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What is deficient in exclusively breast fed baby ?: (A) Vitamin B, (B) Vitamin A, (C) Vitamin C, (D) Proteins | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vitamin B o Deficiency of Vitamin B12 may occur in exclusive breastfed infants of mother who is on strict vegetarian diet. Remember following impoant facts ? o Milks from the mother whose diet is sufficient and properly balanced will supply all the necessary nutrients except fluoride and ... | |
What is/are true about rat bite -a) Vaccinate with antirabies vaccineb) Give tetanus toxoidc) Rarely need rabies immunoglobulind) Wash with soape) Use antiseptic cream: (A) abd, (B) acd, (C) cde, (D) ade | Answer is C. None | |
Which of the following does not predispose toabdominal wall dehiscence -: (A) Faulty technique, (B) Malignancy, (C) Raised intra abdominal pressure, (D) Old age | Answer is D. None | |
All are true regarding MEN-I syndrome, except: (A) Autosomal recessive, (B) Hyperparathyroidism, (C) Islet cell tumour, (D) Associated with chromosome 11 | Answer is A. MEN syndromes are inherited as autosomal dominant disorders.MEN-1 The gene is located on long arm of chromosome 11 (11q13) (Refer: Robbins & Cotran's - Pathologic Basis of Disease, SAE, 1st edition, Vol II-pg no: 1136-1137) | |
EEG rhythm recorded from the surface of the scalp during REM sleepa) Alphab) Betac) Deltad) Theta: (A) ab, (B) a, (C) ad, (D) bc | Answer is A. Stages of sleep and rhythm
- Beta rhythm- Alert, awake, maximum concentration.
- Alpha rhythm- Eyes closed, mind wandering, less attentiveness
- Theta rhythm- Stage 1 NREM
- Sleep spindles, K complex- Stage 2 NREM
- Delta rhythm- Deep sleep (Stage 3 & 4 NREM)
- B... | |
Strength of association is given by: (A) p-value, (B) Coefficient of regression, (C) Alpha value, (D) Odds ratio | Answer is D. Strength of association is given by Odds ratio or Cross product ratio in a Case control study. Odds ratio = ad/bc OR > 1 - Positive association, OR=1 - No association, OR < 1 - Inverse/ negative association. Chi-square test or t-test can only tell whether an association is statistically significant based o... | |
Early diagnosis of acute hepatitis-B infection is made by-: (A) Presence of HbeAg in serum, (B) Presence of IgM anti-Hbc in serum, (C) Presence HbsAg in serum, (D) Presence of IgG anti-HBc in serum | Answer is C. After a person is infected with HBV, the first virologic marker detectable in serum within 1-12 weeks, usually between 8-12 weeks, is HBsAg. Circulating HBsAg precedes elevations of serum aminotransferase activity and clinical symptoms by 2-6 weeks and remains detectable during the entire icteric or sympto... | |
Which of the following is false regarding Aircraft injuries: (A) Fracture cervical spine is most commonly seen spinal injury, (B) Most of the aircraft accidents occur on landing (35 %) or take off (35 %), (C) If a door or window breaks during flight, cabin pressure falls and death occurs due to anoxia, (D) Brain lactic... | Answer is A. Fracture Thoracic spine is most commonly seen spinal injury . It is usually due to hyperflexion injuries due to rapid deceleration when the aircraft strikes the ground. Most of the aircraft accidents occur on landing (35 %) or take off (35 %) | |
Hara-kiri is death by: (A) Stab in the neck, (B) Stab in the thorax, (C) Stab in the abdomen, (D) Stab in wrist | Answer is C. Hara- kiri(seppuku) means cutting the belly. This is a ritual suicide formerly practiced in Japan and nearby counties by samurais(warrior class) when disgraced. Stabbing is done as a ceremony. In this type of suicide, in front of an audience, the person stabs himself on the abdomen and produces a large wou... | |
In submandibular gland excision all of the following nerves may be affected except: (A) Lingual nerve, (B) Hypoglossal nerve, (C) Glossopharyngeal nerve, (D) Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Glossopharyngeal nerveRef: Bailey and Love 27th edition Page 780The following nerves are at risk during Submandibular surgery:2 Superficial nerves:* Marginal Mandibular branch of Facial nerve* Rarely Cervical Branch of Facial nerve* 2 Deep Cranial nerves:* Lingual Nerve* Hypoglossal nerve | |
Which of the following disease is transmitted by phlebotomus argentipes -: (A) Epidemic typhus, (B) Kala-azar, (C) Relapsing fever, (D) Trench fever | Answer is B. Kala-azar by Sandfly Trypanosomiasis African - Tsetse fly American (Chagas) - Triatomine bug Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 836 | |
