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Treatment of Helicobacter pylori are EXCEPT: (A) Clarithromycin, (B) Cisapride, (C) Bismuth subsalicylate, (D) Metronidazole | Answer is B. (Cisapride) (1124-CMDT- 08) (949-H17th)Helicobacter pylori* Drug of choice - Amoxicillin + Clarithromycin + Proton pump inhibitor (PPI)* Alternative drugs - Bismuth subsalicylate + Tetracycline + metronidazole + PPI | |
Thrombosis of the Superior branch of middle cerebral aery leads to:: (A) Motor aphasia, (B) Urinary retention, (C) Bitemporal hemianopia, (D) Grasp reflex | Answer is A. * In the Syln fissure, the MCA in most patients divides into superior and inferior divisions (M2 branches). * Branches of the inferior division supply the inferior parietal and temporal coex, Branches from the superior division supply the frontal and superior parietal coex. * Hence due to damage of the blo... | |
The most sensitive index for renal tubular function is :: (A) Specific gravity of urine, (B) Blood urea, (C) GFR, (D) Creatinine clearance | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' specific gravity of urineThe main function of renal tubules is concentration of urine and this can be measured by the specific gravity of urine. | |
Which of the following are situated away from the coding region:: (A) Promoter, (B) Enhancer, (C) Operator, (D) All | Answer is D. A i.e. Promoter; B i.e. Enhancer; C i.e. Operator | |
The ideal method of representation of frequency distribution with continuous variable:: (A) Line diagram, (B) Histogram, (C) Simple bar diagram, (D) Component bar diagram | Answer is B. Histogram | |
Characteristic feature of Rheumatic carditis is ?: (A) Pericarditis, (B) Endocarditis, (C) Myocarditis, (D) Pancarditis | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pancarditis During Acute Rheumatic fever, diffuse inflammation and Aschoff bodies may be found in any of the three layers of hea - pericardium, myocardium or endocardium - PANCARDITIS. | |
Which of the following is true about hypothermia during anesthesia?: (A) Beneficial to patients, (B) Prevented by giving warm fluids, (C) Body looses heat mainly by conduction, (D) Always occur irrespective of the type of anesthesia | Answer is B. Ans. b. Prevented by giving warm fluids Hypothermia during anesthesia can be prevented by giving warm fluids. Hypothermia During Anesthesia Mild hypothermia is extremely common during anesthesia and surgery. The physiological effects of hypothermia may have significant potential for detrimental effects on ... | |
All are true about innate immunity except -: (A) Non-specific, (B) First line of defence, (C) Not affected by genetic affected, (D) Includes complement | Answer is C. Innate immunity is the first line of defense against infection. it is non specific. It is the resistance to infections that an individual possess by viue of his or her genetic and constitutional make up. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no:78 <\p> | |
Sputum positive TB is?: (A) 1 out of 2 sputum sample +ve, (B) 2 out of 3 sputum sample +ve, (C) BACTEC +ve, (D) None | Answer is A. One positive specimen out of the two sputum specimens is enough to declare a patient as smear positive TB Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 193 | |
Which of the following is RNA with catalytic activity?: (A) Ribonuclease P, (B) Peptidyl transferase, (C) Sn RNA, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. RNA with catalytic activity is known as Ribozyme. All the 3 enzymes given as Options are Ribozymes. | |
Wernicke's encephalopathy occurs due to deficiency of: (A) Vitamin B1, (B) Vitamin B2, (C) Vitamin B6, (D) Vitamin B12 | Answer is A. (A) Vitamin B1 # Dry Beriberi involves both the peripheral and the central nervous systems.> Peripheral nerve involvement is typically asymmetric motor & sensory neuropathy with pain, paresthesias& loss of reflexes.> The legs are affected more than the arms. Central nervous system involvement results in We... | |
Deltoid ligament is attached to all except: (A) Medial malleolus, (B) Talus, (C) Calcaneum, (D) Lateral malleolus | Answer is D. DELTOID LIGAMENT:- Very strong Triangular shape Present on medial side of ankle. Ligament is crossed by the tendons of Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus. Prone to injuries in inversion.Superficial and deep pa. Both pas have common attachments above to the apex and margins of medial malleolus. ... | |
Acute osteomyelitis can best be distinguished from soft tissue infection by –: (A) Clinical examination, (B) X–Ray, (C) CT scan, (D) MRI | Answer is D. MRI is the best radiographic imaging technique for the identification of abscess and for differentiation between bone and soft tissue infection. | |
Kangaroo mother care .True is -: (A) Can be done by father also, (B) Indicated for LBW babies, (C) Effective thermal control, (D) All of the above | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above o Repeat from All India Dec-15 | |
Acute Osteomylitis in children most commonly affects-: (A) Metaphysis, (B) Diaphysis, (C) Epiphysis, (D) Physis | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Metaphysis Metaphysis is most commonly involved in acute osteomyelitis as-o Long loop vessels are present leading to easy bacterial seeding o Excessive bone turnover in this regiono It has thin cortexo It has relatively fewer phagocytic cells | |
Commonest cause of non - engagement at term, in primi is:: (A) CPD, (B) Hydramnios, (C) Brow presentation, (D) Breech | Answer is A. Engagement is said to occur when the greatest transverse diameter of the presenting part, has passed through the pelvic inlet. In all cephalic presentations, the greatest transverse diameter is always the biparietal.
