of speech which lasted for 12 hours and then resolved.He is heavy smoker having smoked 60 cigarettes per day for 40 years. He had a single episode of haemoptysis 4 weeks previously and has underlying lung cancer with brain metastases and is referred for an urgent ... | Answer is B. The axial image from a contrast enhanced CT scan, in aerial phase, shows a filling defect in the left atrial appendage layered along the anterior wall. Given the clinical history and the CT appearance, the most likely diagnosis is of thrombus in the LA as a consequence of AF. Myxomas generally arise from i... | |
The patho-physiological phenomenon that occurs during atheromatous plaque formation and is used for screening of 'asymptomatic coronary plaques' on CT scan is:: (A) Increased outer diameter of coronary aery, (B) Decreased inner diameter of coronary aery, (C) Calcium deposition in the atheromatous plaque, (D) Lipoid deg... | Answer is C. C i.e. Calcium deposition in the atheromatous plaque Screening of asymptomatic coronary plaques on. CT scan (EBCT & MDCT) uses calcium depositionQ as a surrogate marker for detecting the presence & amout of atherosclerosis. CT attenuation within non calcified fibrous pique (91-116) is greater than within n... | |
Screening test used in first trimester for aneuploidy -: (A) PAPP-A &estradiol, (B) PAPP-A & AFP, (C) PAPP-A &beta HCG, (D) Beta HCG & inhibin | Answer is C. Ans. is'c'i.e., PAPP-A &beta HCG1st trimester aneuploidy screening:Human chorionic gonadotropin (either intact or free (b-hCG).Pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A).Fetal Down syndrome in 1st trimester:Higher serum free beta-hCG level.Lower PAPP-A levels.Trisomy 18 & 13:Lowered levels of both HCG ... | |
Which of the following is most dependent on vasovagal reflex?: (A) Chewing, (B) Swallowing, (C) Receptive relaxation, (D) Segmentation of intestine | Answer is C. Ans. c (Receptive relaxation). (Ref. Ganong, Physiology, 21st ed., 498)Receptive Relaxation# When food enters stomach, fundus and upper part of the body relax and accommodate food with little if any increase in pressure known as receptive relaxation.# It is vagally mediated and triggered by pharyngeal and ... | |
Position of mid-inguinal point is ?: (A) Midpoint of Anterior Superior Iliac Spine (ASIS) and pubic tubercle, (B) Mid point of ASIS and pubic symphysis, (C) Mid point of both ASIS, (D) Mid-point of inguinal ligament | Answer is B. Ans-B | |
A woman develops chickenpox at 39 weeks. She has a single fetus in the cephalic presentation. She has no other pregnancy complications.What is the best method to prevent neonatal infection?: (A) Continue the pregnancy for at least one week., (B) Give varicella zoster vaccine to the neonate soon after birth, (C) Give VZ... | Answer is A. Ans. is a, i.e. Continue the pregnancy for at least one weekIf delivery can be postponed for at least 7 days, the mother will develop antibodies and there will be transplacental transfer of antibodies to the neonate. The neonate will have passive immunity and will not develop the infection. Therefore, the ... | |
Which organs do not utilise ketone bodies?: (A) Skeletal muscles, (B) Cardiac muscles, (C) Liver, (D) RBC | Answer is D. In the fasting state, glucose must be spared for use by the central nervous system (which is largely dependent on glucose) and the red blood cells (which are wholly reliant on glucose). Therefore, tissues that can use fuels other than glucose do so; muscle and liver oxidize fatty acids and the liver synthe... | |
'Hair on end' appearance is characteristically seen in: (A) Thalasemia major, (B) Sickle cell anaemia, (C) G 6PD deficiency, (D) Hereditary spherocytosis | Answer is A. Ans. a (Thalassemia major) (Ref. Radiology Review Manual, 5th/pg.174)Causes of "hair on end" or "crew hair cut" skull are# Thalassemia (Characteristic)# Hereditary spherocytosis# Sickle cell disease# G-6-PD deficiency# Iron deficiency anaemia# Neuroblastoma | |
Insulinoma is most commonly located in which part of the pancreas -: (A) Head, (B) Body, (C) Tail, (D) Equally distributed | Answer is D. “Insulinomas invariably occur only in the pancreas, distributed equally in the pancreatic head, body and tail". — Harrison 17/e
Insulinomas are a β cell endocrinal tumur of the pancreas.