The following is responsible for causing ophthalmia neonatorum on 5-7th day after bih: March 2013 (b): (A) Chemical, (B) Herpes Simplex Virus II, (C) Neisseria gonorrhoea, (D) Chlamydia trachomatis | Answer is B. Ans. B i.e. Herpes simplex virus II Ophthalmia neonatorum Time frame of signs/ symptoms following bih play an impoant role in determining the most likely etiology and subsequent proper diagnosis and treatment Within 48 hours: Chemical conjunctivitis (Typically presents within first 24 hours following bih) ... | |
Molis micrograbhic excision is used for the management of: (A) Testicular cancer, (B) Penile cancer, (C) Prostate cancer, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. None | |
The dose of Dapsone at which it does not cause hemolysis?: (A) 50mg, (B) 200mg, (C) 300mg, (D) 500mg | Answer is A. Doses of dapsone less than 50mg in normal healthy persons cause no hemolysis.Ref: Goodman Gillman 12th ed. Pg: 1564 | |
Capsid of viral structure is-: (A) Extracellular infectious particle, (B) Protein coat around nucleic acid, (C) Envelop around a virus, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Protein coat around nucleic acid Structure of viruso The extracellular infectious virus particle is called as the virion.o The virion consist of a nucleic acid surrounded by a protein coat, the capsid.o The capsid with the enclosed nucleic acid is known as the nucleocapsid.o Two kinds of ... | |
A 23-year-old man presents with fever, weight loss, malaise, abdominal pain and myalgias. Workup reveals that the patient has polyaeritis nodosa. Which of the following is associated with this form of vasculitis?: (A) Arsenic, (B) Chlamydia pneumonia, (C) Hepatitis B virus, (D) Human immunodeficiency virus | Answer is C. Although the significance remains unclear, 30% of patients with polyaeritis nodosa have serum antibodies to the hepatitis B virus. Arsenic is associated with the development of angiosarcoma. Chlamydia pneumonia has been implicated in the development of atherosclerosis. KSHV, HHV-8, causes Kaposi sarcoma in... | |
Graft for myringoplasty-: (A) Temporalis fascia, (B) IIiacus fascia, (C) Colles fascia, (D) Iliotibial band | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Temporalis fascia o Graft material used for myringoplasty are :i) Temporalis fascia (most common)iii) Tragal cartilageii) Perichondrium from the tragusiv) Veino Sometimes, homografts such as dura, vein, fascia and cadaver tympanic membrane are also used.[?][?] Dhingra 36 | |
Auzpitz sign is seen in -: (A) Psoriasis, (B) LichenPlanus, (C) Alopeciaaerata, (D) Lichensclerosus | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Psoriasis Various bed side tests and signs associated with psoriasis :-1. Grattage test :- Scraping of the psoriasis lesion causes accentuation of silvery scales (due to trapping of air).2 Auspitz's sign :- Scraping of the psoriasis lesion causes accentuation of silvery scales (like in gr... | |
True about CLL is -a) Can present as acute leukaemiab) Diagnosed in routine blood testc) Leukocytosisd) More T lymphocytes seen: (A) bc, (B) c, (C) ac, (D) ad | Answer is A. None | |
Moth eaten bone is seen in which of the following ?: (A) Osteoid osteoma, (B) Multiple myeloma, (C) Eosinophilic granuloma, (D) Chondromyxoid fibroma | Answer is B. Moth eaten pattern - Areas of destruction with ragged borders - Implies more rapid growth More likely chance of malignancy - Example Multiple Myeloma Metastasis Ewing&;s Sarcoma ref : maheswari 9th ed | |
A patient with multiple myeloma and serum ca2+15mg/dl ; the treatment -a) Oral pamidronateb) Less than 15mg/dl serum calcium dose not causes symptomsc) Mithramycind) Glucocorticoids: (A) abc, (B) acd, (C) bc, (D) bde | Answer is B. None | |
A 68-year-old male musician presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of colicky abdominal pain and massive vomiting of 4-hour duration. Examination shows an elevated WBC of 13,200 with a HCT of 45%. Electrolytes and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are normal. An erect film of the abdomen reveals dilatation of... | Answer is A. Mechanical obstruction implies a barrier that impedes progress of intestinal contents. Complete mid or distal small-bowel obstruction presents with colicky abdominal pain, more marked abdominal distention but with vomiting that is less frequent and occurs at a later stage than that of proximal jejunal obst... | |
Mandibular complete denture should cover retromolar pad because: (A) More surface area gives better retention, (B) Provides border seal, (C) Resists movement of denture base, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. None | |
A 40-year-old male patient presented to the dermatology OPD with complaints of a characteristic rash over the face along with fever, ahralgia and moderate chest pain. Patient gave history of using some drug for 3 months. On examination, there was no CNS involvement. Lab findings revealed normal urine r/m studies and no... | Answer is D. This is a case of Drug induced Lupus. More common in females. Presents with the characteristic malar skin rash. Along with serositis, most commonly pleuritis. Kidney and CNS are rarely involved. Titres of anti-histone Abs are increased. It is a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction. It is associated with HLA-DR... | |