Engagement occurs in multipara with commencement of labour in the late Ist stage after rup... | |
Which part of DNA is most susceptible to radiation?: (A) Nucleotides, (B) Nucleosides, (C) Histones, (D) Double helix | Answer is D. (D) Double helix > Relatively flexible areas of the DNA double helix are most susceptible to damage.> Radiation can damage the DNA "double helix" - a two-stranded, twisting molecule - in a variety of ways: 1) by knocking off one or more of the DNA "bases" known by the letters A, T, G, and C, which form the... | |
Drug used for Buerger's disease: (A) Propranolol, (B) Xanthinol nicotinate, (C) GTN, (D) All the above | Answer is B. A drug used in Buerger's disease is Xanthinol nicotinate. xanthine nicotinate tablet was used daily once earlier. Now, graded injection of xanthine nicotinate 3000 mg from day 1 to 9000 mg on day 5 is used to promote ulcer healing. It also helps to increase claudication distance as a temporary basis. Beta ... | |
Cutaneous infection due to exogenous exposure to TB bacilli in a person who is already sensitized by previous exposure to TB leads to:: (A) Lupus vulgaris, (B) TB chancre, (C) Erythema induratum, (D) TB veruccosa cutis | Answer is D. TB verrucosa cutis also called as anatomist's / pathologist's wart ,presents as wart / cauliflower like hypertrophic lesions typically over fingers and feet. | |
Spermatogenesis is mostly controlled by: (A) Inhibin, (B) FSH, (C) LH, (D) GnRH | Answer is C. Spermatogenesis is the process in which spermatozoa are produced from spermatogonial stem cells by way of mitosis and meiosis. The initial cells in this pathway are called spermatogonia, which yield primary spermatocytes by mitosis. The primary spermatocyte divides meiotically (Meiosis I) into two secondar... | |
Which lesion displays an ill-defined border?: (A) Periapical cyst, (B) Sclerosing osteitis, (C) Soft tissue capsule, (D) Multiple myeloma | Answer is B. Ill-Defined Borders
Blending Border: A blending border is a gradual, often wide zone of transition between the adjacent normal bone trabeculae and the abnormal appearing trabeculae of the lesion. The focus of this observation is on the trabeculae and not on the radiolucent marrow spaces.
Examples of condit... | |
In a 2 months old infant undergoing surgery for biliary atresia, you would avoid one of the following anaesthetic: (A) Thiopentone, (B) Halothane, (C) Propofol., (D) Sevoflurane | Answer is B. B i.e. Halothane Among all these options only halothane is hepatotoxic so it should be avoided Lets revise some impoant facts. All coagulation factors with exception of factor VIII (8) & von wille brand factor are produced by liverQ Vit K is necessary for synthesis of prothrombin (factor II) and factor VII... | |
Skin grafting done on wound following major skin taken from twin brother:: (A) Isograft, (B) Allograft, (C) Autograft, (D) Xenograft | Answer is A. Ans. (a) IsograftRef: Bailey 26th Edition Page 1408* Isograft: A graft between identical donor such as identical twin* Autograft: A graft from one site to another on the same patient* Allograft: Graft from individual of same species.* Xenograft: Graft from another species | |
Tuberculides are seen in: (A) Lupus vulgaris, (B) Scrofuloderma, (C) Lichen scrofulosorum, (D) Erythema nodosum | Answer is C. (Lichen scrofulosorum) (202-Behl lCfh, 1756-Dorland 28th, 219- Neena khanna)TUBERCULIDES - Group of disease where the evidence for a tuberculous etiology is not definite {May be hypersensitivity reaction) but which show a tuberculous granuloma on histology and respond to ATT)Conditions included in Tubercul... | |
N. gonorrhea causes -: (A) Urethritis, (B) Salpingitis, (C) Conjunctivitis, (D) All | Answer is D. Ans. is All-`a' i.e., Urethritis; 'b' i.e., Salpingitis; 'c' i.e., Cervicitis | |
A child has a vocabulary of4-6 words however the main mode of communication and social interaction continues to be non-verbal what is the most likely developmental age of the child -: (A) 12 months, (B) 15 months, (C) 18 months, (D) 24 months | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., 15 months o Vocabulary of 4-6 words in addition to jargon is achieved by 15 months of age. However | |
Not true about rt. kidney is -: (A) Rt. kidney is preferred over the left for transplantation, (B) It is lower than the left kidney, (C) Rt. renal vein is shorter than the left, (D) Rt. kidney is related to the duodenum | Answer is A. It is left kidney, not Rt. that is preferred for transplantation because it has a longer renal vein which simplifies the transplantation operation. | |
Selective plating medium for V. cholerae is:: (A) Carry-Blair medium, (B) TCBS agar, (C) VR medium, (D) MacConkey medium | Answer is B. AQns. is. 'b' i. e., TCBS agar | |
Acetazolamide can be used in all except: (A) Epilepsy, (B) Cute mountain sickness, (C) Cirrhosis, (D) Glaucoma | Answer is C. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor USES: 1. Glaucoma: as an adjuvant to other ocular hypotensives 2. Epilepsy: increases co2 levels- inhibits seizures to some extent- used only for catamenial epilepsy- epilepsy during menses 3. Acute mountain sickness - by increasing co2 and stimulating the br... | |