Insulinomas are the most common pancreatic endocrine neoplasms.
The symptoms are produced due to excessive secretion of... | |
A child comes with cyanotic spells and chest X-ray was as shown below; What is the most probable diagnosis?: (A) Tetralogy of Fallot, (B) Tricuspid atresia, (C) Pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum, (D) TAPVC | Answer is A. a. Tetralogy of Fallot(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2211-2217,, Ghai 8/e p 420-423)The given history along with chest X-ray finding of Boot shaped heart suggests a diagnosis of Tetralogy of Fallot. | |
Which morphological type of cataract is most visually handicapping ?: (A) Cortical, (B) Nuclear, (C) Posterior subcapsular, (D) Zonular | Answer is C. Cupuliform (Posterior subcapsular) cataract lies right in the pathway of the axial rays and thus causes an early loss of visual acuity. | |
A 16 yr old boy is brought to the emergency room by ambulance after suffering a concussion during a football game. When he awoke he had difficulty expressing himself verbally but was able to understand and follow commands. His condition is most likely caused by damage to which of the following?: (A) The hippocampus, (B... | Answer is B. Aphasia is a language disorder in which a person is unable to properly express or understand ceain aspects of written or spoken language. It is caused by lesions to the language centers of the brain, which, for the majority of persons, are located within the left hemisphere in the poions of the temporal an... | |
Which of the following procedures is used as a routine technique in karyotyping using light microscopy?: (A) G banding, (B) C banding, (C) Q banding, (D) Brd V-staining | Answer is A. None | |
Atheroma resulting in angina has following characteristic except -: (A) Thin fibrous cap, (B) Thick fibrous cap, (C) Lack of macrophage, (D) Lack of smooth muscle cell | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lack of macrophage o Atherosclerotic plaque is composed of three major components. Cellular component --> Predeminantly smooth muscle cells and macrophages. Others are lymphocytes. Connective tissue matrix (ECM) --> Collegen, elastic fibers, proteoglycans. Lipids --> Both intracellular an... | |
Cyanosis is not seen in-: (A) CHF, (B) COPD, (C) CO poisoning, (D) High altitude | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., CO poisoing Hypoxic hypoxia (hypoxemia)Anemic hypoxiaStagnant hypoxiaHistotoxic hypoxiao Cyanosis presentCauses :* Hypoventilation as seen in interstitial lung disease & COPD* Cyanotic CHD* Reduced diffusion capacity* Right to left shunt, e.g. A V malformation* V/Q mismatch* High altitude... | |
Make the diagnosis of a 26 day old Infant presenting with recurrent nonbilious vomiting with costipation and loss of wt?: (A) Oesophageal atresia, (B) Choledochal cyst, (C) Ileal atresia, (D) Pyloric stenosis | Answer is D. Ans is 'd' ie Pyloric stenosis This is a typical picture of pyloric stenosis a) Infant presenting in 4th week b) Non-bilious vomitting. c) With constipation and wt. loss. Lets see other options. Esophageal atresia a) Infant presents soon after bih with complaints of regurgitation of milk, saliva pours almo... | |
Which of the following is seen in cryoglobulinemia: (A) IgG, (B) IgM, (C) IgA, (D) IgE | Answer is B. Abnormal Ig Bence Jones proteins Light chain of Ig ( Kappa or Lambda )WaldenstormmacroglobulinemiaIg M Heavy chain disease Fc pa of heavy chain CryoglobulinemiaPrecipitate at low temperature (Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, 96-98) | |
Malleus is derived from: (A) Meckel's cartilage, (B) Reinche's cartilage, (C) Third pharyngeal arch, (D) Second pharyngeal arch | Answer is A. i.e. (Meckel's Cartilage): (316-109 IBS- Embryology 8th)* Malleus and Incus are derived from the dorsal end of the Meckel's cartilage (First arch)*** Stapes is formed from the dorsal end of the cartilage of second pharyngeal archNerves of pharyngeal arches and muscles supplied by themArchNerve of ArchMuscl... | |