There are 20 amino acids with three codons in spite of the no of amino acids could be formed is 64 leading to that an amino acid is represented by more than one codon is called:: (A) Transcription, (B) Degeneracy, (C) Mutation, (D) Frameshift | Answer is B. Ans. B. Degeneracy(Ref: Harper 31/e p395)Genetic Code--Salient features of Genetic CodeTriplet Codon: Each amino acid is represented by triplet sequence.Degenerate (Redundant)--More than 1 codon represent a single amino acid. Degeneracy of the codon lies in the 3rd Base.Nonoverlapping-- Reading of genetic ... | |
All of the following muscles of tongue are supplied by hypoglossal nerve, EXCEPT?: (A) Palatoglossus, (B) Genioglossus, (C) Geniohyoid, (D) None of the above | Answer is A. The muscles of the tongue, with the exception of palatoglossus, are supplied by the hypoglossal nerve. Palatoglossus is supplied the pharyngeal plexus. | |
Hemagglutinin, (Anti-A and Anti-B) are which type of antibodies?: (A) IgG, (B) IgM, (C) IgA, (D) IgE | Answer is B. Ans. B. IgM. (Ref. H-17th/pg. 708-709; Wintrobe's clinical hematology 13th/ pg. 979)Isohemagglutinins, substances that agglutinate the red blood cells of others of the same species, are also found in humans. Thus, there are four main blood groups, which differ with respect to two antigens, A and B, in the ... | |
Which of the following method is used for HIV pre-test and post-test counselling?: (A) Individual approach, (B) Group approach, (C) Mass media, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. In HIV the patient has to visit ICTC (Integrated Counselling and Testing Centre); Where a private counselling session is done. It holds valid for both pre-test and post-test counselling. | |
A patient tries to make a fist but the index and middle finger remain partially extended. The nerve most probably involved is: (A) Median nerve, (B) Musculo-cutaneous nerve, (C) Radial nerve, (D) Ulnar nerve | Answer is A. Answer: (a) Median nerve.MEDIAN NERVE INJURY* When the median nerve is severed in the elbow region, flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joints of the lst-3rd digits is lost and flexion of the 4th and 5th digits is weakened.* Flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints of the 2nd and 3rd digits is also... | |
30 year old female comes with visual defects, breast engorgement and Amenorrhea. Investigation of choice is: (A) CT brain, (B) Serum prolactin, (C) Biopsy, (D) Mr angiography | Answer is B. This is likely to be a case of pituitary adenoma. The most common pituitary adenoma causing the symptoms is prolactinoma. | |
A young boy presented with a lesion over his right buttock which had peripheral scaling and central clearing with scarring. The investigation of choice would be:: (A) Tzank smear, (B) KOH preparation, (C) Biopsy, (D) Sabourad's agar | Answer is C. C i.e. Biopsy | |
Which is the most common primary malignancy of hea ?: (A) Rabdomyosarcoma, (B) Myxoma, (C) Fibroma, (D) Lymphoma | Answer is B. Myxoma is the most common primary neoplasm of hea (30- 50%). 75% of cardiac myxomas develop in the left atrium. Histologically, it is composed of a myxomatous stroma with large stellate cells mixed with multiWnuleated cells and covered with endothelium. Unusual benign tumors of hea are fibroma, lipoma, ang... | |
A 50-year-old male with 2 diabetes mellitus is found to have 24-hour urinary albumin of 250 mg. Which of the following drugs may be used to retard the progression of the renal disease -: (A) Hydrochlorthiazide, (B) Enalapril, (C) Amiloride, (D) Aspirin | Answer is B. None | |
A case of 32 weeks of pregnancy with cornual placenta with breech presentation, treatment of choice is :: (A) Wait & Watch, (B) External cephalic version, (C) Elective C. S., (D) Vaginal breech delivery | Answer is A. Wait & Watch | |
Hyper parathyroidism is characterised by the following except: (A) Generalised osteoporosis, (B) Renal calculi, (C) Hypercalcemia, (D) Osteosclerosis | Answer is D. Clinical features of Hyperparathyroidism Patients with PHPT formerly presented with the 'classic' pentad of symptoms Kidney stones Painful bones Abdominal groans Psychic moans Fatigue oveones Ref: schwaz's principle of surgery 10th edition Pgno :1560 | |
Preferred method of contraception for a female with family H/O ovarian cancer :: (A) POP, (B) Cu IUCD, (C) OCP, (D) Barrier method | Answer is C. OCPs reduce ovarian cancer. TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN SECOND EDITION PAGE NO 368 Table no 33.4 | |