Renal function failure is best evaluated by?: (A) DTPA, (B) DMSA, (C) Iodohippurate, (D) All | Answer is D. Ans. All options are correct i.e., 'a, b, c | |
Antidote for oxalic acid poisoning:: (A) BAL, (B) Animal charcoal, (C) Calcium gluconate, (D) Magnesium | Answer is C. C i.e. Calcium gluconate | |
A patient met with Road traffic Accident with subsequent injury to the left knee. Dial test was positive. What could be the cause:: (A) Medial Collateral Ligament Injury, (B) Medial Meniscal Injury, (C) Lateral Meniscus Tear, (D) Posterolateral Corner Injury | Answer is D. D i.e. Posterolateral Corner Injury | |
In erythema migrans, which papilla of tongue are absent:: (A) Fungiform, (B) Foliate, (C) Filliform, (D) Circumvallate | Answer is C. None | |
Lymphatic drainage of ovary?: (A) Deep inguinal, (B) Superficial inguinal, (C) Obturator, (D) Paraaoic | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e., Para-aoicLymphatics of the ovary drain to para-aoic nodes alongside the origin of the ovarian aery (L2). | |
Hernia occurring in a potential space posterior to gastrojejunostomy is called: (A) Bochdalek's Hernia, (B) Peterson's Hernia, (C) Littre's Hernia, (D) Richter's Hernia | Answer is B. Answer- B. Peterson's HerniaPetersen hernias are a type ofinternal hernia which occurs in the potential space posterior to a gastrojejunostomy.This hernia is caused by the herniation of intestinal loops through the defect between the small bowel limbs, the transverse mesocolon and the retroperitoneum, afte... | |
Ahritis involving DIP, PIP, 1st carpometacarpal with sparing of MCP and wrist joints is typical of:: (A) Osteoahritis, (B) Rheumatoid ahritis, (C) Ankylosing spondylitis, (D) Psoriatic ahritis | Answer is A. Osteoahritis characteristically involves distal interphalangeal joint (Heberden's node), proximal interphalangeal joint (Bouchard's node), 1st carpometacarpal joint (base of thumb) of hand with sparing of metacarpophalangeal joint and wrist joint. Fig. Joints involved in osteoahritis | |
False about malignancy in ulcerative colitis:: (A) Mean age is 30 years, (B) Anaplastic cancers are common, (C) Poor prognosis as compared to sporadic, (D) Evenly distributed | Answer is C. Colitis associated colon cancer Arise from flat dysplasia or dysplasia associated lesion or mass Multiple synchronous colon cancer in 12% Mean age: 30 years Distributed uniformly throughout the colon Mucinous or anaplastic cancers are more common Poor prognosis in sporadic cancer is seen . | |
In oogenesis, which of the following events occurs immediately following the completions of meiosis II?: (A) Degeneration of the zona pellucida, (B) Sperm penetration of the corona radiata, (C) Formation of a female pronucleus, (D) Appearance of the blastocyst | Answer is C. The secondary oocyte is arrested in metaphase of meiosis II, and it will remain in this meiotic stage until feilization occurs. Following feilization, the secondary oocyte completes meiosis II, forming a mature ovum and a polar body. The nucleus of the mature ovum is called the female pronucleus, which fus... | |
Venous return to hea during quiet standing is facilitated by all of the following factors, except: (A) Calfmuscle contraction during standing, (B) Valves in perforators, (C) Sleeve of deep fascia, (D) Gravitational ihcrease in aerial pressure | Answer is D. During quiet standing gravity act against venous return to the heaGravity induces peripheral pooling of blood in leg instead.Calf muscle contraction pushes the blood towards heavalves prevents backflowRef: Medical Physiology Indu Khurana 2015 edition pAge No:220 | |
CYP-450 inducers are:: (A) Cimetidine, (B) Ketoconazole, (C) erythromycin, (D) DDT | Answer is D. eg for enzyme inducers of cyp3a4 - phenobarbitone, rifampin, glucocoicoids, Phenobarbitone also induces CYP2Bl and rifampin also induces CYP2D6.Isoniazid and chronic alcohol consumption induce CYP2El.Other impoant enzyme inducers are- chloral hydrate, phenylbutazone, griseofulvin, DDT. Erythromycin, cimeti... | |
Flagella not true: (A) Locomotion, (B) Attachment, (C) Protein in nature, (D) Antigenic | Answer is B. Flagella
They are long unbranched sinuous filaments which are organs of locomotion . Each flagellum consist of 3 distinct part the filament the hook and the basal body.the filament is external to the cell and connected to the hook at the cell surface
Structure: The Hook-Basal bodyportion is embedded in th... | |
How is endotoxin shock initiated?: (A) Endothelial injury, (B) Peripheral vasodilation, (C) Increased vascular permeability, (D) Cytokines action | Answer is A. . Endothelial injury | |