On otological examination all of the following will have positive fistula test except:: (A) Dead ear, (B) Labyrinthine fistula, (C) Hypermobile stapes footplate, (D) Following fenestration surgery | Answer is A. (a) Dead ear(Ref. Shambaugh, 6th ed., page 181)If there is a fistula on the medial wall but inner ear is dead (not responding to pressure changes), then in spite of presence of fistula, fistula test will be negative. This is false negative fistula test.If the footplate of stapes is hypermobile, it results ... | |
All are characteristics of Autism except: (A) Onset often age of 6 years, (B) Repeatitive behaviour, (C) Delayed language development, (D) Severe deficit in social interaction | Answer is A. These are some of the characteristics of ASD: problems with social interaction with others. This may include problems talking back and foh, working, or playing with others. unusual interest in objects need for sameness great variation in abilities under or over reaction to one or more of the five senses: s... | |
Which apoprotein is the most impoant to activate lipoprotein lipase -: (A) Apo-A I, (B) Apo B48, (C) Apo-C II, (D) Apo-E | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Apo-C IIMajor activator of lipoprotein lipase is apo-CII | |
Risk of the damage of fetus by maternal rubella is maximum if mother gets infected in: (A) 20-24 weeks of pregnancy, (B) 24-28 weeks of pregnancy, (C) 32-36 weeks of pregnancy, (D) 6-12 weeks of pregnancy | Answer is D. Congenital Rubella Syndrome (CRS):
CRS is said to have occurred if:
– Infant has IgM rubella antibodies shortly after birth, or
– IgG antibodies persist for more than 6 months
Major determinant of extent of fetal infection in CRS: Gestational age at which fetal transmission occurs,
– Infection in I tri... | |
In organophosphorous poisoning, following are seen except -: (A) Pupillary dilatation, (B) Salivation, (C) Bronchospasm, (D) Sweating | Answer is A. None | |
TGF-β is involved in all of the process of angiogenesis except:: (A) Stimulates fibroblast migration and proliferation, (B) Formation of the vascular lumen, (C) Increases the synthesis of collagen, (D) Decreases the degradation of ECM | Answer is B. TGF-β stimulates fibroblast migration and proliferation, increases the synthesis of collagen and fibronectin, and decreases the degradation of ECM by inhibiting metalloproteinases. TGF-β is involved not only in scar formation after injury but also in the development of fibrosis in lung, liver, and kidneys ... | |
Cavallo's sign is seen in -: (A) Tricuspid Regurgitation, (B) Mitral Stenosis, (C) Aoic Stenosis, (D) Aoic Regurgitation | Answer is A. Ans. A. Tricuspid Regurgitation | |
Sympathetic ophthalmitis usually results due to:: (A) Glaucoma, (B) Trachoma, (C) Penetrating injury to Ciliary body, (D) Uveitis | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Penetrating injury to Ciliary bodyRef.: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. /163, 437* Sympathetic ophthalmitis is a serious bilateral granulomatous panuveitis which usually occurs due to penetrating trauma to ciliary body.* The injured eye is called exciting eye.* Fellow eye which also develops uvieitis is call... | |
Wermer syndrome is -: (A) MEN 1, (B) MEN HA, (C) MEN IIB, (D) AIP | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., MEN 1 | |
If hardness level of water is 50-150 mg/L, the water is defined as -: (A) Soft, (B) Moderately hard, (C) Flard, (D) Very hard | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Moderately hard Classification of hardness in waterClassificationLevel of hardness (mEq./litre)a) Soft waterb) Moderately hardc) Hard waterd) Very hard waterLess than 1 (< 50 mg/L)1 - 3 (50 - 150 mg/L)3 - 6 (150 - 300 mg/L)Over 6 (> 300 mg/L) | |
Berson and yellow 1st described the following test: (A) RIA, (B) ELISA, (C) Immuno chromatography, (D) Chemiluminescence assay | Answer is A. Berson and Yalow discovered RIA in 1959 by which we can quantify antigens or hormones upto picograms-v sensitive than ELISA RIA /ELISA-indirect immunofluorescence tests Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 115 | |