Most common differential diagnosis for appendicitis in children is: (A) Gastroenteritis, (B) Mesentric lymphadenopathy, (C) Intussusception, (D) Meckel's diveiculitis | Answer is B. Differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis in children Gastroenteritis Mesenteric adenitis Meckel's diveiculitis Intussusception Henoch-Schonlein purpura Lobar pneumonia Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1209 | |
Which of the following drugs is to be immediately stopped in a patient of diabetes with HTN and serum creatinine level of 5.6 mg?: (A) Metformin, (B) Insulin, (C) Metoprolol, (D) Linagliptin | Answer is A. ANS. AMetformin is contraindicated in patients with high creatinine because of the risk of lactic acidosis.# Specific side effects of OHAMetformin1. GI symptoms2. B12 deficiency3. Lactic acidosis (especially in patients with high creatinine, liver failure, alcoholism, cardiorespiratory insufficiency)Piogii... | |
Actinomycete is the source of which of the following anti microbials ?: (A) Tetracycline, (B) Polyene, (C) Aztreonam, (D) Colistin | Answer is A. None | |
Large unilateral hypopigmented lesion on right trunk and arm in female. Which of the following best explain the etiology for it?: (A) Autoimmune hypothesis, (B) Neurogenic hypothesis, (C) Genetic factors, (D) Self destruct theory of Lerner | Answer is B. Image shows large U/L hypopigmented lesion on right trunk and arm in young female: segmental vitiligo. Vitiligo Segmental Non segmental Unilateral along dermatome Localised Generalised Focal: few mucosal: mucosa -Vulgaris - MC, B/L symptoms - Acrofacial (including hand and face) - Universalis >90% Etio: Au... | |
The layer of the cornea once destroyed does not regenerate is:: (A) Epithelium, (B) Bowman's membrane, (C) Descemet's membrane, (D) All of the above | Answer is B. Ans. Bowman's membrane | |
A 59-year-old man complains of progressive weakness. He reports that his stools are very dark. Physical examination demonstrates fullness in the right lower quadrant. Laboratory studies show iron deficiency anemia, with a serum hemoglobin level of 7.4 g/dL. Stool specimens are positive for occult blood. Colonoscopy dis... | Answer is B. Colorectal cancer is asymptomatic in its initial stages. As the tumor grows, the most common sign is occult blood in feces, especially when the tumor is in the proximal portion of the colon. Chronic, asymptomatic bleeding typically causes iron-deficiency anemia. Adenocarcinomas of the colon usually express... | |
Succinylcholine is sho acting due to: (A) Rapid excretion, (B) Poor absorption, (C) Rapid hydrolysis, (D) None of the above | Answer is C. Succinylcholine is rapidly metabolized in plasma by pseudocholinesterase. Ref Katzung 12th ed. | |
Spermicide acts by -: (A) Release of acrosomal enzymes, (B) Lysis of cell membrane, (C) Glucose uptake inhibition, (D) Vaginal enzyme alteration | Answer is A. CHEMICAL METHODS of contraception In the 1960s, before the advent of IUDs and oral contraceptives, spermicides (vaginal chemical contraceptives) were used widely. They comprise four categories. a) Foams : foam tablets, foam aerosols b) Creams, jellies and pastes squeezed from a tube c) Suppositories inseed... | |
Gas most commonly used in laparoscopy is: (A) CO2, (B) SO2, (C) N2, (D) O2 | Answer is A. Ans. is a i.e. CO2 CO2 is the gas used to create pneumoperitoneum during laparoscopy. Other option is N20. But it is expensive, less soluble in blood and suppos combustion. Also know : Instrument used for creating pneumoperitoneum is veress needle. Flow Rate of CO2 for creating pneumoperitoneum 200 -- 2000... | |
Absolute Contraindication for the Use of OCPs is:: (A) Thromboembolism, (B) Hypeension, (C) Diabetes, (D) Epilepsy | Answer is A. Absolute contraindications of OCP'S: - C - Cancers - L - Liver diseases - U - Uterine bleeding - T - Thromboembolism - C - Cardiovascular diseases - H - Hyperlipidemia - Preganancy Also remember, Long-standing or complicated diabetes (with microvascular complications) is absolute contraindication. Grade I ... | |
Magnesium sulphate potentiates the hypotensive action of -: (A) Methyldopa, (B) Nifedipine, (C) Enalapril, (D) Hydralazine | Answer is B. ans-B | |
A new born girl not passed meconium for 48 hrs, has abdominal distention and vomiting, Initial investigation of choice would be: (A) Manometry, (B) Genotyping for cystic fibrosis, (C) Lower GI contrast study, (D) Serum trypsin immunoblot | Answer is C. bowel obstruction with an absent caecal gas shadow in ileocolic cases. A soft tissue opacity is often visible in children. A barium enema may be used to diagnose the presence of an ileocolic intussusception (the claw sign) Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1196 | |