Which among the following is true about Super antigens?: (A) They bind to the cleft of the MHC, (B) Needs to processed before presentation, (C) They are presented by APC' S to T cells, (D) Directly attached to lateral aspect of TCR B chain | Answer is D. A group of antigens have been termed superantigens because they stimulate a much larger number of T cells than would be predicted based on the specificity of combining site diversity. This causes a massive cytokine release. The action of superantigens is based on their ability to bind directly to MHC prote... | |
A 12 year old boy presents with hemetemesis, malena and mild splenomegaly. There is no obvious jaundice or ascitis. The most likely diagnosis is:: (A) EHPVO, (B) NCPF, (C) Cirrhosis, (D) Malaria with DIC | Answer is A. Answer is A (EHPVO): Presence of hemetemesis, malena and splenomegaly suggests a diagnosis of poal hypeension. The most common cause of poal hypeension in a male child (12 year old boy) is Extra Hepatic Poal Vein Obstruction (EHPVO). EHPVO is therefore the single best answer by exclusion Non Cirrhotic Poal... | |
In decoicate animal which reflex is lost?: (A) Hopping and placing reflex, (B) Tonic neck reflex, (C) Tonic labyrinthine reflex, (D) Stretch reflex | Answer is A. Removal of the cerebral coex (Decoication) produces decoicate rigidity which is characterized by flexion of the upper extremities at the elbow and extensor hyperactivity in the lower extremities. The flexion can be explained by Rubio spinal excitation of flexor muscles in the upper extremities; the hyperex... | |
Which of the following is universal donor blood group -: (A) A, (B) B, (C) AB, (D) O | Answer is D. Individuals with type O Rh D negative blood are often called universal donors, as they do not contain antigen A and B on the surface of their RBC and those with type AB Rh D positive blood are called universal recipients ref:harsh mohan text book pathology | |
Three policemen, with difficulty, drag an agitated and very combative young man into an emergency room. Once there, he is restrained because he reacts with rage and tries to hit anyone who approaches him. When it is finally safe to approach him, the resident on call notices that the patient has very prominent veical ny... | Answer is C. Hallucinogens (Psychotomimetics, psychedelics, psychotogens) are drugs which alter mood, behaviour, thought and perception in a manner similar to that seen in psychosis. These are as:1. Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) 2. Psilocybin3. Harmine 4. Bufotenin5. Mescaline (Phenyl alkyl amines) 6. Phencyclidine7... | |
A 25-year soldier is trapped in an avalanche in Siachen glacier. He is airlifted to the base hospital. On admission the pulse is thready and BP is unrecordable. ECG strip is shown below. All of the findings are seen except:: (A) Bradycardia, (B) Osborn wave, (C) ST segment elevation, (D) Atrial bigeminy | Answer is D. V5 lead recording shows: HR of 50 bpm with absence of P wave Presence of Osborn wave at the J point. Concomitant ST Elevation is noted. The patient is suffering from hypothermia which explains the ECG change. Atrial bigeminy should have discernible P wave. | |
Incidence rate is measured by -: (A) Case control study, (B) Coho study, (C) Cross sectional study, (D) Cross over study | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Coho study Coho study analyses the following data :?1) Incidence rate among exposed and nonexposed2) Estimation of riska) Relative risk (risk ratio)b) Attributable risk (risk difference)c) Population attributable riskIncidence rateo In coho study, incidence rate can be determined directly... | |
A 45 yr old female complains of progressive lower limb weakness, spasticity, urinary hesitancy. MRI shows intradural enhancing mass lesion. MOST likely diagnosis is:: (A) Dermoid cyst, (B) Intradural lipoma, (C) Neuroepithelial cyst, (D) Meningioma | Answer is D. Meningioma are now the most common primary brain tumor. On an MRI it appears as a paially calcified densely enhancing extra axial tumor arising from the dura. Occasionally it has a dural tail, consisting of thickened, enhanced dura extending like a tail from the mass. Meningiomas are typically located over... | |
A man has just received his fourth DUI citation. The judge orders an alcohol dependency program complete with a medication that makes him have nausea and vomiting if he drinks alcohol while taking the medication. The drug-induced illness is caused by the buildup of which one of the following?: (A) Ethanol, (B) Acetalde... | Answer is B. The court-ordered medication is disulfiram. Disulfiram inhibits ALDH, which greatly reduces the amount of acetaldehyde that is converted to acetate. This causes an accumulation of acetaldehyde, which is the substance responsible for the symptoms of a "hangover," including nausea and vomiting. Alcohol dehyd... | |
Factors which decrease the cement space for a complete crown would be: (A) Thermal and polymerization shrinkage of the impression material, (B) Use of a solid cast with individual stone dies, (C) Use of an internal layer of soft wax, (D) Use of resin or electroplated dies | Answer is D. None | |