Little&;s are is: (A) Anteroinferior lateral wall, (B) Anteroinferior nasal septum, (C) Posteroinferior lateral wall, (D) Posterinferior nasal septum | Answer is B. The anteroinferior pa or vestibule of the septum contains anastomoses between the septal ramus of the superior labial branch of facial aery,branch of sphenopalatine aery,greater palatine and of anterior ethmoidal aery These form a large capillary network called kiesselbachs plexus. This is a common site of... | |
Pyrimidine overproduction results in all except: (A) Hyperuricemia, (B) Reye syndrome, (C) orotic aciduria, (D) Megaloblastic anemia | Answer is A. Defective enzyme of pyrimidine metabolism Signs and symptoms Dihydropyrimidine dehydrogenase Can develop toxicity to 5-fluorouracil, also a substrate for this dehydrogenase Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase and orotidylic acid decarboxylase Orotic acid aciduria type 1, megaloblastic anemia Orotidylic acid... | |
Characteristic features of a lesion in the lateral part of the medulla include all except -: (A) Ipsilateral Homer's syndrome, (B) Contralateral loss of proprioception to the body and limbs, (C) Nystagmus, (D) Dysphagia | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Contralateral loss of proprioception to the body and limbs | |
Peripheral blood smear in Plasmodium falciparum infection may show all of the following except-: (A) Male gametocyte, (B) Trophozoite, (C) Female gamatocyte, (D) Schizont | Answer is D. Examination of Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smear is the standard test for the diagnosis of malarial infection. Classic ring-shaped/headphone-shaped trophozoites,malegamates,female gamates are seen in case of Plasmodium falciparum infection. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1078 | |
Main vascular supply of Little's area is all, except: (A) Septal branch of superior labial aery, (B) Nasal branch of ethmoidal aery, (C) Anterior ethmoidal nerve, (D) Palatal branch of sphenopalatine | Answer is D. The anteroinferior pa or vestibule of the septum contains anastomoses between the septal ramus of the superior labial branch of the facial aery, branch of sphenopalatine aery, greater palatine and of anterior ethmoidal aery. These form a large capillary network called kiesselbachs plexus. This is a common ... | |
Active agent of cannabis resemble which endogenous compound: (A) Endorphin, (B) Endomorphins, (C) Anandamine, (D) Enkaphalin | Answer is C. Anandamide is a neurotransmitter produced in the brain that binds to the THC receptors. It's been called the "bliss molecule," aptly named after ananda, the Sanskrit word for "joy, bliss, or happiness." It is considered an endocannabinoid -- a substance produced in the body that binds to cannabinoid recept... | |
Quick Reduction of blood pressure is done in: (A) Cerebral infarct, (B) Hypertensive encephalopathy, (C) Myocardial infarction, (D) Any patient with hypertension | Answer is B. None | |
All are vector born diseases except ?: (A) KFD, (B) JE, (C) Brucella, (D) Plague | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Brucella In vector born diseases, an ahropad or any living carrier acts as a vector and transpos an infectious agent to susceptible individual. KFD, JE, and plague are transmitted by ahropods. | |
All are true regarding CMV except -: (A) Double stranded DNA virus, (B) Rarely causes problems in immunocompetent person, (C) Foscarnet can eliminate CMV, (D) Tretinitis rare when CD4 count >200/mm3 | Answer is C. Acyclovir is useful in prophylaxis but not in treatment. Ganciclovir and foscarnet have been found to be effective and are used in patients with AIDS. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:474 | |
Which of the following is not seen in chronic renal failure: September 2010: (A) Hyperkalemia, (B) Metabolic acidosis, (C) Hypophosphatemia, (D) Hypocalcemia | Answer is C. Ans. C: Hypophosphatemia CKD (Chronic kidney disease) is initially without specific symptoms and can only be detected as an increase in serum creatinine or protein in the urine. As the kidney function decreases: Blood pressure is increased due to fluid overload and production of vasoactive hormones, increa... | |