Non Oliguric Acute Renal Failure is typically associated with: (A) Aminoglycoside toxicity, (B) Contrast Induced Nephrotoxity, (C) Hemolytic Uremic syndrome, (D) Glomerulonephritis | Answer is A. Answer is A (Aminoglycoside toxicity): Oliguric phase of ATN is asociated with Hyponatremia and not hypernatremia Hyponatremia results from expansion of ECF volume due to dimnished water excretion and excessive administration of free water (volume overload) | |
Which of the following is a true statement regarding Enterobacteriaceae:: (A) Motility is by polar flagellum, (B) Glucose is not fermented by all members of the family, (C) All members are oxidase positive, (D) Nitrate reduction negative | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Shigella does not ferments mannitol "Members of enterobacteriaceae rcduce nitrates to nitrites, form catalase but not oxidase." Enterobacteriaceae: lmpoant features Features Escherichia Salmonella Shigella Motility by peritrichous flagella + + - Gas from glucose + + - Acid from lactose + - - Acid ... | |
Heberden done denotes involvement of: (A) Distal inetrphalangeal joint, (B) Proximal interphalangel joint, (C) Metacarpophalangeal joint, (D) Metatarsophalangeal joint | Answer is A. In osteoahritis of hand:Distal interphalangeal joint: Heberden's nodeProximal interphalangeal joint: Bouchard's node(Refer: Mohindra's Fundamentals of Ohopedics, 2nd edition, pg no. 88, 101, 127) | |
APGAR score includes all except: (A) Tendon reflexes, (B) Colour, (C) Muscle tone, (D) Respiratory effort | Answer is A. Sign
0 points
1 point
2 points
Heart rate
Absent
< 100 bpm
> 100 bpm
Respiratory effort
Absent
Slow, irregular
Good, crying
Muscle tone
Flaccid
Some extremity flexion
active motion
Reflex irritability
No response
Grimace
Vigorous cry
Color
Blue, pale
Body pink, extremities blue
Completely pink | |
The parvocellular pathway from lateral geniculate nucleus to visual coex is most sensitive for the stimulus of: (A) Color contrast, (B) Luminance contrast, (C) Temporal frequency, (D) Saccadic eye movements | Answer is A. From the lateral geniculate nucleus, a magnocellular pathway and a parvocellular pathway project to the visual coex. The parvocellular pathway, from layers 3-6, carries signals for color vision, texture, shape, and fine detail. The parvocellular pathway also carries color opponent data to the deep pa of la... | |
Dose of chloroquine at 4-8 year -: (A) 150 mg, (B) 300 mg, (C) 450 mg, (D) 600 mg | Answer is B. - for children between 4-8 years, the dose of chloroquine per day is 300 mg. - 2 tablets of chloroquine 150mg base is provided. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition pg no:264 <\p> | |
Percentage change of cystic glandular hyperplasia turning to malignancy:: (A) 0.10%, (B) 2%, (C) 1%, (D) 10% | Answer is C. As discussed in the preceding text:
Endometrial hyperplasia is of the following four varieties:
Simple hyperplasia without atypical cells
Complex hyperplasia without atypical cells
Simple hyperplasia without atypical cells
Complex hyperplasia without atypical cells.
Logically speaking least chances of ma... | |
The chestnut coloured fungal cells known as muriform bodies are seen in:: (A) Sporotrichosis, (B) Phaeohyphomycosis, (C) Chromoblastomycosis, (D) Lobomycosis | Answer is C. Muriform cells are also called chromo/medlar/copper penny/ sclerotic bodies. They are chestnut/golden brown colored fungal cells found mainly in giant cells in infiltrate of chromoblastomycosis. Ref: Rook's Textbook of Dermatology, 8th Edition, Page 36.75. | |
FALSE statement about Hallucinations: (A) Perceived as not real, (B) Appears to be coming from external world, (C) Sensory organs are not involved, (D) It occurs in the absence of perceptual stimulus | Answer is C. (C) Sensory organs are not involved # Hallucination is a perception in the absence of external stimulus that has qualities of real perception.> It is perception without stimuli.> It is independent of will of the observer.> It occurs in inner subjective space i.e. sensory organs are not involved.> It is a v... | |
All of the following skin changes are associated with Diabetes Mellitus except: (A) Acanthosis Nigricans, (B) Granuloma annulare, (C) Necrobiosis lipiodica, (D) Salmon patch | Answer is D. Salmon patch is associated with "Sturge - Weber" syndrome. | |
A young boy presented with high fever shows clinical features suggestive of Legionnaires' Disease. Treatment of choice is:: (A) Amoxicillin, (B) Azithromycin, (C) Penicillin, (D) Streptomycin | Answer is B. The macrolides (especially azithromycin) and the respiratory quinolones are now the antibiotics of choice and are effective as monotherapy. Compared with erythromycin, the newer macrolides have superior in vitro activity, display greater intracellular activity, reach higher concentrations in respiratory se... | |