Middle part of jugular foramen transmits all of the following cranial nerves except:: (A) Glossopharyngeal nerve, (B) Vagus nerve, (C) Hypoglossal nerve, (D) Accessory nerve. | Answer is C. None | |
Early childhood caries or baby bottle tooth decay is usually seen in the age group of _____ month old child?: (A) 18-36, (B) 24-36, (C) 18-Jun, (D) 18-Dec | Answer is A. Early childhood caries or baby bottle tooth decay is usually seen in the 18 to 36 month old child, although it can be seen even in younger patients. | |
Body temperature in Fahrenheit is an example of which of the following scales?: (A) Nominal, (B) Ordinal, (C) Interval, (D) Ratio | Answer is C. Metric scale is fuher divided into interval and ratio scales. In an interval scale, there is no absolute zero, such as in body temperature. A temperature of 105? F cannot be interpreted as 5% higher than 100? F. Ref: Medical biostatistics, 1st edition pg: 99 | |
Which one of the following is not included in the treatment of malignant melanoma?: (A) Radiation, (B) Surgical excision, (C) Chemotherapy, (D) Immunotherapy | Answer is A. Ans. is 'a' i.e., Radiation Radiation is the best answer. Schwaz 9/e writes- "although initially thought to be ineffective in the treatment of melanoma, the use of radiation therapy, regional and systemic chemotherapy, and immunotherapy are all under investigation." | |
Regarding Xenon anesthesia all are true accept: (A) Slow induction and recovery, (B) Non explosive, (C) Minimal cardiovascular side-effects, (D) Low blood solubility | Answer is A. Xenon Advantages of Xenon Anesthesia 1. Ine (probably nontoxic to liver and kidney with no metabolism) 2. Minimal effect on CVS function 3. Lowest blood solubility (Lowest blood gas paition coefficient) therefore rapid induction and recovery. 4. Does not trigger malignant hypehermia 5. Environmental friend... | |
The only neuron in retina showing action potentials are: (A) Rods and cones, (B) Bipolar cells, (C) Amacrine cells, (D) Ganglion cells | Answer is D. Ganglion cells are a type of neuron located near the inner surface of the retina and are the final output neurons of the veebrate retina. Ganglion cells collect visual information in their dendrites from bipolar cells and amacrine cells and transmit it to the brain throughout their axon to the brain. Ref: ... | |
Cavernous hemangioma is characterized by:: (A) Reticulated popcorn like configuration, (B) Well defined nidus, (C) Well defined aerial feeder, (D) Phlebectasis | Answer is A. A i.e. Reticulated popcorn like configuration T2 gradient echo MRI is the investigation of choice for identification of cavernous angioma (cavernous hemangioma or cavernoma), which typically demonstrates a mass characterized as popcorn in appearance (mulberry shaped lesion)Q. | |
Munsell scale and lab system measure:: (A) Quantity of color, (B) Quality of color, (C) Both, (D) None | Answer is A. A popular system for the visual determination of color is the Munsell color system, the parameters of which are represented in three dimensions, hue, value, and chroma. These three parameters constitute the three dimensions of “color space”. | |
Which flexor muscle is attached to hook of hamate?: (A) Flexor pollicis brevis, (B) Flexor pollicis longus, (C) Flexor digiti minimi, (D) Flexor carpi ulnaris | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Flexor digiti minimi | |
Nikolsky sign is positive in all except –: (A) Pemphigus, (B) Bullous pemphigoid, (C) Toxic epidermal Necrolysis, (D) Staphylococcal skin scaled syndrome | Answer is B. None | |
The enzyme not involved in substrate level phosphorylation is:: (A) Succinyl thiokinase, (B) Phosphofructokinase, (C) Pyruvate kinase, (D) Phosphoglycerate kinase | Answer is B. (Refer: Harper’s Illustrated Biochemistry, 27th edition, pg no: 172 – 185)
Oxidative phosphorylation
The energy released as a result of biological oxidation is trapped in the form of higher energy phosphate bonds in ATP by phosphorylation of ADP. | |
DNA fingerprinting can be done with all, except: UP 07; Delhi 08; NEET 13: (A) RBC, (B) WBC, (C) Saliva, (D) Spermatozoon | Answer is A. Ans. RBC | |
Spleen is derived from -: (A) Ventral mesogastrium, (B) Dorsal mesogastrium, (C) Septum transversorium, (D) Allantois | Answer is B. Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dorsal mesogastrium o Spleen develops as a collection of mesenchymal cells in the dorsal mesogastrium.o Initially the splenic tissue is arranges as a number of lobules which later join together to form a single spleen. The notches in the superior border of adult spleen are representatives... | |
The following vaccine, if contaminated can cause Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS) -: (A) Measles vaccine, (B) DPT, (C) Hepatitis B, (D) Typhoral | Answer is A. Toxic shock syndrome (TSS) occurs while measles vaccine is contaminated or the same vial is used for more than one session on the same day or next day.