Carotid aery stenosis in -vivo screening choice is: (A) USG, (B) CT, (C) MRI, (D) Doppler | Answer is D. Most carotid imaging is now performed with Doppler ultrasound, CTA, MRA performed without exogenous contrast injection such as 2- or 3-dimensional time-of-flight (TOF) methods or contrast-enhanced MRA (CEMRA) performed dynamically after an intravenous bolus of gadolinium-based contrast.CEMRA is the most ac... | |
True statement about inheritence of an X linked recessive trait is -: (A) 50% of boys of carrier mother are affected, (B) 50% of girls of diseased father are carrier, (C) Father transmits disease to the son, (D) Mother transmits the disease to the daughter | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., 50% of boys of carrier mother are affected | |
Most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:-: (A) Hypeension, (B) AV malformation, (C) Berry aneurysm, (D) Tumors | Answer is C. MC cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage : Trauma > Spontaneous rupture of Berry Aneurysm | |
True about 1gM:: (A) Is dimeric, (B) Activates complement, (C) Is not synthesized by fetus, (D) Is the last to cross | Answer is B. Activates complement | |
True regarding GERD is all except -: (A) Avoid coffee & tea, (B) Transient lower esophageal relaxation, (C) Lower esophageal sphincter length and its pressure is impoant, (D) Proton pump inhibitor is the treatment of choice | Answer is C. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease Gastro-oesophageal reflux resulting in heaburn affects approximately 30% of the general population. Pathophysiology Occasional episodes of gastro-oesophageal reflux are common in healthy individuals. Reflux is normally followed by oesophageal peristaltic waves that efficie... | |
Abductor of the larynx is:: (A) Crico-arytenoideus posterior, (B) Crico-arytenoideus lateralis, (C) Arytenoideus transversus, (D) Vocalis muscle | Answer is A. Abduction (opening) of the vocal folds: The posterior cricoarytenoid muscles pull the muscular processes posteriorly, rotating the vocal processes laterally and thus widening the rims glottides. Adduction (closing) of the vocal folds : The lateral cricoarytenoid muscles pull the muscular processes anterior... | |
A patient died during surgery. The relatives allege that death was due to negligence, According to a recent Supreme Court judgment, doctor can be charged for Medical Negligence under section 304-A, only if:: (A) There is corporate negligence, (B) Negligence is from inadvertent error, (C) There is gross negligence, (D) ... | Answer is C. Ans. c. There is gross negligence (Ref: Reddy 33/e, p40, 29/e p34)A physician can be charged with criminal negligence in Section 304 A, when a patient dies from the effects of anesthesia during, an operation or other kind of treatment, if it can be proved that the death was the result if malicious intentio... | |
Kala azar is spread by -: (A) House fly, (B) Black fly, (C) Sand fly, (D) Tse tse fly | Answer is C. Kala azar or visceral leishmaniasis is a protozoal disease.It is transmited from person to person by bite of female Phlebotomus argentipus.Transmission also occurs by contamination of bite wound or by crushing the insect during act of feeding.it may transmit by blood transfusion also. C/f : fever,splenomeg... | |
In which of the following condition is OCP contraindicated ?: (A) Hea disease, (B) Thromboembolism, (C) Breast cancer, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATIONS OF OCP: *Known or suspected breast cancer *Severe hyperiglyceridemia/hypercholestrolemia *Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding *Thrombophlebitis/thromboembolism , cerebral and cardiac disorders *Pregnancy *Hypeension (moderate to severe) *Impaired liver RELATIVE CONTRAINDICATIONS OF OCP:... | |
Polio virus is shed in stool up to -: (A) 6 weeks, (B) 8 weeks, (C) 10 weeks, (D) 12 weeks | Answer is D. - the polio is transmitted by faecal oral route by contaminmates food , water or hands. - in faeces, the virus is excreted as long as 3-4 months. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:205 <\p> | |
During normal conversation sound heard at 1meter distance is: (A) 60 dB, (B) 80 dB, (C) 90 dB, (D) 120 dB | Answer is A. At a distance of 1 m , intensity of Whisper - 30 dB Normal conversation - 60 dB Shout - 90 dB Discomfo of the ear - 120 dB Pain in the ear - 130 dB Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 21. | |