Which of the following is/are bile acids?: (A) Cholic acid, (B) Lithocholic acid, (C) Deoxycholic acid, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Primary bile acids are cholic acid and chenodeoxycholic acid, which are synthesized from cholesterol in liver. In the intestine some of the primary bile acids are conveed into secondary bile acids, i.e., deoxycholic acid (formed from cholic acid) and lithocholic acid (derived from chenodexoxycholic acid). ... | |
In leprosy neural involvement occurs in what percentage of patients: (A) 30%, (B) 60%, (C) 90%, (D) 100% | Answer is D. A chronic granulomatous disease caused by Mycobacterium leprae, principally affecting peripheral nerves and skin. Nerve involvement is seen in all cases of leprosy. The cardinal signs are: 1. Hypopigmented/hypoanaesthetic patches 2. Peripheral nerve thickening 3. Skin slit smear(AFB). | |
Which of the following is not a specific somatoform disorders?.: (A) Somatization disorder, (B) Fibromyalgia, (C) Chronic fatigue syndrome, (D) Irritable bowel syndrome | Answer is B. Ans--b. Fibromyalgia (Ref Harrison 19/e p2238. 18/e p122. 2849: Kaplan and Sada'ock!s Synopsis of Psychiatry 10/e p276; Niraj Ahuja 7/e p104-105)Fibromyalgia is not a specific somatoform disorder, it has organic basis behind its pathologysomatic like is a generic term first used in DSM III for a group of d... | |
Fluoride helps in: (A) Vision, (B) Dentition, (C) Myelinaon, (D) Joint stability | Answer is B. Fluoride helps in denon and reduces tooth decay,
Flourine is oen called a two edged sword
Excess intake →Causes Endemic fluorosis
Inadequate →Causes dental caries | |
The epithelium is absent in lens on: (A) Anterior surface, (B) Posterior surface, (C) Anterior pole, (D) At zonular attachment | Answer is B. There is no posterior epithelium, as these cells are used up in filling the central cavity of lens vesicle during The epithelium development of the lens. | |
Bronchus is the site of pathological changes for all of the following diseases, except:: (A) Chronic bronchitis, (B) Asthma, (C) Bronchiectasis, (D) Emphysema | Answer is D. Emphysema occurs at the site of acinus, the anatomical site for the rest of them is the bronchus. | |
Systemic infection is caused by all fungi except: (A) Cryptococcus, (B) Histoplasma, (C) Dermatophytes, (D) Paracoccidioides | Answer is C. Dermatophytes are a group of fungi that infect only superficial keratinised tissue without involving the living tissue. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition | |
Which cyclooxygenase plays a role in maintaining GI mucosal integrity?: (A) Cyclooxygenase 1, (B) Cyclooxygenase 2, (C) Cyclooxygenase 3, (D) Cyclooxygenase 4 | Answer is A. Cyclooxygenase 1- plays a role in maintaining GI mucosal integrity The beneficial effects of NSAIDs on tissue inflammation are due to inhibition of COX-2 S/E of NSAIDs: GI mucosal ulceration and renal dysfunction- due to inhibition of the COX-1 isoform. Highly COX-2-selective NSAIDs- provide the beneficial... | |
True about miliary tuberculosis -a) Occurs following primary reactivationb) Occurs following secondary reactivationc) Both primary and secondary reactivation d) Commonly affects liver, kidney and spleen: (A) ab, (B) bc, (C) acd, (D) abc | Answer is D. None | |
Bruxism is: NEET 13: (A) Walking during sleep, (B) Nocturnal enuresis, (C) Grinding of teeth during sleep, (D) Sleep apnea | Answer is C. Ans. Grinding of teeth during sleep | |
Absence of corkscrew glands is seen in: (A) Halban's disease, (B) Polycystic ovarian disease, (C) Irregular ripening, (D) Metropathia hemorrhagica | Answer is D. Ans. D. Metropathia hemorrhagicaEndometrial histology - secretory phasea. The characteristic feature of endometrium in Metropathia hemorrhagica is cystic glandular hyperplasia.b. Another important feature is absence of secretory endometrium with absence of corkscrew glands.c. Endometrium is usually thick a... | |
In HIV window period indicates:: (A) Time period between infection and onset of first symptoms, (B) Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV, (C) Time period between infection and minimum multiplication of the organism, (D) Time period between infection and maximum multiplication of the org... | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 579 and 8th/e, p. 578)* It takes 2 - 8 weeks to months for antibodies to appear after infection. This period, from infection to appearance of antibodies is called as window period.* During... | |
Microstructure of cobalt chromium alloy in cast
condition is: (A) fibrous, (B) homogeneous, (C) inhomogeneous, (D) amorphous | Answer is C. None | |
Rule of Hasse is used to determine: DNB 09; Punjab 10; NEET 13: (A) Age of fetus, (B) Height of an adult, (C) Race of a person, (D) Identification | Answer is A. Ans. Age of fetus | |