Now the question arises, why only measles vaccine causes TSS more commonly and not the other commonly used vaccines? : -
It is due to the absence of preser... | |
Name the technique which usually involves teaching the patient how to induce a state of deep muscle relaxation and describing imaginary scenes relevant to his fear:: (A) Desensitization, (B) Contingency management, (C) Hypnosis, (D) None | Answer is A. Desensitization: The technique usually involves teaching the patient how to induce a state of deep muscle relaxation and describing imaginary scenes relevant to his fear.
Indications of desensitization are:
Child's initial visit.
At subsequent appointments when introducing dental procedures which are new ... | |
Best way to confirm that no stones are left back in the CBD?: (A) Choledochoscope, (B) Palpation, (C) Cholangiogram, (D) ERCP | Answer is C. Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cholangiogram o "An operative cholangiogram at time of cholecystectomy will also demonstrate presence or absance of bile duct stones".o "If a CBD exploration was performed and a T-tube left in place, a T-tube cholangiogram is done before its removal". | |
Fallopian tube dysmotility is seen in ?: (A) Noonan syndrome, (B) Turner syndrome, (C) Kaagener syndrome, (D) Marfan syndrome | Answer is C. Kaagener syndrome Repeat from Nov 09 Q no. l58 | |
Definite diagnosis of pregnancy include all, except: Kerala 09; 11: (A) Fetal hea sound, (B) Palpation of fetal pas, (C) Fetal skeleton on X-ray, (D) hCG in blood | Answer is D. Ans. hCG in blood | |
Which of the following is a precancerous condition of cancer stomach?: (A) Peptic ulcer, (B) Chronic gastric atrophy, (C) Achalasia cardia, (D) Curling's Ulcer | Answer is B. Premalignant Conditions of gastric carcinoma Atrophic gastritis: Both type A (autoimmune pernicious anemia) and type B (associated with H. Pylori) atrophic gastritis are associated with increase risk for gastric cancer. Gastric Polyp: Gastric polyp are of 5 type - inflammatory, hamaomatous, heterotopic, hy... | |
Following are the normal features in temporomandibular joint except: (A) Joint sound, (B) Pain while opening the mouth, (C) Deviation of the mouth in opposite while opening the mouth in eccentric movements, (D) None of the above | Answer is B. None | |
Confirmatory test for syphilis -: (A) VDRL, (B) FTA-ABS, (C) RPQ, (D) None | Answer is B. None | |
Feature of slow filter (w.r.t. fast filter) is/are:: (A) Occupies less space, (B) Highly skilled operation, (C) Poor bacterial quality, (D) Takes more time for purification | Answer is D. Ans. is 'd' i.e. Takes more time for purification o Slow sand filter occupies large area (more space). o Slow and filter requires less skilled operation. o Slow sand filter removes more bacteria and has better bacterial control (99.9-99.99%) o Slow sand filter requires longer duration for purification. o S... | |
Whitnall's Tubercle is present in: (A) Lateral wall of Orbit, (B) Medial wall of Orbit, (C) Roof of Orbit, (D) Floor of Orbit | Answer is A. Whitnall&;s or zygomatic tubercle is a palpable elevation on the zygomatic bone just within the orbital margin. It provides attachment to the lateral check ligament of the eyeball.Reference: Chaurasia Head and Neck; 6th edition; Page no: 27 | |
Extended spatulation of ZnPO4: (A) Prolongs the setting time, (B) Decreases the setting time, (C) Does not alter the setting time, (D) All of the above | Answer is A. None | |
Privation of any member of joint is a .... hu:: (A) Simple, (B) Grevious, (C) Serious, (D) Dangerous | Answer is B. B i.e. Grevious | |
All of the following are associated with supracondylar fracture of humerus, except-: (A) It is uncommon after 15 yrs of age, (B) Extension type fracture is more common than the flexion type, (C) Cubitus varus deformity commonly results following malunion, (D) Ulnar nerve is most commonly involved | Answer is D. Median nerve, especially anterior interosseous branch, is injured most commonly. | |