When porcelain is baked against metal, it should possess a: (A) high fusion expansion, (B) high fusion temperature, (C) linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than, but close to that of metal, (D) linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than, but close to that of the metal | Answer is C. None | |
Wagon wheel effect is due to:: (A) Less tip more torque, (B) Less torque more tip, (C) More tip and torque, (D) Tipping and retraction of anterior teeth | Answer is A. When buccal crown torque is incorporated in the wire, the roots of anterior teeth tend to converge towards centre like spokes of wheel. It has been often called wagon wheel effect. Following final space closure required torque is attained by incorporation of active root torque in the anterior segment. Due ... | |
Macula densa in kidney is located in relation to -: (A) PCT, (B) DCT, (C) Afferent aeriole, (D) Efferent aeriole | Answer is B. B i.e. DCT | |
Griseofulvin is not useful in one of the following:: (A) Tinea capitis, (B) Tinea cruris, (C) Tinea versicolor, (D) Tinea pedis | Answer is C. Ans. (C) Tinea versicolor(Ref: CMDT -2010/110)Griseofulvin is used for dermatophytoses including Tinea capitis, Tinea cruris, Tinea pedis, Tinea unguum and Tinea corporis etc.Tinea versicolor is caused by a yeast Malassezia furfur. It is treated by selenium sulfide and ketoconazole shampoo. | |
Drugs used for prophylaxis in BPD -a) Chlorpromazineb) Lithiumc) Carbamazepined) Zolpideme) Sodium valproate: (A) ab, (B) bc, (C) bce, (D) ace | Answer is C. Three drugs are commonly used for maintenance treatment to prevent recurrence of BPD:- Lithium (DOC), Valproate, and Carbanzezapine. Topiramate and Gabapentine can also be used. | |
Urachus fistula is a remanant of ?: (A) Yolk sac, (B) Allantois, (C) Chorion, (D) Amnion | Answer is B. Urachus fistula is a remnant of allantoic diveiculum If patent urachus in adults, urine dribbles from umbilicus known as wheeping umbilicus Inderbir Singh's Human embryology Pg 97 | |
The odontogenic neoplasm, which is composed of loose, primitive-appearing connective tissue that resembles dental pulp, microscopically is known as _____.: (A) Odontoma, (B) Ameloblastoma, (C) Ameloblastic fibroma, (D) Odontogenic myxoma | Answer is D. Odontogenic myxomas are connective tissue neoplasms that contain little collagen. This gives them an embryonic look microscopically | |
Food poisoning is an example of:: (A) Point source epidemic, (B) Propagated source epidemic, (C) Common source epidemic, (D) Pandemic | Answer is A. 1. Point source epidemic ( single exposure ) Sudden rise sudden fall. Cluster of cases in single IP. All cases develop within one incubation period of the disease E.g. Food poisoning , Bhopal gas tragedy. 2. Common source , continuous or repeated exposure epidemics Sharp rise Fall is interrupted by seconda... | |
Classify the following according to Kennedy's classification: (A) Class III maxillary arch, (B) Class III mandibular arch, (C) Class II mandibular arch, (D) Class IV mandibular arch | Answer is B. None | |
Stemmer's sign is: (A) Swelling in the foot seen with lymphoedema, (B) Loss of normal perimalleolar shape in lymphoedema, (C) Subcutaneous fibrosis which makes skin over dorsum of foot not pinchable, (D) Pitting Oedema in filariasis | Answer is C. Skin over the dorsum of foot cannot be pinched because of subcutaneous fibrosis in filariasis = STEMMER'S SIGN. | |
Which muscle of larynx is not supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve -: (A) Vocalis, (B) Thyroarytenoid, (C) Cricothyroid, (D) Interarytenoid | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cricothyroid o All intrinsic muscles are supplied by the reccurrent laryngeal nerve except cricothyroid which is supplied by the external laryngeal nerve.Nerve supply of larynxo The main cranial nerve innervating the larynx is the vagus nerve via its branches; superior laryngeal nerve (SL... | |