All are signs of inoperability of carcinoma of cervix except: (A) Carcinoma of cervix extending toParametrium, (B) Presence of extrapelvic metastasis, (C) Involvement of bladder, (D) Extensive infiltration of vagina | Answer is A. Contraindications of Pelvic Exenteration Extra pelvic spread of the disease with distant metastasis to lungs, liver and bones Women with comorbid conditions Urethral obstruction, Sciatic pain, Unilateral leg edema Ref: D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY; 6th edition; Pg no:349 | |
Early age of sex is risk factor for: (A) Carcinoma cervix, (B) Carcinoma vulva, (C) Carcinoma vagina, (D) Carcinoma ovary | Answer is A. Ans. A. Carcinoma cervixEarly Coitarche (early age of first intercourse) is a risk factor for carcinoma cervix. | |
Pressure volume loop is shifted to left side in: (A) Aortic regurgitation, (B) Mitral regurgitation, (C) Aortic stenosis, (D) Congestive cardiac failure | Answer is C. Ans. (c) Aortic stenosis(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.540)In aortic stenosis,PV loop is shifted to left sideVentricular systolic pressure increases to overcome the stenosisThere is increase in End systolic volumeStroke volume decreases | |
A 15-year-old girl in a rural community has swollen, painful lymph nodes in her right axilla. Physical examination reveals multiple scratches on her right arm with a papule associated with one of the scratch marks. She states that the scratches occurred about 5 days ago. What type of animal is the most likely source of... | Answer is A. This patient has the classic symptoms of cat scratch disease caused by the bacillus Baonella henselae. The disease is self-limited with the onset of symptoms occurring 3-10 days following an inoculating scratch. The organism can be isolated from kittens, typically less than 1 year of age, or from fleas. A ... | |
Spleen projects into the following space of peritoneal cavity:: (A) Greater sac, (B) Paracolic gutter, (C) Left subhepatic space, (D) Infracolic compament | Answer is A. Being developed in the dorsal mesogastrium, the spleen projects into the greater sac surrounded by peritoneum of the original left leaf of the dorsal mesogastrium. It lies at the left margin of the lesser sac below the diaphragm, and its diaphragmatic surface is moulded into a reciprocal convexity. Its hil... | |
All are true regarding Mumps, EXCEPT: (A) Incubation period 18-21 days, (B) Extensive tissue damage, (C) Multiplies in respiratory epithelium, (D) Spreads through Stenson's duct to Parotid gland | Answer is D. None | |
A 6 years old boy presented with Complex seizures per day in spite of adequate 4 drug antiepileptic regime. He had history of repeated high-grade fever in childhood. MRI for epilepsy protocol revealed normal brain scan. Which of the following will not be helpful for functional imaging of brain?: (A) MDCT, (B) SPECT ima... | Answer is A. Brain perfusion study using perfusion agents like Tc-99m HMPAO, i.e., Tc-9W6HMPAO brain SPECT is indicated in acute cerebral infarct imaging before evidence of CT/MRI pathology, when positive findings are seen with 1 hour of event. Brain metabolic rate and functional activity study by using 18F –FDG PET is... | |
Phocomelia is best described as:: (A) Defect in development of long bones, (B) Defect in development of flat bones, (C) Defect in intramembranous ossification, (D) Defect in cartilage replacement by bones | Answer is A. ANSWER: (A) Defect in development of long bonesREF: Goodman Gillman manual of pharmacology and therapeutics 2008 edition page 897, http:// en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PhocomeliaPhocomelia is lack of development of proximal part of limb. The distal part being present is called as seal limb. Phocomelia is an extre... | |
Large antigen - antibody reaction is required to cause -: (A) Serum sickness, (B) Ahus reaction, (C) Uicaria, (D) Anaphylactic-reaction | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ahus reaction | |
All are sphincters of lower genito urinary tract of female except: (A) Pubovaginalis, (B) External urethral sphincter, (C) Internal urethral sphincter, (D) Bulbospongiosus | Answer is C. In males and females, both internal and external urethral sphincters function to inhibit the release of urine. In males, the internal sphincher muscle of urethra functions to prevent reflux of seminal fluids into the male bladder during ejaculation. Females do have a more elaborate external sphincter muscl... | |
Bird beak appearance on barium swallow study is seen in -: (A) Achlasia cardia, (B) Carcinoma esophagus, (C) Hiatus hernia, (D) Diffuse esophageal spasm | Answer is A. ’’Bird beak appearance on barium study is seen in achalasia cardia.