Golgi tendon apparatus conveys message to cns, depends upon: (A) Tension in muscle, (B) Length of muscle, (C) Rapaidity of contraction, (D) Blood supply | Answer is A. The Golgi tendon organ (GTO) (also called Golgi organ, tendon organ, neurotendinous organ or neurotendinous spindle) is a proprioceptive sensory receptor organ that senses changes in muscle tension. It lies at the origins and inseion of skeletal muscle fibers into the tendons of skeletal muscle. It provide... | |
FRC is volume of air in lung after ?: (A) Maximal inspiration, (B) Maximal expiration, (C) Normal inspiration, (D) Normal expiration | Answer is D. Ans. is d i.e., Normal expiration | |
An infant presented with erythematous lesions on cheek and extensor aspect of upper and lower limbs. There is a family history of Asthma. The probable diagnosis is:: (A) Air borne contact dermatitis, (B) Atopic dermatitis, (C) Seborraehic dermatitis, (D) Infectious eczematoid dermatitis | Answer is B. History of atophy (asthma) in family, with erythematous lesions on face (cheek) and extensor surface of limbs is suggestive of atopic dermatitis. Ref: Pediatric Allergy, Asthma And Immunology By Arnaldo Cantani, 2008, Page 511; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 16th Edition, Page 268; Roxburgh's C... | |
Microbiological waste should be segregated in which color bag:: (A) Yellow, (B) Red, (C) Blue, (D) Black | Answer is A. Ans. A. YellowColor coded bagItemYellow bagInfectious non-plastic (Anatomical & microbiological)Red bagInfectious plastic wasteWhite/Translucent sharp container (Puncture proof box)Metal sharpBlue container (Puncture proof box)Broken glass items and metal implants | |
Which of the following is a dynamic cause of intestinal obstruction: March 2011: (A) Gall stone, (B) Paralytic ileus, (C) Mesenteric vascular obstruction, (D) Ogilvie syndrome | Answer is A. Ans. A: Gall stoneGall stone causes dynamic ileus (intraluminal cause)Adynamic cause of intestinal obstruction includes 1) paralytic ileus, 2) mesenteric vascular occlusion and 3) pseudo-obstructOgilvie's syndrome is acute colonic pseudo-obstruction | |
Which of the following is not a rapidly growing atypical mycobacteria causing lung infections -: (A) M. chelonae, (B) M.fortuitum, (C) M.abscessus, (D) M.kansasii | Answer is D. None | |
All of the following anticancer drugs are cell cycle non-specific except?: (A) Cisplatin, (B) Vincristine, (C) Mitomycin-C, (D) Cyclophosphamide | Answer is B. CELL CYCLE NON-SPECIFIC DRUGS 1. Alkylating agents Melphalan Cyclophosphamide Nitrosourea 2. Platinum compounds Cisplatin Carboplatin Oxaliplatin 3. Anthracyclines Doxorubicin Daunorubicin Epirubicin Mitoxantrone 4. Antitumor antibiotics Dactinomycin Mitomycin-C | |
Pulmonary plethora is seen in ?: (A) TAPVC, (B) TOF, (C) EBSTIEN ANAMOLY, (D) TRICUSPID ATRESIA | Answer is A. PLETHORA= INCREASED PULMONARY MARKINGS SEEN IN TAPVC, ASD,VSD, TGA REF : BRAUWALD CARDIOLOGY | |
A 40-year-old patient presents with an inability to keep the arm in contact with the chest. When the arm is forcibly brought into contact with the chest there is winging of the scapula. There is a history of repeated intramuscular injections into the deltoid muscle. What is the diagnosis?: (A) Serratus anterior muscle ... | Answer is C. Ans. C. Deltoid contractureThe above history and examination suggest a diagnosis of deltoid contracture.* Deltoid contracture can be congenital or acquired. Anatomical aberrations, repeated intramuscular injections into the deltoid, chronic infection due to the injected drugs and pressure ischemia are all ... | |
Most common site of metastasis for Breast Carcinoma is: (A) Thoracic veebra, (B) Pelvis, (C) Femur, (D) Lumbar veebra | Answer is D. 1) Bone(most common) (70%) - in order -lumbar veebrae, femur, ends of long bone, thoracic veebrae, ribs, skull 2)Liver 3)Lung- causes malignant pleural effusion and cannon ball secondaries. 4)Brain- causes increased ICP 5)Adrenals and ovaries Reference: SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no = 530. | |
Life-threatening intravascular hemolysis, due to a toxin with lecithinase activity, occurs with sepsis due to:: (A) Pseudomonas, (B) Babesia, (C) Parvovirus B 19, (D) Clostridium perfringens | Answer is D. Life-threatening intravascular hemolysis, due to a toxin with lecithinase activity, occurs with Clostridium perfringens sepsis. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 881 | |