SEPS is a procedure used for :: (A) Veins, (B) Aeries, (C) Lymphatics, (D) AV fistula | Answer is A. Subfascial Endoscopic Perforator Vein Surgery (SEPS) SEPS is a new endoscopic technique for the management of chronic venous insufficiency due to incompetent perforator veins. SEPS involves inseion of a rigid endoscope through the skin and superficial fascia to a plane above the muscle, such that perforato... | |
Deficiency of which of the following vitamin is most commonly seen in sho bowel syndrome with ileal resection:: (A) Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamine), (B) Vitamin B1 (Thiamine), (C) Folic Acid, (D) Vitamin K | Answer is A. Answer is A (Vitamin B12) Cyanocobalarnine (Vitamin B12) deficiency is the most common deficiency in patients with sho bowel syndrome associated with loss of ileum (ileal resection) since vitamin B12 is absorbed only in the ileum. `Cyanocobalamine (Vitamin B12) is the most common deficiency and occurs pred... | |
A 30 year old G1P1001 patient comes to see you In office at 37 weeks gestational age for her routine OB visit. Her 1st pregnancy resulted in a vaginal delivery of a 9-lb, 8-02 baby boy after 30 minutes of pushing. On doing Leopold maneuvers during this office visit codetermine ttwt the fetus is breech. Vaginal exam dem... | Answer is B. definite indications for elective Caesarean section all complicated breech pregnancy Contracted or borderline pelvis Large babies Severe IUGR Hyper extension of fetal head Footling or knee presentation Previous Caesarean section Lack of an obstetrician experienced in assisted breech delivery can also be co... | |
Which of the following is true regarding lattice formation?: (A) Associated with precipitation and not agglutination, (B) Associated with agglutination and not precipitation, (C) Associated with both, (D) Neither associated with precipitation nor agglutination | Answer is C. Marrack proposed the lattice hypothesis to explain the mechanism of precipitation. Precipitation results when a large lattice is formed consisting of alternating antigen and antibody molecules. This is possible only in the zone of equivalence. The lattice hypothesis holds good for agglutination also.Ref: A... | |
Calcium channel blockers are used in all except: (A) Angina, (B) Arrythymia, (C) Congestive hea failure, (D) Hypeension | Answer is C. Calcium channel blockers prevent calciumfrom entering cells of the hea and blood vessel walls, resulting in lower blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers, also called calcium antagonists, relax and widen blood vessels by affecting the muscle cells in the aerial walls Refer kDT 6/e p 502,551 | |
A patient presented with abdominal pain, jaundice and melena. The diagnosis is: (A) Hemobilia, (B) Acute cholangitis, (C) Carcinoma gallbladder, (D) Acute pancreatitis | Answer is A. Clinical features of Hemobilia Characterised by Quinck's triad (Sandblom's triad) : GI hemorrhage +biliary colic +jaundice Presentation: Melena (90 %), hemetemesis (60%), biliary colic (70%), and jaundice (60%). Tendency for delayed presentation (upto weeks) and recurrent brisk but limited bleeding over mo... | |
Diabetes mellitus is associated with all except -: (A) Pendred syndrome, (B) Down's syndrome, (C) Turner's syndrome, (D) Klinefelters syndrome | Answer is A. Ref -researchgate.net | |
AFP is raised in all except:: (A) Polycystic kidney, (B) Trisomy, (C) IUD, (D) Oesophageal atresia | Answer is B. As we have discussed earlier – AFP levels are raised in :
Under estimated gestational age
Decreased liqour
Decreased birth weight of infant and decreased maternal weight
IUD
Multifetal pregnancy (The amount of AFP entering the maternal circulation is proportional to the number of fetuses).
Defects which p... | |
Treatment objective for serial extraction:: (A) To intercept a developing arch-length deficiency and to reduce or eliminate the need for extensive appliance therapy, (B) Reduce arch-length deficiency, (C) To plan for extensive appliance therapy, (D) To reduce arch-length deficiency & to plan for extensive appliance the... | Answer is A. Benefits of Serial Extraction
Serial extraction guides or encourages eruption of permanent teeth in a favorable position.