Important esophageal signs | |
The symptoms of Hyperparathyroidism include -: (A) Constipation & muscle weakness, (B) Anorexia & weight loss, (C) Polydipsia & polyuria, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. None | |
Bradykinin Causes -: (A) Vasoconstriction, (B) Pain at the site of inflammation, (C) Bronchodilatation, (D) Decreased Vascular permeability | Answer is B. Bradykinin causes Increases vascular permeability Aeriolar dilation Bronchial smooth muscle contraction Pain at the site of inflammation ref robbins 9th ed page 52 | |
True statement regarding Atrioventricular block with atrial tachycardia is -: (A) Seen in WPW syndrome, (B) Is a complication of pacemaker, (C) Can occur in normal person occasionally., (D) Seen in Digitalis toxicity with K+ depletion | Answer is D. None | |
Most common site of myositis ossificans ?: (A) Knee, (B) Elbow, (C) Shoulder, (D) Wrist | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Elbow Myositis ossificans is the extraskeletal hetrotropic ossification that occurs in muscles and other soft tissues. Trauma is the most impoant cause of myositis ossificans. Usually there is history of severe single injury. It is more common in children. Most commonly involved joint is ... | |
Alcohol in substrate inducer for which gene?: (A) Pol III gene, (B) Myc Oncogene, (C) P53, (D) NF1 | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pol III gene Alcohol induces pol III gene (RNA polymerase III-dependent genes) transcription in vivo and in vitro. Brfl specifically regulates pol III gene transcription. Changes in pol III gene and Brfl expression tightly link to cell transformation and tumor formation. Alcohol induced d... | |
True about Barret's esophagus -a) Premalignantb) Predispose to sq. cell Cac) Can be diagnosed by seeing under endoscoped) Biopsy is necessary to diagnosee) Stricture may be present in high esophagus: (A) bce, (B) bde, (C) abcd, (D) acde | Answer is D. Diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus
- The diagnosis of Barrett's esophagus is suspected on endoscopy when there is difficulty in visualizing the squamo-columnar junction at its normal location and by the appearance of pink, more luxuriant columnar mucosa in the lower esophagus instead of gray-pink squamous mu... | |
Best approach to study a rare disease is:: (A) Case control study, (B) Cross-sectional study, (C) Cohort study, (D) Clinical trial | Answer is A. None | |
The following are consistent with pheochromocytoma except-: (A) Episodic diarrhea, (B) Episodic flushing of skin, (C) Episodes of hypeension, (D) Paroxysm, palpitation and sweating | Answer is A. there is constipation not diarrhea Ref- ( Harrison 17 pg 2270) | |
Characteristic Symptom in induced psychotic disorder is: (A) Insomnia, (B) Profound mood disturbance, (C) Accepting delusions of other person, (D) Suicidal Ideation | Answer is C. C i.e. Accepting delusions of other person | |
A patient has complaint of seeing coloured holoes in the evening and blurring of vision for last few days with normal 10P :: (A) Prodromal phase of acute angle closure glaucoma, (B) Acute angle closure glaucoma, (C) Chronic glaucoma, (D) Epidemic dropsy | Answer is A. A i.e.Prodromal phase of angle closure glaucoma | |
All of the following statements are FALSE regarding multiple sclerosis except ?: (A) Involves peripheral nervous system, (B) Condition is almost always malignant and is resolved spontaneously, (C) More common in males, (D) Autoimmune disease mainly targetting MBP | Answer is D. MS is a autoimmune disease mainly targetting MBP( Myelin basic protein) Multiple Sclerosis Hallmark - Demyelination occur secondary to damage myelin component (autoimmunity) More common in females than male. In all demyelinating disorder peripheral nervous system is spared. Condition is almost always benig... | |
Dyskeratosis is seen in:: (A) Pemphigus vulgaris, (B) Bullous Pemphigoid, (C) Darier's disease, (D) Hailey-Hailey disease | Answer is C. Darier's disease is characterized by defect in Ca+2 pump that is necessary for desmosome function, due to mutation in ATP2A2 gene.
Both HHD and Darier's disease are characterized by acantholysis and suprabasal blister, but dysteratosis (premature keratinization in epidermis) is seen classically with Darier... | |
Which of the following is NOT a branch of intracranial part of Internal carotid artery(103 - BDC- 3) 4th edition: (A) Anterior communicating, (B) Anterior cerebral, (C) Middle cerebral, (D) Posterior communicating | Answer is A. (Anterior communicating) (103- BDC-3, 4th edition, 750 Snell 8th)Branches of the Internal Carotid Artery* There are no branches in the neck** (Cervical), Many important branches, however are given off in the skull* Cerebral part branches(i) Opthalmic(ii) Anterior cerebral(iii) Posterior communicting(iv) Mi... | |
With help of the drug shown below, serotonin is synthesized from which of the following precursor amino acid?: (A) Tryptophan, (B) Glycine, (C) Threonine, (D) Methionine | Answer is A. Tryptophan. Serotonin is synthesized from the essential amino acid tryptophan. The rate-limiting step is the conversion of the amino acid to 5-hydroxytrptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase. This is then conveed to serotonin by the aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase which needs Pyridoxal Phosphate as a cofact... | |
Which of the following is silent thyroiditis?: (A) Acute thyroiditis, (B) Subacute thyroiditis, (C) Hashimoto thyroiditis, (D) Post-paum thyroiditis | Answer is D. Silent thyroiditis / Post-Paum thyroiditis It is an autoimmune mediated destruction of gland. It occurs after 3-6 months post-paum in about 5% of pregnancies. Patient first develops thyrotoxicosis which is followed by hypothyroidism and then resolution. It is characterised by: Normal ESR and presence of TP... | |
Apparant lenghthening is seen in TB Hip of: (A) Stage 1, (B) Stage 2, (C) Stage 3, (D) Stage 4 | Answer is A. None |
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