Causes of atonic PPH are following except :: (A) Fibroid, (B) Multiple pregnancy, (C) Multiparity, (D) Preeclamptic | Answer is D. Preeclamptic | |
Inspiratory stridor is found in what kind of lesions: (A) Supraglottic, (B) Subglottic, (C) Tracheal, (D) Bronchus | Answer is A. Airway obstruction above the glottis - an inspiratory stridor Obstruction in the lower trachea & bronchi - indicative of expiratory stridor Lesion in glottic or subglottic lesion. - A biphasic stridor So answer is option a - supraglottis Ref : PL Dhingra 7th edition ; pg num:- 333,334 | |
Which class of antifungals inhibits the synthesis of the fungal cell wall: (A) Polyene macrolides, (B) Echinocandins, (C) Azoles, (D) Allylamines | Answer is B. ECHINOCANDINS Caspofungin It is the first and the prototype member of the class, active mainly against Candida and Aspergillus mechanism of action:- It inhibits the synthesis of b-1, 3-glucan, which is a unique component of the fungal cell wall. Cross linking between chitin (a fibrillar polysaccharide) and... | |
All are tubal patency tests EXCEPT: (A) Tubal CO2 insufflation test, (B) Laproscopy, (C) Fern test, (D) HSG | Answer is C. Ans. c (Fern test). (Ref. Shaws, Textbook of Gynaecology, 12th/pg.l62)Tests for tubal patencyTests for ovulation1CO2 insufflation/Rubin's test (obsolete)BBT2HSGEndometrial biopsy3Laproscopic chromopertubationFern test4Sonosalpingography and standard USGFolliculometry (USG) -noninvasive, accurate, safe5Hyst... | |
Lacerated wound looks like incised wound over:: (A) Scalp, (B) Abdomen, (C) Thigh, (D) Forearm | Answer is A. A i.e. Scalp | |
All of the following are features of hallucinations, except:: (A) It is independent of the will of the observer, (B) Sensory organs are not involved, (C) It is as vivid as that in a true sense perception, (D) It occurs in the absence of a perceptual stimulus | Answer is B. B i.e. Sensory organs are not involved | |
Which of the following drugs should NOT be used in the setting of severe hypeension in elderly on empirical basis?: (A) Enalapril, (B) Amlodipine, (C) Chlohiazide, (D) Prazosin | Answer is D. For the elderly, alpha blockers like prazosin can cause severe hypotension and 1st dose hypotension DOC for elderly with severe HTN - CCBs DOC for HTN with diabetes- ARBs or ACE inhibitors Ref:Tripati 8th edition | |
The following structures are felt on per rectal examination except: (A) Bulb of penis, (B) Ureter, (C) Anorectal ring, (D) Urogenital diaphragm | Answer is B. During this procedure, areas which can be palpated are: the bulb of the penis, the urogeital diaphram-, the annorectal ring, and other nearby anatomical landmarks. However, structures like the ureter(the two tubes that run from each kidney to the urinary bladder), and the urethra (which, in a male, is divi... | |
The commonest valvular lesion in SLE-related cardiac disease is-: (A) Tricuspid regurgitation, (B) Mitral regurgitation, (C) Mitral stenosis, (D) Aoic regurgitation | Answer is B. Valvular involvement is the most encountered form of hea disease in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Immunoglobulin and complement deposition in the valvular structure will subsequently lead to Libman-Sacks vegetations, valve thickening, and valve regurgitation. Valvular stenosis is rarely seen.resultin... | |
Most common epithelial tumor of lacrimal gland:-: (A) Adenoid cystic carcinoma, (B) Pleomorphic adenoma, (C) Squamous cell carcinoma, (D) Non hodgkins lymphoma | Answer is B. Pleomorphic adenoma are most common epithelial tumors of lacrimal gland Lacrimal tumors High Yield Facts Pleomorphic adenoma are most common epithelial tumors of lacrimal gland Adenoid cystic adenocarcinoma are most common malignant tumors of lacrimal gland. They are usually painful Present with superotemp... | |
Digoxin acts by inhibiting:: (A) Na K ATPase, (B) Ca channel, (C) K channel, (D) Adenyl cyclase | Answer is A. Ans: a (Na K ATPase) Ref: Tripathi, 6th ed, p. 499All cardiac glycosides are potent and highly selective inhibitors of the active transport of Na+ and K+ across cell membranes by their reversible binding to the alpha subunit of the. Na+, K+- ATPase the elimination 11 /2 for digoxin is 36 hours in patients ... |
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