Reduces malposition of individual teeth.
Avoids loss of labial alveolar bone.
Reduces treatment time when active orthodontic treatment is required.
Textbook of ORTHODONTICS Sridhar ... | |
Kwashiorkor is similar to marasmus in that both diseases have: (A) A normal total caloric intake, (B) A fatty liver, (C) An apathetic affect, (D) Anemia | Answer is D. Both marasmus and kwashiorkor are associated with anemia.
Marasmus is characterized by a low calorie intake. Dietary deficiencies are compensated for by the breakdown of protein and fats. Key findings include:
Growth failure, Alertness, Hunger, Monkey-like appearance , Broomstick extremities , Muscle wast... | |
In varicocele surgery, venous drainage is done by:: (A) IVC, (B) Aoa, (C) Superior epigastric vein, (D) Cremasteric vein | Answer is D. Treatment* High inguinal ligation (near deep ring) of pampiniform plexus of veins* Microvascular sub inguinal ligation (best results)* Palomo's operation: ligation of Left Gonadal Vein in retroperitoneum * Alternative venous drainage cremasteric veins | |
Ventouse is contraindicated in all except :: (A) Fetal distress, (B) Face presentation, (C) Transverse lie, (D) Anemia | Answer is D. Anemia | |
Cholangiocarcinoma ?: (A) Obesity, (B) Opistorchissinensis infection, (C) Salmonella carrier state, (D) HBV infection | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Opistorchissinensis infectionCholangiocarcinomaCholangiocarcinoma is malignancy of the biliary tree, arising from bile ducts within or outside the liver.Risk factors : -Primary sclerosing cholangitisCongenital fibropolycystic disease of the biliary system (caroli disease, choledochal cyst... | |
Hormone responsible for decidual reaction and arias Stella reaction in ectopic pregnancy is -: (A) Oestrogen, (B) Progesterone, (C) HCG, (D) HPL | Answer is B. Hormone responsible for decidual reaction and arias Stella reaction in Ectopic as well as Intrauterine pregnancy is Progesterone Arias stella reaction is the localized hypersecretory endometrium seen in ectopic pregnancy. | |
Treatment of erythematous skin rash with multiple pus lakes in a pregnant woman is:: (A) Coicosteroids, (B) Retinoids, (C) Methotrexate, (D) Psoralen with PUVA | Answer is A. A i.e. Coicosteroids | |
|A 65-year-old male complains of severe back pain and inability to move his left lower limb. Radiographic studies demonstrate the compression of nerve elements at the intervertebral foramen between vertebrae L5 and S1. Which structure is most likely responsible for this space-occupying lesion?: (A) Anulus fibrosus, (B)... | Answer is B. Compression of nerves at the intervertebral foramen indicates a disk herniation. A disk herniation is characterized by protrusion of the nucleus pulposus from the anulus fibrosus posterolaterally into the spinal canal or intervertebral foramen. The ligaments may be affected by the herniation but are not re... | |
A patient presents with a unilateral ca breast of 4 cm size with skin ulceration involving the nipple. On palpation axillary lymph nodes are positive. Management would involve:: (A) Breast conserving procedure, (B) Simple mastectomy, (C) Modified radical mastectomy, (D) Palliative treatment | Answer is C. Here this patient is having Stage III disease (T4, N1 or N2, M0) according to the TNM table given above. Hence the management would be - Neoadjuvant chemotherapy + MRM + adjuvant radiation therapy + chemotherapy + antiestrogen therapy | |
Following changes are seen during capacitation of a sperms except ?: (A) Increased permeability to calcium, (B) Decreased permeability to calcium, (C) Removal of cholesterol from acrosome, (D) Increased motility | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Decreased permeability to calcium Capacitation of sperm (spermatozoa) Spermatozoa leaving the testis (seminiferous ubules) are not fully mobile. They continue their maturation and acquire their mobility during their passage through epididymis. From epididymis they come to vas deference, d... |
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